_Question Bank of Production Operations Mngt[1]._2 Mark

Production and Operations Management

Unit1 - 2 Mark Quiz Questions

1. Demand fluctuations, uncertainties of production owing to ________ and __________being created drag the productivity down

a. shortage of materials , crisis

b. strikes and mismanagement

c. Break down and inventories

d. power failures and frequent suspensions

2. Make or buy decisions have to be taken to meet the varying demands to smoothen

deficits or excesses by two well known methods namely –

a. Supply and Demand capacities

b. Matching Demand and Level Capacity

c. Production capacity and financial feasibility

d. CPM and LPP

3.The two methods namely ___________and __________ methodologies were developed to minimize wastages across the organisation.

a. Critical path method and goal seeking method

b. JIT and lean manufacturing

c. sensitivity analysis method and what if analysis method

d. optimization methods and critical analysis


1.Brick-and-click strategies tend to be more advantageous than pure dot-com strategies when it comes to

a. market positioning and accessing a broad customer base.

b. adjusting the company's business model and strategy quickly in response to changing conditions and emerging opportunities.

c. minimizing channel conflict.

d. focusing on a limited number of competencies and performing a relatively specialized number of value chain activities.

2. competing in emerging industries of the future

a. is usually more profitable than competing in industries where market demand is stagnant or even declining.

b. is less risky than competing in maturing industries where there are established rules of the game.

c. poses the strategy-making challenge of dealing with uncertainties about how the market will function, how fast it will grow, and how big it will get and usually requires risk-taking entrepreneurship, a bold strategy, efforts to capture first-mover advantages, forming alliances, and efforts to get first-time buyers to try the

product/service.

d. is made somewhat easier because there is usually a strong consensus about which of several competing technologies will win out and which product attributes will ultimately gain the most buyer favor.

3. In trying to cope with a turbulent, high-velocity market environment, a company

a. should usually put a strong emphasis on short-term profitability rather than worrying excessively about building and strengthening the companys long-term market position-the direction of market change is too volatile and unknowable to put much time into worrying about the long-term.

b. can assume any of three strategic postures-it can react to change, it can anticipate change, and it can lead change typically all three postures will have to be employed

at one time or another-though not in the same proportion.

c. generally needs to put most of its strategic emphasis on defensive-type strategies because offensive strategies are so risky.

d. should strive to be a fast follower and occasionally a slow-mover (like when the actions of early movers involve adoption of a radically different technological approach)being a consistent first mover entails great risk and can upset shareholders.

4. Which of the following strategy elements and/or competitive capabilities is not

particularly essential or desirable for a pure dot-com enterprise?

a. Relying heavily on ancillary revenues

b. Developing proprietary Internet applications and capabilities as opposed to relying on generic off-the-shelf applications readily available form vendors

c. Engineering a value chain that enables differentiation or lower costs or better value for the money

d. Making buying online very appealing as compared to other means of purchasing the product


1.Operations Management includes all of these activities except:

a. Secure financial resources

b. Schedule work

c. Maintain quality

d. Oversee the transformation process

2.The major difference between goods and services is:

a. services lack the profitability that goods enjoy

b. goods are always customized, services are always standardized

c. goods production usually requires more labor than services

d. it is difficult to inventory services

3.Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a well-designed, strategy-supportive compensation and reward system?

a. Administering the reward system with scrupulous care and fairness and avoiding skirting the system to find ways to reward non-performers Keeping the time between performance reviews and payment of the rewards short and having compensation incentives that extend to most all managers and all workers

b. Making sure that the performance targets that each individual is expected to achieve involve outcomes that the individual can affect

c. A reward system that involves 50 percent non-monetary rewards, a work environment that avoids placing pressure on managers and employees to achieve high performance levels, and incentives for performance that do not exceed 20% of

total compensation

4.Which of the following is the most important aspect of developing a strategy-supportive reward structure? 5.Which one of these was not mentioned in the list of recent trends in operations management?

a. Total quality management

b. Worker involvement

c. Automation.

