TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTignou.ac.in/userfiles/BTCM-BTWRE Second Year(1).pdf · Torques of 35 kN-m (clockwise) and 45 kN-m (anticlockwise) are applied at 4.5m and 5.5m, ... A beam (Figure

3

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT

ET 502 (Part A)

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all

Blocks of Strength of Materials.

Maximum Marks : 100 Weightage : 30%

Course Code : ET-502A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2014

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) A rectangular block of a material is subjected to a tensile stress system as shown in

Figure 1, as well as shear stresses. Find the (i) Magnitude and direction and nature of principal stresses, (ii) Magnitude, and direction of the greatest and least shear stress.

Figure 1 : Quantities in kN/mm2

(b) With reference to Figure 2 find the position of c.g. of the given T-section.

Figure 2

400

400

1000 1000

600

600

150 mm

115 mm

10.0 mm

10.0 mm

4

Q.2 (a) Show that the ratio, in terms of Poisson’s ratio (υ), of the change of volume of a thin cylindrical shell to that of a thin spherical shell, having the same internal pressure,

diameter, thickness and volume is equal to

ν−

ν−

)1(3

45.

(b) Show that for a beam of triangular cross section, the ratio of maximum intensity of shear stress to the shear stress at the N – A is 9:8.

(c) A thin cylindrical vessel 2m in diameter and 4m in length contains a particular gas at a pressure of 1.5 N/mm2. If the permissible tensile stress of the material of the shell is 135 N/mm2 , find the minimum thickness required for the vessel.

Q.3 (a) The frame as shown in Figure 3 carries the given loads as indicated. Find the reactions at A and B; and the force developed in all the members by :

(i) method of joints

(ii) method of sections

(iii) graphical construction.

Also, indicate the nature of these forces.

Figure 3 : Simply Supported

(b) In the truss shown in Figure 4, find the reactions, and the magnitude as well as nature of the force developed in all the members by all the three methods as in 3(a) above.

Figure 4 : Simply Supported

15 m

30o 60o

A B

4000 kg

3000 kg

4 m 4 m 4 m

2 t 3 t

3 t

F

E

B A

G

C D 30

o 30o

5 t 7 t

5

Q.4 (a) For the given beam (Figure 5) draw the S.F. and BM, and thrust diagrams.

Figure 5

(b) Prove that for a beam of circular cross-section, the ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress = 4/3.

(c) A circular beam of 200 mm diameter is subjected to a shear force of 25 kN. Find the value of maximum shear stress and of average shear stress.

Q.5 (a) A solid shaft is to transmit a power of 500 kw at 100 rpm. If the shear stress is not to exceed 70 N/mm2, in weight would be obtained if this shaft were replaced by a hollow

one whose internal diameters is 0.8 × external diameter – the length, material, and maximum shear stress being the same.

(b) A steel shaft of 300 mm diameter and 10.0 m long is fixed at its ends. Torques of 35 kN-m (clockwise) and 45 kN-m (anticlockwise) are applied at 4.5m and 5.5m, respectively form its left end. Plot the variation of torque, surface shear stress, and angle for twist along the shaft length. Take C = 85 MPa.

Q.6 (a) A compressed gas cylinder has an internal diameter of 1500 mm, and the walls are 20mm thick. The efficiency of the longitudinal and circumferential joints are 75% and 60%, respectively. The maximum allowable tensile stress for the material of the cylinder is 1000 N/mm2. Find the allowable pressure of the gas.

(b) Prove that for a beam of triangular cross-section, the maximum shear stress can be expressed as 3 F/(bh), where h = height of the triangle, b = base of the triangle.

(c) A beam of triangular cross-section of base width = 150 mm and a height of 75mm is subjected to a shear force of 3.5 kN. Find the maximum shear stress, and the shear stress at the N.A.

Q.7 (a) A beam (Figure 6) carries a uniformly distributed load w kN/m over its central span of 2/3l, and a uniformly varying load for the rest of the span as shown. Draw S.F. and B.M diagrams for the beam.

Figure 6

4.25 m 2 m 0.5 m 3 m

45o 60

o

2 kN/m sum

6 kN

6 kN

8 kN

l/6 l/6

2/3 l

u.d.l. w kN/m sum

6

(b) A compound bar is made partly of Aluminum (B-portion), and partly of steel (A-portion) as shown in Figure 7. Calculate the magnitude of the axial compressive force (p) that will cause a total contraction of 0.25mm in the bar. Assume the bar is prevented from

buckling. Take 4 4 220 10 7 10

2N/mm ; and N/mm .s ALE E= × = ×

Figure 7

Q.8 (a) Two similar round bars A and B (Figure 8), both receive an axial blow, which produces a maximum stress of 2000 kN/mm2. Determine the ratio of stress energy stored in the bars B and A.

Figure 8

(b) Find the centroid of the plane Figure ABDFGEC (Figure 9).

Figure 9

150 mm

250 mm

20 mm

40 mm

275 mm

125 mm

20 mm

40 mm

A B

A

B C D E a F G

AB = AC = 4.5 m a = 30 cm x = 1.75 m

x X

1 m

300 mm

45 mm dia.

600 mm

105 mm dia.

B

A

P

P

7

Q.9 (a) Using Castigliano’s theorem, determine the deflection of the quarter points and the center of the beam (Figure 10). Assume uniform flexural rigidly (EI) throughout the beam.

Figure 10

(b) Using Castigliano’s theorem, find the deflection of the center, and quarter points of the beam (Figure 11) for the given loading.

Figure 11

Q.10 (a) A straight bar has a circular section, whose radius varies linearly from 50 mm at one end A to 25 mm at the other and B. The bar is 1.7m long and is fixed rigidly at A, but longitudinal movement is possible at B against a spring, which opposes this movement with a constant stiffeners of 20 kN/mm. Initially there is no longitudinal stress in the bar. Determine the change in the bar length if the temperature of the bar (i) fans by 800 k, and

(ii) rises by 500 k, Take E = 69 GN/m2, and α = 23 × 10-6 k-1.

(b) A water tank suspended from the top is made of a right circular cone of height 1.75 m with its base diameter = 1.3 m.

Find the maximum stresses in the tank, when it is : (i) 1/2, (ii) 3/4th, and (iii) full filled with water. Thickness of the tank material = 12 mm.

l

W/m sum

l/3

W/m sum

l/3 l/3

8


ET 502 (Part B)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Structural Analysis.


Course Code : ET-502B Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2014

BTWRE

Q.1 Draw influence line diagrams for moment at E, reaction at D and shear at C in Figure 1.

Figure 1

Q.2 Figure 2 shows a frame hinged at base. Calculate the end reactions and draw the B.M. diagram. EI is constant.

Figure 2

B E D C A

1 m 1 m 1 m 1 m

C

RD

H

E

D

B

A

w

RE

H

5 m 10 m

15 m

10 m

9

Q.3 Figure 3(a) shows a fixed beam with a point load. Calculate the support reactions with the help of Castigilano’s II theorem. The beam can be supposed to be simply supported with proper support reactions as shown in Figure 3(b).

(a) (b)

Figure 3

Q.4 A rigid frame shown in Figure 4 is fixed at A and D and is hinged at C. The moment of inertia of all the members is the same. Calculate the support moments and draw the B.M. and S.F. diagrams and sketch the deflected structure.

Figure 4

Q.5 Figure 5 shows a portal frame. Find the reactions at the supports A and D. Draw BMD

Figure 5

10 kN

B A

10 m

2.5 m mmm

7.5 m

B A

10 m

2.5 m 7.5 m

RA RB

10 kN

MA MB

1 kN/m

I

2 I

20 m

15 m

I

A

B C

D

A C

55 m

D

B

1 kN/m 5 kN

15 m

10 m 15 m

10

Q.6 A three-hinged symmetrical parabolic arch has a span of 90 m and a central rise of 15 m. It carries two 100 kN loads at 15 m and 30 m from left hand support and a udl of 3 kN/m over the right half of the span. Draw the bending moment diagram and calculate the bending moment, normal thrust and radial shear at a point 30 m from the right hand support.

