Halderman Engines v6

Online Instructor’s Manual to accompany

Automotive Engines: Theory and Servicing

6th Edition

James D. Halderman

Prentice Hall

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___________________________________________________________________________________________ Copyright © 2009 Pearson Education, Inc., publishing as Prentice Hall, Upper Saddle River, New Jersey and Columbus, Ohio. All rights reserved. Manufactured in the United States of America. This publication is protected by Copyright, and permission should be obtained from the publisher prior to any prohibited reproduction, storage in a retrieval system, or transmission in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or likewise. To obtain permission(s) to use material from this work, please submit a written request to Pearson Education, Inc., Permissions Department, One Lake Street, Upper Saddle River, New Jersey. Many of the designations by manufacturers and seller to distinguish their products are claimed as trademarks. Where those designations appear in this book, and the publisher was aware of a trademark claim, the designations have been printed in initial caps or all caps. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

ISBN-13: 978-0-13-504080-5 ISBN-10: 0-13-504080-9

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CHAPTER 1

Shop Safety

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Shop Safety Checklist (Task not specified by NATEF) 1 Fire Extinguisher (Task not specified by NATEF) 2 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms Personal Protective Equipment Safety Tips for Technicians Cleaning Methods and Processes Electrical Cord Safety Jump-Starting and Battery Safety

Fire Extinguishers Fire Blankets First Aid and Eye Wash Stations Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List four items that are personal protective equipment (PPE)? (Text page 2) Four items of personal protective equipment include:

a. Safety glasses b. Gloves c. Steel-toed shoes d. Bump cap

2. What are the types of fire extinguishers and their usage? (Text page 7) The types of fire extinguishers and their usage include: Type A – wood and paper fire Type B – flammable liquids fire Type C – electrical fire Type D – combustible metal fire 3. What items are included in a typical first-aid box? (Text page 7 Items that should be included in a first-aid box include bandages, gauge pads, antibiotic cream, burn gel packets, eye wash solution, scissors, tweezers, gloves, and a first-aid guide. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What do you call the service technician’s protective head cover? (Text page 2) a. Cap b. Hat c. Bump cap X d. Helmet 2. All safety glasses should meet the standards set by ___________. (Text page 2) a. ANSI X b. SAE c. ASE d. DOT 3. When washing hands, the water should be at what temperature? (Text page 3) a. 98°F (37°C) b. 110°F (43°C) X c. 125°F (52°C) d. 135°F (57°C)

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4. Hearing protection should be worn anytime the noise level exceeds _________. (Text page 3) a. 60 dB b. 70 dB c. 80 dB d. 90 dB X 5. In which cleaning method is baking soda used at times? (Text page 5)

a. Abrasive cleaning X b. Thermal oven cleaning c. Chemical cleaning d. Power washing

6. Exhaust hoses should be used because one of the exhaust gases is deadly in high concentration. This gas is _________. (Text page 3) a. Carbon monoxide (CO) X b. Carbon dioxide (CO2) c. Hydrocarbons (HC) d. Oxides of nitrogen (NOX) 7. The process of combustion occurring without an open flame is called _____________. (Text page 4) a. Direct ignition b. Non-open flame combustion c. Spontaneous combustion X d. Cold fusion 8. When using a fire extinguisher, what word can be used to remember what to do? (Text page 6) a. PASS X b. FIRE c. RED d. LEVER 9. Which type of fire extinguisher is usable for most types of fires? (Text page 7) a. CO2 b. Dry chemical X c. Water d. CO 10. Which item is usually not included in a first-aid kit? (Text page 7) a. Eye wash solution b. Antibiotic cream c. Fire blanket X d. Bandages

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CHAPTER 2

Environmental and Hazardous Materials TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) (Task not specified by NATEF) 3

CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Occupational Safety and Health Act Hazardous Waste

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

Clean Air Act Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) The Dangers of Exposure to Asbestos Asbestos OSHA Standards Asbestos EPA Regulations Asbestos Handling Guidelines Used Brake Fluid

Used Oil Disposal of Used Oil

Used Oil Storage Solvents Solvent Hazardous and Regulatory Status Used Solvents Coolant Disposal Lead-Acid Battery Waste Battery Hazardous and Regulatory Status Battery Handling and Storage Fuel Safety and Storage Airbag Handling Used Tire Disposal Air-Conditioning Refrigerant Oil Disposal Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List five common automotive chemicals or products that may be considered hazardous materials. (Text page

13) Five common automotive chemicals that may be considered hazardous include: throttle body cleaner, brake cleaner, gear lube, used engine oil, and coolant.

2. List five precautions to which every technician should adhere when working with automotive products and chemicals. (Text pages 17-21)

Five precautions to which every technician should adhere when working with automotive products and chemicals include wearing: safety glasses, safety shoes, a bump cap, protective gloves, and long sleeves to help protect the skin.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Hazardous materials include all of the following except ________. (Text pages 12-21) a. Engine oil b. Asbestos c. Water X d. Brake cleaner 2. To determine if a product or substance being used is hazardous, consult ________. (Text page 13) a. A dictionary b. An MSDS X c. SAE standards d. EPA guidelines

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3. Exposure to asbestos dust can cause what condition? (Text pages 13-14) a. Asbestosis b. Mesothelioma c. Lung cancer d. All of the above are possible X 4. Wetted asbestos dust is considered to be ______________. (Text page 14) a. Solid waste X b. Hazardous waste c. Toxic d. Poisonous 5. An oil filter should be hot drained for how long before disposing of the filter? (Text page 16) a. 30 to 60 minutes b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. 12 hours X 6. Used engine oil should be disposed of by all except the following methods. (Text page 15) a. Disposed of in regular trash X b. Shipped offsite for recycling c. Burned onsite in a waste oil-approved heater d. Burned offsite in a waste oil-approved heater 7. All of the following are the proper ways to dispose of a drained oil filter except ______. (Text page 16) a. Sent for recycling b. Picked up by a service contract company c. Disposed of in regular trash d. Considered to be hazardous waste and disposed of accordingly X 8. Which is not considered to be a hazardous solvent? (Text page 17) a. Nonchlorinated hydrocarbon solvent X b. Tetrachloroethylene c. MIBK d. Chlorinated hydrocarbon solvent 9. Gasoline should be stored in approved containers that include what color(s)? (Text page 19) a. A red container with yellow lettering b. A red container X c. A yellow container d. A yellow container with red lettering 10. What automotive devices may contain mercury? (Text page 20) a. Rear seat video displays b. Navigation displays c. HID headlights d. All of the above X

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CHAPTER 3

Fasteners and Thread Repair

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Thread Repair (A1-A-14) 4 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Threaded Fasteners Metric Bolts Grades of Bolts Tensile Strength Nuts Taps and Dies Thread Pitch Gauge

Sheet Metal Screws Washers Snap Rings and Clips How to Avoid Broken Fasteners Thread Repair Inserts Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between a bolt and a stud? (Text page 29) A stud has threads on both ends whereas a bolt has a head at one end used by a wrench or socket to rotate it and threads on the other end. 2. How is the size of a metric bolt expressed? (Text page 29) The size of a metric bolt is expressed with the letter M followed by the diameter in millimeters (mm). For example, a bolt that is 8 mm in diameter is labeled M8. 3. What is meant by the grade of a threaded fastener? (Text page 30) The grade of a threaded fastener is a measure of the tensile strength. The higher the grade is, the greater the tensile strength. 4. How do prevailing torque nuts work? (Text page 32) A prevailing torque nut works by deforming the threads or having a plastic insert, which helps the nut retain its position so that the clamping force of the fastener is not lost due to vibration. 5. How are threaded inserts installed? (Text page 39) Threaded inserts are installed by first drilling out the old threads and then threading the new hole, allowing the insert to be installed. The insert threads are the same size as the original. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The thread pitch of a bolt is measured in what units? (Text page 29) a. Millimeters b. Threads per inch c. Fractions of an inch d. Both a and b can be correct X 2. Technician A says that the diameter of a bolt is the same as the wrench size used to remove or install the fastener. Technician B says that the length is measured from the top of the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt. Which technician is correct? (Text page 29)

a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X

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3. The grade of a fastener, such as a bolt, is a measure of its ___________. (Text page 30) a. Tensile strength X b. Hardness c. Finish d. Color 4. Which of the following is a metric bolt? (Text page 29) a. 5/16 – 18 b. ½ - 20 c. M12 X 1.5 X d. 8 mm 5. A bolt that is threaded into a casting is often called a _____________. (Text page 29) a. Stud b. Cap screw X c. Block bolt d. Crest bolt 6. The marks (lines) on the heads of bolts indicate _____________. (Text page 31) a. Size b. Grade c. Tensile strength d. Both b and c X 7. A bolt that requires a ½-inch wrench to rotate is usually what size when measured across the threads? (Text page 32) a. ½ inch b. 5/16 inch X c. 3/8 inch d. 7/16 inch 8. A screw that can make its own threads when installed is called a ____________ screw. (Text page 34) a. Sheet metal b. Tapered c. Self-tapping X d. Blunt-end 9. All of the following are types of clips except _________________. (Text page 35) a. E-clip b. Cotter X c. C-clip d. Internal 10. What type of fastener is commonly used to retain interior door panels? (Text page 35) a. Christmas tree clips X b. E-clips c. External clips d. Internal clips

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CHAPTER 4

Hand Tools

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Hand Tool Identification (Task not specified by NATEF) 5 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Wrenches Ratchets, Sockets, and Extensions Screwdrivers Hammers and Mallets Pliers Cutters Punches and Chisels Removers

Hacksaws Basic Hand Tool List Tool Sets and Accessories Seal Drivers and Pullers Electrical Hand Tools Safety Tips for Using Hand Tools Hand Tool Maintenance Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why are wrenches offset 15 degrees? (Text page 44) Wrenches are offset 15 degrees to allow for clearance for the wrench when it is being rotated near other fasteners. The 15 degrees offset at the open end allows the wrench to be repositioned and the fastener rotated while in close areas. 2. What are the other names for a line wrench? (Text page 45) A line wrench may also be called a flare-nut wrench, a fitting wrench, or a tube-nut wrench. 3. What are the standard automotive drive sizes for sockets? (Text page 46) The standard automotive drive size for sockets include ¼ in., 3/8 in., and ½ in. 4. Which type of screwdriver requires the use of a hammer or mallet? (Text page 49) An impact-type screwdriver is designed to be used with a hammer or mallet to loosen screws. 5. What is inside a dead-blow hammer? (Text page 50) Small lead balls (shot) are inside a metal housing that is encased with plastic in a dead-blow hammer. 6. What type of cutter is available in left and right cutters? (Text page 53) Aviation snips are usually available in left or right cutters. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. When working with hand tools, always ________. (Text page 45) a. Push the wrench – don’t pull toward you b. Pull a wrench – don’t push a wrench X 2. The proper term for Channel Locks is ________. (Text page 52) a. Vise Grips b. Crescent wrench c. Locking pliers d. Multigroove adjustable pliers X 3. The proper term for Vise Grips is ________. (Text page 52) a. Locking pliers X b. Slip-joint pliers c. Side cuts d. Multigroove adjustable pliers

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4. Which tool listed is a brand name? (Text page 52) a. Locking pliers b. Monkey wrench c. Side cutters

d. Vise Grips X 5. Two technicians are discussing torque wrenches. Technician A says that a torque wrench is capable of tightening a fastener with more torque than a conventional breaker bar or ratchet. Technician B says that a torque wrench should be calibrated regularly for the most accurate results. Which technician is correct? (Text page 46)

a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

6. What type of screwdriver should be used if there is very limited space above the head of the fastener? (Text page 49) a. Offset screwdriver X b. Stubby screwdriver c. Impact screwdriver d. Robertson screwdriver 7. Where is the “peen” of the hammer? (Text page 50) a. The striking face b. The handle c. The back part opposite the striking face X d. The part that connects to the handle 8. What type of hammer is plastic coated, has a metal casing inside, and is filled with small lead balls? (Text page 50) a. Dead-blow hammer X b. Soft-blow hammer c. Sledge hammer d. Plastic hammer 9. Which type of pliers is capable of fitting over a large object? (Text page 51) a. Slip-joint pliers b. Linesman’s pliers c. Locking pliers d. Multigroove adjustable pliers X 10. Which tool has a replaceable cutting edge? (Text page 54) a. Side-cut pliers b. Tin snips c. Utility knife X d. Aviation snips

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CHAPTER 5

Power Tools and Shop Equipment

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Power and Shop Equipment Safety Survey (Task not specified by NATEF) 6 Oxy-Acetylene Torch Usage (Task not specified by NATEF) 7 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Air Compressor Air and Electrically Operated Tools Trouble Lights Bench/Pedestal Grinder Bench Vise

Hydraulic Presses Portable Crane and Chain Hoist Engine Stands Care and Maintenance of Shop Equipment Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List the tools used by service technicians that use compressed air? (Text pages 64-65) Some of the tools that use compressed air include an air impact wrench, die grinder, air ratchet, and

air drill. 2. Which trouble light design(s) is (are) the recommended type for maximum safety? (Text pages 66-67) For maximum safety either a fluorescent or an LED trouble light should be used. 3. What safety precautions should be adhered to when working with a vise? (Text page 68) A vise can damage the surface of a part or a component unless protective jaws are used or other

materials such as a shop cloth is used between the jaws and the component. Use caution not to over tighten an object.

4. When using a blow gun, what precautions need to be taken? (Text pages 64-66) When using a blow gun, be sure that the air pressure is 30 psi or less at the gun and that only an

OSHA approved air gun is used. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. When using compressed air and a blow gun, what is the maximum allowable air pressure? (Text page 64) a. 10 psi b. 20 psi c. 30 psi X d. 40 psi 2. Which air impact drive size is the most commonly used? (Text page 64) a. ¼-inch b. 3/8-inch c. ½-inch X d. ¾-inch 3. What routine services should be performed on an air compressor? (Text page 65) a. Drain water from the tank b. Change the oil in the compressor c. Both a and b X d. Neither a nor b

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4. What can be used to cover the jaws of a vise to help protect the object being held? (Text page 67) a. Aluminum b. Wood c. Plastic d. All of the above X 5. Technician A says that impact sockets have thicker walls than conventional sockets. Technician B says that impact sockets have a black oxide finish. Which technician is correct? (Text page 65)

a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

6. Two technicians are discussing the use of a typical bench/pedestal-mounted grinder. Technician A says that a wire brush wheel can be used to clean threads. Technician B says that the grinding stone can be used to clean threads. Which technician is correct? (Text page 67)

a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

7. A hydraulic press is being used to separate a bearing from a shaft. What should be used to cover the bearing during the pressing operation? (Text page 68) a. A shop cloth b. A brake drum X c. A fender cover d. A paper towel 8. Which type of trouble light is recommended for use in the shop? (Text pages 66-67) a. Incandescent b. Fluorescent c. LED d. Either b or c X 9. When mounting an engine to an engine stand, what grade of bolt should be used? (Text page 69) a. 5 or 8 X b. 4 or 7 c. 3 or 5 d. 1 or 4 10. Proper care of shop equipment includes _________________________. (Text page 69) a. Tuning up every 6 months b. Keeping equipment clean c. Keeping equipment lubricated d. Both b and c X

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CHAPTER 6

Vehicle Lifting and Hoisting

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Vehicle Hoisting (Task not specified by NATEF) 8 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms Floor Jack Creepers Vehicle Hoists

Drive-On Ramps Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why must safety stands be used after lifting a vehicle with a floor jack? (Text page 77) Safety stands must always be used to hold up a vehicle after a floor jack has been used to lift the

vehicle. Safety stands are rigid and designed to hold the weight of a vehicle, whereas a hydraulic jack may leak internally, causing the vehicle to lower.