d. Global competition.

a. Moti vating organizational units and individuals to work energetically to execute the strategy effectively and achieve the organization's vision

b. Boosting employee morale and job satisfaction

c. Making sure that individuals' rewards are tightly linked to meeting or beating

strategically-relevant performance targets

d. Creating a results-oriented work climate and a spirit of high performance


1. Among the following, all are advantages of specialization except:

a. difficult to motivate quality

b. relatively low wages

c. simplifies training

d. high productivity

2. Analysis of therbligs is most closely related to:

a. learning effect.

b. motion study

c. simo chart.

d. methods analysis.

3. Task times derived from a firms historical data are known as:

a. predetermined times.

b. standard elemental times.

c. micromotion times

d. judgmental times.

4. Which technique is useful for studying nonrepetitive jobs?

a. time study.

b. work sampling

c. motion study.

d. methods analysis.


1. In a Muthers grid, which closeness rating reflects indifference on the nearness or lack of nearness of two departments?

a. - U

b. - E

c. - I

d. - A

2. Which objective function is parallel to the line 4x + 2y = 200?

a. 2x + 2y

b. 2x - y

c. 2x + 4y

d. 2x + y

3.Which of these is not an assumption of linear programming models?

a. Divisibility

b. Certainty

c. Linearity

d. Negativity (inverse relationships)

4.Which one of these would not be considered a component of an LP model?

a. Decision variable

b. Shadow price

c. Parameter

d. Constraint


1. A run chart would be used to:

a. identify a source of problem

b. track the values of a variable over time

c. collect and organize the data

d. list potential causes of an effect

2. Giving workers responsibility for quality improvements and authority to make changes is known as:

a. delegation

b. continuous improvement

c. benchmarking

d. employee empowerment

3. The term 80-20 rule is most closely associated with:

a. Brainstorming

b. Control charts

c. Pareto analysis

d. Check sheets

4. Which one of these terms refers to documenting a process?

Answer:


1. Companies are motivated to enter into strategic alliances or cooperative arrangements

a. to collaborate on mutually-interesting technology or the development of promising new products.

b. to gain access to technology, expertise, competitive capabilities, and other resources that will help them in racing for global leadership or in building a stronger position in the industries of the future.

c. to improve supply chain efficiency and/or overcome deficiencies in their technical or manufacturing expertise and/or gain economies of scale in production and/or marketing.

d. to help open up or improve access to attractive market opportunities.

2. focused low-cost strategy

a. involves the use of guerrilla offensives to capture customers.

b. is the hardest of the five generic types of competitive strategies to employ successfully.

c. involves concentrating on a buyer segment whose requirements are less costly to satisfy compared to the rest of the market and a marketing emphasis on touting the focusers unique ability to satisfy the specialized requirements of niche members.

d. entails trying to wrest market share away from rivals via extra advertising, above-average expenditures for promotional programs, and heavy use of point-of-sale merchandising techniques.

3. Focusing on a limited market niche

a. works best when it is costly or difficult for multi-segment rivals to satisfy the

specialized needs of niche members.

b. is more attractive when a focuser has the skills and resources to serve the segment effectively.

c. carries the risk that multi-segment competitors will find effective ways to match the focuser is serving the needs of niche members and also carries the risk that the preferences and needs of niche members will shift toward the product attributes desired by mainstream buyers, thus causing the size of the niche to shrink significantly and maybe even disappear.

d. is more attractive when the niche offers good growth potential, is big enough to be profitable, no other rivals are attempting to specialize in serving the same target segment, and the focuser can defend itself against challengers based on the customer goodwill it has built up and on its superior ability to serve niche members.

4. The strategy of being a best-cost provider

a. is the most attractive of all the competitive strategies because it combines the best features of the four other generic types of competitive strategies.

b. is the easiest of the five generic types of competitive strategies to copy or imitate.

c. is almost always more profitable than focused or market niche strategies because of the potential for creating a much bigger competitive advantage but is the hardest

of the five generic types of competitive strategies to employ successfully.

d. combines a strategic emphasis on low cost with a strategic emphasis on more than minimally acceptable quality, service, features, and performance.