Q.7 Analyse the portal frame ABCD loaded as shown in Figure 6. The members are made with same material, length and moment of inertia of each member are mentioned in Figure.

Figure 6

Q.8 Analyse the prismatic beam shown in Figure 7 using three-moment theorem and draw the

bending moment diagram. The support B sinks by 5 mm. Take EI = 36 × 103 kN/m2 as constant for the beam.

Figure 7

Q.9 Analyze the plane frame shown in Figure 8 using symmetry concept (EI = Constant).

Figure 8

D

B

A

4 I

4 I 11.12 kN

10 m

10 m

C

I 5 m

A

2 kN/m

C

B

20 kN

1 m 1 m 1 m 1 m

A D

C B

2 m

5 m

100 kN

2 m

5 kN/m

11

Q.10 (a) Determine the ultimate load W for the frame shown in the Figure 9. The ultimate moment capacities for AB, BC and CD are 2 Mpa, 4Mpa and 3 Mpa respectively.

Figure 9

(b) Find the collapse load factor in terms of Mp for the frame shown in Figure 10.

Figure 10

20 kN

4 m MP

2 MP

A D

C

B

3 m 3 m

MP

50 kN

4 W

W

2 m

3 m

4 MP

D

2 MP

8 m

4 m

C

3 MP

B

6 m

A

12


ET 521 (Part A)

PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF BUILDINGS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Planning and Construction of Buildings.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Describe the basic needs that form the basis for judging the suitability of a site for all

types of building.

(b) “Every developmental activity of man has some positive and some negative impacts upon the environment”. Explain the significance of this statement.

Q.2 Give the classification under which the following buildings fall

(i) Flats

(ii) Test houses

(iii) Custodial institutions

(iv) Shops

(v) Auditoria

(vi) Power plants

(vii) Assembly halls

(viii) Transit sheds

(ix) Banks

(x) LPG cylinder storage

Q.3 Determine the minimum area of a plot for three storied residential building having four flats of 180 m2 area in each floor for the given data:

(a) Area for staircase and access should not exceed 25% of the ground floor area of the building, and

(b) FAR is to be restricted to 1.50.

Q.4 A plot of land measures 12 m × 24 m. The front road is 7.5 m wide facing east. Service lane is on the rear measuring 3 m. Prepare a suitable plan of a three bedroom residential building keeping in mind the restrictions imposed by municipality of your city.

Q.5 (a) Describe the determinants for design of a building.

(b) Describe the general requirements of “Hazardous Buildings”. Also explain the important points to be considered in the planning of these buildings.

Q.6 (a) Explain the various points to be kept in mind during planning of rural houses.

13

(b) Describe the different types of construction of a wall with mud.

Q.7 (a) Describe the causes for settlement of foundation.

(b) Under what circumstances would you adopt a Raft Foundation? Explain the features of such a foundation in brief.

Q.8 (a) Explain the various functions served by walls in a building.

(b) How would you ensure good Workmanship and Quality Assurance in Masonry Construction?

Q.9 Describe the various points to be considered while locating windows in a room. Normally what percentage of area is provided for window opening?

Q.10 (a) Explain the different ways in which stone is used as a facing material.

(b) Explain in brief the various kinds of thermal institution.

14


ET 521 (Part B)

BUILDING ARCHITECTURE

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the

brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Building Architecture.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) How does an Architecture’s role differ from an Engineer in any building project? What is

his approach towards designing a building? What kind of problem does he solve by his architectural design?

(b) Differentiate between architect, engineer and sculptor.

(c) What is the role of science and technology in architecture?

(d) List the elements that constitute our visual language. How do they affect your design?

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 = 10)

Q.2 (a) What are the principles of good design? Give an example of a building in which some of these principles have been employed?

(b) What are the visual properties and the types of form and space in architecture and how they are organized?

(c) Describe the characteristics of Egyptian Architecture. What are the systems of construction in Egyptian architecture? Name the major building types of Egyptian Architecture.

(3 + 3 + 4 = 10)

Q.3 What are the factors that affected Greek Architecture? Describe the following:

(i) Greek Temples

(ii) Greek Dwellings

(iii) Function of Roman forum

(iv) System of water supply in Roman Architecture

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 = 10)

Q.4 (a) Write in short about the structural system of Gothic Building. How the “quality of light” in the interiors of Gothic Catheral was made possible?

(b) What are the building types in Renaissance Architecture? Write in brief on the design and constructional aspects of St. Peter in Rome.

(c) Name the countries where Baroque expression flourished. Write about the system of construction of the Baroque Age. Name the major building types.

(d) Discuss in details the system of construction in both Buddhist and Hindu Architecture.

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 = 10)

15

Q.5 (a) Name the scripture of Vastu–Shastra. What are the style of Indian Architecture?

(b) What is the departure in the system of construction after the arrival of Islamic rule in India?

(c) Which was the earliest mosque on Indian Soil? Discuss in detail construction of “Taj Mahal”.

(d) Write in details about Colonial and Modern Architecture?

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 = 10)

Q.6 (a) What is Anthropometry? What are the types of human dimensions? How are aesthetic visual proportions evolved out of human dimensions?

(b) What are the main types of activity related spaces in a building? Write the components of an activity-space?

(c) What is the psychological dimension of space? What is bubble diagram?

(d) What are the environmental factors and how does a building modulate it? What are the various climatic zones of India? Discuss the main determining factors considered for the classification of the climatic zones in India.

(3 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 10)

Q.7 (a) What are the various fitments used in a building water supply system?

(b) What are the important points to consider in house drainage design?

(c) Write notes on the followings :

(i) Gully Trap

(ii) Sanitary fittings

(iii) Septic tank

(iv) Surface and concealed wiring

(3 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 10)

Q.8 (a) What is comfort? What conditions make for comfort inside a building? How does an Architect ensure comfort inside a building?

(b) What are shell and pneumatic structures? Where would you use such a structures? Where will you put a space frame?

(c) Differentiate “Arch” and “Vault”.

(d) Briefly explain:

(i) Truss and types of truss

(ii) Geodesic dome

(iii) Simple Rigid Frame

(3 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 10)

Q.9 (a) What are the different types of foundation?

(b) Differentiate between shallow and deep foundations.

(c) Differentiate between painting, varnishing and distempering.

(d) What are the different types of bricks and stone masonry?

(e) What are different types of stairs?

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 = 10)

16

Q.10 (a) Explain the role of an Architect in building project. What are the different types of Tender?

(b) What is a professional Code of Conduct? Explain the duties and liabilities of an Architect.

(c) How does computer help in architects work?

(d) Differentiate ‘hardware’ and software?

(4 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

17


ET 521 (Part C)

DESIGN DETAILING

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Design Detailing.


Course Code : ET-521C Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2014

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Determine the self-weight of a brick wall per running meter, considering its height to be 4 m when brick wall thickness is 230 mm and plaster of 12 m on inner face while 25 mm on the outer face.

(b) Why do we need concrete cover reinforcement mention the requirement for different member types.

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Draw neat sketch of a square foundation of building 3.5 x 3.5 m for a rectangular column of size 900 x 300 mm considering sloping footing.

(b) State the advantages of limit-state approach method.

(8 + 2 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Draw to a suitable scale a layout plan of continuous beam of size 300 x 800 mm over three spans. The two-end spans being 8 m while central one is 4 m, construction is monolithic with RCC slab 150 mm thick which is one way continuous in direction perpendicular to the beam. The slab 20 x 9 m is spanning over 4-beam equi-spaced at 3m c/c and overhanging by 0.75 m on either side.

(b) The slab is subjected to on imposed live load of 5 kN/m2. Assuming slab to be 150 mm thick, draw neat detail of continuous slab. Write a suitable schedule of reinforcement detail of the slab.

(c) Draw typical details of two pile group with 600 mm diameter pile supporting a column 400 x 600 mm.