2. What precautions should be adhered to when storing a creeper? (Text page 77) A creeper should always be stored vertically and never on its wheels. This helps prevent a technician

from accidentally stepping on it, losing balance, and falling. 3. What precautions should be adhered to when hoisting a vehicle? (Text pages 77-78) When hoisting a vehicle, the technician should first be certain that the pads are correctly set. The

vehicle should be raised about one foot and then checked for stability before raising it further. Use care while lowering the vehicle and always follow the hoist manufacturer’s instructions.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A safety stand is also called a _________________. (Text page 77) a. Jack b. Jack stand X c. Bottle jack d. Safety stool 2. A creeper should be stored ______________. (Text page 77) a. Vertically X b. Under a vehicle c. Flat on the floor d. Upside down on the floor 3. The SAE standard for hoist location is _____________. (Text page 77) a. J-1980 b. SAE – 2009 c. JRP – 2184 X d. J – 14302 4. Tall safety stands would be used to ______________. (Text page 78) a. Support an engine while the vehicle is hoisted X b. Lift a vehicle c. Lift a component such as an engine high off the ground d. Both b and c

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5. Commonly damaged areas of a vehicle during hoisting include _________________. (Text page 78) a. Rocker panels b. Exhaust systems c. Tires or body panels d. All of the above X 6. Pad extensions may be needed when hoisting what type of vehicle? (Text page 79) a. Small cars b. Pickup trucks c. Vans d. Either b or c X 7. Technician A says that a hoist can be stopped at any level as long as the safety latch engages. Technician B says that the vehicle should be hoisted to the top of the hoist travel for safety. Which technician is correct? (Text page 79)


8. Before lowering the vehicle, what should the technician do? (Text page 79) a. Be sure nothing is underneath the vehicle b. Raise the vehicle enough to release the safety latch c. Be sure no one will be walking under or near the vehicle d. All of the above X 9. Technician A raised the vehicle about one foot (2.5 cm) and then checked to be sure the vehicle is stable on the pads. Technician B says that the vehicle should be lowered onto the mechanical locks after being hoisted to the desired height. Which technician is correct? (Text page 78)


10. When checking for proper pad placement, how high should the vehicle be raised? (Text page 78) a. About 2 inches (5 cm) b. About 6 inches (15 cm) c. About 1 foot (30 cm) X d. About 3 feet (91 cm)

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CHAPTER 7

Measuring Systems and Tools

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Micrometer (Task not specified by NATEF) 9 Vernier Dial Caliper (Task not specified by NATEF) 10 Feeler Gauge (Task not specified by NATEF) 11 Straight Edge (Task not specified by NATEF) 12 Dial Indicator (Task not specified by NATEF) 13 Telescopic Gauge (Task not specified by NATEF) 14 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

English Customary Measuring Systems Metric System of Measure Linear Measurements (Tape Measure/Rule)

Micrometer Telescopic Gauge Small Hole Gauge Vernier Dial Caliper

Feeler Gauge Straightedge Dial Indicator Dial Bore Gauge Depth Micrometer Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain how a micrometer is read. (Text page 88) A micrometer uses a screw thread that has 40 threads per inch. Every rotation of the thimble moves the spindle 0.025 in. The spindle is then divided into 25 parts so each line on the spindle represents 0.001 in. 2. Describe how to check a crankshaft journal for out-of-round and taper. (Text page 90) To check a crankshaft journal for out-of round, a micrometer should be used to check the diameter in three positions, each 120 degrees apart. To check for taper, measure the journal diameter at two locations. The difference in the two readings is the taper. 3. List engine components that can be measured with the help of a telescopic gauge. (Text page 90) The engine components that can be measured with the help of a telescopic gauge include cylinder bore, camshaft bearing diameter, main bearing bore diameter, and connecting rod bore diameter. 4. List the gaps or clearances that can be measured using a feeler (thickness) gauge. (Text page 91) The gaps or clearances that can be measured using a feeler gauge include piston ring gap, piston ring side clearance, and connecting rod side clearance. 5. Explain why a dial bore gauge has to be set to a dimension before using. (Text page 94) A dial bore gauge does not measure a hole but instead shows how much the bore being measured varies from the preset dimension. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The threaded movable part that rotates on a micrometer is called the _________. (Text page 88) a. Barrel b. Thimble X c. Spindle d. Anvil

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2. To check a crankshaft journal for taper, the journal should be measured in at least how many locations? (Text page 90) a. One b. Three X c. Four d. Six 3. To check a crankshaft journal for out-of-round, the journal should be measured in at least how many locations? (Text page 88) a. Two X b. Four c. Six d. Eight 4. A telescopic gauge can be used to measure a cylinder bore if what other measuring device is used to measure the telescopic gauge? (Text page 90) a. Micrometer X b. Feeler gauge c. Straightedge d. Dial indicator 5. To directly measure the diameter of a valve guide in a cylinder head, use a micrometer and a _______________. (Text page 91) a. Telescopic gauge b. Feeler gauge c. Small-hole gauge X d. Dial indicator 6. Which of the following cannot be measured using a feeler gauge? (Text page 91) a. Valve guide clearance X b. Piston ring gap c. Piston ring side clearance d. Connecting rod side clearance 7. Which of the following cannot be measured using a straightedge and a feeler gauge? (Text page 91) a. Cylinder head flatness b. Block deck flatness c. Straightness of the main bearing bores d. Straightness of the cylinder bore X 8. Which measuring gauge needs to be set up (adjusted) to a fixed dimension before use? (Text page 94) a. Dial indicator b. Dial bore gauge X c. Vernier dial gauge d. Micrometer 9. The freezing point of water is _________________. (Text page 87) a. 0 degrees C b. 32 degrees F c. 0 degrees F d. Both a and b X 10. Which metric unit of measure is used for volume measurement? (Text page 87) a. Meter b. cc X c. Centimeter d. Millimeter

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CHAPTER 8

Service Information

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page

VIN Code (A1-A-4) 15 Vehicle Service History (A6-A-3) 16 Technical Service Bulletin (A6-A-3) 17 Service Manual Usage (A1-A-2) 18 Vehicle Safety Certification Label (A1-A-3) 19 Work Order (A1-A-1) 20 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms

Vehicle Service History Records Owner’s Manuals Lubrication Guides Service Manuals Advantages of Hard Copy versus Electronic Service Information Disadvantages of Hard Copy versus

Electronic Service Information

Types of Service Information Labor Guide Manuals How to Use Hard Copy Manuals Electronic Service Information Hotline Services Specialty Repair Manuals Aftermarket Supplies Guides and Catalogs

Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is included in the vehicle owner’s manual that could be helpful for a service technician? (Text page 98) The owner’s manual includes many items of information that a technician needs to know, including capacity of the engine oil, transmission and differential, type of fluids and viscosity, recommended service intervals, as well as bulb trade numbers and how to operate all of the accessories. 2. Lubrication service guides include what type of information? (Text page 98) Lubrication service guides provide the factory recommended oil and the fluid as well as the recommended service interval. Also included are maintenance item part numbers such as air and cabin filter. 3. Explain why factory service manuals or factory electronic service information is the most detailed of all service information. (Text page 98) The factory service manuals and electronic service information are the most complete because they are designed and created to provide all of the information about a particular vehicle. Most nonfactory service information may not include all of the systems or details as presented in the factory information. 4. Explain how flat-rate and parts guides are useful to customers. (Text page 102) The flat-rate and parts guide are used to provide very accurate estimates. Regardless of how long it takes a service technician, the flat-rate time is what will be charged to the customer. 5. List additional types of service manuals that are available. (Text page 101) Additional types of service manuals include vacuum hose and wiring diagram manuals, component location manuals, wiring manuals, and electrical troubleshooting and schematic manuals. 6. Describe how hotline services and Internet sites assist service technicians. (Text page 104) Hotline service such as www.identifix.com offer the technician real-time help from an experienced technician who is very knowledgeable about the particular vehicle being serviced. This, plus www.iatn.net, which has available history of successful repairs, helps reduce the time spent on diagnosis in most cases, thereby saving the technician and the shop a lot of time.

http://www.identifix.com/

http://www.iatn.net/

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What type of information is commonly included in the owner’s manual that would be a benefit to service technicians? (Text page 98) a. Maintenance reminder light reset procedures b. Tire pressure monitoring system reset procedures c. Maintenance items specifications d. All of the above X 2. Two technicians are discussing the need for the history of the vehicle. Technician A says that an accident could cause faults to occur after the repair due to hidden damage. Technician B says that some faults could be related to a previous repair. Which technician is correct? (Text page 98)


3. The viscosity of engine oil is found where? (Text page 98) a. Owner’s manual b. Factory service manual or service information c. Lubrication guide d. All of the above X 4. Wiring diagrams are usually found where? (Text page 99) a. Owner’s manuals b. Factory service manuals X c. Unit repair manuals d. Lubrication guides 5. What type of manual includes time needed to perform service procedures? (Text page 101) a. Flat-rate manuals X b. Owner’s manuals c. Factory service manuals d. Parts guide 6. Component location can be found in _______________. (Text page 100) a. Factory service manuals b. Owner’s manuals c. Component location manuals d. Both a and c X 7. Aftermarket service information is available in what format? (Text page 100) a. Manuals b. CDs or DVDs c. Internet d. All of the above are possible source formats X 8. Hotline services are _________________. (Text page 104) a. Free b. Available for a service fee X c. Available on CD or DVD format d. Accessed by the Internet 9. Aftermarket parts catalogs can be a useful source of information and they are usually __________________. (Text page 105) a. Free X b. Available by paid subscription c. Available on CD or DVD d. Available for a fee on a secured Internet site

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10. Which type of manual or service information includes the flat-rate time and the cost of parts? (Text pages 101- 102) a. Parts and time guides X b. Factory service manuals c. Component location guides d. Free Internet sites

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CHAPTER 9

Vehicle Identification and Emission Ratings

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Vehicle Emission Control Information (A1-A-3) 21 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

Parts of a Vehicle Front-Wheel Drive versus Rear-Wheel Drive Vehicle Identification Vehicle Safety Certification Label

VECI Label Emission Standards in the United States Calibration Codes Casting Numbers Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. From what position are the terms left and right determined? (Text page 108) The terms left and right are all based as if the person is sitting behind the steering wheel. 2. What are the major pieces of information that are included in the vehicle identification number (VIN)? (Text page 108) The VIN indicates a lot of information, including country of manufacturer, model and make, model year, as well as type of safety equipment and the serial number. 3. What information is included on the VECI label under the hood? (Text page 109) The Vehicle Emission Control Information (VECI) sticker includes spark plug type and gap, vacuum hose routing, and other emission-related information and standards that the vehicle meets. 4. What does Tier 2 Bin 5 mean? (Text page 111) The term Tier 2 is a U.S. federal emission standard that replaced the less stringent Tier 1 rating in 2001. Bin 5 indicates the level achieved where the lower the bin number is, the clearer the exhaust emission. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The passenger side is called the ___________________. (Text page 108) a. Right side X b. Left side c. Either right or left side, depending on how the vehicle is viewed d. Both a and b 2. A vehicle with the engine in the front can be __________________. (Text page 108) a. Front-wheel drive b. Rear-wheel drive c. Four-wheel drive d. Any of the above X 3. The vehicle identification number (VIN) is how many characters long? (Text page 108) a. 10 b. 12 c. 17 X d. 21

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4. The tenth character represents the year of the vehicle. If the tenth character is a “Y,” what year is the vehicle? (Text page 108) a. 1998 b. 2000 X c. 2002 d. 2004 5. The first character of the vehicle identification number is the country of origin. Where was the vehicle built that has a “5” as the first character? (Text page 108) a. United States X b. Canada c. Mexico d. Japan 6. The VECI label includes all except _________________. (Text page 109) a. Engine identification b. Horsepower and torque rating of the engine X c. Spark plug type and gap d. Valve lash 7. The vehicle safety certification label includes all except __________________. (Text page 109) a. VIN b. GVWR c. Tire pressure recommendation X d. GAWR 8. What are the characters that are embedded in most engine blocks and are used for identification? (Text page 111) a. VIN b. Calibration codes c. Bin number d. Casting number X 9. If the first number of the VIN is an “S,” where was the vehicle made? (Text page 108) a. United States b. Mexico c. Canada d. England X 10. Technician A says that the lower the Bin number is, the cleaner. Technician B says that SULEV has cleaner standards than ULEV. Which technician is correct? (Text page 111)


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CHAPTER 10

Gasoline Engine Operation, Parts, and Specifications

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Gasoline Engine Identification (A1-A-4) 22 General Engine Specifications (A1-A-4) 23 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

Energy and Power Engine Construction Overview Four-Stroke Cycle Operation The 720° Cycle Engine Classification and Construction Engine Rotation Direction Bore Stroke

Engine Displacement Compression Ratio The Crankshaft Determines the Stroke Torque Power Horsepower and Altitude


REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Name the strokes of a four-stroke cycle. (Text page 117) The four strokes of a four-stroke engine includes intake, compression, power, and exhaust. 2. If an engine at sea level produces 100 horsepower, how many horsepower would it develop at 6,000 feet of altitude? (Text page 126) An engine loses 3% of its power for each 1,000 feet above sea level. Therefore, at 6,000 feet, an

engine would lose 18% (3 × 6 = 18) or 18 hp. Therefore, if an engine develops 100 hp at sea level, that same engine will produce 82 hp when operating at 6,000 feet altitude.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. All overhead valve engines ________. (Text page 119) a. Use an overhead camshaft b. Have the overhead valves in the head X c. Operate by the two-stroke cycle d. Use the camshaft to close the valves 2. An SOHC V-8 engine has how many camshafts? (Text page 119) a. One b. Two X c. Three d. Four 3. The coolant flow through the radiator is controlled by the _______________. (Text page 116) a. Size of the passages in the block b. Thermostat X c. Cooling fan(s) d. Water pump

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4. Torque is expressed in units of ________. (Text page 125) a. Pound-feet X b. Foot-pounds c. Foot-pounds per minute d. Pound-feet per second 5. Horsepower is expressed in units of ________. (Text page 125) a. Pound-feet b. Foot-pounds c. Foot-pounds per minute X d. Pound-feet per second 6. A normally aspirated automobile engine loses about _______ power per 1,000 feet of altitude. (Text page 126) a. 1% b. 3% X c. 5% d. 6% 7. One cylinder of an automotive four-stroke cycle engine completes a cycle every ________. (Text page 117) a. 90 b. 180 c. 360 d. 720 X 8. How many rotations of the crankshaft are required to complete each stroke of a four-stroke cycle engine? (Text

Page 117) a. One-fourth b. One-half X c. One d. Two 9. A rotating force is called ________. (Text page 125) a. Horsepower b. Torque X c. Combustion pressure d. Eccentric movement 10. Technician A says that a crankshaft determines the stroke of an engine. Technician B says that the length of

the connecting rod determines the stroke of an engine. Which technician is correct? (Text page 124) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 11

Gasoline and Alternative Fuels

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Flexible Fuel Vehicle Identification (A8-A-3) 24 Alternative Fuel Power and Economy Specifications (A8-A-3) 25 Gasoline Engine Identification (A8-A-4) 26 Alcohol Content in Gasoline (A8-D-2) 27 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Automotive Fuel Refining Gasoline Volatility Distillation Curve Driveability Index

Normal and Abnormal Combustion Octane Rating Gasoline Grades and Octane Number Octane Improvers Oxygenated Fuels Alcohol Additives - Advantages and Disadvantages Testing Gasoline for Alcohol Content Combustion Chemistry

Air-Fuel Ratios High-Altitude Octane Requirements Reformulated Gasoline General Gasoline Recommendations Alternative Fuels P-Series Fuels Diesel Fuel Biodiesel E-Diesel Fuel Synthetic Fuels Safety Procedures Working with Alternative

Fuel Vehicles Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between summer-blend and winter-blend gasoline? (Text page 130) The major difference is the volatility of the gasoline. Winter gasoline needs to have a higher RVP

pressure to ignite at low temperatures, whereas summer gasoline required a lower RVP to prevent vapors from forming in the fuel system.