Unit8 - 2 Mark Quiz Questions - Attempt 1

1. Characteristics of project mindset are :

i) Time – It is impossible to improve the pace of the project by reducing the time frame of the process. The mindset is normally to work a comfort mode by stretching the time limits.

ii) Processes- Project mindset lays emphasis on rigid processes.

a. Both are false

b. false , true respectively.

c. Both are True

d. true, false respectively

2. consider the following statements :

i) The process in which interactions depends on the nature of work and dynamic and dependent on team innovations is closing process.

ii) the process in which the project is reviewed , findings afe reporeted and project performacne is analysed is executing process..

The statements are :

a. false and true respectively.

b. both false

c. both true

d. true and false respectively

P Scope X It refers to the manpower,machinery,money and materials required in the project

Q Resource Y it refers to the various parameters that affect the project in its planning, formulation and executions

R Project Cost Z it is the budgeted expenditure of the project

.

a. P-X, Q-Z, R-Y

b. P-Y, Q-X, R-Z

c. P-Z, Q-X, R-Y

d. P-Z, Q-Y, R-X

3.Two of the process groups are initaiting processes and controlling processes.

i) initiating process - recognition to start and establishing commitment.

ii) controlling processes - formalizing acceptiace and bringing project to an ordelry end.

The statements are -

a. false , true respectively.

b. Both are false

c. Both are True

d. true, false respectively


1. At a node 11 there are 4 successors. LCT wrt each of the 4 successors is 27,43,18,37

days. What is the LCT of the node 11?

a. 27 days

b. 43 days

c. 37 days

d. 18 days

2.At a node 15 there are 4 predecessors. EST wrt each of the 4 predecessors is 35,32,30,31 days. What is the EST of the node 15?

a. 35 days

b. 30 days

c. 32 days

d. 31 days

3.If tm=7days, to=1days, tp=7days what is the value of sd (standard eviation) ?

a. 0 day

b. 0.5 day

c. 2 days

d. 1 day

4. Match the following :

x-Design Phase p-work on project objectives as per plan

y-Marketing Phase q-study inputs and outputs of various stages

z-Execution Phase r-prepare strategic project proposal

a. x-p, y-q, z-r

b. x-r, y-p, z-q

c. x-p, y-r, z-q

d. x-q, y-r, z-p


1. DMAIS represents ___

.

a. define, measure, analyse, improve, standardize

b. define, monitor, analyse, integrate, standardize

c. define, measure, analyse, integrate, system

d. define, monitor, analyse, improve, system

2. The agenda for a review should be well structured in terms of ___ and ___

a. list of participants and time

b. roles and responsibilities

c. content and list of participants

d. time and content

3. The team should exhibit better control of their project ____ and then demonstrate better control about business ____

Choose one answer.

a. prospects, expandability

b. portfolio, prospects

c. prospects, growth

d. portfolio, profitability

4.___ and ___ are well established certification systems, several world organizations are now working on P-CMM and total quality assurance.

a. Strategic Inflection Point and ISO certification

b. Information Risk Management and Strategic inflection point

c. SEI-CMM & ISO Certification

d. Management Assurance Measure and Strategic Inflection point


1. The elements of SCM are inventroy, transportation, _____ and ____

a. chain and transportation

b. chain and location

c. chain and links

d. location and production

2. The elements of SCM are location, production, _____ and ____

a. chain and transportation

b. inventory and transportation

c. inventory and chain

d. chain and transportation

3. Two broad categories of the decisions in SCM are ___ and __

a. Strategic and Tactical

b. Strategic and operational

c. Strategic and Managerial

d. Tactical and operational

4. Two great name in SCM are ____ and ____

a. Ram Chandran and Terry P Alderman

b. Ram Chandran and Terry P Harrison

c. Ram Ganeshan and Terry P Alderman

d. Ram Ganeshan and Terry P Harrison


1. If both the lead time and daily demand are constant (no variation), the ROP is equal to:

a. Safety stock

b. Expected demand minus safety stock.

