zona.fmed.uniba.sk · Web viewIndividuals with pernicious anemia produce antibodies to intrinsic factor. ... Supply the missing word or words in each of the following statements:

1

15

Test questions from immunology, PART 2

===========================================

1. Indicate to which branch(es) of the immune system the following statements apply, using H for the humoral branch and CM for the cell-mediated branch. Some statements may apply to both branches.

a.___Involves class I MHC molecules

b.___Responds to viral infection

c.___Involves T helper cells

d.___Involves processed antigen

e.___Most likely responds following an organ transplant

f.___Involves T cytotoxic cells

g.___Involves B cells

h.___Involves CD8+ T cells

i.___Responds to extracellular bacterial infection

j.___Involves secreted antibody

k.___Kills virus-infected self-cells

2. Name three features of a secondary immune response that distinguish it from a primary immune response.

3. Fill in the blanks in the following statements with the most appropriate terms:

a. ______________,_____________, and ________________ all function as antigen-presenting cells.

b. Antigen-presenting cells deliver a _________________signal to ____________ cells.

c. Only antigen-presenting cells express class ___________ MHC molecules, whereas nearly all cells express class _______________ MHC molecules.

d. ______________ antigens are internalized by antigen-presenting cells, degraded in the ____________, and displayed with class ________ MHC molecules on the cell surface.

e. ______________ antigens are produced in altered self cells, degraded in the _________, and displayed with class ________ MHC molecules on the surface.

4. Explain why each of the following statements is false.

a. All TH cells express CD4 and recognize only antigen associated with class II MHC molecules.

b. The pluripotent stem cell is one of the most abundant cell types in the bone marrow.

c. Activation of macrophages increases their expression of class I MHC molecules, making the cells present antigen more effectively.

d. Lymphoid follicles are present only in the spleen and lymph nodes.

e. Infection has no influence on the rate of hematopoiesis.

f. Follicular dendritic cells can process and present antigen to T lymphocytes.

g. All lymphoid cells have antigen-binding receptors on their membrane.

h. All vertebrates generate B lymphocytes in the bone marrow.

5. List the primary lymphoid organs and summarize their functions in the immune response.

6. List the secondary lymphoid organs and summarize their functions in the immune response.

7. What are the two primary characteristics that distinguish hematopoetic stem cells and progenitor cells?

8. At what age does the thymus reach its maximal size?

a. During the first year of life b, Between 40 and 50 years of age

c, Teenage years (puberty) d, After 70 years of age

9. Indicate whether each of the following statements about the spleen is true or false. If you think a statement is false, explain why.

a. It filters antigens out of blood.

b. The marginal zone is rich in T cells, and the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) is rich in B cells.

c. It contains germinal centers.

d. It functions to remove old and defective red blood cells.

e. Lymphatic vessels draining the tissue spaces enter the spleen.

10. Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false. If you think a statement is false, explain why.

a. Most antigens induce a response from more than one clone.

b. A large protein antigen generally can combine with many different antibody molecules.

c. A hapten can stimulate antibody formation but cannot combine with antibody molecules.

d. MHC genes play a major role in determining the degree of immune responsiveness to an antigen.

e. T-cell epitopes tend to be accessible amino acid residues that can combine with the T-cell receptor.

f. Many B-cell epitopes are nonsequential amino acids brought together by the tertiary conformation of a protein antigen.

g. Both TH and TC cells recognize antigen that has been processed and presented with an MHC molecule.

h. Each MHC molecule binds a unique peptide.

i. All antigens also are immunogens.

11. Indicate which of the following statements regarding haptens and carriers are true

a. Haptens are large protein molecules such as BSA.

b. When a hapten-carrier complex containing multiple hapten molecules injected into an animal, most of the induced antibodies are specific for the hapten.

c. Carriers are needed only if one wants to elicit a cell-mediated response.

d. It is necessary to immunize with a hapten-carrier complex in order to obtain antibodies directed against the hapten.

e. Carriers include small molecules such as dinitrophenol and penicillenic acid (derived from penicillin).

