ADC 20 Jan 2013 Final

A.H.E.A.D

MDS / ADC / NBDE & NDEB Coaching

AUSTRALIAN DENTAL COUNCIL (ADC) EXAMINATIONS

The ADC examination is a screening examination to establish that dentists trained in dental schools which have not been formally reviewed and accredited by the ADC

have the necessary knowledge and clinical competence to practice dentistry. FACILITIES OFFERED BY AHEAD SUPPORT TEAM

� Examination Initiative support � Procedures for Assessment and Recognition of Overseas Qualification � Eligibility requirement information � Format, Timing and Venues of the ADC Examinations � Occupational English Test (OET) � Preliminary Examination MCQs and SAQs � Study material – Specific test item formats � Entry requirements to New Zealand registration examination process

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060, INDIA

Ph: +91-11- 25716297, +91-9310187297 Email- [email protected]

www.aheadacademy.com

Occupational English Test (OET) or IELTS academic module : ADC now accepts either of the following English language tests: • The International English Language Testing System Academic module (IELTS); or • The Occupational English Test (OET).

The occupational English Test is a test of English for medical and health professionals. It is used for professional registration and migration purposes. As part of the ADC’s assessment and examination pathway, overseas qualified dental practitioners must successfully complete either of the following English language tests at the specified level: • The IELTS academic module, with a minimum score of seven in each of the four components (listening,

reading, writing and speaking); or • The OET, with grades of A or B in each of the four sub-tests (listening, reading, writing and speaking).

All components or sub-tests of either test must be passed at the specified level in a single sitting. A pass in the IELTS or OET (at the specified level) is valid for two years only.

Preliminary examination : It is a written examination in multiple choice and short written answer format. It is designed to test your knowledge of the practice of dentistry and of clinical and technical procedures as they are practiced in Australia. Previous examination papers are not available, but sample multiple choice questions are made available to enrolled candidates. Unlimited attempts are permitted for this examination but a new fee must be paid for each attempt. A pass is valid for three years.

Final Examination - Clinical : In order to be eligible to sit for the Final Examination you must pass the Preliminary Examination. The Clinical examination is held over three to six days. Unlimited attempts are permitted for this examination but it must be undertaken within three years of passing the Preliminary Examination. First attempt candidates will have priority over repeat attempt candidates

ADC EXAM COACHING : Course options at AHEAD Academy

Name of Course Course Content Course Duration Charges Study Material Course

Schedule

1. ADC Simulated Online Test Series for Part – I Exam

Sunday Tests with Explanatory Answers & Combined Rankings. Tests are repeated Online on Weekdays also

10 Months

US $ 900

• AHEAD Review Booklets in all basic & clinical subjects.

• Books recommended for ADC : mcqs & saqs.

• Simulated Tests with Answers

Check Schedule on Page 4

2. Regular Classes with ADC Simulated Tests for Part – I Exam Sat : 2pm to 8pm Sun : 8am to 5pm

Weekend Classes, Tests & Discussions, Explanatory Answers, Combined Rankings, Doubt solving sessions with the expert faculties in all subjects Tests are available Online on Weekdays for practice

10 Months

US $ 1800

• AHEAD Review Booklets in all basic & clinical subjects.

• Books recommended for ADC : mcqs & saqs.

• Simulated Tests with Class Notes, New Mcqs, Assignments with saqs

Check Schedule on Page 4

3. ADC Clinical Training Course for Part – II Exam

Perform Procedures on ADC Simulated Models, Typhodonts & Patients. Exclusive viva interaction on Clinical Procedures, Differential Diagnosis of Pathologies & Treatment Planning

2 Months

US $ 2500

• Previous year viva questions, explanations, notes & expected questions

Check Schedule

on Page 13

Details of Course options for ADC Exam Coaching

Option 1 : Online Test Series for ADC Part – I Exam

Online Tests are available at www.aheadacademy.com � Tests & Discussions covering all subjects to prepare you for

ADC Part - I Exams alongwith study material. � All tests are with explanatory answers, references & combined Rankings � Every Sunday tests are conducted simultaneously online & at AHEAD

Academic Test Centers. � Previous Tests are available for repeat attempts online 24 hours x 7 days � Study material in the form of books recommended for ADC are sent to all

enrolled candidates by courier Option 2 : Regular Classes with Tests & Discussions for ADC part 1 Exam

� Classes are conducted by experienced faculty in all specialties on every Sat & Sun as per the predecided Schedule. Summarized Class notes are distributed.