c. Expected demand plus safety stock.

d. Daily demand times lead timROP divided by Lead Time

2. If the cost of replacing a defective spray paint can once it has been shipped is $2.00, while the cost of 100% inspection prior to shipment is $.40 each, what is the indifference point between 100% inspection or shipment without any inspection?

a. 0% defectives

b. 2% defectives

c. 5% defectives

d. 20% defectives

3. In a reorder point model the daily demand rate is normally distributed with a mean of 50 units and a standard deviation of 5 units. The lead time is 9 days, Q = 500 units, and the lead time service level (LTSL) is 90%. What are approximate values for Safety Stock and Reorder Point?

a. 6, 469

b. 19, 69

c. 4, 69

d. 19, 469

4. Which are the elements of an acceptance-sampling plan?

a. The lot size, the sample size, and the acceptance number.

b. The sample size, the acceptance number, and the average outgoing quality limit.

c. The sample size, the acceptance number, and the lot tolerance percent defective.

d. The lot size, the sample size, and the lot tolerance percent defective.


1. Which is not a benefit of small lot sizes?

a. Problems are more apparent

b. More frequent setups

c. Reduced inventory

d. Increased production flexibility

2. Which one is not a building block of JIT?

a. product design

b. customized parts

c. manufacturing planning and control

d. process design

3. Which one is not involved in waste reduction?

a. shorter setup times

b. product defects

c. training employees

d. inventories

4. Which one of these is generally avoided in JIT systems?

a. Management by consensus

b. Waiting lines

c. Short lead times

d. Reduced space requirements


1. Given this frequency distribution, the random number 30 would be interpreted as: Demand 0 1 2 3 Frequency 11 29 30 30

a. 1

b. 3

c. 0

d. 2

2. Random means:

a. Chance

b. normal

c. empirical

d. exponential

3. The main reason that a large number of runs of a simulation would be made is:

a. It is a form of sampling, and large samples give more accurate results than small

samples.

b. It is part of the scientific approach.

c. Computers are usually used, and they can easily handle large runs.

d. Large run sizes are more apt to provide optimal answers.

4. Which term most closely describes simulation?

a. deterministic

b. empirical

c. optimal

d. descriptive


1. A companys best chance to achieve sustainable competitive advantage

a. is by having a shorter, more economical value chain than rivals.

b. is linked most closely to its ability to sell at a lower price than rivals.

c. is grounded in the caliber of its product or service (because superior products or services are almost impossible to clone or improve upon).

d. is usually grounded in building competencies and capabilities critical to market success and pleasing customers-in particular, building competencies and

capabilities that rivals don't have or can't quite match.

2. Doing a competitive strength assessment involves

a. rating each company on each KSF and strength measure (using a scale or 1 to 5 or 1 to 10) and employing either a weighted or an unweighted rating system.

b. summing the individual strength ratings to get an overall measure of competitive

strength for each competitor.

c. developing a list of 6 to 10 key success factors and telling measures of competitive strength.

d. drawing conclusions about the size of the company's net competitive advantage or disadvantage.

3.Which of the following are signs of strength in a companys competitive position?

a. A strongly differentiated product, a strong or rising market share, and important

resources, competencies, or capabilities

b. R&D expenditures greater than $10 million annually and advertising expenditures above $25 million annually

c. A website with extensive information about the company and its product line

d. A debt-to-asset ratio below 0.50 and a positive net cash flow.

4. Which of the following are signs of weakness in a companys competitive position?

a. A higher price than rivals

b. An after-tax return-on-equity below 15% and earnings per share of less than $1.00

c. Being in an unfavorably situated strategic group, an eroding market share, sub-par product quality, few sales in market segments where growth is fastest or

potential is greatest, and higher costs relative to competitors

d. Lower revenues than the market share leader

Documents

_Question Bank of Production Operations Mngt[1]._2 Mark