12. For each of the following statements, indicate whether it is true only of B-cell epitopes (B), only of T-cell epitopes (T), or both types of epitopes (BT) within a large antigen.

a. They always consist of a linear sequence of amino acid residues.

b. They generally are located in the interior of a protein antigen.

c. They generally are located on the surface of a protein antigen.

d. They lose their immunogenicity when a protein antigen is denatured by heat.

e. Immunodominant epitopes are determined in part by the MHC molecules expressed by an individual.

f. They are present only in protein antigens.

g. Multiple different epitopes may occur in the same antigen.

h. Their immunogenicity may depend on the three-dimensional structure of the antigen.

i. The immune response to them may be enhanced by co-administration of Freunds complete adjuvans.


a. A rabbit immunized with human IgG3 will produce antibody that reacts with all subclasses of IgG in humans.

b. An HGPRT- myeloma cell requires hypoxanthine for growth.

c. All immunoglobulin molecules on the surface of a given B cell have the same idiotype.

d. All immunoglobulin molecules on the surface of a given B cell have the same isotype.

e. All myeloma protein molecules derived from a single myeloma clone have the same idiotype and allotype.

f. The hypervariable regions have significant contact with the epitope.

g. IgG functions more effectively than IgM in bacterial agglutination.

h. All isotypes are normally found in each individual of a species.

i. The heavy-chain variable region (VH) is twice as long as the light-chain variable region (VL).

14. Although the five immunoglobulin isotypes share many common structural features, the differences in their structures affect their biological activities.

a. Draw a schematic diagram of a typical IgG molecule and label each of the following parts: H chains, L chains, interchain disulfide bonds, intrachain disulfide bonds, hinge, Fab, Fc, and all domains. Indicate which domains are involved in antigen binding.

b. How would you have to modify the diagram of IgG to depict an IgA molecule isolated from saliva?

c. How would you have to modify the diagram of IgG to depict serum IgM?

15. Fill out the accompanying table relating to the properties of IgG molecules and their various parts. Insert a (+) if the molecule or part exhibits the property; a (-) if it does not; and a (+/-) if it does so only weakly.

Poperty

Whole

IgG

H chain

L chain

Fab

F(ab)2

Fc

Binds antigen

Bivalent antigen binding

Binds to Fc receptors

Fixed complement in presence of antigen

Has V domains

Has C domains

16. The characteristic structure of immunoglobulin domains, termed the immunoglobulin fold, also occurs in the numerous membrane proteins belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily.

a. Describe the typical features that define the immunoglobulin-fold domain structure.

b. List three membrane proteins that belong to the immunoglobulin superfamily.

17. Where hypervariable regions are located in an an antibody molecule and what are their functions?

18. For each immunoglobulin isotype (a-e) select the description(s) listed below (1-12) that are true about that isotype. Each description may be used once, more than once, or not at all; more than one description may apply to some isotypes.

Isotypes

a.________IgAb.________IgDc._________IgEd._______IgG e.________IgM

Descriptions

1 Secreted form is a pentamer of the basic H2L2 unit

2 Binds to Fc receptors on mast cells

3 Multimeric forms have a J chain

4 Present on the surface of mature, unprimed B cells

5 The most abundant isotype in serum

6 Major antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk

7 Present on the surface of immature B cell

8 The first serum antibody made in a primary immune response

9 Plays an important role in immediate hypersensitivity

10 Plays primary role in protecting against pathogens that invade through the gut or respiratory mucosa.

11 Multimeric forms may contain a secretory component.

12 Least abundant isotype in serum.


a. Indirect immunofluorescence is a more sensitive technique than direct immunofluorescence.

b. Most antigens induce a polyclonal response.

c. Indirect immunofluorescence can be performed using a Fab fragment as the primary, nonlabeled antibody.

d. For precipitation to occur, both antigens and antibody must be multivalent.

e. The Ouchterlony technique is a quantitative precipitin technique.

f. Precipitation tests are generally more sensitive than agglutination tests.

20. Briefly outline the ELISA test for HIV infection, indicating which antigen and antibody are used.

21. The concentration of a hapten can be determined by which of the following assays: (a) ELISA, (b) Ouchterlony, (c) rocket electrophoresis, (d) RIA.

22. Explain the difference between antibody affinity and antibody avidity. Which of these properties of an antibody better reflects its ability to contribute to the humoral immune response to invading bacteria?


a. Antigen-presenting cells express both class I and II MHC molecules on their membranes.

b. Class III MHC genes encode membrane-bound proteins.

c. In outbred populations, an individual is more likely to be histocompatible with one of its parents than with its siblings.

d. Class II MHC molecules typically bind to longer peptides than do class I molecules.

e. All cells express class I MHC molecules.

f. The majority of the peptides displayed by class I and class II MHC molecules on cells are derived from self-proteins.

24. Draw diagrams illustrating the general structure, including the domains, of class I MHC molecules, class II MHC molecules, and membrane-bound antibody on B cells. Label each chain and the domains within it, the antigen-binding regions that have the immunoglobulin-fold structure.