� Mock ADC Exams are conducted followed by discussions with experts & explanatory answers are distributed after the tests.

� These sessions cover both MCQs & SAQs as per the ADC Exam Pattern. � Doubt Solving sessions are also conducted with the teachers in all subjects. � Weekly assignments are given to all students in order to prepare for the

next forthcoming subject wise test. Option 3 : Clinical Training Course for ADC Part II Exam.

� All procedures are performed by the students on ADC simulated models, typhodonts, extracted teeth & allotted patients

� Focus is on Endodontics, Prosthodontics & Restorative Dentistry with Periodontics, Radiology, Oral Surgery & Pedodontics as additional subjects.

� ADC Simulated Clinical Course allows the candidates to enhance their working skills, learn ideal procedures, practice infection control and gain confidence for handling the patients and perform guided treatment.

� Exclusive Viva Interaction on Differential Diagnosis of various pathologies & their Treatment Planning

Combination of Options 1 & 3 or Options 2 & 3 are also available

SCHEDULE OF FEES BY ADC

Applicable as on 01 January 2012

DENTISTS Item Fee Assessment for Eligibility $ 610 Preliminary Examination: September 2011 $ 1,110 Final (Clinical) Examination: November 2011 series $ 6,615 Supplementary Examination $ 2,185 Verification of Preliminary Examination Results $ 120 Verification of Final (Clinical) Examination Results $ 120 Review Against Procedures of Final (Clinical) Examination $ 950

All fees are shown in Australian dollars

DENTAL HYGIENISTS, DENTAL THERAPISTS Item Fee Assessment for Eligibility $ 610 Issue of ADC Certificate (Dental Hygienist or Dental Therapist) $ 120

All fees are shown in Australian dollars

Please refer to the examining bodies for details of the additional fees charged to sit the examinations Payment to ADC Authorities : • Fees may be paid via bank cheque, VISA, MasterCard or Australia Post money order. • International cheques must be in Australian dollars and drawn against an Australian bank. • Cheques are to be made payable to the Australian Dental Council and accompany all applications.

AHEAD ACADEMY

ADC Tests & Discussions Schedule, 2013

WEEK DAY & DATE TEST M

odul

e –

I 1 Sun, 27th Jan, 13 Anatomy 2 Sun, 3rd Feb, 13 Physiology 3 Sun, 10th Feb, 13 Biochemistry 4 Sun, 17th Feb, 13 Microbiology 5 Sun, 24th Feb, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– II

6 Sun, 3rd March, 13 General Pathology 7 Sun, 10th March, 13 Pharmacology 8 Sun, 17th March, 13 Preventive & Community Dentistry 9 Sun, 24th March, 13 Oral Pathology 10 Sun, 31st March, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– III

11 Sun, 7th April, 13 General Medicine 12 Sun, 14th April, 13 Orthodontics 13 Sun, 21st April, 13 Conservative & Endodontics 14 Sun, 28th April, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– IV

15 Sun, 5th May, 13 Pedodontics 16 Sun, 12th May, 13 Periodontics 17 Sun, 19th May, 13 Dental Materials 18 Sun, 26th May, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– V

19 Sun, 2nd June, 13 Oral Medicine & Radiology 20 Sun, 9th June, 13 Prosthodontics 21 Sun, 16th June, 13 Oral Surgery 22 Sun, 23rd June, 13 General Surgery 23 Sun, 30th June, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– V