2. What is Reid vapor pressure? (Text page 130) The pressure of the gasoline vapor in a closed container measured at 100°F. 3. What is vapor lock? (Text page 130) Vapor lock is a condition where vapors instead of liquid fuel is in the fuel system and can result in

poor engine performance or even a no-start condition. 4. What does the (R + M) ÷ 2 gasoline pump octane rating indicate? (Text page 134) The pump octane rating is the average of the fuel measured using the Motor and Research method. 5. What are five octane improvers that may be used during the refining process? (Text page 135) Octane improvers added in the refining process include: xylene, toluene, ethanol, methanol, tertiary

butyl alcohol (TBA), as well as propane and butane. 6. What is stoichiometric? (Text page 138) Stoichiometric is a ratio where all of the fuel is burned with all of the air. The Stoichiometric ratio

varies according to the fuel used.

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Winter-blend gasoline ________. (Text page 130) a. Vaporizes more easily than summer-blend gasoline b. Has a higher RVP c. Can cause engine driveability problems if used during warm weather d. All of the above X 2. Vapor lock can occur __________________. (Text page 130) a. As a result of excessive heat near fuel lines b. If a fuel line is restricted c. During both a and b X d. During neither a nor b 3. Technician A says that spark knock, ping, and detonation are different names for abnormal combustion. Technician B says that any abnormal combustion raises the temperature and pressure inside the combustion chamber and can cause severe engine damage. Which technician is correct? (Text page 132)


4. Technician A says that the research octane number is higher than the motor octane number. Technician B says that the octane rating posted on fuel pumps is an average of the two ratings. Which technician is correct? (Text page 134)


5. Technician A says that in going to high altitudes, engines produce lower power. Technician B says that most engine control systems can compensate the air-fuel mixture for changes in altitude. Which technician is

correct? (Text page 134) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. When refueling a CNG vehicle, why is it recommended that the tank be filled to a high pressure? (Text page

149) a. The range of the vehicle is increased X b. The cost of the fuel is lower c. Less of the fuel is lost to evaporation d. Both a and c 7. The use of premium high-octane gasoline in an engine designed to use regular-grade gasoline will increase engine power. (Text page 140) a. True b. False X 8. To avoid problems with the variation of gasoline, all government testing uses ___________ as a fuel during

testing procedures. (Text page 134) a. MTBE (methyl tertiary butyl ether) b. Indolene X c. Xylene d. TBA (tertiary butyl alcohol) 9. Avoid topping off the fuel tank because _______________________. (Text page 140) a. It can saturate the charcoal canister X b. The extra fuel simply spills onto the ground c. The extra fuel increases vehicle weight and reduces performance d. The extra fuel goes into the expansion area of the tank and is not used by the engine 10. Using ethanol-enhanced or reformulated gasoline can result in reduced fuel economy. (Text page 143) a. True X b. False

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CHAPTER 12

Diesel Engine Operation and Diagnosis

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Diesel Engine Identification (A1-A-4) 28 Diesel Engine Emission Control System (A1-A-4) 29 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

Diesel Engines Three Phases of Combustion Diesel Engine Construction Fuel Tank and Lift Pump Injection Pump Distributor Injection Pump High-Pressure Common Rail HEUI Systems Diesel Injector Nozzles Diesel Injector Nozzle Operation Glow Plugs Engine-Driven Vacuum Pump

Diesel Fuel Diesel Fuel Specific Gravity Testing

Diesel Fuel Heaters Heated Intake Air Accelerator Pedal Position Sensor Soot or Particulate Matter Diesel Oxidation Catalyst (DOC) Diesel Exhaust Particulant Filter (DPF) Ash Loading Diesel Exhaust Smoke Diagnosis Scan Tool Diagnosis Compression Testing Glow Plug Resistance Balance Test Injector Pop Testing Diesel Emission Testing Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between direct injection and indirect injection? (Text page 161) A direct injection diesel engine uses an injector that squirts fuel directly into the combustion chamber. An indirect injection diesel engine uses an injector that squirts fuel into a precombustion chamber next to the combustion chamber. 2. What are the three phases of diesel ignition? (Text page 162) The three phases of diesel ignition are: a. Ignition delay b. Rapid combustion c. Controlled combustion 3. What are the two most commonly used types of automotive diesel injection systems? (Text page 164) The two most commonly used automotive diesel injection systems include the distributor injection pump and the high-pressure common rail system. 4. Why are glow plugs kept working after the engine starts? (Text page 167) The glow plugs are kept working to help reduce noise, white exhaust smoke (unburned fuel), and to improve idle quality. 5. When does DPF regeneration occur? (Text page 172)

The DPF regeneration occurs when the PCM detects a certain level of pressure differential (exhaust backpressure) in the DPT.

6. What tests can be performed on a diesel engine to determine its condition? (Text page 174) The tests to help determine the condition of a diesel engine include injector pump testing and compression testing.

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How is diesel fuel ignited in a warm diesel engine? (Text page 161) a. Glow plugs b. Heat of compression X c. Spark plugs d. Distributorless ignition system 2. Which type of diesel injection produces less noise? (Text page 161) a. Indirect injection (IDI) X b. Common rail c. Direct injection d. Distributor injection 3. Which diesel injection system requires the use of a glow plug? (Text page 162) a. Indirect injection (IDI) X b. High-pressure common rail c. Direct injection d. Distributor injection 4. The three phases of diesel ignition include ________________________________. (Text page 162) a. Glow plug ignition, fast burn, slow burn b. Slow burn, fast burn, slow burn c. Ignition delay, rapid combustion, controlled combustion X d. Glow plug ignition, ignition delay, controlled combustion 5. What fuel system component is used in a vehicle equipped with a diesel engine that is not usually used on the same vehicle when it is equipped with a gasoline engine? (Text page 166) a. Fuel filter b. Fuel supply line c. Fuel return line d. Water-fuel separator X 6. The diesel injection pump is usually driven by a _______________________. (Text page 164) a. Gear off the camshaft X b. Belt off the crankshaft c. Shaft drive off of the crankshaft d. Chain drive off of the camshaft 7. Which diesel system supplies high-pressure diesel fuel to all of the injectors all of the time? (Text page 164) a. Distributor b. Inline c. High-pressure common rail X d. Rotary 8. Glow plugs should have high resistance when __________ and lower resistance when __________. (Text page 167) a. Cold/warm b. Warm/cold X c. Wet/dry d. Dry/wet 9. Technician A says that glow plugs are used to help start a diesel engine and are shut off as soon as the engine starts. Technician B says that the glow plugs are turned off as soon as a flame is detected in the combustion chamber. Which technician is correct? (Text page 167)


10. What part should be removed to test cylinder compression on a diesel engine? (Text page 164) a. An injector b. An intake valve rocker arm and stud c. An exhaust valve d. A glow plug X

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CHAPTER 13

Cooling System Operation and Diagnosis


Cooling System Tests (A1-A-2) 30 Engine Cooling System Identification (A1-A-3) 31 Engine Cooling System Inspection (A1-D-3) 32 Radiator Testing with an Infrared Pyrometer (A1-D-3) 33 Accessory Drive Belt Replacement (A1-D-4) 34 Radiator and Heater Hose Replacement (A1-D-5) 35 Thermostat Replacement (A1-D-6) 36 Test and Replace Coolant (A1-D-7) 37 Water Pump Replacement (A1-D-8) 38 Radiator Replacement (A1-D-9) 39 Engine Fan Inspection and Testing (A1-D-10) 40 Identify the Cause of Engine Overheating (A1-D-14) 41

CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Cooling System Purpose and Function Low-Temperature Engine Problems High-Temperature Engine Problems Cooling System Design Thermostat Temperature Control Testing the Thermostat Thermostat Replacement Antifreeze/Coolant Types of Coolant Antifreeze Can Freeze Hydrometer Testing Replacing the Coolant Recycling Coolant Disposing of Used Coolant Radiator Pressure Cap Surge Tank Metric Radiator Caps Coolant Recovery System

Pressure Testing Coolant Dye Leak Testing Water Pump Operation Coolant Flow in the Engine Water Pump Service Cooling Fans Thermostatic Fans Electronically Controlled Cooling Fan Heater Core Heater Problem Diagnosis Coolant Temperature Warning Light Common Causes of Overheating Cooling System Maintenance Flush and Refill Burping the System Hoses Back Flushing a Radiator Cleaning the Radiator Exterior Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain why the normal operating coolant temperature is about 200° to 220°F (93° to 104°C). (Text page 182)

Normal operating temperature of most automotive cooling systems should be maintained at 200°- 220°F for the lowest exhaust emissions and most economical operation.

2. Explain why a 50/50 mixture of antifreeze and water is commonly used as a coolant. (Text page 186) A 50/50 mixture of antifreeze and water results in the best compromise between cooling efficiency and freezing protection.

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3. Explain the flow of coolant through the engine and radiator. (Text pages 180-181)

Most automotive engines use the coolant pump to circulate coolant through the engine block then cylinder head(s) through the thermostat to the upper portion of the radiator. After losing its heat in the radiator, the coolant is drawn through the lower radiator hose to the inlet opening of the coolant pump where the cycle of events is repeated.

4. Why is a cooling system pressurized? (Text page 188) A cooling system is pressurized to prevent boiling until above the normal boiling point of the coolant and to help prevent cavitation (bubbles or foaming) inside the coolant pump.

5. Describe the difference between a series and parallel cooling system. A series cooling system circulates coolant through the engine following one path whereas in a parallel system, the coolant can flow through the engine following several (parallel) paths. (Text page 194)

6. Explain the purpose of the coolant system bypass. (Text page 182) The bypass allows coolant to circulate (to prevent hot spots) by the coolant pump within the engine before the thermostat opens. Therefore, the bypass actually is a passage that bypasses the thermostat.

7. Describe how to perform a drain, flush, and refill procedure on a cooling system. (Text page 201) Cooling system service involves draining the system and forcing water (sometimes with chemical cleaners) through the system and refilling the system with a 50/50 solution of antifreeze and water. Care should be exercised to be assured that all air is burped from the system.

8. Explain the operation of a thermostatic cooling fan. (Text page 196) A thermostatic cooling fan senses air temperature and through a silicone coupling fan drive engages the engine-driven cooling fan only when needed.

9. Describe how to diagnose a heater problem. (Text page 198) To diagnose a heater problem, first feel the radiator hoses to see that the coolant is hot enough. If the thermostat and coolant level is okay, feel the temperature of the heater hoses; both should be hot.

10. List 10 common causes of overheating. (Text page 199) Ten causes of overheating include:

a. low coolant level b. clogged radiator c. defective cooling fan d. incorrect ignition timing e. defective coolant pump belt f. defective pressure cap g. defective coolant pump h. defective thermostat i. frozen coolant j. engine problem

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Antifreeze is mostly ________. (Text page 184) a. Methanol b. Glycerin c. Kerosene d. Ethylene glycol X 2. As the percentage of antifreeze in the coolant increases, ________. (Text page 185) a. The freeze point decreases (up to a point) X b. The boiling point decreases c. The heat transfer increases d. All of the above occurs

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3. Heat transfer is improved from the coolant to the air when ___________________. (Text page 183) a. The temperature difference is great X b. The temperature difference is small c. The coolant is 95% antifreeze d. Both a and c 4. A water pump is a positive displacement-type pump. (Text page 192) a. True b. False X 5. Water pumps ________. (Text page 192)

a. Only work at idle and low speeds; the pump is disengaged at higher speeds b. Use engine oil as a lubricant and coolant c. Driven by the engine crankshaft or camshaft X d. Disengage during freezing weather to prevent radiator failure

6. The procedure that should be used when refilling an empty cooling system includes the following _________. (Text page 201)

a. Determine capacity, then fill the cooling system halfway with antifreeze and the rest of the way with water X b. Fill completely with antifreeze, but mix a 50/50 solution for the overflow bottle c. Fill the block and one-half of the radiator with 100% pure antifreeze and fill the rest of the radiator with water d. Fill the radiator with antifreeze, start the engine, drain the radiator, and refill with a 50/50 mixture of antifreeze and water

7. Which statement is true about thermostats? (Text page 182) a. The temperature marked on the thermostat is the temperature at which the thermostat should be fully open. b. Thermostats often cause overheating. c. The temperature marked on the thermostat is the temperature at which the thermostat should start to open. X d. Both a and b.

8. Technician A says that the radiator should always be inspected for leaks and proper flow before installing a rebuilt engine. Technician B says that overheating during slow city driving can only be due to a defective electric cooling fan. Which technician is correct? (Text page 199)


9. A customer complains that the heater works sometimes, but sometimes only cold air comes out while driving. Technician A says that the water pump is defective. Technician B says that the cooling system could be low on coolant. Which technician is correct? (Text page 199)


10. The normal operating temperature (coolant temperature) of an engine equipped with a 195F thermostat is ____. (Text page 182)

a. 175 to 195F b. 185 to 205F c. 195 to 215F X d. 175 to 215F

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CHAPTER 14

Lubrication System Operation and Diagnosis

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Engine Lubrication Specifications (A1-A-3) 42

Oil Pump Inspection (A1-D-2) 43 Auxiliary Oil Coolers (A1-D-11) 44 Oil Temperature and Pressure Switches (A1-D-12) 45 Engine Oil Dipstick Test (Task not specified by NATEF) 46 Engine Oil Change (A1-D-13) 47

CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Lubrication Purpose and Fundamentals Lubrication Principles Engine Lubrication Systems Properties of Engine Oil SAE Rating API Rating ILSAC Oil Rating European Oil Rating Systems Japanese Oil Ratings Engine Oil Additives Oil Brand Compatibility Synthetic Oil Oil Temperature Oil Change Intervals

Oil Change Procedure Oil Filters Changing Oil in a Turbocharged Engine Oil Pumps Oil Pressure Regulation Factors Affecting Oil Pressure Oil Pump Checks Oil Passages in the Block Valve Train Lubrication Oil Pans Dry Sump System Oil Coolers Oil Pressure Warning Lamp Summary Review Questions

Chapter Quiz REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What causes a wedge-shaped film to form in the oil? (Text page 208) A wedge-shaped oil film is formed between two surfaces that have relative motion between them. 2. What is hydrodynamic lubrication? (Text page 208)

Hydrodynamic lubrication is lubrication that is produced as a crankshaft rotates in a bearing to produce a wedge-shaped oil film.

3. What is meant by the label "Energy Conserving"? (Text page 210) "Energy Conserving" engine oil produces at least 1.1% better fuel economy than a standard reference oil for SAE 5W-30 oils and at least 0.5% improvement for SAE 10W-30 oils.

4. Explain why the oil filter is bypassed when the engine oil is cold and thick. (Text page 216) Cold thick oil bypasses the oil filter when the engine is first started due to the difference in pressure exerted on the bypass valve in the oil filter.

5. Explain why internal engine leakage affects oil pressure. (Text page 219) Any pressure generated in the oiling systems requires that the flow into the system exceed the amount of oil leaking out of the closed system. If oil bearing clearance is excessive, oil pressure drops.

6. Explain the operation of the bypass valve located in the oil filter or oil filter adapter. (Text page 216) An oil bypass valve permits full flow of oil to the engine even if the oil filter becomes clogged.

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7. Describe how the oil flows from the oil pump, through the filter and main engine bearings, to the valve train. (Text page 224)

The oil flows from the oil pump through the oil filter, then to the main and rod bearings. After the bearings, oil flows to the camshaft and valve train after which the oil drops back down through openings in the engine back into the oil pan (sump).

8. What is the purpose of a windage tray? (Text page 226) A windage tray is attached between the crankshaft and the oil pan to help prevent churning and foaming of the oil.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Normal oil pump pressure in an engine is ________. (Text page 219) a. 3 to 7 psi b. 10 to 60 psi X c. 100 to 150 psi d. 180 to 210 psi 2. Oil change intervals as specified by the vehicle manufacturer ________. (Text page 214) a. Are maximum time and mileage intervals X b. Are minimum time and mileage intervals c. Only include miles driven between oil changes d. Generally only include time between oil changes 3. An SAE 10W-30 engine oil is ________. (Text page 211) a. An SAE oil 10 with VI additives X b. An SAE oil 20 with VI additives c. An SAE oil 30 with VI additives d. An SAE oil 30 with detergent additives 4. As engine oil is used in an engine ________. (Text page 211) a. It becomes thinner as a result of chemical breakdown that occurs with age

b. It becomes thicker because of oxidation, wear metals, and combustion by-products X c. It becomes thicker because of temperature changes d. It becomes thinner because of oxidation, wear metals, and combustion by-products 5. Technician A says that the engine oil used should be meet the vehicle manufacturer’s standards. Technician B says that any engine oil of the correct API, SAE, and ILSAC rating can be used. Which technician is correct? (Text page 214) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Technician A says that some vehicle manufacturers recommend an ACEA grade be used in the engine. Technician B says that an oil with the specified API rating and SAE viscosity rating should be used in an engine. Which technician is correct? (Text page 211) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Two technicians are discussing oil filters. Technician A says that the oil will remain perfectly clean if just the oil filter is changed regularly. Technician B says that oil filters can filter particles smaller than the human eye can see. Which technician is correct? (Text page 217) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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8. Turbocharged engines have special engine oil needs, such as ________. (Text page 216) a. Strict oil change intervals should be observed b. Oil of the proper API and SAE ratings should be used c. The turbocharger should be primed by cranking the engine before starting d. All of the above X 9. A typical oil pump can pump how many gallons per minute? (Text page 219) a. 3 to 6 gallons X b. 6 to 10 gallons c. 10 to 60 gallons d. 50 to 100 gallons 10. In typical engine lubrication systems, what components are the last to receive oil and the first to suffer from a lack of oil or oil pressure? (Text page 223) a. Main bearings b. Rod bearings c. Valve trains X d. Oil filters

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CHAPTER 15

Starting and Charging System Operation and Diagnosis


Starting and Charging Voltmeter Tests (A6-A-7) 48 Battery Load Test (A6-B-2) 49 Starter Current Draw Test (A6-C-1) 50 Generator (Alternator) Output Test (A6-D-1) 51 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Purpose of a Battery How a Battery Works Specific Gravity Absorbed Glass Mat (AGM) Battery Battery Ratings Battery Service Jump Starting

Cranking Circuit Starting System Troubleshooting Starter Amperage Testing Bench Testing AC Generators Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List the parts of the cranking circuit. (Text pages 238-239) Battery, starter motor and solenoid, and connecting wiring. The control circuit consists of the ignition switch, safety switch, and connecting wiring. 2. Explain why discharged batteries can freeze. (Text page 232) Discharged batteries can freeze because the electrolyte become close to water. 3. Identify three battery rating methods. (Text page 234) Three battery ratings include cold cranking amps (CCA), cranking amps (CA), and reserve capacity. 4. Describe the results of a voltmeter test of a battery and its state of charge. (Text page 235) After removing the surface charge, a fully charged 12-volt battery should indicate 12.6 volts or higher. 5. List the steps for performing a battery load test. (Text pages 235, 249) To load test a battery, connect a carbon-pile tester to the battery terminals and attach the ammeter probe. Load the battery to ½ of its CCA rating for 15 seconds. A good battery should be able to maintain at least 9.6 volts at the end of the test. 6. Discuss how to measure the amperage output of an AC generator. (Text page 243) To measure the amperage output of an AC generator (alternator), connect a carbon pile tester to the battery and attach the amp probe according to the equipment manufacturer’s instructions. Start the engine and operate at 2000 RPM and load the generator using the load hub. Observe the output on the meter display. 7. Explain how testing can be used to determine whether a diode or stator is defective. (Text page 242)

A defective diode or stator can be detected by measuring for AC volts or amperes at the battery. A reading over 0.4 volts or 10 amperes AC indicates a problem.

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. When a battery becomes completely discharged, both positive and negative plates become ___________ and

the electrolyte becomes _____________. (Text pages 231-232) a. H2SO4; Pb b. PbSO4; H2O X c. PbO2; H2SO4 d. PbSO4, H2SO4 2. A fully charged 12-volt battery should indicate ________. (Text page 233) a. 12.6 volts or higher b. A specific gravity of 1.265 or higher c. 12 volts d. Both a and b X 3. A battery measures 12.4 volts after removing the surface charge. This battery is charged at what percent? (Text page 233)

a. 100% b. 75% X c. 50% d. 25%

4. Reserve capacity for batteries means ________. (Text page 234) a. The number of hours the battery can supply 25 amperes and remain higher than 10.5 volts b. The number of minutes the battery can supply 25 amperes and remain higher than volts X c. The number of minutes the battery can supply 20 amperes and remain higher than 9.6 volts d. The number of minutes the battery can supply 10 amperes and remain higher than 9.6 volts

5. A battery high-rate discharge (load capacity) test is being performed on a 12-volt battery. Technician A says that a good battery should have a voltage reading of higher than 9.6 volts while under load at the end of the 15- second test. Technician B says that the battery should be discharged (loaded to two times its CCA rating). Which technician is correct? (Text page 236) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B

d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. When charging a maintenance-free (lead-calcium) battery, ________. (Text page 237) a. The initial charging rate should be about 35 amperes for 30 minutes

b. The battery may not accept a charge for several hours, yet may still be a good (serviceable) battery c. The battery temperature should not exceed 125°F (hot to the touch) d. All of the above are correct X 7. When jump starting, ________. (Text page 238) a. The last connection should be the positive post of the dead battery b. The last connection should be the engine block of the dead vehicle X c. The alternator must be disconnected on both vehicles d. Both a and c 8. Slow cranking by the starter can be caused by all except the following ________. (Text pages 241-242) a. A low or discharged battery b. Corroded or dirty battery cables c. Engine mechanical problems d. An open neutral safety switch X 9. A starter motor draws more amperage than specifications. Technician A says that the battery may be discharged. Technician B says that the starter may be defective. Which technician is correct? (Text page 241) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X

d. Neither Technician A nor B

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10. An acceptable charging circuit voltage on a 12-volt system is ________. (Text page 241) a. 13.5 to 15.0 volts X b. 12.6 to 15.6 volts c. 12 to 14 volts d. 14.9 to 16.1 volts

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CHAPTER 16

Ignition System Operation and Diagnosis

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Distributor Cap and Rotor (A8-C-2) 52 Spark Plugs (A8-C-2) 53 Spark Plug Wires (A8-C-2) 54 Ignition Timing (Task not specified by NATEF) 55 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Ignition System Operation Ignition Coils Distributor Ignition Waste-Spark Ignition Systems Coil-on-Plug Ignition Checking for Spark Electronic Ignition Troubleshooting Procedure Ignition Coil Testing Using an Ohmmeter Pickup Coil Testing Testing Magnetic Sensors Testing Hall-Effect Sensors

Testing Optical Sensors Ignition System Diagnosis Using Visual Inspection Testing for Poor Performance Testing for a No-Start Condition Firing Order Spark Plug Wire Inspection Spark Plug Service Quick and Easy Secondary Ignition Tests Ignition Timing Ignition System Troubleshooting Guide Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can 12 volts from a battery be changed to 40,000 volts for ignition? (Text page 257) Battery voltage is increased to 40,000 volts in the ignition coil by pulsing the primary windings on and off to ground through the module. The collapsing magnetic field around the primary winding induces the high-voltage change in the adjacent secondary winding. 2. How does a magnetic sensor work? (Text pages 259-260) A magnetic sensor produces a varying voltage when the notch on the camshaft or crankshaft passes near the sensor and changes the strength of the magnetic field around the sensor. 3. How does a Hall-effect sensor work? (Text page 258) A Hall-effect sensor reacts to a magnetic field and produces a square wave output voltage signal. 4. How does a waste spark ignition system work? (Text page 264) Each end of the secondary winding of the ignition coil is attached to a spark plug, therefore, both plugs fire at the same time. 5. Why should a spark tester be used to check for spark rather than a standard spark plug? (Text page 269) A spark tester is the preferred tool to use to check the operation of the ignition system because it loads the ignition coil and forces it to produce at least 25,000 volts. 6. What harm can occur if the engine is cranked or run with an open (defective) spark plug wire? (Text page 270)

If a spark plug is open (unplugged or disconnected) when the engine is being cranked or running, the high voltage produced inside the ignition coil can arc internally ruining the coil.

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Coil polarity is determined by the __________________. (Text page 257) a. Direction of rotation of the coil windings X b. Turn ratio c. Direction of laminations d. Saturation direction 2. The pulse generator _______________. (Text page 258) a. Fires the spark plug directly b. Signals the electronic control unit (module) X c. Signals the computer that fires the spark plug directly d. Is used as a tachometer reference signal by the computer and has no other function 3. Two technicians are discussing distributor ignition. Technician A says that the pickup coil or optical sensor in the distributor is used to pulse the ignition module (igniter). Technician B says that some distributor ignition systems have the ignition coil inside the distributor cap. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 261-263) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. A waste-spark-type ignition system __________________. (Text pages 264-265) a. Fires two spark plugs at the same time b. Fires one spark lug with reverse polarity c. Fires one spark plug with straight polarity d. All of the above X 5. Technician A says that a defective crankshaft position sensor can cause a no-spark condition. Technician B says that a faulty ignition control module can cause a no-spark condition. Which technician is correct? (Text page 269) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Technician A says that a pickup coil (pulse generator) can be tested with an ohmmeter. Technician B says that ignition coils can be tested with an ohmmeter. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 269-270) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that a defective spark plug wire can cause an engine miss. Technician B says that a defective pickup coil wire can cause an engine miss. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 270-272) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Typical primary coil resistance specifications usually range from ________ ohms. (Text page 269) a. 100 to 450 b. 500 to 1500 c. 1 to 3 X d. 6000 to 30,000 9. Typical secondary coil resistance specifications usually range from ________ ohms. (Text page 270) a. 100 to 450 b. 500 to 1500 c. 1 to 3 d. 6000 to 30,000 X

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10. Technician A says that an engine will not start and run if the ignition coil is tracked. Technician B says that one wire of any pickup coil must be grounded. Which technician is correct? (Text page 271) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 17

Emission Control Devices Operation and Diagnosis


Exhaust Gas Analysis (A8-A-13) 56 Diagnosis of Emission-Related Concerns (A8-B-2) 57

Exhaust System Backpressure Test (A8-D-9) 58 PCV System Diagnosis (A8-E-1) 59 PCV System Inspection (A8-E-2) 60 PCV System Test (A8-E-2) 61 EGR System Diagnosis (A8-E-3) 62 Ford Pressure Feedback EGR (PFE) (A8-E-4) 63 Service EGR System (A8-E-4) 64 EGR System Scan Tool Diagnosis (A8-E-4) 65 EGR Electrical Sensors (A8-E-5) 66 Ford EVP Voltage Check (A8-E-5) 67 Secondary Air Injection Diagnosis (A8-E-6) 68 AIR Pump Component Inspection (A8-E-7) 69 AIR Pump Electrical Component Inspection (A8-E-8) 70 Catalytic Converter Test (A8-E-9) 71 Catalytic Converter Rattle Test (A8-E-9) 72 Catalytic Converter Performance Test (A8-E-9) 73 Evaporative Emission Controls Diagnosis (A8-E-11) 74 EVAP System Scan Tool Testing (A8-E-11) 75 Canister Purge Flow Rate Test (A8-E-11) 76 EVAP System Component Inspection (A8-E-11) 77 Smoke Test of the EVAP System (A8-E-11) 78 Evaporative Emission DTC Diagnosis (A8-E-11) 79

CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms Smog Exhaust Gas Recirculation Systems OBD II EGR Monitoring Strategies Diagnosing a Defective EGR System EGR-Related OBD-II Diagnostic Trouble Codes Crankcase Ventilation PCV Valves Orifice-Controlled Systems PCV System Diagnosis PCV Monitor PCV-Related Diagnostic Trouble Codes Air Pump System Air Distribution Manifolds and Nozzles Air Pump System Diagnosis Air-Related Diagnostic Trouble Codes Catalytic Converters

Ceramic Monolith Catalytic Converter OBD-II Catalytic Converter Performance Converter-Damaging Conditions Diagnosing Catalytic Converters OBD-II Catalytic Converter Monitor Catalytic Converter Replacement Guidelines Catalytic Converter-Related Diagnostic Trouble Codes Evaporative Emission Control System How the Evaporative Control System Works Nonenhanced Evaporative Control System Enhanced Evaporative Control System Leak Detection Pump System Onboard Refueling Vapor Recovery State Inspection EVAP Tests Diagnosing the EVAP System Locating Leaks in the System Evaporative System Monitor Typical EVAP Monitor

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EVAP System-Related Diagnostic Trouble Codes (DTC)

Summary

Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does the use of exhaust gas recirculation reduce NOX exhaust emission? (Text page 286)

Recirculating a small percentage of the exhaust gases back into the intake, results in reduced combustion temperatures. The exhaust gases are chemically inert and do not enter into the combustion process.

2. How does the DPFE sensor work? (Text page 291) The DPFE (Delta Pressure Feedback EGR) works by measuring the pressure differential between two sides of a metered orifice to signal the PCM the amount of EGR needed.

3. What exhaust emissions does the PCV valve and AIR system control? (Text pages 294, 298) The PCV and AIR systems both help reduce CO and HC emissions.

4. How does a catalytic converter reduce NOX to nitrogen and oxygen? (Text page 304) The reduction section of a TWC, containing rhodium, is used to separate the NOX into H2 and O2.

5. How does the computer monitor catalytic converter performance? (Text page 308) The PCM monitors catalytic converters efficiency by checking the downstream oxygen sensor switch rates to the switch rate of the upstream oxygen sensor. If the switch rates are similar, the catalytic converter efficiency is low.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Two technicians are discussing clogged EGR passages. Technician A says clogged EGR passages can cause excessive NOX exhaust emission. Technician B says that clogged EGR passages can cause the engine to ping (spark knock or detonation). Which technician is correct? (Text page 292)


2. An EGR valve that is partially stuck open would most likely cause what condition? (Text page 292) a. Rough idle/stalling X b. Excessive NOX exhaust emissions c. Ping (spark knock or detonation) d. Missing at highway speed 3. How much air flows through the PCV system when the engine is at idle speed? (Text page 296) a. 1% to 3% b. 5% to 10% c. 10% to 20% d. Up to 30% X 4. Technician A says that if a PCV valve rattles, then it is okay and does not need to be replaced. Technician B says that if a PCV valve does not rattle, it should be replaced. Which technician is correct? (Text page 296)


5. The switching valves on the AIR pump have failed several times. Technician A says that a defective exhaust check valve could be the cause. Technician B says that a restricted exhaust system could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 299)


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6. Two technicians are discussing testing a catalytic converter. Technician A says that a vacuum gauge can be used and observed to see if the vacuum drops with the engine at idle for 30 seconds. Technician B says that a pressure gauge can be used to check for backpressure. Which technician is correct? (Text page 307)


7. At about what temperature does oxygen combine with the nitrogen in the air to form NOX? (Text page 286) a. 500°F (260°C) b. 750°F (400°C) c. 1500°F (815°C) d. 2500°F (1370°C) X

8. A P0401 is being discussed. Technician A says that a stuck-closed EGR valve could be the cause. Technician B says that clogged EGR ports could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 293)


9. Two technicians are discussing P1480 DTC. Technician A says that a defective PCV solenoid could be the cause. Technician B says that a corroded electrical connection on the solenoid could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 298) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Two technicians are discussing P0422 DTC. Technician A says that the engine may have mechanical faults. Technician B says that the vehicle may have exhaust leaks. Which technician is correct? (Text page 309) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 18

Intake and Exhaust Systems


Port Fuel-Injection Intake Manifold ID (Task not specified by NATEF) 80 Exhaust Manifold Identification (Task not specified by NATEF) 81 Exhaust System Inspection (Task not specified by NATEF) 82 TBI/Carburetor Intake Manifold Identification (Task not specified by NATEF) 83 Intake Manifold Gasket Replacement (Task not specified by NATEF) 84

CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

Air Intake Filtration Engine Air Temperature Requirements Throttle-Body Injection Intake Manifolds Port Fuel-Injection Intake Manifolds Variable Intake Plastic Intake Manifolds

Exhaust Gas Recirculation Passages Upper and Lower Intake Manifolds Exhaust Manifold Design Exhaust Manifold Gaskets Mufflers


REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why is it necessary to have intake charge velocities of about 50 feet per second? (Text page 315) Intake charge velocities should be about 50 feet per second as needed to keep any fuel droplets from

falling out of the airstream between the throttle body and the intake valve. 2. Why can fuel-injected engines use larger (and longer) intake manifolds and still operate at low engine speed? (Text page 316) The intake manifolds of port fuel-injected engines carry air only and therefore, the manifold design

does not have to consider losing fuel droplets out of the air-fuel mixture. 3. What is a tuned runner in an intake manifold? (Text page 316) A tuned runner is the passage for airflow through the intake manifold that is designed with the

proper length to create a sonic boost to the engine at a particular engine speed. 4. How does a muffler quiet exhaust noise? (Text page 320) A muffler quiets the exhaust by smoothing out the high-pressure exhaust pulses and allowing them to be released at an even and constant rate. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Intake charge velocity has to be ___________ to prevent fuel droplet separation. (Text page 315) a. 25 feet per second b. 50 feet per second X c. 100 feet per second d. 300 feet per second 2. The intake manifold of a port fuel-injected engine ________. (Text page 316) a. Uses a dual heat riser b. Contains a leaner air-fuel mixture than does the intake manifold of a TBI system c. Contains only fuel (gasoline) d. Contains only air X

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3. Why are the EGR gases cooled before entering the engine on some engines? (Text page 318) a. Cool exhaust gas is more effective at controlling NOX emissions X b. To help prevent the exhaust from slowing down c. To prevent damage to the intake valve d. To prevent heating the air-fuel mixture in the cylinder 4. A heated air intake system is usually necessary for proper cold-engine driveability on ___________________. (Text pages 314-315) a. Port fuel-injection systems b. Throttle-body fuel-injection systems X c. Both a port-injected and throttle-body injected engine d. Any fuel-injected engine 5. Air filters can remove particles and dirt as small as _____________. (Text page 313) a. 5 to 10 microns b. 10 to 25 microns X c. 30 to 40 microns d. 40 to 50 microns 6. Why do many port fuel-injected engines use long intake manifold runners? (Text page 316) a. To reduce exhaust emissions b. To heat the incoming air c. To increase high-RPM power d. To increase low-RPM torque X 7. Exhaust passages are included in some intake manifolds. Technician A says that the exhaust passages are used for exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) systems. Technician B says that the exhaust heat is used to warm the intake charge on some engines equipped with a throttle-body-type fuel-injection system. Which technician is correct? (Text page 315)


8. The lower portion of a two-part intake manifold is often called the ______________. (Text page 318) a. Housing b. Lower part c. Plenum X d. Vacuum chamber 9. Technician A says that a cracked exhaust manifold can affect engine operation. Technician B says that a leaking lower intake manifold gasket could cause a vacuum leak. Which technician is correct? (Text page 319)


10. Technician A says that some intake manifolds are plastic. Technician B says that some intake manifolds are constructed in two parts or sections: upper and lower. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 316-318)

a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X

d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 19

Turbocharging and Supercharging

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Turbocharger Identification (A1-A-3) 85 Supercharger Identification (A1-A-3) 86 Test Operation of Turbocharger/Supercharger (A8-D-10) 87 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

Airflow Requirements Supercharging Principles Superchargers Turbochargers

Boost Control Turbocharger Failures


REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the reasons why supercharging increases engine power? (Text page 326) Superchargers increase engine power by increasing the air-fuel charge density, resulting in a more

powerful combustion in the cylinder. 2. How does the bypass valve work on a supercharged engine? (Text page 328) A bypass valve is used on many superchargers to allow intake air to flow directly into the intake

manifold bypassing the supercharger. This bypass valve improves fuel economy under port-throttle conditions, where the boost from the supercharger is not needed.

3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of supercharging? (Text page 326) A supercharger is able to boost engine power at all engine speeds and loads without a delay or lag.

However, the supercharger itself takes power from the engine to operate, thereby reducing its efficiency.

4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of turbocharging? (Text pages 329-330) A turbocharger is more efficient than a supercharger because it uses the waste heat energy in the Exhaust to provide boost. However, there is a delay or lag from the time the driver depresses the Accelerator and when boost occurs. 5. What turbocharger control valves are needed for proper engine operation? (Text pages 330-332) A typical turbocharger system uses a wastegate to control (limit) the maximum boost, as well as a

relief valve, such as a compression bypass valve or blow-off valve to release pressure in the intake system when the throttle is closed.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Boost pressure is generally measured in ____________. (Text page 326) a. in. Hg b. psi X c. in. H2O d. in. lb.

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2. Two types of superchargers include ___________________. (Text page 327) a. Rotary and reciprocating b. Roots-type and centrifugal X c. Double and single acting d. Turbine and piston 3. Which valve is used on a factory supercharger to limit boost? (Text page 328) a. A bypass valve X b. A wastegate c. A blow-off valve d. An air valve 4. How are most superchargers lubricated? (Text page 328) a. By engine oil under pressure through lines from the engine b. By an internal oil reservoir X c. By greased bearings d. No lubrication is needed because the incoming air cools the supercharger 5. How are most turbochargers lubricated? (Text page 329) a. By engine oil under pressure through lines from the engine X b. By an internal oil reservoir c. By greased bearings d. No lubrication is needed because the incoming air cools the supercharger 6. Two technicians are discussing the term “turbo lag.” Technician A says that it refers to the delay between when the exhaust leaves the cylinder and when it contacts the turbine blades of the turbocharger. Technician B says that it refers to the delay in boost pressure that occurs when the throttle is first opened. Which technician is correct? (Text page 330)


7. What is the purpose of an intercooler? (Text page 330) a. To reduce the temperature of the air entering the engine X b. To cool the turbocharger c. To cool the engine oil on a turbocharged engine d. To cool the exhaust before it enters the turbocharger 8. Which type of relief valve used on a turbocharged engine is noisy? (Text page 332) a. A bypass valve b. A BOV c. A dump valve d. Both b and c X 9. Technician A says that a stuck-open wastegate can cause the engine to burn oil. Technician B says that a clogged PCV system can cause the engine to burn oil. Which technician is correct? (Text page 333)


10. What service operation is most important on engines equipped with a turbocharger? (Text page 329) a. Replacing the air filter regularly b. Replacing the fuel filter regularly c. Regular oil changes X d. Regular exhaust system maintenance

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CHAPTER 20

Engine Condition Diagnosis


Engine Problem Analysis (A1-A-2) 88 Engine Noise Diagnosis (A1-A-2) 89

Fluid Leakage Detection (A1-A-5) 90 Oil Leak Detection (A1-A-5) 91 Coolant Leak Diagnosis (A1-A-5) 92 Intake System Smoke Test (A1-A5) 93 Engine Noise and Vibration Diagnosis (A1-A-6) 94 Engine Exhaust and Sound Diagnosis (A1-A6) 95 Exhaust System Smoke Test (A1-A7) 96

Vacuum Testing (A1-A8) 97 Paper Test (A1-A-9) 98 Cylinder Power Balance Tests (A1-A-9) 99 Compression Testing (A1-A-10) 100 Head Gasket Diagnosis (A1-A-11) 101 Cylinder Leakage Test (A1-A-11) 102 Oil Pressure Measurement (A1-D-1) 103 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

Typical Engine-Related Complaints Engine Smoke Diagnosis The Driver Is Your Best Resource Visual Checks Engine Noise Diagnosis Oil Pressure Testing Oil Pressure Warning Lamp Compression Test Wet Compression Test Running (Dynamic) Compression Test Cylinder Leakage Test

Cylinder Power Balance Test Power Balance Test Procedure Vacuum Tests Exhaust Restriction Test Testing Back Pressure with a Vacuum

Gauge Testing Back Pressure with a Pressure

Gauge Diagnosing Head Gasket Failure Dash Warning Lights


REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Describe the visual checks that should be performed on an engine if a mechanical malfunction is suspected. (Text page 339) The visual inspection items that should be performed as a part of a diagnosis include oil level and condition, coolant level and condition, checking for oil leaks, and listening carefully for abnormal engine noise. 2. List three simple items that could cause engine noises. (Text page 340) Excessive engine noise can be caused by a defective accessory drive belt, cracked flexplate, or loose torque converter.

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3. Describe how to perform a compression test and how to determine what is wrong with an engine based on a compression test result. (Text pages 342-344) A compression test is performed by connecting a pressure gauge into the spark plug hole and cranking the engine. A low first puff measurement indicates worn or broken piston rings. All cylinders should be within 20% of each other. 4. Describe the cylinder leakage test. (Text page 345) A cylinder leakage test uses compressed air in the cylinders and faults are detected by listening for where the air is escaping from the engine. 5. Describe how a vacuum gauge would indicate if the valves were sticking in their guides. (Text page 348) A vacuum gauge can be used to detect engine faults and a sticking valve would be indicated by a vacuum gauge needle movement that drops 1 or 2 in. Hg from the normal reading. 6. Describe the test procedure for determining if the exhaust system is restricted (clogged) using a vacuum gauge. (Text page 350) A clogged (restricted) exhaust would be indicated on a vacuum gauge as a drop in engine vacuum if the engine speed is held at 2,000 to 2,500 RPM. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the paper test could detect a burned valve. Technician B says that a grayish white stain on the

engine could be a coolant leak. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 339, 343) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

2. Two technicians are discussing oil leaks. Technician A says that an oil leak can be found using a fluorescent dye in the oil with a black light to check for leaks. Technician B says that a white spray powder can be used to locate oil leaks. Which technician is correct? (Text page 339)


3. Which of the following is the least likely to cause an engine noise? (Text page 341) a. Carbon on the pistons b. Cracked exhaust manifold c. Loose accessory drive belt d. Vacuum leak X

4. Normal vacuum at idle (sea level) should be ___________. (Text page 347) a. 21 in. Hg or higher b. 10-12 in. Hg c. 14-16 in. Hg d. 17-21 in. Hg X

5. A smoothly operating engine depends on _________. (Text page 342) a. High compression on most cylinders b. Equal compression between cylinders X c. Cylinder compression levels above 100 psi (700 kPa) and within 70 psi (500 kPa) of each other

d. Compression levels below 100 psi (700 kPa) on most cylinders 6. A good reading for a cylinder leakage test would be ________. (Text page 345)

a. Within 20% between cylinders b. All cylinders below 20% leakage X c. All cylinders above 20% leakage d. All cylinders above 70% leakage and within 7% of each other

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7. Technician A says that during a power balance test, the cylinder that causes the biggest RPM drop is the weak cylinder. Technician B says that if one spark plug wire is grounded out and the engine speed does not drop, a weak or dead cylinder is indicated. Which technician is correct? (Text page 347) a. Technician A only

b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

8. Cranking vacuum should be ________. (Text page 347) a. 2.5 inches Hg or higher X b. Over 25 inches Hg c. 17 to 21 inches Hg d. 6 to 16 inches Hg

9. An engine that has retarded valve timing due to a stretched timing chain or a timing belt incorrectly installed will show _______ on a vacuum gauge. (Text pages 348-349) a. Lower than normal and varying b. Higher than normal c. Fluctuating d. Lower than normal and steady X 10. The low oil pressure warning light usually comes on ________. (Text page 342)

a. Whenever an oil change is required b. Whenever oil pressure drops dangerously low (4 to 7 psi) X c. Whenever the oil filter bypass valve opens d. Whenever the oil filter antidrainback valve opens

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CHAPTER 21

Engine Disassembly, Cleaning, and Crack Detection TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Remove and Reinstall Engine (FWD) (A1-A-12) 104 Remove and Reinstall Engine (RWD) (A1-A-12) 105 Engine Mount Replacement (A1-A-15) 106 Remove Cylinder Head(s) and Inspect (A1-B-1) 107 Engine Disassembly (A1-C-1) 108 Cleaning and Crack Detection (A1-B-1) (A1-C-2) 109 Engine Block Disassembly (A1-C-1) 110 Cylinder Wall Inspection (A1-C-3) 111 Cylinder Ridge Reaming (Task not specified by NATEF) 112 Block Thread Inspection and Correction (A1-C-3) 113 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Engine Removal Engine Disassembly Checking Cylinder Bore Removing the Oil Pan Removing the Cylinder Ridge Removing the Pistons Removing the Harmonic Balancer Removing the Timing Chain and Camshaft Removing the Main Bearing and Crankshaft Remove and Disassemble the Cylinder Head Mechanical Cleaning Chemical Cleaners Solvent-Based Cleaning Water-Based Chemical Cleaning Spray Washing Steam Cleaning Thermal Cleaning

Cold Tank Cleaning Hot Tank Cleaning Vapor Cleaning Ultrasonic Cleaning Vibratory Cleaning Blasters Visual Inspection Magnetic Crack Inspection Dye-Penetrant Testing Fluorescent-Penetrant Testing Pressure Testing Crack Repair Crack-Welding Cast Iron Crack-Welding Aluminum Crack Plugging Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. When should the factory-installed lifting hooks be used? (Text page 357) Factory installed lifting hooks should be used whenever possible for removal (or installation) of the engine from the vehicle. 2. State two reasons for the removal of the ridge at the top of the cylinder. (Text pages 359-360) The ridge must be removed at the top of the cylinder to prevent damage to the piston and to ease piston removal from the cylinder. 3. Explain why the burrs must be removed from valves before removing the valves from the cylinder head. (Text page 362) Burrs must be removed from valve stems to prevent damage to the valve guides and to ease valve removal from the cylinder head. 4. Describe five methods that could be used to clean engines or engine parts. (Text pages 362-365) Five methods that could be used to clean an engine or engine component part include chemical, mechanical, pyrolitic ovens, hot soak tank, and sprayers.

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5. Explain magnetic crack inspection, dye-penetrant testing, and fluorescent-penetrant testing methods and where each can be used. (Text pages 366-367) Magnetic crack inspection uses a strong electromagnet to force iron powder around cracks. Dye penetrant is used on aluminum parts to check for cracks by using chemicals that penetrate into the surface flow. Fluorescent penetrant can be used on all material that requires a black light to observe cracks. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the intake and exhaust manifolds have to be removed before removing the engine from the vehicle. Technician B says that it is often easier to remove the engine from underneath rather than remove the engine from the top of the vehicle. Which technician is correct? (Text page 361) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. Lifting hooks are often installed at the factory because _____. (Text page 357) a. They make removing the engine easier for the technician b. They are used to install the engine at the factory X c. They are part of the engine and should not be removed d. They make servicing the top of the engine easier for the technician 3. The ridge at the top of the cylinder _____. (Text page 359) a. Is caused by wear at the top of the cylinder by the rings X b. Represents a failure of the top piston ring to correctly seal against the cylinder wall c. Should not be removed before removing pistons except when reboring the cylinders d. Means that a crankshaft with an incorrect stroke was installed in the engine 4. Before the timing chain can be inspected and removed, the following component(s) must be removed: (Text page 360) a. Rocker cover (valve cover) b. Vibration damper X c. Cylinder head(s) d. Intake manifold (V-type engines only) 5. Before the valves are removed from the cylinder head, what operations need to be completed? (Text page 361) a. Remove valve locks (keepers) b. Remove cylinder head(s) from the engine c. Remove burrs from the stem of the valve(s) d. All of the above X 6. Cleaning chemicals are usually either a caustic material or an acid material. Which of the following statements is true? (Text page 363) a. Both caustics and acids have a pH of 7 if rated according to distilled water. b. An acid is lower than 7 and a caustic is higher than 7 on the pH scale. X c. An acid is higher than 7 and a caustic is lower than 7 on the pH scale. d. Pure water is a 1 and a strong acid is a 14 on the pH scale. 7. Many cleaning methods involve chemicals that are hazardous to use and expensive to dispose of after use. The least hazardous method is generally considered to be the _____. (Text page 364) a. Pyrolytic oven X b. Hot vapor tank c. Hot soak tank d. Cold soak tank

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8. Magnetic crack inspection _____. (Text page 366) a. Uses a red dye to detect cracks in aluminum b. Uses a black light to detect cracks in iron parts c. Uses a fine iron powder to detect cracks in iron parts X d. Uses a magnet to remove cracks from iron parts 9. Technician A says that engine parts should be cleaned before a thorough test can be done to detect cracks. Technician B says that pressure testing can be used to find cracks in blocks or cylinder heads. Which technician is correct? (Text page 366) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Plugging can be used to repair cracks _____. (Text page 368) a. In cast-iron cylinder heads b. In aluminum cylinder heads c. In both cast-iron and aluminum cylinder heads X d. Only in cast-iron blocks

1. CHAPTER 22 Cylinder Head and Valve Guide Service TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page

Cylinder Head Specifications (A1-A-3) 114 Cylinder Head Disassembly (A1-B-1) 115 Cylinder Head Flatness Measurement (A1-B-2) 116 Valve Spring Inspection (A1-B-3) 117 Valve Guide Specifications and Measurement (A1-B-5) 118 Valve Guide Replacement (Task not specified by NATEF) 119 Valve Guide Knurling (Task not specified by NATEF) 120

Combustion Chamber Volume Test (Task not specified by NATEF) 121 Aluminum Cylinder Head Straightening (Task not specified by NATEF) 122

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the advantages of a hemispherical-shaped combustion chamber (Text page 375) A hemispherical-shaped combustion chamber cylinder head design results in an engine that produces greater power because of its short rapid burning of the fuel. 2. What are the advantages of a wedge combustion chamber? (Text page 375)

A wedge-shaped combustion chamber creates turbulence that thoroughly mixes the air and fuel to provide smooth uniform combustion. (Wedge-shaped combustion chambers are also less expensive to manufacture than hemispherical-shaped combustion chambers.)

3. What is meant by the term cross-flow head? (Text pages 376-377) A cross-flow head is a design that uses the intake manifold on one side of the engine and the exhaust manifold on the opposite side of the cylinder head. 4. What is a Siamese port? (Text page 378) A Siamese port is one port with two shared passages.

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5. What is the recommended cylinder head reconditioning sequence? (Text page 382) The recommended sequence is: 1) Disassemble and clean; 2) Check for cracks; 3) Check the machines surfaces and remachine if needed; 4) Check and service valve guides as needed; 5) Grind valves and assemble cylinder head. 6. What are the advantages of using four valves per cylinder? (Text page 377) Four valves per cylinder provide higher velocity and greater volume of intake charge. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The reason why cylinder heads with four valves flow more air than those with two valves is because ________.

(Text page 377) a. They have a greater open area. X b. Use a higher lift camshaft c. Increase the velocity of the air d. Use a camshaft with a greater duration 2. Two technicians are discussing a Hemi engine. Technician A says that a Hemi is an engine with a hemispherical- shaped combustion chamber. Technician B says that all Hemi engines use four valves per cylinder. Which technician is correct? (Text page 375)


3. Technician A says that an Audi five-valve engine uses three intake valves and two exhaust valves. Technician B says that it uses three exhaust valves and two intake valves. Which technician is correct? (Text page 379) a. Technician A only X

b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

4. The gasket surface of a cylinder head, as measured with a straightedge, should have a maximum variation of ________. (Text page 383) a. 0.002 inch in any 6-inch length or 0.004 inch overall X b. 0.001 inch in any 6-inch length or 0.004 inch overall c. 0.020 inch in any 10-inch length or 0.020 inch overall d. 0.004 inch in any 10-inch length or 0.008 inch overall 5. A warped aluminum cylinder head can be restored to useful service by ________. (Text page 383) a. Grinding the gasket surface and then align honing the camshaft bore b. Heating it in an oven at 500F with shims under each end, allowing it to cool, and then machining it X c. Heating it to 500F for 5 hours and cooling it rapidly before final machining d. Machining the gasket surface to one-half of the warped amount and then heating the head in an oven and allowing it to cool slowly 6. Most vehicle manufacturers recommend repairing integral guides using ________. (Text page 388) a. OS stem valves X b. Knurling c. Replacement valve guides d. Valve guide inserts 7. Typical valve stem-to-valve guide clearance is ________. (Text page 389) a. 0.030 to 0.045 inch (0.8 to 1.0 millimeter) b. 0.015 to 0.020 inch (0.4 to 0.5 millimeter) c. 0.005 to 0.010 inch (0.13 to 0.25 millimeter) d. 0.001 to 0.004 inch (0.03 to 0.05 millimeter) X 8. What other engine component may have to be machined if the cylinder heads are machined on a V-type engine? (Text page 386) a. Exhaust manifold

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b. Intake manifold X c. Block deck d. Distributor mount (if the vehicle is so equipped) 9. Which operation should be performed first? (Text page 382) a. Resurfacing the head X b. Installing replacement guides 10. Which statement is true about surface finish? (Test page 385) a. Cast-iron surfaces should be smoother than aluminum surfaces. b. The rougher the surface, the higher the micro inch finish measurement. X c. The smoother the surface, the higher the micro inch finish measurement. d. A cylinder head should be a lot smoother than a crankshaft journal.

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CHAPTER 23 Valve and Seat Service TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page

Cylinder Head Assembly Inspection (A1-B-2) 123 Valve Spring Specifications and Measurements (A1-A-3) 124 Valve Spring Squareness and Free Height (A1-A-3) 125 Valve Stem Seal Replacement (A1-B-4) 126 Valve and Seat Inspection (A1-B-6) 127 Valve Seat Inspection and Measurement (A1-B-6) 128 Valve Spring Assembled Height (A1-B-7) 129 Valve Face Grinding (Task not specified by NATEF) 130 Valve Seat Grinding (Task not specified by NATEF) 131

CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Intake and Exhaust Valves Valve Size Relationships Valve Design Valve Materials Sodium-Filled Valves Valve Seats Valve Inspection Valve Springs Valve Spring Inspection Valve Keepers Valve Rotators Valve Reconditioning Procedure Valve Face Grinding Valve Seat Reconditioning Valve Guide Pilots

Valve Seat Grinding Stones Dressing the Grinding Stone Valve Seat Grinding Narrowing the Valve Seat Valve Seat Cutters Valve Seat Testing Valve Seat Replacement Valve Stem Height Checking Installed Height Valve Stem Seals Installing the Valves Flow Testing Cylinder Heads Cylinder Head Flow versus Horsepower Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why is valve guide reconditioning the first cylinder head servicing operation? Text pages 410-411) Valve service is accomplished by several machining operations that use the valve guide as the basis for tool set-up and measurements. 2. When is the valve tip ground? How do you know how much to remove from the tip? (Text page 424)

The valve tip should be ground whenever the valve is refaced. A maximum of 0.020" should be removed from the tip of the valve.

3. What is an interference angle between the valve and the seat? (Text page 414) An interference angle refers to the difference between the angles machined on the valve face and the valve seat (usually 1°).

4. Describe the difference between cutting and grinding valve seats. (Text pages 419-420) Cutting valve seats is done with a carbide cutting tool whereas a grinding operation uses stones. 5. How is a valve seat insert installed? (Text page 421) A valve seat insert is installed into a machined pocket with an interference fit.

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6. How are the correct valve spring inserts (shims) selected and why are they used? (Text page 424) Valve spring inserts (shims) are used to restore original valve spring tension after grinding valve seats and the face of the valve. By grinding the valve seats and the valve face, the valve stem protrudes further up from the spring seat of the cylinder head. Valve spring inserts are used to compensate for this change in stem height.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. In a normally operating engine, intake and exhaust valves are opened by a cam and closed by the ________. (Text page 400) a. Rocker arms or cam follower b. Valve spring X c. Lifters (tappets) d. Valve guide and/or pushrod 2. If an interference angle is machined on a valve or seat, this angle is usually ________. (Text page 414) a. 1 degree X b. 0.005 degree c. 1 to 3 degrees d. 0.5 to 0.75 degree 3. Never remove more material from the tip of a valve than _____________. (Text page 424) a. 0.001 inch b. 0.002 inch c. 0.020 inch X d. 0.050 inch 4. A valve should be discarded if the margin is less than _____ after refacing. (Text page 412) a. 0.001 inch b. 0.006 inch c. 0.025 inch X d. 0.060 inch 5. A valve seat should be concentric to the valve guide to a maximum TIR of ___________. (Text page 419) a. 0.006 inch b. 0.004 inch c. 0.002 inch X d. 0.00015 inch 6. To lower and narrow a valve seat that has been cut at a 45-degree angle, use a cutter or stone of what angle? (Text page 416) a. 60 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 30 degrees X d. 15 degrees 7. Valve spring inserts (shims) are designed to __________. (Text page 424) a. Increase installed height of the valve b. Decrease installed height of the valve X c. Adjust the correct installed height d. Decrease valve spring pressure to compensate for decreased installed height 8. The proper relationship between intake and exhaust valve diameter is _______________. (Text page 400) a. Intake valve size is 85% of exhaust valve size b. Exhaust valve size is 85% of intake valve size X c. Exhaust valve size is 38% of intake valve size d. Intake valve size is 45% of exhaust valve size 9. Dampers (damper springs) are used inside some valve springs to ________. (Text page 408) a. Prevent valve spring surge X b. Keep the valve spring attached to the valve c. Decrease valve spring pressure d. Retain valve stem seals

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10. Umbrella-type valve stem seals ________. (Text page 426) a. Fit tightly onto the valve guide b. Fit on the valve face to prevent combustion leaks c. Fit tightly onto the valve stem X d. Lock under the valve retainer

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CHAPTER 24

Camshafts and Valve Trains


Camshaft Specification (A1-A-3) 132 Pushrods and Rocker Arm Inspection (A1-B-8) 133 Valve Train Inspection (A1-B-8) 134 Valve Lifter Inspection (A1-B-9) 135 Valve Adjustment (A1-B-10) 136

Timing Belt/Chain Replacement (A1-B-11) 137 Camshaft Inspection (A1-B-12) 138 Timing Chain Diagnosis (A1-B-12) 139 Camshaft Bearing Surface Inspection (A1-B-13) 140

Camshaft Position Sensor (A1-B-14) 141 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Camshaft Purpose and Function Camshaft Location Camshaft Problem Diagnosis Camshaft Removal Camshaft Design Composite Camshafts Camshaft Lubrication Fuel-Pump Eccentrics Camshaft Drives Camshaft Chain Drives Camshaft Belt Drives Camshaft Movement Lifter Rotation Camshaft Lift Rocker Arms Pushrods Overhead Camshaft Valve Trains Camshaft Specifications Cam Timing Specifications

Measuring and Regrinding Camshafts Installing the Camshaft Degreeing the Camshaft Variable Valve Timing Variable Valve Timing and Lift Lifters or Tappets Solid Lifters Hydraulic Lifters Lifter Preload Determining Lifter Preload Determining Proper Lifter Travel Valve Noise Diagnosis Mechanical Lifter Service Hydraulic Lifter Service Hydraulic Valve Lifter Installation Bleeding Hydraulic Lifters Valve Train Lubrication Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain why the lift and duration and lobe center dimension determine the power characteristics of the engine. (Text pages 453-454)

The more air and fuel an engine can take in during the intake strokes, the greater the power. If lift, duration or overlap are excessive, the performance of the engine is reduced at low engine speeds and fuel economy is hurt.

2. Explain lobe centerline. (Text page 454) Lobe center is the separation (measured in camshaft degrees) between the centerlines of the intake and exhaust lobes.

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3. Describe the operation of a hydraulic lifter. (Text page 468) A hydraulic lifter uses a hollow cylinder body enclosing a closely fit hollow plunger; check valve and a pushrod cup. Engine oil is trapped between the body and the plunger to maintain zero lash (valve train clearance).

4. Describe how to adjust hydraulic lifters. (Text page 469) Hydraulic lifters are usually adjusted by rotating the engine until the lifter is on the base circle of the camshaft lobe. The adjuster is then turned until zero lash (clearance) and an addition ½ to 1 rotation is done depending on make and model of the vehicle.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The camshaft makes _____ for every revolution of the crankshaft. (Text page 438) a. One-quarter revolution b. One-half revolution X c. One revolution d. Two revolutions 2. Flat-bottom valve lifters rotate during operation because of the _____ of the camshaft. (Text pages 446-447) a. Taper of the lobe X b. Thrust plate c. Chain tensioner d. Bearings 3. If lift and duration remain constant and the lobe center angle decreases, ________. (Text page 454) a. The valve overlap decreases b. The effective lift increases c. The effective duration increases d. The valve overlap increases X 4. Which timing chain type is also called a “silent chain”? (Text page 444) a. Roller b. Morse c. Flat link d. Both b and c X 5. Two technicians are discussing variable valve timing. Technician A says that changing the exhaust valve timing helps reduce exhaust emissions. Technician B says that changing the intake valve timing helps increase low-speed torque. Which technician is correct? (Text page 462) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Many technicians always use new pushrods because _____. (Text page 452) a. It is less expensive to buy than clean b. All of the dirt cannot be cleaned out from the hollow center X c. Pushrods wear at both ends d. Pushrods shrink in length if removed from an engine 7. A DOHC V-6 has ________ camshaft(s). (Text page 445) a. 4 X b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

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8. The intake valve opens at 39 degrees BTDC and closes at 71 degrees ABDC. The exhaust valve opens at 78 degrees BBDC and closes at 47 degrees ATDC. Which statement below is correct? (Text page 454) a. Intake valve duration is 110 degrees. b. Exhaust valve duration is 125 degrees. c. Overlap is 86 degrees. X d. Both a and b. 9. Hydraulic valve lifters can make a ticking noise when the engine is running if ________. (Text page 472) a. The valve lash is too close b. The valve lash is too loose X c. The lobe centerlines over 110 degrees d. Both a and c occur 10. Hydraulic lifters or hydraulic lash adjusters (HLA) may not bleed down properly and cause an engine miss if _____. (Text page 472) a. The engine oil is one quart low b. The wrong API-rated engine oil is used c. The wrong SAE-rated engine oil is used d. Both a and b

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CHAPTER 25

Pistons, Rings, and Connecting Rods


Connecting Rod Specification/Measurement (A1-A-3) 142 Piston and Bearing Wear Patterns (A1-C-8) 143 Piston Pin Replacement (A1-C-10) 144 Piston Ring Fitting (A1-C-12) 145 Piston Ring Specification and Measurement (A1-C-12) 146 Piston Inspection and Measurement (A1-C-9) 147 Connecting Rod Reconditioning (Task not specified by NATEF) 148

CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms

Purpose and Function of Pistons, Rings, and Connecting Rods Piston and Rod Removal Piston Design Piston Heads Cam Ground Pistons Piston Finish Piston Head Size Piston Strut Inserts Hypereutectic Pistons Forged Pistons Piston Pins Piston Pin Offset Piston Pin Fit Piston Pin Retaining Methods Piston Ring Grooves

Piston Rings Compression Rings Ring Gap Piston Ring Cross-Sections Chromium Piston Rings Molybdenum Piston Rings Moly-Chrome-Carbide Rings Oil Control Rings Piston Service Connecting Rods Connecting Rod Design Rod Twist Connecting Rod Service Piston and Rod Assembly Piston Ring Service Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Describe the procedure for correctly removing the piston and rod assembly from the engine. (Text page 478)

The connecting rod and cap must be marked before removing the piston and rod assembly through the top of the engine after the ridge has been removed from the top of the block.

2. What methods are used to control piston heat expansion? (Text pages 481-482) Piston heat expansion is controlled by designing in expansion slots or heat dams and grinding the final shape slightly smaller in diameter across the piston pin axis.

3. Why are some piston skirts tin plated? (Text page 481) Some pistons are tin plated to help reduce scuffing and scoring during periods of minimum lubrication.

4. Describe the effect of the piston pin offset as it controls piston slap. (Text page 483) Piston offset is toward the major thrust surface and is designed to reduce piston slap especially during cold engine operation.

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5. Why is it important to keep the connecting rod cap with the rod on which it was originally used, and to install it in the correct way? (Text page 478)

All connecting rods are manufactured and machined as an assembly and must be kept together as they were machined.

6. What causes the piston ring groove clearance to widen in service? (Text page 490) Piston ring groove clearance widens during service as a direct result of piston ring twisting and forces exerted on the rings during normal engine operation.

7. Describe how connecting rods are reconditioned. (Text page 494) Connecting rods are reconditioned by removing metal from both the rod large end and rod cap and then remachining the large end bore. Twisted connecting rods can often be straightened.

8. How is the piston pin installed in the piston and rod assembly? (Text page 494) Non-floating piston pins are installed into a piston and rod by first heating the small end of the connecting rod. Before the rod has a chance to cool, the piston pin is pushed into the piston and rod. As the rod cools, an interference fit is created between the piston pin and the connecting rod.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Connecting rod caps should be marked (if they were not marked at the factory) before the piston and connecting rod assembly is removed from the engine ________. (Text page 478) a. Because they are balanced together b. Because they are machined together X c. To make certain that the heavier rod is matched to the heavier piston d. To make certain that the lighter rod is matched to the lighter piston 2. Many aluminum piston skirts are plated with ________. (Text page 481) a. Tin X b. Lead c. Antimony d. Terneplate 3. A hypereutectic piston has ________. (Text page 482) a. A higher weight than a eutectic piston b. A higher silicon content X c. A higher tin content d. A higher nickel content 4. The purpose of casting steel struts into an aluminum piston is to________. (Text page 482) a. Provide increased strength b. Provide increased weight at the top part of the piston where it is needed for stability c. Provide increased heat transfer from the piston head to the piston pin d. Control thermal expansion X 5. Full-floating piston pins are retained by ________. (Text page 485) a. Lock rings X b. A drilled hole with roll pin c. An interference fit between rod and piston pin d. An interference fit between piston and piston pin 6. The space behind the ring is called ________________. (Text page 487) a. Side clearance b. Forward clearance c. Back clearance X d. Piston ring clearance 7. A misaligned connecting rod causes what type of engine wear? (Text page 493) a. Cylinder taper b. Barrel-shaped cylinders c. Ridge wear d. Angle wear on the piston skirt X

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8. Side clearance is a measure taken between the _____ and the _____. (Text page 495) a. Piston (side skirt); cylinder wall X b. Piston pin; piston pin retainer (clip) c. Piston ring; piston ring groove d. Compression ring; oil control ring 9. Piston ring gap should only be measured ________. (Text page 495) a. After all cylinder work has been performed X b. After installing the piston in the cylinder c. After installing the rings on the piston d. Both a and c 10. Which type of connecting rod needs to be heated to be installed? (Text page 494) a. Forged b. Interference fit X c. Floating d. PM rods

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CHAPTER 26

Engine Blocks TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Cylinder Block Specification and Measurement (A1-A-3) 149

Engine Block Inspection (A1-C-2) 150 Cylinder Bore Measurement (A1-C-3) 151 Cylinder Bore Deglazing (A1-C-4) 152 Camshaft Bearing Inspection (A1-C-5) 153 Piston-to-Bore Clearance (A1-C-11) 154

Block Deck Measuring (Task not specified by NATEF) 155 Block Deck Machining (Task not specified by NATEF) 156 Align Honing (Task not specified by NATEF) 157 Cylinder Boring (Task not specified by NATEF) 158 Cylinder Honing (Task not specified by NATEF) 159 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Engine Blocks Engine Block Service

Block Cleaning and Preparation for Assembly Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What does “decking the block” mean? (Text page 506)

"Decking the block,” means to machine the top surface of the block true and flat. 2. What is the purpose of core plugs? (Text page 500)

Core plugs cover openings where core sand can be removed. 3. What is the difference between deglazing and honing a cylinder? (Text page 509)

Deglazing is a process used to roughen the surface of a cylinder wall. Honing is a process used to remove material (straighten) and provide the proper surface finish to a cylinder wall by using cutting stones.

4. What is the best method to use to clean an engine block after honing? (Text page 512) The best way to clean the honed cylinders is to scrub the cylinder walls with a brush using a mixture of detergent and water.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The block deck is the ________. (Text page 502) a. Bottom (pan rail) of the block b. Top surface of the block X c. Valley surface of a V-type engine d. Area where the engine mounts are attached to the block 2. The standard measurement for surface finish is the micro inch. Which of the following is correct? (Text page 511) a. The rougher the surface, the higher the micro inch finish measurement. X b. The smoother the surface, the higher the micro inch finish measurement. c. The rougher the surface, the lower the micro inch finish measurement. d. Both b and c.

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3. What surface finish is needed to be achieved if moly piston rings are being used? (Text page 511) a. 35 to 45 micro inches b. 28 to 30 micro inches c. 18 to 25 micro inches X d. 10 to 15 micro inches 4. Cast iron has about how much carbon content? (Text page 500) a. 1% b. 2% c. 3% X d. 4+% 5. Engine blocks can be manufactured using which method(s)? (Text pages 500-501) a. Sand cast b. Sand cast or die-cut X c. Extruded cylinder d. Machined from a solid piece of metal (either cast iron or aluminum) 6. A bedplate is located between the ___________ and the ___________. (Text page 501) a. Cylinder bores / water jacket b. Cylinder head / block deck c. Bottom of the block / oil pan X d. Block deck / cylinder bore 7. Siamese cylinder bores are ______________________________. (Text page 502) a. Cylinders that do not have a coolant passage between them X b. Aluminum cylinders c. Another name for cylinder liners d. Cast iron cylinders 8. An oil jet is commonly used on which type of engine? (Text page 503) a. Turbocharged/supercharged gas engines b. Turbocharged diesel engines c. Small displacement, high RPM engines d. Both a and b X 9. An engine block should be machined in which order? (Text page 505) a. Align honing, cylinder boring, block deck machining b. Block decking, align honing, cylinder boring c. Cylinder boring, align honing, block decking d. Align honing, block decking, cylinder boring X 10. After the engine block has been machined, it should be cleaned using __________________. (Text page 512) a. Soap and water X b. SAE 10W-30 oil and a shop cloth c. Sprayed with brake cleaner to remove the cutting oil d. Sprayed with WD-40

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CHAPTER 27

Crankshafts and Bearings

TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Camshaft Bearings (A1-B-13) 160 Crankshaft Specification and Measurement (A1-C-6) 161 Crankshaft Inspection (A1-C-6) 162 Main and Rod Bearings (A1-C-7) 163 Piston and Bearing Wear Patterns (A1-C-8) 164 Crankshaft Vibration Damper (A1-C-14) 165 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Crankshaft Crankshaft Construction V-8 Engine Crankshafts Four-Cylinder Engine Crankshafts Five-Cylinder Engine Crankshafts Three-Cylinder Engine Crankshafts Odd-Firing 90-Degree V-6 Engine Crankshafts Even-Firing 90-Degree V-6 Engine Crankshafts 60-Degree V-6 Engine Crankshafts Externally and Internally Balanced Engines

Crankshaft Oiling Holes Crankshaft Inspection Crankshaft Grinding Welding a Crankshaft Stress Relieving the Crankshaft Engine Bearings Bearing Construction Bearing Manufacturing Bearing Clearance Bearing Spread and Crush Camshaft Bearings Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How many degrees of crankshaft rotation are there between cylinder firings on an inline 4-cylinder engine, an inline 6-cylinder engine, and a V-8 engine? (Text page 527)

The number of degrees of crankshaft rotation between cylinder firings is 180° for an inline four, 120° for an even fire V-6 or inline 6-cylinder engine and 90° for a V-8.

2. List four engine bearing properties. (Text pages 536-537) Engine bearings should have the following properties: fatigue life, conformability, embedability, and score resistance.

3. Describe bearing crush and bearing spread. (Text pages 539-540) Bearing crush is the amount the bearing insert extends above the housing bore. Bearing spread is the arc of the bearing insert; it has a slightly larger arc than does the bearing housing.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A forged crankshaft has _______________________________. (Text page 526)

a. A wide parting line X b. A thin parting line c. A parting line in one plane d. Both b and c

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2. A typical V-8 engine crankshaft has _____________ main bearings. (Text page 524) a. Three b. Four c. Five X d. Seven

3. A 4-cylinder engine fires one cylinder at every _____ degrees if crankshaft rotation. (Text page 527) a. 27 b. 180 X c. 120 d. 90

4. A splayed crankshaft is a crankshaft that ________. (Text page 528) a. Is externally balanced b. Is internally balanced c. Has offset main bearing journals d. Has offset rod journals X 5. The thrust bearing surface is located on one of the main bearings to control thrust loads caused by ________. (Text page 525) a. Lugging the engine b. Torque converter or clutch release forces X c. Rapid deceleration forces d. Both a and c 6. If any crankshaft is ground, it must also be ________. (Text page 533) a. Shot peened b. Chrome plated c. Polished X d. Externally balanced 7. If bearing-to-journal clearance is doubled, how much oil will flow? (Text page 539) a. One-half as much b. The same amount if the pressure is kept constant c. Double the amount d. Four times the amount X 8. Typical journal-to-bearing clearance is ________. (Text page 539) a. 0.00015 to 0.00018 inch b. 0.0005 to 0.0025 inch X c. 0.150 to 0.250 inch d. 0.020 to 0.035 inch 9. A bearing shell has a slightly larger arc than the bearing housing. This difference is called ________. (Text page 540) a. Bearing crush b. Bearing tang c. Bearing spread X d. Bearing saddle 10. Bearing _____ occurs when a bearing shell is slightly above the parting surface of the bearing cap. (Text page 540) a. Overlap b. Crush X c. Cap lock d. Interference fit

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CHAPTER 28

Engine Balancing and Balance Shafts TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page

Auxiliary and Balance Shafts (A1-C-13) 166 Pistons and Rods Balancing (Task not specified by NATEF) 167 Crankshaft Balancing (Task not specified by NATEF) 168 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms Engine Balance Balance Shafts

Balancing an Engine Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why is a balance shaft needed on some V-6 engines? (Text pages 547-548)

A balance shaft is often used on 90 degree V-6 engines to reduce rocking couple motion, whereas 60 degree V-6 engines do not create rocking couple and therefore do not need a balance shaft.

2. What parts must be measured when measuring rotating weight? (Text page 548) Rotating weight includes the crankshaft, vibration damper, flywheel, pressure plate, big end of the connecting rod plus all bolts, and nuts needed to assembly the parts listed.

3. What parts must be measured when measuring reciprocating weight? (Text page 549) Reciprocating weight includes the pistons, rings, wrist pins, and the small end of the connecting rods.

4. What is done to the crankshaft to achieve a balanced rotating engine assembly? (Text page 550) Weight is usually removed from the counterweight to achieve a balanced crankshaft.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What part(s) primary causes primary vibration? (Text page 547) a. Harmonic balancer b. Pistons X c. Flexplate d. Big end of the connecting rod 2. What part(s) primarily causes secondary vibration? (Text page 547)

a. Harmonic balancer b. Pistons X c. Flexplate d. Big end of the connecting rod 3. Why does a 4-cylinder engine have very little, if any, primary vibration? (Text page 547) a. A 4-cylinder engine uses a splayed crankshaft. b. A 4-cylinder engine has two pistons traveling upward at the same time two pistons are traveling downward, thereby canceling primary vibration. X c. Two cylinders fire at the same time, reducing the primary vibration. (Text page 547) d. The bore of 4-cylinder engines is small, reducing the primary vibration.

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4. A balance shaft used in a 90-degree V-6 engine is used to correct what type of force? (Text page 547) a. Primary vibration b. Secondary vibration c. Rocking couple X d. Rolling couple 5. A gram weighs about the same as a _________________. (Text page 548) a. Paper clip X b. Chicken feather c. Penny d. Dime 6. Reciprocating weight is also called ________________________. (Text page 549) a. Balance weight b. Bob weight c. Rotating weight d. Inertia weight X 7. Connecting rods should be weighed and balanced ______________________. (Text page 549) a. Before reconditioning b. After reconditioning X 8. Pistons and connecting rods can be ground from what area when removing weight? (Text page 549) a. Balancing pad X b. Weight bore c. Sides d. Thrust surface(s) 9. Which of the following is not reciprocating weight? (Text page 549) a. Piston b. Big end of a connecting rod X c. Small end of a connecting rod d. Piston ring 10. How is the crankshaft usually balanced? (Text page 550) a. Material is welded onto the counterweight. b. Pistons are replaced until a matched set is achieved. c. Material is drilled out of the counterweight. X d. Heavy metal is used to increase the weight of the counterweight.

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CHAPTER 29

Preparation for Assembly


Torque Specification (A1-A-3) 169 Gaskets and Sealants (A1-A-13) 170

Cylinder Head Replacement (A1-B-1) 171 Timing Gears/Chain/Belt Installation (A1-B-11) 172

Main Bearing Installation (A1-C-7) 173 Piston Fitting (A1-C-11) 174 Preparing the Block for Assembly (Task not specified by NATEF) 175 Camshaft Bearings Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 176 Expansion Cups and Plugs Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 177 Piston and Rod Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 178 Connecting Rod Bolt Stretch (Task not specified by NATEF) 179

Cylinder Head Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 180 Engine Prelubrication (Task not specified by NATEF) 181 CHAPTER OUTLINE: Objectives Key Terms Details, Details, Details Short Block Preparation Cylinder Head Preparation Trial Assembly

Check the Angle between Heads Painting the Engine Gaskets and Clamping Force Summary Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose of a gasket? (Text page 562) The purpose of a gasket is to fill a space or gap between two parts. 2. Why is clamping force different from bolt torque? (Text page 563) Bolt torque is the amount of force applied to a fastener whereas a clamping force is the force applied

to a gasket. 3. What is the difference between a bolt and a stud? (Text page 559) A stud has threads on both ends and a bolt only has threads on one end. CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. About how much of the turning torque applied to a head bolt is lost to friction? (Text page 563) a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% X

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2. Service information states that SAE 30 engine oil should be used on the threads of the head bolts before installation and torquing. Technician A says that SAE 5W-30 will work. Technician B says that SAE 10W-30 will work. Which technician is correct? (Text page 563)


3. Technician A says that the torque applied to the head bolts is the same as the clamping force on the gasket. Technician B says that the clamping force is the force actually applied to the surfaces of the gasket. Which technician is correct? (Text page 563)


4. A coating usually used to keep an engine from rusting during assembly is called ____________. (Text page 561) a. Engine oil b. Assembly lube c. Fogging oil X d. Penetrating oil 5. Head gasket installation is being discussed. Technician A says that the surface finish of the cylinder head or block deck are very important for proper sealing to occur. Technician B says that if “front” is marked on a head gasket, the mark should be installed near the accessory belt end of the engine. Which technician is correct? (Text page 563)


6. Technician A says that studs should be installed finger tight. Technician B says that studs must be installed using a thread sealer. Which technician is correct? (Text page 559)


7. What can be used to check that heads are at the correct angle for the intake manifold on a V-type engine? (Text page 562) a. A metal rule b. An angle gauge X c. A tape measure d. A dial indicator 8. What should be used to check for coil bind? (Text page 561) a. Dial indicator b. Feeler gauge X c. Micrometer d. Angle gauge 9. If a stroker crankshaft is being installed, what additional work may be required? (Text page 560) a. The crankshaft may have to be shortened to fit the block. b. The crankshaft main bearing has to be reground. c. The block may need to be ground for clearance X d. Both a and b 10. The movement of engine parts that are constructed from two different materials, such as aluminum and cast iron, is called _________________. (Text page 564) a. Cracking b. Fretting X c. Shearing d. Stretching

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CHAPTER 30

Engine Blueprinting and Assembly


Cylinder Head Replacement (A1-B-2) 182 Camshaft Bearings Inspection (A1-C-6) 183 Crankshaft Inspection (A1-C-7) 184 Main Bearing Installation (A1-C-8) 185 Piston Fitting (A1-C-11) 186 Auxiliary Shaft Inspection (A1-C-13) 187 Inspect Crankshaft Vibration Damper (A1-C-14) 188 Assemble Engine Block (A1-C-15) 189 Gasket and Sealant (A1-C-15) 190 Oil Pump Inspection (A1-D-2) 191 Inspect and Replace Engine Cooling Hoses (A1-D-5) 192 Replace Thermostat (A1-D-6) 193 Replace Water Pump (A1-D-8) 194 Remove and Replace Radiator (A1-D-9) 195 Inspect Cooling Fan (A1-D-10) 196

Preparing the Block for Assembly (Task not specified by NATEF) 197 Expansion Cups and Plugs Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 198 Piston and Rod Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 199 Connecting Rod Bolt Stretch (Task not specified by NATEF) 200 Cylinder Head Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 201 Timing Gears/Chain/Belt Installation (Task not specified by NATEF) 202 Engine Prelubrication (Task not specified by NATEF) 203 Cylinder Head Cover Identification (Task not specified by NATEF) 204 CHAPTER OUTLINE:

Objectives Key Terms Blueprinting Block Preparation Installing Cups and Plugs Cam Bearings Causes of Premature Bearing Failure Measuring Main Bearing Clearance Correcting Bearing Clearance Lip Seal Installation Rope Seal Installation Installing the Crankshaft Thrust Bearing Clearance Tightening Procedure for the Main Bearing Installing Timing Chains and Gears Piston Fitting Ring End Gap Installing Piston and Rod Assemblies Connecting Rod Side Clearance

Installing the Camshaft for Overhead Cam Engines Head Gaskets Installing the Head Gasket Head Bolt Torque Sequence Torque-to-Yield Bolts Timing Drives for Overhead Cam Engines Lifter and Pushrod Installation Hydraulic Lifters Solid Lifters Assembly Sealants Installing Manifolds Cover Gasket Materials Installing Timing Covers Installing the Vibration Damper Installing the Oil Pump The Oil Pan Installing the Water Pump Engine Painting Checking for Proper Oil Pressure

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Setting Initial Ignition Timing Summary

Review Questions Chapter Quiz

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Describe the procedure for fitting pistons to a cylinder. (Text page 575) Each piston should be installed into each bore and the clearance measured with a strip thickness (feeler) gauge. There are no rings on the piston when making this measurement. 2. Explain how main bearings should be checked and fitted to the crankshaft. (Text pages 573-574) Main bearings should be fitted and the bearing clearance measured before the crankshaft is

lubricated and turned. Bearing clearance is determined by accurate measurement of the assembled bearings and the crankshaft or by using plastic gauging material.

3. How is plastic gauging material used to determine oil clearance? (Text page 570) Plastic gauging material deforms and flattens when placed between the crankshaft and the bearing.

The flatter (wider) the plastic is squeezed, the smaller the clearance. 4. What is the procedure for checking thrust bearing clearance? (Text page 574) Thrust bearing clearance is measured with a thickness (feeler) gauge or dial indicator gauge while

moving the crankshaft lengthwise using an appropriate tool. 5. How should the connecting rod side clearance be measured and corrected? (Text page 578) The connecting rod side clearance is measured using a feeler gauge. If the clearance is too tight, the

connecting rods or the crankshaft have to be reground. 6. How is the piston and connecting rod assembly installed in the engine? (Text page 576) To install the piston/rod assembly, the cylinder and piston should be well lubricated. A piston ring

compressor must be used to retain the piston rings as the piston assembly is taped into the cylinder. The crankshaft must be at BDC and protective covers must be installed over the connecting rod bolts to prevent damage to the crankshaft.

7. What procedures should be followed for installing and torquing the cylinder head? (Text page 581) After being certain all gasket surfaces are perfectly clean, the cylinder head is placed onto the deck of

the block. Head bolts are then installed and torqued in sequence according to the manufacturer’s recommended values and procedures.

8. Describe the torque-to-yield head bolt tightening procedure. (Text page 582) Torque-to-yield head bolts are first torqued to a specification using the recommended tightening

sequence. The head bolts are then turned a specified number of degrees again following the recommended sequence.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Typical piston-to-cylinder clearance is ________. (Text page 575) a. 0.001 to 0.003 inch X b. 0.010 to 0.023 inch c. 0.100 to 0.150 inch d. 0.180 to 0.230 inch 2. If the gauging plastic strip is wide after the bearings are tightened, this indicates ________. (Text page 571) a. A large oil clearance b. An old, dried strip of plastic gauging material c. A small oil clearance X d. A small side (thrust) clearance 3. The most common cause of premature bearing failure is ________. (Text page 570) a. Misassembly b. Dirt X c. Lack of lubrication d. Overloading

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4. Typical thrust bearing clearance is __________. (Text page 574) a. 0.001 to 0.003 inch b. 0.002 to 0.012 inch X c. 0.025 to 0.035 inch d. 0.050 to 0.100 inch 5. Piston ring end gap can be increased by ________. (Text page 575) a. Filing the ring to make the gap larger X b. Installing oversize rings c. Sleeving the cylinder d. Knurling the piston 6. The cylinder head bolts should be tightened (torqued) in what general sequence? (Text page 582) a. The four outside bolts first, then from the center out b. From the outside bolts to the inside bolts c. From the inside bolts to the outside bolts X d. Starting at the front of the engine and torquing bolts from front to rear 7. The torque-angle method involves ________. (Text page 582) a. Turning all bolts the same number of turns b. Torquing to specifications and loosening by a specified number of degrees c. Torquing to one-half specifications, then to three-quarter torque, then to full torque d. Turning bolts a specified number of degrees after initial torque X 8. Turning the oil pump before starting the engine should be done ________. (Text page 590) a. To lubricate engine bearings b. To lubricate valve train components c. To supply oil to the camshaft d. All of the above X 9. Most bolt torque specifications are for ________. (Text page 582) a. Clean threads only b. Clean and lubricated threads X c. Dirty threads d. Dirty threads, but 50% can be added for clean threads 10. Cam bearings should be installed ______________. (Text page 570) a. Dry X b. Oiled c. With at least 0.010 inch of crush d. Both b and c

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CHAPTER 31

Engine Installation and In-Vehicle Service TASK SHEETS IN THE WORKTEXT: Page Remove and Install Engine (A1-A-12) 205

Valve Cover Gasket Replacement (A1-A-13) 206 Timing Belt Replacement (A1-B-13) 207

Timing Chain Replacement (A1-B-13) 208 Engine Oil Change (A1-D-13) 209 Preparing the Engine for Starting (Task not specified by NATEF) 210 Camshaft Replacement (OHV) (Task Not Specified by NATEF) 211 Oil Pan Gasket Replacement (Task Not Specified by NATEF) 212

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How are the clutch and bell housing installed? (Text page 600) The clutch and bell housing are often installed before installing the engine into the vehicle. 2. What should be done to help prevent rear cylinder distortion when the bell housing is being installed on the engine? (Text page 600)

The bell housing must be torqued to the correct amount and procedure to help prevent engine cylinder bore distortion.

3. Describe the engine break-in procedure. (Text page 604) To break in a new engine, the vehicle should be driven in a moderate manner without over revving the engine or lugging the engine.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What can a rebuilder install that can monitor if the engine has been overheated? (Text page 602) a. A thermal disc X b. A coolant leak detection c. An oil level gauge c. Both b and c 2. If the bell housing is not properly torqued to the engine block, ________. (Text page 600) a. The bell housing will distort b. The engine block will crack c. The rear cylinder can be distorted (become out-of-round) X d. The crankshaft will crack 3. Break-in engine oil is ________. (Text page 603) a. Of the same viscosity and grade as that specified for normal engine operation X b. SAE 40 c. SAE 30 d. SAE 20W-50 4. Normal operating temperature is reached when ________. (Text page 603) a. The radiator cap releases coolant into the overflow b. The upper radiator hose is hot and pressurized c. The electric cooling fan has cycled at least once (if the vehicle is so equipped) d. Both b and c occur X

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5. Lugging an engine means ________. (Text page 604) a. Wide-open throttle in low gear above 25 miles per hour b. That engine speed does not increase when the throttle is opened wider X c. Starting a cold engine and allowing it to idle for longer than 5 minutes d. Both b and c 6. Which computer sensor should be replaced if the engine had been found to have a defective head gasket or cracked head? (Text page 602) a. Throttle position sensor b. Oxygen sensor X c. Manifold absolute pressure sensor d. Engine coolant temperature sensor 7. How should the vehicle be driven to best break in a newly overhauled engine? (Text page 603) a. At a steady low speed b. At varying speeds and loads X c. At high speed and loads d. At idle speed and little or no load. 8. Normal operating temperature is achieved when ___________. (Text page 603) a. Heat comes out of the head b. The cooling fans have cycled X c. The engine exhaust gets hot d. The lower hose is hot 9. Pre-lubricating the engine should be done by using the starter motor to rotate the engine until oil pressure is displayed on the gauge. (Text page 600) a. True b. False X 10. Why must flat-bottom camshafts be broken in at a fast idle? (Text page 603) a. Cam in a cam-in-block engine is only lubricated by splash oil X b. The flat-bottom of the lifters have to become slightly concave in order to rotate c. Both a and b are correct d. Neither a nor b are correct

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