25. One of the characteristic features of the MHC is the large number of different alleles at each locus.

a. Where are most of the polymorphic amino acid residues located in MHC molecules? What is the significance of this location?

b. How is MHC polymorphism thought to be generated?

26. Explain the difference between the term antigen-presenting cell and target cell , as they are commonly used in immunology

27. Define the following terms:

a. Self-MHC restriction

b. Antigen processing

c. Endogenous antigen

d. Exogenous antigen

28. For each of the following cell component or processes, indicate whether it is involved in the processing and presentation of exogenous antigen (EX), endogenous antigen (EN), or both (B). Briefly explain the function of each item.

a. ____Class I MHC molecules

b. ____Class II MHC molecules

c. ____Invariant chains

d. ____Lysosomal hydrolases

e. ____TAP1 and TAP2 proteins

f. ____Transport of vesicles from the RER to the Golgi complex

g. ____Proteasomes

h. ____Phagocytosis or endocytosis

i. ____Calnexin

j. ____CLIP

k. ____Tapasin

29. Cells that can present antigen to TH cells have been classified into two groups professional and nonprofessional APCs.

a. Name the three types of professional APCs.

b. Give three examples of nonprofessional APCs. When are these cells most likely to function in antigen presentation?

30. Molecules of the CD1 family were recently shown to present non-peptide antigens.

a. What is a major source of non-peptide antigens?

b. Why are CD1 molecules not classified as members of the MHC family even though they associate with 2-microglobulin?

c. What evidence is there that the CD1 pathway is different from that utilized by classical class I MHC molecules?


a. Monoclonal antibody specific for CD4 will coprecipitate the T-cell receptor along with CD4.

b. The T cell uses the same set of V, D, and J gene segments as the B cell but uses different C gene segments.

c. The TCR is bivalent and has two antigen-binding sites.

d. Mechanisms for generation of diversity of T-cell receptors are identical to those used by immunoglobulins.

e. The Ig-/Ig- heterodimer and CD3 serve analogous functions in the B-cell receptor and T-cell receptor, respectively.

32. Draw the basic structure of the T-cell receptor and compare it with the basic structure of membrane-bound immunoglobulin.

33. Indicate whether each of the properties listed below applies to the T-cell receptor (TCR), B-cell immunoglobulin (Ig), or both (TCR/Ig).

a. ____Is associated with CD3

b. ____Is monovalent

c. ____Exists in membrane-bound and secreted forms

d. ____Contains domains with the immunoglobulin-fold structure

e. ____Is MHC restricted

f. ____Exhibits diversity generated by imprecise joining of gene segments

g. ____Exhibits diversity generated by somatic mutations.

34. Cyclosporin A is a powerful immunosuppressive drug that now is given to transplant recipients. Describe how this drug suppresses the immune response.

35. Antigenic activation of TH cells leads to the release or induction of various nuclear factors that activate gene transcription.

a. Which two transcription factors required for proliferation of activated TH cells are present in the cytoplasm of resting TH cells in inactive forms?

b. Once in the nucleus, what might be these transcription factors do?

36. B cell activating signals must be transduced to the cell interior to influence developmental processes. Yet the cytoplasmic tails of all isotypes of mIg on B cells are too short to function in signal transduction.

How do nave B cells transduce the signal induced by crosslinkage of mIg by antigen?

37. When IL-2 is secreted by one T cell in a peripheral lymphoid organ do all the T cell in the vincinity proliferate in response to the IL-2 or only some of them? Explain.

38. Briefly describe the similarities and differences among cytokines, growth factors, and hormones.

39. Superantigens have been implicated in several diseases and have been useful as research tool.

a. What properties of superantigens distinguish them from conventional antigens?

b. By what mechanisms are bacterial superantigens thought to cause symptoms associated with food poisoning and toxic-shock syndrome?

c. Does the activity of superantigens exhibit MHC restriction?

40. There are three TH cell subsets, differing in the pattern of cytokine they secrete.

a. What type of immune response is mediated by the TH1 subset? What type of antigen challenge is likely to induce a TH1-mediated response?

b. What type of immune response is mediated by the TH2 subset? What type of antigen challenge is likely to induce a TH2-mediated response?

c. What type of immune response is mediated by the TH17 subset? What type of antigen challenge is likely to induce a TH17-mediated response?


a. A single molecule of bound IgM can activate the C1q component of the classical complement pathway.

b. C3a and C3b are fragments of C3.

c. The C4 and C2 complement components are present in the plasma in a functionally inactive proenzyme form.

d. Nucleated cells tend to be more resistant to complement-mediated lysis than red blood cells.

e. Enveloped viruses cannot be lysed by complement because their outer envelope is resistant to pore formation by the membrane-attack complex.

f. C4-deficient individuals have difficulty eliminating immune complexes.