I 24 Sun, 7th July, 13 Dental Anatomy & Histology 25 Sun, 14th July, 13 Anatomy 26 Sun, 21st July, 13 Physiology 27 Sun, 28th July, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule–

VII 28 Sun, 4th Aug, 13 Biochemistry

29 Sun, 11th Aug, 13 Microbiology 30 Sun, 18th Aug, 13 General Pathology 31 Sun, 25th Aug, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– V

III 32 Sun, 1st Sept, 13 Pharmacology

33 Sun, 8th Sept, 13 Preventive & Community Dentistry 34 Sun, 15th Sept, 13 Oral Pathology 35 Sun, 22nd Sept, 13 General Medicine 36 Sun, 29th Sept, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– IX

37 Sun, 6th Oct, 13 Orthodontics 38 Sun, 13th Oct, 13 Conservative & Endodontics 39 Sun, 20th Oct, 13 Pedodontics 40 Sun, 27th Oct, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– X

41 Sun, 3rd Nov, 13 Periodontics 42 Sun, 10th Nov, 13 Dental Materials 43 Sun, 17th Nov, 13 Oral Medicine & Radiology 44 Sun, 24th Nov, 13 Module Completion Test

Mod

ule

– X

I 45 Sun, 1st Dec, 13 Prosthodontics 46 Sun, 8th Dec, 13 Oral Surgery 47 Sun, 15th Dec, 13 General Surgery 48 Sun, 22nd Dec, 13 Dental Anatomy & Histology 49 Sun, 29th Dec, 13 Module Completion Test

A.H.E.A.D

MDS / ADC / NBDE Coaching

AHEAD QUICK REVIEW NOTES

Short Answers Questions

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060

Ph: 011- 25716297, 9310187297 Email- [email protected]


ADC (Prelims)

AHEAD Test and Discussions – SAQ Short answers From a personal experience, do not write too much in the short answers exam; write just heading or points of the procedures or description March 2000 1. From the medical history you find the patient is on Tricyclic Anti-depression medication. How would you manage this patient? • Complete building the medical and the dental history to reach a proper diagnosis and find the aetiology of the chief

complaint so I can start assessing the case by evaluating the available information; the overall case assessment is an essential step that allows the considerations of treatment options and a provisional treatment plan to be formulated.

• Consult the patient’s GP for any precautions should be taking or any modification to the treatment should be followed. • Resolution of any acute problems and stabilisation or elimination of active disease. • If it is not possible to get in contact with the GP refer to the MIMs to get more information about the drug to find out

what I can or I can not prescribe • Assessing and managing accordingly any emergencies situations that exist, acute pain, bleeding swelling…etc • Eliminating any acute problems or active diseases I will assess the periodontal tissues and elimination of any active

diseases, regeneration of the periodontal attachment loos and stabilisation of gingival contours would be my next step in managing the patient.

• Reassessment of the periodontal situation by assessing the patient occlusal stability and plan for any restorative or prosthetic management.

• Finally and it is an important part is the patient consultation to present and discuss the treatment plan and give the alternative options, obtaining a patient consent/s, arrange for appointments and financial considerations

• Reconfirm the definitive treatment plan and make sure the patient’s expectations are what the result would be. • Tricyclic has a side affects on the oral cavity by causing dry mouth; and systemically it causes blurred vision,

constipation, and difficulty in urination; postural hypotension; tachycardia, increased sensitivity to the sun; weight gain; sedation (sleepiness); increased sweating. Some of these side effects will disappear with the passage of time or with a decrease in the dosage.

• Bear in mind all this information should be recorded appropriately for future follow up and to adhere to the Australian Dental Board policies.

2. A 23 year-old female comes to you with Gingival abscess in the right upper central incisor region which she had a blow to 10 days ago; since then the tooth is a bit loose, now she is complaining of pain and tenderness started two days ago. What is your management? • Gathering general information including but not limited to name, age, sex, previous major operations, any medication is

taken at the time she is presented…etc. mostly this is prepared and universal for all patients. • Building the medical and the dental history to help building a proper diagnosis and find the aetiology of the chief

complaint so I can start assessing the case by evaluating the available information; the overall case assessment is an essential step that allows the considerations of treatment options and a provisional treatment plan to be formulated.