(10)

Q.4 (a) Explain in brief notes:

(i) Form lining materials

(ii) Telescopic beam

(b) Design the sheeting and beam for RCC flat slab 200 mm thick on 5 m x 5 m module, height 4 m. Assume 25 m planks are available.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Determine the working moment of resistance (MR) in kNm units of ISMB 400 and ISMB 400. Refer standard tables, in the IS handbook for structural engineer.

(b) How does built-up section achieve economy?

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.6 Design the member and gusset plate connection for a tension member for a truss to carry an axial tension of 120 kN. Draw a neat sketch showing the connection.

(10)

18

Q.7 (a) In how many different ways can one weld two structural member. Draw appropriate sketches to explain them.

(b) You are in a fillet weld shop. You need to connect < 2 angles (65 x 65 x 6) to carry 200 kN as shown in Figure 1.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Figure 1

Q.8 (a) Draw a typical detail of a Purlin supported on truss.

(b) Draw a detail of an open web girder at its end supported on steel column of I-section for a hinged connection.

(4 + 6 = 10)

Q.9 (a) Calculate the number of twin mirror optic fluorescent fixtures with 40 w Tube lights for an office area of 20 m x 20 m with a floor to false ceiling height of 2.5 m. The required illumination is 300 lux. Use the following data.

C = Coefficient of utilization for the room with spacing to height ratio of 1.3 is 0.7,

D = lamp derating factor is 0.90.

I = lumens per wait is 55.

M = mutual induction for two lamps in the same fittings is 0.92

(b) Sketch and explain physical requirement for lifts in a building.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.10 (a) Write short notes on :

(i) Principle of air conditioning

(ii) Water chillers

(b) Calculate solar and trans gain at 4.00 pm for the month of June in New Delhi. Inside design condition is 24oC DB and 50% RH. The wall under consideration is facing south-west and is 3 m high and 10m long, with 200 mm thick brick exposed on the exterior but interior plastered.

(4 + 6 = 10)

200

200

200 200

200

2 m

Y1

Y1

Plate 80 × 6 (L = 422 mm)

24, 65 × 85 × 6

19


ET 521 (Part D)

QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION


Blocks of Quantity Surveying and Valuation.


Course Code : ET-521D Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2014

BTCM

Q1. (a) Explain in brief, the major subheads or groups into which a detailed estimate of a building

project is divided.

(b) How are bills of quantities made? Give a format of a preliminary Estimate.

Q.2 Draw (to scale) the plans (of all floors) and sections of your hostel of polytechnic from where you have received your diploma in Civil Engineering on a drawing sheet and prepare an estimate of quantities of all the items concerning the structure.

Q.3 Discuss the use of a computer for preparing the billing of quantities of a road construction and repair project.

Q.4 (a) Why is quality assurance gaining importance in construction industry? Disucss.

(b) Discuss the detailed specification of Damp Proof course (DPC) 2.5 cm.

Q.5 Calculate the cost of providing and laying cement concrete 1 : 5 : 10 (1 cement: 5 coarse sand : 10 stone aggregate) in foundations and plinth.

Q.6 Explain in detail what are different methods of valuation of properties. Which valuation method would you adopt in valuing of tenanted old property but which has substantial surplus developable land appurtenant?

Q.7 Prepare a preliminary estimate of a four storyed office building having a carpet area of 2700 m2 for obtaining the administrative approval of competent authority. It may be assumed that 25% of the built up area will be occupied by corridors, lavatories, staircases, etc and 10% of the built up area will be occupied by walls.

Q.8 A building fetches a gross rent of Rs. 10,000/- per month assuming 30% outgoings for taxes, 15% for repair and maintenance and 5% to set aside to accumulate the cost of buildings, determine its capitalized value at 6% interest per annum.

Q.9 Write a short notes on the following :

(a) Management Information System (MIS)

(b) Acquisition of Excess Land

(c) Annuity

(d) Profit capitalisation method

Q.10 Differentiate between the following :

(a) Plinth and covered area

(b) Depreciation and obsolescence

(c) Pointing and painting

(d) Unit method and cube method of estimation

20


ET 522

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION TECHNIQUES


Blocks of Concrete Technology and Construction Techniques.


Course Code : ET-522 Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2014

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Briefly discuss the process of manufacture of Portland Cement.

(b) Explain the basic raw materials used in the manufacture of cement. Also write down the approximate oxide composition limits of Ordinary Portland Cement.

Q.2 (a) Classify Aggregates on the basis of weight, source, size and shape.

(b) What do you mean by the Fineness Modulus? Explain the method of determining the fineness modules of aggregate with the help of an example.

Q.3 (a) Discuss the effect of oil contamination of water on concrete.

(b) Explain the important properties of fresh and hardened concrete, which can be altered by use of admixtures?

Q.4 (a) What do you mean by workability? Explain the various factors affecting workability of concrete.

(b) Describe the various methods adopted for compacting the concrete.

Q.5 (a) Define ‘Water/Cement’ ratio. Explain its significance.

(b) Describe the effect of permeability on durability of concrete. Also describe the various ways by which impermeability of concrete can be improved.

Q.6 (a) What are the basic differences between Destructive testing and Non-destructive testing?

(b) What do you mean by Segregation? Explain the conditions, which could encourage segregation?

Q.7 (a) Explain the important parameters to be considered for concrete mix design. Discuss how these parameters affect concrete mix design.

(b) Discuss different types of polymer concrete. Explain their applications.

Q.8 (a) What do you mean by shotcreting? Explain the various processes used in shotcreting. Which process of shortcreting would you prefer?

(b) Discuss the effects of cold weather on concreting.

Q.9 (a) Describe in brief various equipment used for compaction of soils.

(b) Discuss different types of formwork and scaffolding.

Q.10 (a) Discuss in brief various methods of dewatering. Explain their advantages and disadvantages.

(b) What is diaphragm wall. Explain its uses.

21


ET 523 (Part A)

CONSTRUCTION WORKS SUPERVISION

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Construction Works Supervision.



BTCM

Q.1 Visit a near by project. Draw, on a full-sized drawing sheet(s), its full layout – giving all the units, and discuss why the units are laid out as such. Suggest any change with reasons thereof.

(10)

Q.2 Choose a double or multistoreyed building (give name, place, and date); and, prepare an estimate of various quantities in the prescribed format. Give abstract of quantities and the total cost of the work. Provide sketches on a drawing sheet explaining the dimensions you use in your calculations.

(10)

Q.3 Design a 1000-student school, and attached hostel (with a kitchen block). Draw the plans, sections, and elevators on drawing sheets. Give complete techniques, specifications of the items, and estimate the materials required in a standard format. And, prepare a bar-bending schedule of the MS bass to be used.

(20)

Q.4 Outline the procedure (step-by-step) to set out a drain, a culvert, and a building in a given colony.

(5)

Q.5 Prepare in a typical format the following:

(i) Muster roll for skilled and unskilled labour

(ii) Measurement book

(iii) Material-at-site accounts for a real life work (road/bridge/building).

(5)

Q.6 (a) Write detailed technical specifications for following items of work:

(i) Earthwork in embankment and cutting;

(ii) L.C. in foundations of builings;

(iii) Laying of steel (MS) for RCC roof slab, and RCC column;

(iv) Concreting for item iii) above

(b) A column 45 × 45 cm, 5 m high, is composed of RCC (1 : 2 : 4). Design the formwork for it and give plan, section, and elevations of this (completely of timber).

(2 + 8 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Draw a flow chart (with full explanations) for the construction of (i) a bridge (RCC), (ii) a two-storyed of building. Indicate the critical path.

(b) Differentiate between PERT and CPM.

22

(7 + 3 = 10)

Q.8 (a) A flyover is proposed to be constructed in a big city. Draw, on a full-drawing sheet, the plan of the traffic movement if the flyover is to cone over a crossing of two roads. Also draw a flow chart for this work.

(b) Draw a flow chart for the construction of a sub-way under a very busy road.

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.9 (a) (i) What are the different types of “Owner’s Materials”? Discuss in detail.

(ii) Discuss the essential contents of a log-book for Owner’s equipment.

(iii) Explain the procedure you would adopt to ensure proper accounting of major spare parts, vis-à-vis, a given work.