42. Explain why serum IgM cannot activate complement by itself

43. Some microorganisms produce enzymes that can degrade Fc portion of antibody molecules. Why would such enzymes be advantageous for the survival of microorganisms that possess them?

44. Complement activation can occur via the classical, alternative, or lectin pathway.

a. How do the three pathways differ in the substances that can initiate activation?

b. Which portion of the overall activation sequence differs in the three pathways? Which portion is similar?

45. Enucleated cells, such as red blood cells, are more susceptible to complement-mediated lysis than nucleated cells.

a. Explain why the red blood cells of an individual are not normally destroyed as the result of innocent by-stander lysis by complement.

b. Under what conditions might complement cause lysis of an individuals own red blood cells?

46. Briefly explain the mechanism of action of the following complement regulatory proteins. Indicate which pathway(s) each protein regulates.

a. C1 inhibitor (C1Inh)

b. C4b-binding protein (C4bBP)

c. Decay-accelarating factor (DAF)

d. Factor H

e. Membrane cofactor protein (MCP)

47. Indicate whether each of the following statements is true or false.

a. Both CTLs and NK cells release perforin after interacting with target cells.

b. Antigen activation of nave CTL-Ps requires a co-stimulatory signal delivered by interaction of CD28 and B7 (CD80).

c. CTLs use a single mechanism to kill target cells.

d. The secretion of certain critical cytokines is the basis of the role played by T cells in DTH reactions.

48. In the mixed-lymphocyte reaction (MLR), the uptake of 3H thymidine often is used to access cell proliferation.

a. Which cell type proliferates in the MLR?

b. How could you prove the identity of the proliferating cell?

c. Explain why production of IL-2 also can be used to access cell proliferation in the MLR.

49. Indicate whether each of the properties listed below is exhibited by TH cells, CTLs, both TH cells and CTLs, or neither cell type.

a. ____Can make IL-1

b. ____Can make IL-2

c. ____Is class I MHC restricted

d. ____Expresses CD8

e. ____Is required for B-cell actvation

f. ____Is cytotoxic for target cells

g. ____Is the main proliferating cell in an MLR

h. ____Is the effector cell in a CML assay

i. ____Is class II MHC restricted

j. ____Expresses CD4

k. ____Is the primary effector cell in a DTH response

l. ____Expresses CD3

m. ____Adheres to target cells by LFA-1

n. ____Can express the IL-2 receptor

o. ____Expresses the T-cell receptor

p. ____Is the principal target of HIV

q. ____Responds to soluble antigens alone

r. ____Produces perforin

s. ____Expresses the CD40 ligand on its surface


a. Chemokines are chemoattractants for lymphocytes but not other leukocytes

b. Integrins are expressed on both leucocytes and endothelial cells

c. Leucocyte extravasation involves multiple interactions between cell-adhesion molecules.

d. Most secondary lymphoid organs contain high-endothelial venules (HEVs).

e. MAdCAM-1 is an endothelial adhesion molecule that binds to L-selectin and to several integrins.

f. Granuloma formation is a common symptom of local inflammation.

51. Which three cytokines secreted by activated macrophages play a major role in mediating the localised and systemic effects associated with an acute inflammatory response?

52. What immunologic mechanisms most likely account for a persons developing each of the following reactions after an insect bite?

a. Within 1-2 min after being bitten, swelling and redness appear at the site and then disappear by 1h.

b. 6-8 h later, swelling and redness again appear and persist for 24h.

c. 72h later, the tissue becomes inflamed, and tissue necrosis follows.

53. Indicate which type(s) of hypersensitive reaction (I-IV) apply to the following characteristics. Each characteristic can apply to one, or more than one, type.

a. Is an important defense against intracellular pathogens

b. Can be induced by penicillin.

c. Involves histamine as an important mediator.

d. Can be induced by poison oak in sensitive individuals.

e. Can lead to symptoms of asthma.

f. Occurs as result of mismatched blood transfusion.

g. Systemic form of reaction is treated with epinephrine.

h. Can be induced by pollens and certain foods in sensitive individuals.

i. May involve cell destruction by antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

j. One form of clinical manifestation is prevented by Rhega (anti-RD antiobodies)

k. Localized form characterized by wheal and flare reaction.