• Clinical examination in both directions Extra and intra. Extra examination includes the general morphology, skeletal base, skin colour and lesions, eyes, lymph nodes, lip, breathing, TMJ and masticatory muscles. Intra orally starts with soft tissues and oral mucosa and muscles followed by the dental examination by examining the teeth and focusing on the tissues, bone and teeth next to tenderness and the blow area; and look for any attrition, abrasion, erosion, or hypominerlization on the tooth surface or any abnormality in the gingivae or hard tissues “Faceting, fracture or caries of the enamel” then examine the periodontal tissues and record any tooth mobility or badly restored teeth.

• Check the occlusal view if possible and the result of the blow on the occlusal harmony and the other tissues. • Order any special tests required and in this case a periapical to start with seems to be essential. • Assess the case and advise for a rigid splint or extraction and fixed prothesis later…etc and this is completely demandant

on the outcome of the assessment. • Transfer the treatment options to the patient in a simple language and this stage should include the approximate cost and

any need for future follow up.

3. A 13 year old patient has rampant caries and gingival swelling. What are the causes? How to prevent them? What is your management? Most probable cause of the rampant caries is the frequent intake of sugar, then the oral hygiene methods that have been adapted by the patient. But we must be able to visualize adequately a child’s teeth and mouth and have access to a reliable historian for non-clinical data elements.

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060.

Ph: 011 - 25716297, 9310187297. Email- [email protected] www.aheadacademy.com

AHEAD Test and Discussions – SAQ Prevention programme starts with assessing all 3 components of caries risk–clinical conditions, environmental characteristics, and general health conditions; a complete analysing of the diet regime; then build a new diet system prevents less frequent take of carbohydrates and in sever cases could include changing sugar to carbohydrate free substitute. Endorsing a good oral hygiene plan that suits the patient and the advice for a regular topical fluoride application is as important as the diet. Systemic fluoride may be applicable depends on the case and the water fluoridation program in the area.

The management includes, • Gathering general information including but not limited to name, age, sex, previous major operations, any medication is

taken at the time she is presented…etc. mostly this is prepared and universal for all patients. • Building the medical and the dental history to reach a proper diagnosis and find the aetiology of the chief complaint so I

can start assessing the case by evaluating the available information; the overall case assessment is an essential step that allows the considerations of treatment options and a provisional treatment plan to be formulated.

• Clinical examination in both directions Extra and intra. Extra examination includes the general morphology, skeletal base, skin colour and lesions, eyes, lymph nodes, lip, breathing, TMJ and masticatory muscles. Intra orally starts with soft tissues and oral mucosa and muscles followed by the dental examination by examining the teeth and focusing on the tissues, bone and teeth next to tenderness; look for any attrition, abrasion, erosion, hypominerlization or any abnormality in the gingivae or hard tissues “Faceting, fracture or caries of the enamel” then examine the periodontal tissues and record any tooth mobility or badly restored teeth.

• Check the occlusal view if possible and the result of the blow on the occlusal harmony and the other tissues. • Assess the case and treat according to the diagnosis outcome; bearing in mind that the target is to treat the acute problems

or manage any source of pain then reserve as much as possible of the child teeth tissues.

4. Patient with chronic periodontic disease. What are the factors that will influence the management and outcome of this patient? The overall clinical factors are: • Patient age: for two patients with comparable level of the remaining connective tissues attachment and alveolar bone, the

prognosis is better in the older of two. For the younger patient, the prognosis is not as good because of the short time frame in which the periodontal destruction has occurred. In some cases this is maybe because the younger patient suffers from an aggressive type of periodontitis.