(b) Write, in detail, an essay (400 words) on anti-termite treatment (giving sketches) for all the items of a building work.

(5 + 5 =10)

Q.10 (a) (i) Summarise in 250 words IS Code (1727–1967) – Method of Test for Pozzolanic

materials,

(ii) Summarise in 250 words IS Code (737–1986) – specifications for wrought aluminium, and aluminium alloy, steel and strip for general engineering purposes.

(b) (i) Give plan, section and other details of a water pumping set.

(ii) Draw a plan of water-softening plant.

(c) Describe how a 1 : 2 : 4 cement concrete should be prepared, carried and laid at site.

(3 + 5 + 2 = 10)

23


ET 523 (Part B)

OPERATION AND MAINTENANCE OF CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT


Blocks of Operation and Maintenance of Construction Equipment.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) What do you understand by equipment planning? How do you select the number and size of machines?

(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of purchase of an equipment as compared with renting it?

Q.2 (a) How do health hazards occur and how can they be avoided on a construction project?

(b) How do breakdowns affect production of an equipment? How will you handle breakdowns?

Q.3 (a) How are job and management factors considered in obtaining the average output of equipment?

(b) Explain what is downtime of a machine? How are down tine costs computed?

Q.4 (a) List the problems in planning the power supply to the construction project. What measures can be taken to avoid these problems?

(b) Explain how compressed air requirements for a number of equipment and tools are assessed.

Q.5 (a) What is spare parts inventory? List the various costs associated with it. How do you maintain the spare parts inventory to minimize the cost of this inventory for a particular construction project?

(b) For a particular construction project, write the general rules, you will follow for replacing of an equipment.

Q.6 (a) Explain briefly the four major types of inspections, while periodical maintenance is carried out.

(b) What is a preventive maintenance and what are its principal objectives?

Q.7 (a) Describe the role of project manager in equipment maintenance and repair schedule.

(b) Explain why the costing records are maintained on any job. What are the various types of costing records.

Q.8 (a) What are the various types of pumps? How will you describe a rotadynamic pump?

(b) Describe the working of double acting reciprocating pump? Also explain the advantages and disadvantages of reciprocating pumps.

Q.9 (a) How are IC engines classified? What are the characteristics of IC engines needed for heavy construction equipment?

(b) What are the functions and requirements of the ignition system on petrol engines?

Q.10 (a) What do you understand by the term compressor efficiency and volumetric efficiency?

24

(b) For a 8.92 cum/min two-stage portable compressor, the manufacturer’s specification gave the following information:

(i) No. of low pressure cylinders / = 4

(ii) No. of high pressure cylinders / = 2

(iii) Diameter of low pressure cylinders / = 17.78 cm.

(iv) Diameter of high pressure of cylinders / = 14.61 cm.

(v) Length of strokes / = 12.7 cm.

(vi) RPM / = 870.

Determine the volumetric efficiency of the compressor.

25


ET 523 (Part C)

REPAIR AND MAINTENANCE OF BUILDINGS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Repair and Maintenance of Buildings.



BTCM

Q1. What are the common defects in floorings? How will you diagnose and treat them?

Q.2 Explain the difference between:

(i) Cracking and spelling

(ii) Scaling and delamination

(iii) Shear cracks and flexural cracks in concrete beams

(iv) Vertical cracks and diagonal cracks in a brick wall.

Q.3 What is dampness in buildings? What precautions you will take to prevent dampness?

Q.4 Enumerate the various ‘defects’ caused in timber due to ‘fungi’ and ‘insects’. Explain how each of them can be prevented.

Q.5 What are the various defects in glazed-wave sanitary equipment and how are they tested? State the maximum permitted blemishes in case where allowed.

Q.6 Explain how ‘clogging’ is removed from sewer lines in the following cases:

(i) in horizontal lengths of sewers, and

(ii) in vertical stacks.

Q.7 How can strengthening of the following existing structures be carried out:

(i) An existing foundation for increasing its bearing capacity

(ii) An existing concrete beams

(iii) A load–beaming brick masonry wall

(iv) A fire–damaged building slab.

Q.8 (a) Explain how you will go about strengthening cracked up RCC beams.

(b) Discuss the procedures for checking dampness and leakages in buildings.

Q.9 Referring to texts/literature, discuss the following

(i) Manufacture and use of mild and medium tensile steel bars;

(ii) Use of high-strength deformed steel bars/wires

(iii) Manufacture and use of carbon steel.

26

Q.10 Draw dimensioned and labeled sketches for the following items (isometric view, elevation, plan and section):

(i) Ball-valve

(ii) Flushing cistern; and

(iii) Shower and its fittings.

27


ET 524 (Part A)/534 (Part A)

PRINCIPLES OF ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT AND ECONOMICS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Principles of Engineering Management and Economics.


Course Code : ET-524A/534A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2014

BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 What do you understand by decision making? Do you feel it is better to take group decision

rather than individual decision? If so why? Give reasons and justify your answer.

Q.2 A manager should have concern for the production as well as the people working for him. However, the social and traditional culture of a place and country also plays a major role. Please explain the managing style of Japanese visa-vis Indians managers through a managerial gird and indicate the position of two in the grid as per your thinking.

Q.3 Explain the term ‘Demand Elasticities’. What are the demand-determinants involved? What are the five critical values of elasticity? Explain through various curves and diagrams. Identify the more elastic item from the pairs given below.

(a) Petrol and electricity

(b) Mangoes and rice

(c) Tomato and sauce

Q.4 Write short notes on the following.

(a) Need Hierarchy Theory

(b) The Johari Window

Q.5 Command and control is a very important aspect of an organization. Please indicate what type of command would you prefer and why? Do you believe in limits laid down by span of control principle. If so justify your answer. If there are six (6) subordinates how many number of relationship do you expect between manager and subordinates.

Q.6 What do you understand from the following? Explain in detail.

(a) The operating characteristic curve of sampling

(b) ISO 9000

Q.7 In a financial transaction, the interest amount can be calculated by using six formulae. What are these formulae, differentiate among them and select your examples to show the calculation of interest.

Q.8 Value engineering is the buzz word and in modern times of competitiveness, this has assumed greater importance. In this light, please explain the following.

(a) Value and value engineering through utility v/s cost curve

(b) Value engineering in project life cycle

(c) Functions and value

28

Q.9 You have been selected by a Multi National Company as the Indian representative of the company. Company intends to launch its operations in Indian Infrastructure Development. As the head of operation and planning, how will you plan your strategy? Describe in various phases, the activities, reports and system you plan to follow.

Q.10 You are the Human Resource head of a construction company involved in Roads and Highway Construction. How will you plan the training of workers without disturbing the work and enhancing the quality and technical know-how of the workers.

29


ET 301 (Part A)/ET-534 (Part B)

SYSTEMS METHODS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Systems Methods.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) What do you understand by the word system? Describe how the thermostat of a

refrigerator and a room air-conditioner works. Draw schematic and block diagrams.

(b) Describe the significance of mathematical models for mechanical system.

(c) What is the importance of physical models? Describe any of two types of physical models.

(d) Derive the electric analogue of a spring mass-damper system. (10)

Q.2 (a) Describe the automatic temperature control system incorporated in the electric iron, and draw a functional block diagram for it.

(b) Draw a speed control system for a DC motor. Discuss the operation of this system under No load, open loop and no load, closed loop conditions.

(c) Discuss the stability of control systems. Describe the various conditions for stability.

(d) The DC motor is the most suitable motor for variable speed drives. State the reasons.

(10)

Q.3 (a) What assumptions underlie the linear programming method?

(b) XYZ chemical company is producing two products A and B. The processing times are 3 hours and 4 hours per unit for A on operations one and two respectively and 4 hours and 5 hours per unit for B on operations one and two respectively. The available time is 18 hours and 21 hours for operation one and two respectively. The product A can be sold at Rs. 3/- profit per unit and B at Rs. 8/- profit per unit. Solve for maximum profit programme. Use Graphic Solution Method. (5+5=10)

Q.4 A company sells two different products A and B. The selling price and incremental cost information are as follows are :

Product A Product B

Selling Price Rs. 60/- Rs. 40/-

Variable Cost Rs. 30/- Rs. 10/-

The two products are produced in a common production process and are sold in two different markets. The production process has a capacity of 30,000 man-hours. It takes three hours to produce a unit of A and one hour to produce a unit of B. The market has been surveyed and the company officials feel that the maximum number of units of A that can be sold is 6000 and maximum number for B is 12,000 units. Subject to these limitations two products can be sold in any combination. Formulate and solve to maximize contribution. Use Simplex Method.

(10)

Q.5 (a) Show that an assignment problem can be set up as a transportation problem. Viewed in this way, what special feature does the problem have?

30

(b) Consider problem of assigning five operators to five machines. The assignment costs are given below :

Operators

Machines

I II III IV V

A 10 5 13 15 16

B 3 9 18 3 6

C 10 7 2 2 2

D 5 11 9 7 12

E 7 9 10 4 12

Formulate model to determine an optimal assignment. Write the objective function and constraints in details. (5+5=10)

Q.6 (a) Prove that for any transportation problem at most m + n – 1 cells must be filled up to solve the problem.

(b) Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to following Transportation Problem :

Stores

Ware House

I II III IV Availability

A 7 3 5 5 34

B 5 5 7 6 15

C 8 6 6 5 12

D 6 1 6 4 19

Demand 21 25 17 17 80

(5+5=10)

Q.7 (a) Describe the factors affecting inventory.

(b) For any company, collect relevant information regarding various elements of ordering cost, carrying cost and shortage cost and calculate these costs.

(c) Analyse the inventory situation in a construction company for one to two years period in respect of ABC and VED classification. What type of control activities do you propose for each type of items? (3+3+4=10)

Q.8 (a) Consider a linear programming problem with n variables and m components. Is it possible to characterize it as a multi-stage problem? Justify your answer.

(b) What is dynamic programming and what it its scope? (5+5=10)

Q.9 XYZ Tailoring House has one tailor specialized in men’s shirts. The number of customers requiring stitching of shirts appears to follow Poisson distribution with mean arrival rate of 12 per hour. Customers are attended to by the tailor on a first-come-first served basis, and they are willing to wait for service if there be queue. The time the tailor takes to attend a customer is exponentially distributed with a mean of 4 minutes. Determine :

(a) The utilization parameter (i.e. traffic intensity).

(b) The probability that the queue system is idle.

31

D

5 6

1

2

4

3

7 9

A H

K

J

4

3

B

2

C

E

2

I

45

2 G

4

6

38

(c) The average time the tailor is free on 8-hour working day.

(d) What is the probability that there shall be 5 customers in the shop (at a point of time)?

(e) What is the number of customers in the shop? (10)

Q.10 (a) A Project Schedule has the following characteristics :

Activity Time

1 – 2

1 – 3

2 – 4

3 – 4

3 - 5

4 – 9

5 – 6

5 – 7

6 – 8

7 – 8

8 – 10

9 – 10

4

1

1

1

6

5

4

8

1

2

5

7

Construct a Network Diagram.

(b) For the following PERT Diagram :

Figure

(i) Compute earliest event time and latest event time.

(ii) Find critical path and total project duration.

(i) Compute total, free, and independent float for each activity.

(5+5=10)

32

Rise of truss = 3m

Spacing of truss = 3m

Height of truss base from ground = 6m

All connections shall be welded DL, LL, and WL only may be considered for design.

Q.10 A welded plate girder of 30 m span is loaded as shown infigure1. The plate girder may be provided with two plates both at top and bottom. Design the section for the plate girder and show the actual section of curtailment of one of the plates both at top and bottom. Design intermediate horizontal and vertical web stiffeners and load bearings. Design also the weld connection at L.H. support.

Q.1 State Govt. has decided to construct a TB Sanotarium away from the population situated in the

natural environment over a hillock which is 250 m high and spread over one km area near a village. You are the engineer tasked to identify the exact location and prepare site plan for the building. Please identify the site with justification under various factors. The plan of the area is given in Figure 1.

The contour interval is 50 m.

Figure 1

(10)

Q.2 Prepare the preliminary estimate for the Sanotarium Buildings with a total plinth area of all buildings of 1500 m2 having the following given details.

(a) Plot area rate = Rs. 950/- per m2

(b) Extra for special architectural treatment = 1.5% of the building cost

(c) Extra for water supply and sanitary installations = 5% of the building cost.

(d) Extra for internal installations 14% of the building cost.

(e) Extra for services = 6% of the building cost.

(f) Contingencies = 3%

(g) Supervision charges = 8%

(10)


ET 524 (Part B)

CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT-I


brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Construction Management-I.



BTCM

100

150

200

250

N

33

Q.3 In the network given in Figure 2 for each activity the optimistic, the most likely and the pessimistic time are given. If 10 and 100 are start and the end events respectively find the critical path through the network.

Figure 2

(15)

Q.4 Define the following terms? Help of suitable curves may be taken for explaination.

(a) Direct cost and Indirect cost

(b) Normal cost and Crash cost

(c) Normal time and Crash time

(10)

Q.5 The following information is available about the various activities of a network.

Activity Normal Duration in Weeks

Normal Cost in Rupees

Crash Duration in

Weeks

Crash Cost in Rupees

1 – 2 4 4000 3 7000

1 – 3 8 5000 7 8000

2 – 3 5 8000 3 10,000

Project overhead costs are at Rs. 2000 per week.

Determine : (i) Direct cost-duration relationship

(ii) Total cost-duration relationship

(15)

Q.6 Explain the Line of Balance (LOB) Technique for scheduling repetitive works with the help of Logic Diagram of unit work cycle.

(10)

Q.7 What do you understand by depreciation? Explain the causes of depreciation and methods of charging depreciation.

(5)

Q.8 Explain the mid-section area method for calculating the quantity of excavation with the help of a diagram and derive the formula.

(5)

Q.9 Write short notes limiting to 50 words on the following :

(a) Sources of water

(b) Site protection

(10)

Q.10 Draw the lime diagram of a Bulldozer and JCB. Also, list out their functions and utility.

(10)

10

20

30

40

50

70

60

80

100

90

9-11-15

7-9-12 4-7-11

11-14-17

13-16-21

7-9-11 13-17-19 8-13-19

8-10-14 7-8-11 4-6-9

6-8-11

34


ET 532 (Part A)

HYDROLOGY

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Hydrology.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Consider a fully saturated column of atmosphere that is 15.50 km high above the ground level. Assume the following conditions to prevail.

Air temperature = 25.50 C

Air pressure = 110.3 k Pa

Lapse rate = 7.50 C per km

Compute the perceptible water (in cm) that is present in this air cylinder.

Give detailed calculations, and then tabulate the results neatly. Take 0.25 km as the increment in elevation.

Assume suitably any other data that may be required.

(b) Classify various types of clouds. Draw neat detailed sketches for each type. Each figure is to be drawn in black pencil on a quarter of full-size drawing sheet.

(c) Collecting information (from books, journals and discussions), explain the formation and effects of holes formed in earth’s ozone layer.

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Describe the electronic structure of a water molecule (draw good figures) and also describe the hydrogen bonding through which water molecules associate with each other (give sketches.)

(b) Taking a full-size drawing sheet, draw major pressure and wind belts that exist round the earth. Describe them in detail.

(c) Consulting standard books, draw, on one full drawing sheet, the following:

(i) formation of warm front,

(ii) formation of cold front, and

(iii) all air mass lifting frontal weather conditions.

Describe each item in depth.

(d) Describe the concept of geotropic wind.

(e) With the help of further reading list given in your course material, describe the analytical method (with a concrete example, assuming your own data) to convert a snow cover (on say, mountains) into equivalent water content that can flow into the stream.

(2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

35

Q.3 (a) Lakes are affected by seasonal temperature change, in this context discuss and explain the following (with the help of good well-drawn sketches).

(i) Thermal stratification,

(ii) Mechanism of fall overturn,

(iii) Winter stagnation, and

(iv) Spring overturn.

(b) Collect and study weather data of meteorological department of India for three consecutive years, at any particular time of the day with reference to a particular date. Hence, draw (on full-size) graph sheets the corresponding weather maps. Give your comments on maps after comparing them.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.4 (a) Draw a detailed diagram (on a half-size drawing sheet) of US Geological survey floating pan evaporimeter. Explain its construction.

(b) A given reservoir has a surface area of 302 hectare. It was observed, over a particular week, that the average temperature over the area was 230C. Moreover the average relative humidity was 49% whereas the average prevailing wind velocity remained (at 1.0 m above the ground) at 14 km/hr. Find out the average daily evaporation from over the lake surface, and calculate the total volume of water that is expected to have evaporated off from the lake during this particular week.

(c) If in (b) above the net radiation is 180 w/m2 that is incident on the lake, estimate the rate of evaporation from the water surface. Assume a suitable value of sensible heat (i.e ground heat flux).

(3 + 4 + 3 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Take a full-size drawing sheet and draw (in pencil) well labeled 3-D sketches as well as plan and elevation of the following instruments :

(i) flooding type infiltrometer,

(ii) Ring infiltrometer, and

(iii) Rainfall simulator type infiltrometer.

(b) Following data refers to a given area :

Time (h) 0 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80 1.00 1.20 1.40 1.60 1.80 2.0 2.2 2.4

Infiltration capacity (cm/hr)

13.4 10.7 8.6 6.5 5.4 4.3 3.8 3.2 2.9 2.1 1.9 0.9 0.9

Using a graph sheet for purposes of plotting, find the equation for infiltration capacity of the area.

(c) Observations were made at place, and following data collected:

Total storm precipitation = 4.7 cm

Total storm runoff (surface runoff) = 1.6 cm

Initial losses (i.e. the effective surface retention) – 0.8 cm

Duration of the rainfall excess = 1.0 hr

Find W-index during this time.

(d) Collect the necessary data from the field (giving the details of the source and date) and with its help discuss the statement – “human interference with catchments can cause reduction in infiltration capacity, and also in the efficiency of drainage network”.

(2 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 10)

36

Q.6 (a) The following data refers to a certain Catchment :

Month Jan Feb March April May June July Aug. Sep. Oct. Nov. Dec.

Temperature 10 12 19 25 30 37 29 27 20 22 17 12

Mean monthly rainfall (cm)

5 6 3 2 0 3 16 30 28 15 1.5 20

Calculate the annual runoff coefficient by Khosla formula.

(b) At a stream gauging station following readings were taken :

Month Jan Feb March April May June July Aug. Sep. Oct. Nov. Dec.

Runoff (Nm)

2.8 2.0 1.0 0.8 2.5 10.0 20.2 24.0 15.0 10.2 6.3 4.0

Estimate the virgin flow of the river, if the basin area = 170.0 km and the average annual rainfall is 2.1 m. also find the runoff – rainfall ratio form this data.

Assume the following conditions:

(i) 4.1 Mm, per month is diverted (form the river flow) u/s of the gauging site for irrigation and industrial purposes.

(ii) A return flow of 1.2 Mm joins the stream u/s of the site.

(c) Write a 500 word abstract (with the information nicely tabulated) on world water balance and water resources of earth.

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.7 Obtain the required data (name the source of your data) of any one of the following rivers :

(i) Ganga

(ii) Brahamaputra

(iii) Krishna, or

(iv) Cauvery.

And write an essay (400-500 words) of floods, their effects, and measures taken so far to tackle the problem.

Also give an outline of the irrigation works running on that river.

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 = 10)

Q.8 (a) Given the inflow hydrograph (as tabulated below) route it by Muskingum method, taking base flow as 402 cumec, and K = 1.8 days, and X = 1.0

Assume any other data if necessary.

Time (day)

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Inflow

(m/s)

402 610 1482 2920 3999 5500 6300 6602 6503 5994 4872 4068 3360

Time (day)

13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

Inflow

(m/s)

2500 2100 1509 1150 840 620 435 382 271 169 165 165

(b) Determine Muskingum routing parameters K and X for both inflow and the calculated outflow hydrograph of (a) above.

(6 + 4 = 10)

37

Q.9 (a) What are the data to be obtained from field measurement to determine the discharge by Slope-area method? Explain how the discharge is computed

(b) In order to compute the flood discharge in a stream by the slope area method, assume the required data and obtain.. The flood discharge assuming Manning’s n = 0.029 and length between u /s and d/s sections as 250 m .

(4 + 6 = 10)

Q.10 (a) Define unit Hydrograph. What are the assumption underlying the unit hydrograph theory?

(b) From the topographical map of a drainage basin the following quantities are measured :

A = 3480 km2, L = 148 km and Lc = 74 km. The 12 hr unit hydrograph derived for the basin has a peak ordinate of 155 m3 /s occurring at 40 h. Determine the coefficients Ct and Cp for the synthetic unit hydrograph of the basin.

(6 + 4 = 10)

38


ET 532 (Part B)

GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Ground Water Development.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Derive an expression for steady state flow through a fully penetrating well in a confined aquifer.

(b) Derive the Horton’s infiltration curve equation from the following data :

Elapsed Time (min)

0 1 3 5 10 20 50 100 180 300

Cumulative infiltration (cm)

0 2.5 5 7 11 18 30 45 60 70

Also determine infiltration rate after 65 minute since beginning.

(2 × 5 = 10)

Q.2 Write short notes on the following :

(i) Ground Water Balance

(ii) Schlumberger Configuration

(iii) Flow Net

(iv) Well Interference

(v) Well Development

(5 × 2 = 10)

Q.3 Distinguish between the followings :

(i) Drawdown and residual drawdown

(ii) Well inventory and well log

(iii) Dug well and Bore well

(iv) Hydration and hydrolysis

(v) Hydraulic conductivity and Transmissivity

(vi) Infiltration and deep percolation

(vii) Seepage and infiltration

(viii) Darcy velocity and interstitial velocity

(ix) Storativity and specific yield

(x) Potential evapotranspiration and evaporation.

(10)

Q.4 Give step-by-step procedure of design of tubewells covering well diameter, casing pipe and screens, and gravel pack.

39

(10)

Q.5 What are the objectives of Command Area Development Programmes? Calculate the capacity of a tube well required to irrigate 150 hectares sugarcane farm. The monthly consumptive use of the sugarcane is as follows :

Month Consumptive Use (cm)

Precipitation (cm)

January

February

March

April

May

June

July

August

September

October

November

December

1.65

5.25

10.20

16.8

24.45

26.25

21.3

19.95

10.8

7.8

3.75

1.8

0.8

1.5

0

0

0

20.8

46.5

30.9

7.2

2.5

0.3

0.1

The rainfall received during different periods is considered effective.

(10)

Q.6 From the following pump test data, find S and T using Cooper-Jacobi Method.

Time since pumping (min)

0 1 3 8 15 30 50 80 120

Draw Down (m) 0.2 0.38 0.52 0.66 0.70 0.85 0.92 1.00 1.10

(10)

Q.7 Discuss salient features of a watershed management programme.

(10)

Q.8 Derive expressions for determining hydraulic conductivity in a laboratory using falling head permeameter and constant head permeameter. List various factors that affect hydraulic conductivity. Calculate hydraulic conductivity of a sample for the following data:

Diameter of rock sample : 5 cm

Length of rock sample : 8 cm

Volume of water passing through the sample in 10 minutes : 480 ml

Constant head maintained in permeameter : 55 cm

(10)

Q.9 How to consolidated rocks differ from unconsolidated sediments in terms of (i) porosity, (ii) specific yield, and (iii) hydraulic conductivity? Give a detailed account of the behaviour of both the consolidates and unconsolidated materials.

(10)

Q.10 (a) Describe the principles and procedures of ground water exploration based on aerial photography.

(b) How does neutron logging differ from resistivity logging? Discuss the principle involved in Gamma Ray Logging.

(2 × 5 = 10)

40


ET 533 (Part A)

IRRIGATION ENGINEERING

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Irrigation Engineering.



BTWRE

Q1. (a) “Our aim today is to increase agricultural production per unit volume of water per unit area of crop land per unit duration of time”. Discuss how this target could best be achieved.

(b) Describe the various devices which could be used for measuring flow in a field channel.

Q2. (a) Discuss the various irrigation water lift devices used in irrigation with the help of a schematic diagram.

(b) Explain the circumstances under which “Furrow Irrigation” is best suited.

Q3. (a) For a three phase soil system, prove that:

e

G wsdry

+=

1

γγ

where all the terms have their usual meaning.

(b) The moisture content of a saturated soil is 35% and the relative density of its particles is 2.7. Find the void ratio and the porosity. What will be the degree of saturation and the air content if the moisture content gets reduced to 5% on drying?

Q4. (a) Discuss the importance of various infiltration indices.

(b) Describe the Overton infiltration model in detail.

Q5. (a) Explain the Design of Sprinkler Irrigation System.

(b) Explain the components of Drip Irrigation System.

Q6. (a) Explain in brief the various cultivation practices in India.

(b) Describe the objectives of a drainage system.

Q7. (a) Derive the steady state formulae for determining drain depth and spacing.

(b) Explain the process of maintenance of surface drains.

Q8. (a) Explain various factors that affect the functioning of a grader.

(b) Discuss the need for land grading.

Q9. (a) Discuss the importance of pumps in irrigation engineering.

(b) Elaborate the essential data required for making a selection of turbine pump.

Q10. Write short notes on the following :

(a) Irrigation Efficiencies

(b) Ill-effects of Irrigation

(c) Effective Rainfall

(d) On-farm Development.

41


ET 533 (Part B)

OPEN CHANNEL FLOW


brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Open Channel Flow.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) A circular conduit (channel), with d0 = 1.5m has water flowing at y = 0.98 m. Determine A, P, R, T, D and Z of this conduit by using the pertinent formulae.

(b) A triangular channel (θ = 45o) carries a flow at y = 1.2 m. Determine A, P, R, T, D and Z by using formulae.

(c) A trapezoidal channel (b = 2 m, z = 2) has water flowing at y = 0.75 m. Find A, P, R, T, D and Z by using formulae.

(d) Derive, from first principles, the formulae used in (a), (b) and (c).

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Calculate the critical depth and the corresponding specific head (Ec) for a flow of 5.5 m3/s in the following cases :

(i) rectangular channel, with b = 1.82 m;

(ii) triangular channel, with z = 1,

(iii) trapezoidal channel (b = 2.2 m), with z = 1.5; and

(iv) circular conduit, with d0 = 1.64 m.

(b) Explain why a critical depth for a given Q in an open channel is important for a hydraulic engineer.

(c) Write a 200 word note on control-section in an open channel.

(5 + 2 + 3 = 10)

Q.3 (a) A rectangular channel has b = 10.0 m and n = 0.017. Find the normal slope for yn = 1.2 m and Q = 17.0 cumec.

(b) Find yn for (a) if Q = 16.32 cumec.

(c) Solve (a) and (b) for a trapezoidal channel (b = 10.0 m, z = 2.5) with n = 0.012.

(3 + 5 + 2 = 10)

Q.4 (a) Water flows in a horizontal channel with a velocity of 9.85 m/s at a depth of 0.93 m. Find the conjugate depth and energy loss in the jump that may occur somewhere downstream.

(b) A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular channel and the depths of flow before and after the jump are 0.45 m and 2.25 m respectively. Calculate the critical depth and the power loss per unit width of the channel.

42

(c) List the uses of hydraulic jump formation in practical field situations, and in industrial establishments.

(3 + 5 + 2 = 10)

Q.5 A flow of 11.02 m3/s issues out from under a sluice gate of a reservoir into a : (i) rectangular channel (b = 4.5 m), (ii) trapezoidal channel (b = 6.0 m; z = 1.5). The depth of flow at vena contracta is : (i) 0.14 m and (ii) 0.1 m. If the channel bed slope is 10-2 in both the cases; and n = 0.016, and 0.018 respectively, determine which type of flow profile will form (in each case) downstream of the vena contracta. Trace these profiles after due calculations. Assume any other data, if necessary, in a suitable manner.

(10)

Q.6 A discharge of 17.26 m3/s, with a depth of 1.65 m in a rectangular channel, 14 m wide, flows down. At a downstream section the width of the channel is reduced to: (i) 3.0 m, (ii) 3.5 m, and

(iii) 4.0 m (with the channel bed raised by ∆z in each case). What will be the state of water

surface elevation in the transition section when: ∆z = 0.8 m, 0.5 m, and 0.25 m, respectively.

(10)

Q.7 (a) Design the contraction and expansion transition reachs for a cross-drainage work, keeping the depth of flow constant throughout, on the basis of following data:

Canal discharge = 15.00 cumec

Bed width of canal = 12.0 m

Depth of water in the canal = 1.75 m

Bed width of the flumed portion = 6.0 m

Draw the plan and four sections of each transition (to scale).

(b) Solve (a) above for Q = 13 m3/s and

Bed width of canal = 11.0 m

Depth of flow in canal = 1.5 m

Bed width of flume = 5.0 m

Assume any other needed data in a suitable manner.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.8 (a) Design a solid roller bucket using the following data :

(i) q (of spillway) = 75.0 cumec

(ii) Reservoir pool elevation = 240.50 m

(iii) Tail water elevation = 198.40 m

(iv) Radius of bucket = 15.0 m

(v) Rear slope of spillway = 0.6 : 1.0

(vi) Bucket invert elevation = 169.10 m

Assume any other necessary data suitably.

Draw the elevation, plan, and various sections of the device (to scale).

(b) Solve (a) above for q = 85.0 cumec with rest of the data remaining same.

(c) Draw (on a full-size drawing sheet) the prominent energy dissipating devices used

downstream of a spillway dam − plan, elevation, sections, and isometric views.

(5 + 2 + 3 = 10)

43

Q.9 (a) A tidal bore is observed to travel at a velocity of : (i) 12 m/s, (ii) 9 m/s. The initial uniform flow depth is : (i) 3.8 m at a velocity of 1.8 m/s, (ii) 4.2 m at a velocity of 2.8 m/s. In each case [(i) and (ii) respectively] estimate the height, overrun, final velocity and Q.

(b) A rectangular channel carries a flow at a velocity of 2.65 m/s, and at a flow depth of 3.3 m. The tail end gate of the channel is suddenly closed. Find the height and speed of travel for the surge (and define the type of the surge).

What would be the values of these quantities, if the gate is adjusted to allow 1/3rd of the original flow?

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.10 The inflow and outflow hydrographs in a certain river reach are observed as given below :

Days 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

I, m3/s 30 69 134 216 181 135 100 80 68 62 57 50 38

O, m3/s 29 37 54 96 140 154 145 136 114 98 83 70 58

Using these data develop the outflow hydrograph for the following inflow hydrograph :

Days 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

I, m3/s 43 105 216 343 285 210 176 133 104 100 88 79 69

Draw all the hydrographs on graph paper.

(10)

.

44


ET 534 (Part C)

WATER RESOURCES PLANNING


brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Water Resources Planning.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) On drawing sheet(s), draw the political boundaries of India. Demarcate the layout of the following features:

(i) The Aravallies with prominent placed marked on it (names and MSLs);

(ii) The Vindhyas with important places indicated on it (names and MSLs);

(iii) The Satpuras with important places shown (names and MSLs). Also, trace the source and the course of Narmada;

(iv) Western Ghats with important locations indicated (names and MSLs) trace the course of important rivers; and

(v) Eastern Ghats with prominent places shown (names and MSLs). Trace famous rivers of the region.

(b) Write a 400-word (atleast) description of each of the following features:

(i) Gujarat plains, and

(ii) Konkan coast.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.2 Visit the nearest single crop/multicrop producing area, and gather data by inspection, enquiry and from agencies about the land use. Give a sketch map of the area, and write a 400 word report on the land-use management and critically examine it as a water resources engineer. Also discuss the land capability of the area, and how the present use of land is deficient, compared to the potential of the area. The report shall also include the problem of soil erosion, and the remedial measures you suggest.

(10)

Q.3 Collect the relevant data about the major dams of India (like, Bhakhara, Hirakund, and others). Summarise, in your own words, the information in a professional way and discuss the intended and actual performance of these projects, and reasons for any discrepancies that occur.

(10)

Q.4 Based on reports of Central Water Commission (1991), summarize the contents in your own words regarding the development of Irrigations, Drainage and Flood Control in India. Point out the shortcomings in India’s efforts in these areas and give your critical suggestions – particularly for flood-prone states of Bihar and Assam (collecting up-to-date information from relevant sources).

(10)

45

Q.5 (a) The total number of daily discharge values, as observed at a ganging station in a river are given below against the chosen class-intervals. Draw the flow-duration curve for the data.

Class Interval Total Number of Days in Interval

2000 – 2100 01

1900 – 2000 01

1800 – 1900 01

1700 – 1800 0

1600 – 1700 01

1500 – 1600 06

1400 – 1500 13

1300 – 1400 15

1200 – 1300 46

1100 - 1200 61

1000 – 1100 32

900 – 1000 42

800 – 900 79

700 – 800 72

600 - 700 70

(b) An average of 1.20 m drop in the water table of an area is noticed over an extent of 100 Km2, due to the withdrawal of 17 million m3 of water from the aquifer (unconfined) during a period of draught. Later on, after a rainfall of 1500 mm was experienced in the area and water levels rose up on the average by 1.10 m. Determine the specific yield in the zone of water-level function, and the recharge co-efficient, assuming the specific yield to be uniform.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.6 (a) A town in our country has the following population profile for 70 years :

Year (AD)

Population in

thousands

Population Charateristics

1940 45.02 80% agriculture labour; 20% artisans

1950 52.07 -do-

1960 63.08 -do-

1970 79.7 60% agriculture labour; 40% artisans

1980 95.88 -do-

1990 110.20 -do-

2000 160.21 50% agriculture labour; 20% artisans, 20% govt. employees

2010 172.79 -do-

46

Estimate the population in 2025, 2030, and 2035 using :

(i) Arithmetical Progression Method,

(ii) Geometrical Progression Method

(iii) Incremental Method

(iv) Graphical Projection,

Also, estimate the demand for water in the years 2025, 2030 and 2035 according to the characteristics of the population.

(b) Collect the population figures, for last 5 decades in your district, and also the composition of the society. Project the shortfall in meeting the demand, and, comment on it. What shall be the situation 20 years hence? Give the name and place of your data source.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Find the net irrigation water application and frequency using following data (assume any other necessary data):

Soil Profile

(i) Salty soil (moisture holding capacity = 0.12 cm/cm) ⇒ 0-20 cm.

(ii) Fine sand loam (moisture holding capacity = 0.15 cm/cm) ⇒ 20-45 cm.

(iii) Sandy Clay (moisture holding capacity = 0.18 cm/cm) ⇒ 45-100 cm.

Crop

High yielding rice

(i) Design moisture extraction depth = 79 cm

(ii) Design moisture use rate = 5.8 mm/day

(iii) Peak moisture use rate = 6.3 mm/day – 75% of which is from design moisture extraction depth.

Efficiency

Take it as 75%

(b) Collect the data of various zones of your state and present them in tabular form comprising the following information:

(i) Crop water requirement (cm);

(ii) Gram yield (kg/Qtl per ha);

(iii) Productivity of gram per cm of water used;

(iv) Any other related parameter/parameters.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.8 (a) Draw the following irrigation systems on a drawing sheet:

(i) a subsurface irrigation system

(ii) sprinkler irrigation system, and

(iii) Drip irrigation system

Also, give merits and demerits of each system, and compare their economies.

(b) Draw on a drawing sheet a bore well irrigation scheme. Describe it comprehensively, and give main design criteria.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.9 Give a detailed description and drawings (plans, and sections) of a complete water-treatment plant – pumping from river (intake, etc.) transmission to plant, grit chamber, sedimentation tank, aeration, disinfections, removal of dissolved substances, and supply to the community.

47

(10)

Q.10 About 1500 ha of land is proposed to be made available for rice and sugarcane-cum-fruit crops. A lift irrigation scheme is in place to pump water from a river at a cost of Rs 45/- per 1000 m3 of water. During the irrigation season the river water that is available for use is 23 millions m3 whose salinity is 1200 mg/litre. It is envisaged that at least the available flow of water should be 9.2 million m3 with a maximum salinity of 2000 mg/litre. Develop an optimal management plan for the above 1500 ha area, assuming your own values for evapo-transpiration, maximum crop-yield (t/ha), crop price, leaching factor, etc. Assume any other necessary data suitably.

(10)

48


ET 581 (Part A)

TESTING FOR QUALITY CONTROL

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Testing for Quality Control.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) “In case of minor works, it may be sufficient to carry out field tests on cement.” Justify this statement. (5)

(b) Describe the laboratory test for determining the Normal Consistency of standard cement paste. (5)

Q.2 (a) Explain the significance of specific surface of cement with regard to its characteristics.

(b) Why testing of water is necessary in a concrete construction? (5)

Q.3 (a) What do you mean by Elongation Index? Describe a test for determining Elongation Index. (5)

(b) Explain the significance of determining Angularity Number of an aggregate. (5)

Q.4 (a) What test is conducted to determine soundness of aggregate? How is it conducted? (5)

(b) What is aggregate impact value and how is it determined? (5)

Q.5 (a) Explain the flow test for determining workability of concrete. (5)

(b) What do you mean by bleeding of concrete and how is it determined? (5)

Q.6 (a) Explain the utility of admixtures in concrete construction. (5)

(b) Discuss the influence of the rate of application of load on the compressive strength of concrete. (5)

Q.7 (a) Discuss the advantages and limitations of Lok test. (5)

(b) Explain the Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity Method of Non-destructive testing of concrete and discuss its applications. (5)

Q.8 (a) Explain the use of normal distribution curve in quality control. (5)

(b) Describe the various methods of testing the impermeability of AC sheets. (5)

Q.9 (a) Explain the various tests to be conducted for judging the performance of timber. (5)

(b) Describe the test for Adhesion of piles and explain its uses. (5)

Q.10 Write short notes on the following : (2.5x4=10)

(a) Shortage of Cement

(b) Sieve Analysis

(c) Slump Test

(d) Test Cores

49


ET 581 (Part F)

MECHANICAL EQUIPMENT IN CONSTRUCTION (ELECTIVE-I)


Blocks of Mechanical Equipment in Construction.


Course Code : ET-581F Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2014

BTCM

Q.1 (a) What are the basic principles of earthmoving equipment and the procedure for equipment design?

(b) How are job and management factors used to determine the expected output of equipment?

Q.2 (a) What are the various types of draglines? What are the operations of draglines?

(b) How are bucket excavators classified? How is the theoretical output of a bucket excavator assessed?

Q.3 What are the various types of cranes? Explain briefly working of each crane.

Q.4 How are dumpers different from trucks? What are the various steps involved in determining the number of trucks required for a particular job?

Q.5 What are the various types of vibrating compactors? How are pneumatic-tyred rollers used in earth compaction?

Q.6 Why do aggregates have the greatest influence on the temperature of concrete? How are coarse aggregates coded?

Q.7 Where would you use an 8-15 cm diameter vibrator? Where are form vibrators commonly used?

Q.8 Why does the drilling pattern differ in surface and underground excavations? What factors affect the drilling pattern in surface works?

Q.9 What are the different types of control equipment provided on outlets and spillways of hydraulic structures? What are their requirements?

Q.10 What is depreciation? What are the different methods to determine the depreciation rates of construction equipment?

Documents

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTignou.ac.in/userfiles/BTCM-BTWRE Second Year(1).pdf · Torques of 35 kN-m (clockwise) and 45 kN-m (anticlockwise) are applied at 4.5m and 5.5m, ... A beam (Figure