54. Describe the nonspecific defenses that operate when disease-producing microorganism first enters the body.

55. Describe the various specific defense mechanisms that the immune system employs to combat various pathogens.


a. DiGeorge syndrome is a congenital birth defect resulting in absence of the thymus.

b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) is a combined B-cell and T-cell immunodeficiency disease.

c. The hallmark of a phygocytic deficiency is increased susceptibility to viral infections.

d. In chronic granulomatous disease, the underlying defect is in a cytochrome or an associated protein.

e. Gamma-globulin injections are given to treat individuals with X-linked agammaglobulinemia.

f. Multiple defects have been identified in human SCID.

g. Children born with SCID often manifest increased infections by encapsulated bacteria in the first months of life.

h. Failure to express class II MHC molecules in bare-lymphocyte syndrome affects cell-mediated immunity only.

57. Granulocytes from patients with leukocyte-adhesion deficiency (LAD) express greatly reduced amounts of three integrin molecules designated CR3, CR4, and LFA-1.

a. What is the nature of the defect that results in decreased expression or in no expression of these receptors in LAD patients?

b. What is the normal function on the integrin molecule LFA-1? Give specific examples.


a. HIV-1 and HIV-2 are more closely related to each other than SIV.

b. HIV-1 causes immune suppression in both human and chimpanzees.

c. SIV is endemic in the African green monkey.

d. The anti-HIV drugs zidovudine and indinavir both act on the same point in the viral replication cycle.

e. T-cell activation increases transcription of the HIV proviral genome.

f. Patients with advanced stages of AIDS always have detectable antibody to HIV.

g. The polymerase chain reaction is a sensitive tool used to detect antibodies to HIV.

h. If HAART is successful, viral load will decrease.

59. Various mechanisms have been proposed to account for the decrease in the number of CD4+ T cells in HIV-infected individuals. What seems to be most likely reason for depletion of CD4+ T cells?

60. Would you expect the viral load in the blood of HIV-infected individuals in the chronic phase of HIV-1 infection to vary?

61. Certain chemokines have been shown to suppress infection of cells by HIV, and pro-inflammatory cytokines enhance cell infection. What is the explanation for this?

62. Treatment with combination of anti-HIV drugs (HAART) have reduced virus level significantly in some treated patients and delayed the onset of AIDS. If an AIDS patient becomes free of opportunistic infection and has no detectable virus in the circulation, can that person be considered cured?

63. For each of the following autoimmune diseases (a-m), select the most appropriate characteristic (1-13) listed below.

Diseases

a. ____Experimental autoimmune encephalitis (EAE)

b. ____Goodpastures syndrome

c. ____Graves disease

d. ____Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

e. ____Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)

f. ____Rheumatoid arthritis

g. ____Hashimotos thyreoiditis

h. ____Experimental autoimmune myasthenia gravis (EAMG)

i. ____Myasthenia gravis

j. ____Scleroderma

k. ____Pernicious anemia

l. ____Multiple sclerosis

m. ____Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Characteristics

(1) Auto-antibodies to intrinsic factor block vitamin B12 absorption

(2) Auto-antibodies to acetylcholine receptor

(3) TDTH cell reaction to thyroid antigen

(4) Auto-antibodies to RBC antigens

(5) T-cell response to myelin

(6) Induced by injection of myelin basic protein + complete Freunds adjuvant

(7) Auto-antibody to IgG

(8) Possible involvement of fetal cells to the initiation of disease

(9) Auto-antibodies to basement membrane

(10) Auto-antibodies to DNA and DNA-associated protein

(11) Auto-antibodies to receptor for thyroid-stimulating hormone

(12) Induced by injection of acetylcholine receptors

(13) TDTH -cell response to pancreatic beta cells

64. Monoclonal antibodies have been administered for therapy in various autoimmune diseases. Which monoclonal antibodies have been used and what is the rationale for these approaches?