• Disease severity: Studies have demonstrated that a patient’s history of previous periodontal disease may be indicative of their susceptibility for future periodontal break down. Prognosis is adversely affected if the base of the pocket is close to the root apex. Also the height of the remaining bone, all these should be weighed against the benefits that would accrue to the adjacent teeth if the tooth under consideration were extracted.

• Plaque control: bacterial plaque is the primary etiological factor associated with periodontal disease. Therefore effective removal of plaque on daily basis by patient is critical to the success of the periodontal therapy and to the prognosis.

• Patient complaisance/ cooperation: the prognosis for patients with gingival and periodontal disease is critically dependant on the patient’s attitude and desire to retain natural teeth, and willingness and ability to maintain good oral hygiene. Without these, treatment can not succeed.

There are systemic and environmental factors such as: • Smoking: Epidemiologic evidence suggests that smoking may be the most important environmental risk factor impacting

the development and progression of periodontal disease. Therefore it should be made clear to the patient that a direct relationship exist between smoking and the prevalence and incidence of periodontitis. Also patient should be informed about the effects of smoking on the healing process.

• Systemic disease /condition: the patient’s systemic background affects overall prognosis in several ways. For example, studies have shown that the severity of periodontitis is significantly higher in patients with type I and II diabetes than in those without diabetes. Patients with diabetes or with newly diagnosed diabetes should be informed about the impact of diabetic control on the development and progression of periodontal disease.

• Genetic factors: periodontal diseases represent a complex interaction between microbial challenge and the host’s response to that challenge, both of which may be influenced by environmental factors such as smoking. There also is evidence that genetic factors may play an important role in determining the nature of the host response.

• Stress: physical and emotional stress, as well as substance abuse, may alter the patient’s ability to respond to the periodontal treatment performed.

The Local Factors: • Plaque /calculus: the microbial challenge presented by bacterial plaque and calculus is the most important local factor in

periodontal diseases. Therefore in most cases, having a good prognosis is dependent on the ability of the patient and the clinician to remove these etiologic factors

• Subgingival restorations: may contribute to increased plaque accumulation, increased inflammation and increased bone loss when compared with supragingival margins.



A.H.E.A.D

MDS / ADC / NBDE Coaching

AHEAD QUICK REVIEW NOTES

Multiple Choice Questions

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D) 57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060

Ph: 011- 25716297, 9310187297 Email- [email protected]


ADC (Prelims)

AHEAD Test and Discussions – ADC Preliminary examination

1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to, A. Avoid buccal pulp horn B. Avoid lingual pulp horn C. Remove unsupported enamel D. Conserve lingual dentine

2. For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you

should, A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more

resistance B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp C. reduce 2mm for retention form

3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you

should, A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly

4. Which of the following statement about the defective

margins of amalgam restorations is true? A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of

decay. 5. The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be

placed, A. Parallel to the outer wall B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth

6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior

Dental Nerve” block is, A. Injecting too low B. Injecting too high

7. Which one of the following is used in water

fluoridation: A. SnF2 B. 1.23% APF C. H2SiF2 D. CaSiF2

E. 8% Stannous fluoride 8. The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of

GIC is, A. H2O2 B. Phosphoric Acid C. Polyacrylic acid

9. The most mineralised part of dentine is,

A. Peritubular dentine 10. A 45 years-old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness

around the eyes, and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had no swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical area of ramififaction. The patient’s temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is: A. Acute periapical abscess B. Angioneurotic oedema C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Acute maxillary sinusitis E. Acute apical periodontitis

11. Internal resorption is, A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal B. Usually in a response to trauma C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal

12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth you could see,

A. Surface resorption, external resorption B. Internal resorption C. Inflammatory resorption D. Replacement resorption E. A, C and D F. All of the above

13. The percentage of total dentine surface / dentinal

tubules 0.5mm away from pulp is, A. 20% B. 50%

14.The junction between primary and secondary dentine is

A. A reversal line B. Sharp curvature C. A resting line D. A reduction in the number of tubules

15. What is the correct sequence of events

A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then enamel formation.

B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium.

C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation.

16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in

dentine caries? A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation,

sclerosis, reparative dentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine,

demineralisation, sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative

dentine, demineralisation. 17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type

of nerve fibres? A. Afferent & sympathetic

18. Which direction does the palatal root of the upper first

molar usually curve towards? A. Facial / buccal B. Lingual C. Mesial D. Distal

19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth

fracture? A. Perio abscess like appearance B. Displacement of fragments

20. Which of the following would be ONE possible

indication for indirect pulp capping? A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result

in pulp exposure. B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ




21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should? A. Review again later B. Start endodontic treatment C. Extraction of tooth

22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a

recently traumatised tooth? A. Obtain baseline response B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality

23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?

A. Decalcification of dentine B. Cleaning debris from root canal

24. What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of

5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation? A. Patient commonly complain of post operative

headache B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained

when the drug is given one hour preoperatively C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side

affects D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8

hours post operatively E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with

Flumazepil 25. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk

patient? A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less

infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more

infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of

HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for

Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood

means that active disease is not present 26. Your employer makes an attempt to update office

sterilization procedures; what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred:** A. Use spore test daily B. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change

tape on each package C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly D. Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests

weekly 27. A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The

answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is: A. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Recurring oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by, A. Bell’s palsy B. Traumatic bone cyst C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region E. Ludwig’s angina

29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture to be present in, A. Symphysis region B. Left body of the mandible C. Left sub-condylar region D. Right sub-condylar region E. sub-condylar region

30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac

failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

31. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring

1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider?** A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the

cyst through the socket B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and

mucosa C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst

through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.

D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.

E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.

32. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period

following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants C. Curettage and dressing of the defect D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

33. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of

parotid mass may be accompanying, A. Lympha adenopathy B. Nodular consistency C. Facial paralysis D. Slow progressive enlargement E. Xerostomia

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D)

57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060. Ph: 011 - 25716297, 9310187297. Email- [email protected] www.aheadacademy.com


34. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?** A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces

dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of

neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve

C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling

D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root

E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

35. Endogenous morphine like substances which can

control pain are known as, A. Bradykinins B. Peptides C. Prostaglandins D. Serotonins E. Enkephalins

36. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of

the following describes this role? A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels C. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation

37. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action

of four factors; which of the following is not one of these factors? A. Necrosis B. Presence of lymphocytes C. Collection of neutrophils D. Accumulation of tissue fluid E. Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes

38. Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified

as an intra-epithelial lesion? A. Herpes simplex infections B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Herpangina D. Lichen planus E. Hand, foot and mouth disease

39. In regard to HIV infection, which of the following is the

earliest finding? A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate B. Reduced haemoglobin C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii D. Reduction in white cells count E. B cell lymphoma

40. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of

trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute

in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually unilateral C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that

when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in

the region of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the

treatment with Carbamazepine

41. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the oral cavity as, A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the

dorsal surface of the tongue B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from

a central groove in the centre of the tongue C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple

irregularly outlined areas D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper

trophic fungiform E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface F. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue

42. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy

leukoplakia? A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is

commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is

commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of

the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia

43. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not

treated? A. Giant cell granuloma B. Lipoma C. Fibrous epulis D. Haematoma E. Pulp polyps

44. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by,

A. Rapid growth and metastasis B. Local cutaneous invasion C. Inability to invade bone D. Poor prognosis E. Radiation resistance F. Can not metastasise to the bone

45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of

the following sites?** A. Lateral border anteriorly B. Anterior dorsal surface C. Posterior dorsal surface D. Lateral border posteriorly E. No preferred location

46. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48

hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis

47. Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by

dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is,

A. Thermodynamic action B. Activation of tissue enzymes C. Osmotic pressure D. Protein precipitation (PPT) E. Neutralization

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D)

57 / 11, Old Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060. Ph: 011 - 25716297, 9310187297. Email- [email protected] www.aheadacademy.com

Documents

ADC 20 Jan 2013 Final