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AIR INDIA Examination paper 2009
OBJECTIVE TEST BOOKLET Test Battery Number Booklet Series
C2 9 1 Test Form No. TestBooklet Serial No.
266421 7 2
1. This TestBooklet consists of an objective type of test having questions on Intelligence, Reasoning, GeneralAwareness, General English, Electronics, Electrical Engineering, Computer Applications, Informationtechnology, Physics. Telecommunication and Mathematics. There are 100 questions in total in the test andduration of the test is two hours.
2. You have to answer these questions on an AnswerSheet which is given to you separately. Write your rollnumber on the AnswerSheet at the appropriate place and blacken from H.B. Pencil the corresponding circlein it.
3. On the top right hand corner of the cover page of you TestBooklet, Booklet series is printed as A. In the Boxfor Booklet Series in your AnswerSheet, blacken circle with your HB pencil. Similarly on the left hand cornerof the cover pager of your TestBooklet, Test Form No. is printed, blacken from H.B. pencil thecorresponding circles in the Box for Test Form No. in your AnswerSheet. Please make sure that you do notblacken more than one circle in any column. The three circles blackened by you, one in each column belowthe Test Form No., in your AnswerSheet should tally with the Test Form No. as printed to you TestBooklet.
4. Don’t forget to mention the Test Battery Number and TestBooklet Serial Number which are printed on thecover page of your TestBooklet, at the indicated places in you AnswerSheet.
5. You had already written the category to which you belong in your Application From. Therefore leave therectangle for Category, blank in you AnswerSheet.
6. Also leave the Rectangles X1 and X2 blank in you AnswerSheet.7. For each question in you TestBooklet, four alternative answer numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4) are given.
Of these four alternative answers only one alternative answer is the correct answer to each question. Yourtask in this test is to find out this correct answer and to show it in SIDE2 of you AnswerSheet by blackeningwith an H.B. pencil, the circle having the alternative number of your choice under the corresponding serialnumber of the question. If you want to change the answer given by you earlier for a question, then erase theblack mark made by you earlier in the alternative for that question, leaving no impression at all and make afresh mark in the alternative of you new choice. For any question, if more than one circle are foundblackened, the machine will allot zero mark to such an answer.
8. There is a provision to answer 200 questions on SIDE2 of your AnswerSheet but as there are only 100questions in total in the test, use the space for the first hundred questions in SIDE2 of your AnswerSheet tomark your answers and leave the remaining space blank.
9. Before beginning to answer the questions please make sure that all the entries in your AnswerSheet havebeen duly completed. Any carelessness in this regard may jeopardize your chances of selection.
10. Do not spend time on reading all the questions before beginning to answer them. Try the questions one byone and wherever you are not sure of the answer, pass one to the next question. If time permits, you mayagain try the left out questions.
11. For rough work, blank space has been provided on pages 2 and 23 of you TestBooklet. Don’t make anymark elsewhere.
Note: In case of variation of any kind in the English and Hindi version of any question(s). English version will beconsidered as final.
AAI (ATC)2009
1. Which of the following series observes the rule, “skip in between adjacent letter, increasing one letter eachtime to build a set of letters”?
A C F J L Q
B D G K P V
C E H L Q V
H I L P U Z
2. If in the following alphabet the first four letters are interchanged with the 2nd four letters, 3rd four letters areinterchanged with the 4th four letters, 5th four letters are interchanged with the 6th four letters. What will bethe 9th letter to the right of 18th letter from your right?ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
M
N
U
V
3. Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain but the rest one is different. Find the one which isdifferent from the rest three.
7359
1593
9175
3781
4. A girl moves towards Southeast a distance of 7 m, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of14 m. From there, she moves towards Northwest a distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4 mtowards East and stood at that point. How far is the starting point (in metres) from where she stood?
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3
4
10
11
5. In this question arithmetical symbols are denoted by capital letters as given below:A→, B→>, C→=, D→<, E→Ž, F→¹
Two formulae are given. Find the inference which is drawn from the given Formulae.Formulae: 3x B 4y, 4y E 3z
3x C 3z
3x A 3z
3x B 3z
3x D 3z
6. Select one alternative in which the third statement is implied by the first two statements.
All oranges are black. All figs are oranges. So, all figs are black.
No man can fly. No kite can fly. So, all mean are kites.
All dogs are mad. All rich persons are mad. So, all rich persons are dogs.
All windows are dogs. Some doors are dogs. So, all windows are doors.
7. There is some relationship between the figures A and B given below. the same relationship exists betweenthe figures C and one of the alternative figure (a), (b), (c) or (d). Choose that alternative figure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a.
b.
c.
d.
8. Out of the four figures given below, three are similar in a certain way. Choose the figure which is differentfrom the rest.
1.
2.
3.
4. 9. State the minimum number of straight lines required to make the figure given below:
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1. 152. 163. 174. 18
10. A father tells his on, “I was of your present age when you were born”. If the father is 36 now, how old wasthe boy 5 years back?
1. 132. 153. 174. 20
11. In a certain code language. TRIANGLE is written as RSGBLHJF. How is CROWN written in that code?1. ASNXL2. ASMXM3. ATMXL4. ASMXL
12. Four Youngman, A, B, C and D are friendly with four girls P, Q, R and S. P and R are friends. C’s girl frienddoes not like P and R. Q does not care for C. B’s girls friend is friendly with P. P does not like A. Who doesnot like P and R?
1. A2. Q3. B4. S
13. Two words given below have a definite relationship. Find out the alternative whose words have the samerelationship.Volcano: Lava
1. Vegetable : Gravy2. Surprise : Wonder3. Laugh :Cry4. Eyes : Tears
14. Find out the group of missing letters for the series given below:acaabcbbacaababbab
1. babc2. bacc3. aabc4. abca
15. A story book for children has 8 stories. Each story is told in three more pages than the previous one. If thetotal number of pages in the book is 124, then in how pages has the sixth story been told?
1. 162. 183. 204. 22
16. Decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonlyknow facts.
Statements: All green are blue. All blue are white.Conclusions:
1. Some blue are green2. Some white are green3. Some green are not white4. All white are blue.
a. Only 1 and 2 followb. Only 2 and 3 followc. Only 1 and 3 followd. Only 1 and 4 follow.
17. Three out of four pairs of numbers given in the alternatives below, have similar relationship. Found out theoddman
1. 1 : 112. 7 : 233. 11: 314. 13: 37
18. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from amongst the four alternatives asto how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
A.
1.
2.
3.
4. 19. The set of figures X, Y and Z shows a sequence of folding a piece of paper. Fig (Z) shows the manner in
which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from whichyou have to choose as figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig (Z).
1.
2.
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3.
1.
2.
3.
4. 20. Count the number of cubes in the figure given below:
1. 1442. 1503. 1584. 168
21. The prominent nationalist write in Marathi was1. Lakshminath Bezbarua2. Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar3. Subrahmanyam Bharti4. Altaf Hussain Hali
17. Three out of four pairs of numbers given in the alternatives below, have similar relationship. Found out theoddman
1. 1 : 112. 7 : 233. 11: 314. 13: 37
18. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from amongst the four alternatives asto how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
A.
1.
2.
3.
4. 19. The set of figures X, Y and Z shows a sequence of folding a piece of paper. Fig (Z) shows the manner in
which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures are followed by four answer figures from whichyou have to choose as figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig (Z).
1.
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2.
3.
1.
2.
3.
4. 20. Count the number of cubes in the figure given below:
1. 1442. 1503. 1584. 168
21. The prominent nationalist write in Marathi was1. Lakshminath Bezbarua2. Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar3. Subrahmanyam Bharti4. Altaf Hussain Hali
22. The highest mountain peak in India is1. Nanga Parbat2. Nanda Devi3. Nilgiri4. K2
23. The first countrywide agricultural census in India was completed in1. June, 19512. June, 19613. June, 19714. June, 1981
24. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?1. Pimpri : Drugs2. Sindri : Rubber Goods3. Ballarpur : Leather4. Shahabad : Fertilizer
25. Who was the first Indian woman to swim across the English Channel?1. Rita Faria2. Arti Saha3. Shipra Dutta4. Shanta Rangaswami
26. Which one of the following provides constitutional guarantee of personal freedom?1. Quo Warranto2. Mandamus3. Certiorari4. Habeas Corpus
27. The holy book of the Parsis is called1. Ahura Mazda2. AvestareZend3. Ahirman4. Zarathustra
28. The most populous of the Nordic countries is1. Sweden2. Norway3. Switzerland4. Denmark
29. ‘White Lily’ is the emblem of1. Cyprus2. Guinea3. Greece4. Italy
30. ‘OPEC’ stands for1. Oil Producing European Countries2. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries3. Oil and Petroleum Exploring Countries4. Organization of Pacific Exploring Countries
31. Which of the following cities is situated on the banks of river Tiber?1. Rome2. Berlin3. Peking4. Tokyo
32. Chennai is hotter than Kolkata because1. there is no mountain nearby it.2. Chennai has sandy region everywhere.3. Chennai is closer the sea than Kolkata.4. Chennai is nearer to the Equator.
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33. What is the distance of running in a Marathan race?1. 26 miles2. 26 miles 180 yards3. 26 miles 385 yards4. 26 miles 405 yards
34. C. Funk’s name has been associated with the research of which of the following?1. Vitamins2. Minerals3. Carbohydrates4. Proteins
35. DaresSalaam is the capital of1. Kenya2. Tanzania3. Libya4. United Arab Emirates
Directions (Q. Nos. 3637): Use the correct form of word given in the brackets from the choices to fill in theblank in the sentences.
36. The bride’s friends admired the …….. of the embroidery on her wedding dress. (fine)1. finedrawn2. finery3. fineness4. finity
37. His ………. attitude to the marvels of nature irritates me. (prose)1. prosy2. prosaic3. prosaical4. prosing
Directions (Q. Nos. 3839): From the choice given below, select the correct preposition to fill in the blanks.
38. The headmaster sent ………….. the two boys who were accused of bullying their classmates.1. through2. about3. for4. by
39. We cannot publish this story …… giving offence to some people.1. by2. beside3. through4. without
Directions (Q. Nos. 4041): From the choices given below, fill in the blanks with the correct word or phase.40. Since I have ..…….. some money, I have decided to leave my job.
1. come down with2. come through3. come into4. come upon
41. I am definitely not …………… the examination.1. expecting2. anticipating3. looking forward to4. awaiting
Directions (Q. Nos. 4244): From the choices given below, select the nearest meaning of the givenphrase/idiom.
42. Make common cause with1. side with or support2. come to an agreement with3. make similar observations as4. find mutual friends
43. Bring down the house1. scatter one’s belongings2. create an unpleasant scene3. elicit general and loud applause4. rebuild one’s house
44. Burn the candle at both ends1. overtax one’s energies2. by unhealthy3. overspend4. overspeed.
Directions (Q. Nos. 4547): From the choices given below, select the appropriate part of speech or figureof speech represented by the underlined word or phrase.
45. I retreated after I was told to mind my own business.1. Noun2. Adverb3. Adjective4. Gerund.
46. The camel is the ship of the desert.1. Oxymoron2. Metaphor3. Epithet4. Metonymy
47. The teacher’s words were met with a deafening silence.1. Hyperbolc2. Epither3. Metaphor4. Oxymoron.
Directions (Q. Nos. 4850): From the choices given below, select the word/phrase nearest in meaning tothe given word/phrase.
48. testy1. quarrelsome2. ittitable3. inquisitive4. miserly
49. esoteric1. universal2. simplistic3. horrifying4. taught to a select few
50. shamrocka musical genre
a form of agate
a musical instrument
a plant
51. The Ruth’s criterion tells us the number of roots lyingIn the right half of splane
In the left half of splane
On the origin of splane
None of the above
52. Which of the following characteristic equations represents a stable state?
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as2+bs+c=0
as4+bs2+cs+d=0
–as2+bsc=0
as2bsc=0
53. The common collector amplifier is also called emitter followerEmitter current follows the collector current
Emitter voltage follows the collector voltage
Emitter voltage follows the base signal voltage
Emitter current follows the collector voltage
54. In an FET, transconductance gm is proportional toIDS
I/IDS
55. The 3dB frequency of an amplifier is one at which gain reduces tounity
zero
of its midband value
Half of its midband value
56. Which of the following types of amplifier operations causes maximum distortion?Class A
Class AB
Class B
Class C
57. Class B push pull amplifier suffers frominter modulation distortion
crossover distortion
excessive harmonic distortion
phase distortion
58. Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillations givesAb = 1
Ab = 0
Ab = 0
A = 1/b
59. Low frequency response of an RC coupled amplifier can be improved byincreasing the coupling capacitors only
increasing the bypass capacitors only
increasing both the coupling capacitor and bypass capacitor
decreasing the bypass capacitor
60. An ideal Operational Transconductance Amplifier (OTA) hasinfinite Zin, infinite Z0
infinite Zin, zero Z0
zero Zin, infinite Z0
zero Zin, zero Z0
61. The radiation resistance of folded dipole is approximately75 W
150 W
300 W
377 W
62. IN IC timer 555, a low on pin 4 (reset) causesoutput state : low
output state : high
no effect on output
toggle
63. Which one of the following is a privileged instruction?MOV B, A
INT 21
IN 08
A D D B, A
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(where A, B are CPU registers)64. Which of the following items in the assembly language program is not converted in machine language?
Privileged instructions
Assembler directives
Interrupt instructions
Trap instruction
65. In assembly language:
Macro is more efficient than subroutine w.r.t. storage space and execution time.
Subroutine is more efficient than macro w.r.t. storage space and execution time
Macro is more efficient than subroutine w.r.t. execution time.
Subroutine is more efficient than macro w.r.t. execution time.
66. Conversion of 13,8125 in digital form is
1101.1011
1011.1011
1101.1101
1011.1111
67. In a full adder, there are
two binary number inputs and two outputs
three binary digital inputs and two binary outputs
three binary digit inputs and three binary digit outputs
none of these
68. For a Schmitt trigger, the upper and lower trip voltages are 3V and 1V, and high and low states are 15V and2V. The output for a sinusoidal input of 10V peak will lie between
1 V and 3 V
2 V and 15 V
3V and 15 V
10 V and 15 V
69. The output of a circuit shown below is
A pulse train of duration 0.5 sec
A pulse train of duration 2 sec
A pulse train of duration 1 sec
A pulse train of duration 5 sec
70. The circuit shown below is a
Halfwave rectifier
Average detector
Peak detector
Clamping circuit
71. A program that translated symbolically represented instruction into their binary equivalents is called
A loader
Assembler
Linker
Autoloader
72. Normally, a microprocessor cycles between
Fetch and Halt states
Fetch and Interrupt states
Fetch and Executes states
Half and Executes states
73. The voltage levels for a sixbit binary ladder are ‘0’ = 0V, ‘1’ = +10V. Its output for the input 101001 will be
0.423 V
0.552 V
0.641 V
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0.9223 V
74. A mass of moment of inertia J is supported by a shaft of stiffness coefficient k and is rotated by a torque Tthrough an angle. If the viscous frictional coefficient is B, the transfer function q(s)/T(s) of this rotationalmechanical system is given by (assuming zero initial conditions)
75. In a feedback system, feedback factor of 0.1 is used with a forward gain of 10. The sensitivity of the systemwith respect to the feedback element is
0.5
0.5
0.9
+0.9
76. The impulse response of a system is h(t) is
inverse Laplace transform of the input excitation
inverse Laplace transform of its transfer function
inverse Laplace transform of inputs multiplied by the transfer function
None of these
77. The LINUX operating system is implemented as:1. Monolithic architecture2. Microkernel architecture3. Virtual machine architecture4. Multithreaded microkernel architecture.
78. The characteristics equation of a system is given by s4+5s3+5s2+4s+k=0. The system is stable if ‘k’ lies inthe range
1.
2. 3. 3 > k > 14. 4 > k > 3
79. In order that a feed back control system is stable the following applies:1. roots of the characteristic questions should be locate din right half of the Splane2. roots of the characteristic questions should be located in left half of the Splane
excluding the poles on the imaginary excess3. roots of the characteristic questions should be real and be located on left half of the
Splane excluding the imaginary excess4. roots of the characteristic question should be located in left of the Splane.
80. A phaselockedLoop is useful for1. FM demodulation2. Rectification3. Phase compensation4. Ensuring stability of a loop
81. The random variable X is Gaussian distributed with zero mean and unit variance. What is the variance of arandom variable Y. where Y=X–1?
1. 2.02. 3.03. zero4. 1.0
82. The input to a stable and causal LTI system is a Gaussian process. The output process will be1. Poisson2. Gaussian3. Weiner4. None of the above
83. The frequency response of an ideal communication channel should have1. flat amplitude response and linear decreasing phase response2. flat amplitude response and flat phase response3. linear decreasing amplitude response and linear decreasing phase response4. linear decreasing amplitude response and flat phase response
84. The transmission bandwidth required for a single sideband (SSB) modulated signals is1. two times bandwidth of modulating signal2. three times bandwidth of modulating signal3. same as bandwidth of modulating signal4. half the bandwidth of modulating signal.
85. Which one of the following given the best error performance for the same average energy per bit?1. 16QAM2. 16ASK3. 16PSK4. QPSK
86. In sampling theorem. Nyquist interval T equals
1.
2.
3.
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4. 87. For a periodic function, the spectral density and the autocorrelation functions are
1. Fourier transform pair2. Laplace transform pair3. One and the same thing4. None of the above