65. What are some of the possible reasons why females are more susceptible to autoimmune diseases than males?

66. The accompanying figure outlines some of the steps in the development of immune system cells. The numbered arrows indicate the cell type whose function is defective or the developmental step that does not occur in particular immunodeficiency diseases. Identify the defective cell type or developmental step associated with each of the following diseases. Use each number only once.

a. Chronic granulomatous disease

b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

c. Congenital agranulocytosis

d. Reticular dysgenesis

e. Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia

f. X-linked agammaglobulinemia

g. Leukocyte-adhesion deficiency (LAD)

h. Bare-lymphocyte syndrome


a. TH1 and TH17 cells, reaspectively, have been associated with development of autoimmunity

b. The presence of HLA-B27 allele is diagnostic for ankylosing spondylitis, an autoimmune disease affecting the vertebrate.

c. Individuals with pernicious anemia produce antibodies to intrinsic factor.

d. A defect in the gene encoding Fas can reduce programmed cell death by apoptosis.


a. Acute rejection is mediated by preexisting host antibodies specific for antigens on the grafted tissue.

b. Second-set rejection is a manifestation of immunologic memory.

c. Passenger leukocytes are host dendritic cells that migrate into grafted tissue and act as antigen-presenting cells.

d. All alografts between individuals with identical HLA haplotypes will be accepted.

e. Cytokines produced by TH cells activated in response to alloantigens play a major role in graft rejection.

75. Complete antigens (immunogens) include:

a) glycoproteins b) hormones

c) phospholipids d) cytokines

76. List professional phagocytes:

a,b,c,d,

76. Indicate the correct order of complement components participating in the activation of:

a) lectin pathway

b) alternative pathway

c) membrane attack complex

d) classical pathway

77. Which of the following components of natural immunity contribute to acute inflammation?

a) mast cells b) histamine

c) PGE2 d) hydrocortizon

78. Supply the missing word or words in each of the following statements:

a) There are three main families of adhesion molecules involved in leukocyte binding to vascular endothelium: 1. ____________________, 2. ______________, and 3. some molecules of _______________________ superfamily.

b) The members of class I of interferons include: _____________

c) The class II of interferons include: _______________

d) The class III of interferons include: _______________

79. Draw a scheme oh human IgG1 molecule including H chains, L chains, interchain disulphide bonds and antigen binding sites.

80. Drawn the scheme of human secretory IgA molecule and indicate all chains and antigen binding sites

81. NK cells and cytotoxic T cells recognize and kill virus-infected cells

a) by the same mechanism

b) by different mechanisms

c) through the same cytotoxic molecules

d) virus-infected cells are killed by CTL only

82. Coreceptors for the entry of HIV into the cells are

a, ( ) CXCR5 b, ( ) CCR4 c, ( ) CD26 d, ( ) IL-8R

83. Indicate the main difference between anaphylaxis and atopy

84. Autoimmune diseases can be caused by

a) release of sequestered antigen

b) breakdown in self-tolerance

c) development of programmed autoimmunity

d) cross-reactive antigens

85. Which of the following primary immune deficiency disorders is associated with an abnormality in both humoral and cell-mediated specific immune response?

a) SCID - severe combined immunodeficiency

b) AIDS

c) chronic granulomatous disease

d) adenosine deaminase deficiency

86. How do we know that rejection of a kidney graft is an adaptive immune response?

a) rejection of a graft shows the classic feature of adaptive immunity

b) it has specificity but not memory

c) the second graft carrying the same HLA antigens will be rejected faster than the first one,

d) activated macrophages are mainly involved in the rejection

87. List at least one typical disease or syndrome associated with a hereditary abnormality in:

a) the antibody formation ...................

b) phagocytosis........................

c) complement activity .......................

d) the function of T lymphocytes .....................

88. Distinguish between primary and secondary immunodeficiency and write at least one example for each of them.

89. Draw the serological pattern of response following HIV infection including the time persistence of p24 antigen, anti-p24 and anti-gp120 antibodies, and HIV-specific CTL

90. AIDS (fill in):

a) The receptor and coreceptors for HIV-1 are:.......................................................................

b) The main cells infected by HIV are: __________ and _________

c) Main opportunistic infections seen in AIDS patients are:

d) Major immunological changes in AIDS include reduction in absolute blood ____________ cell counts and reduced _________ hypersensitivity responses.

91. Indicate whether each of the following statements is true (+) or false (-):

a) ARC is a clinical stage of AIDS in which the patient has full symptoms of the disease.

b) Patients with AIDS die mainly from opportunistic infections.

c) Hyper-gammaglobulinaemia, especially of IgA, IgG1, IgG3 and IgM, is usually observed in AIDS patients

d) HIV p24 antigen can be detect in asymptomatic phase of infection

Ass. prof. Mria Bucov, MD., CSc.

Head of the department

Documents

zona.fmed.uniba.sk · Web viewIndividuals with pernicious anemia produce antibodies to intrinsic factor. ... Supply the missing word or words in each of the following statements: