PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEYNAME OF THE POSTIndustrial Safety and Health Services, Class II, Advt No. 100/2016-17(AAW) Preliminary Test on 16-04-2017Subeject Que : 101 - 300Publish Date : 18-04-2017Last Date to send suggestion(s) :25-04-2017Note: Candidate must ensure the compliance to send all suggestion in the given format with reference to this paper with provisional answer key only.

AAW - A ] 16 [Contd.

101. The Factory Act, 1948 extends to _______ .

(A) Whole of India, except state of Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Whole of India

(C) Whole of India, except state of Tamilnadu

(D) Whole of India except North-Eastern States

102. Under which of the Section of the Factories Act, 1948, the term “Hazardous Process” has

been defined ?

(A) Section 2(d) (B) Section 2(f)

(C) Section 2(ab) (D) Section 2(cb)

103. Under Section 2(k) of the Factories Act, 1948, the definition of which word has been

defined ?

(A) Machinery (B) Worker

(C) Manufacturing process (D) Factory

104. Under which provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 general duties of the occupier have

been provided ?

(A) Section - 6 (B) Section - 7-A

(C) Section - 8 (D) Section - 8-A

105. Who will appoint “Certifying Surgeon” under Section-10 of the Factories Act, 1948 ?

(A) Central Government

(B) Medical In-charge of the State

(C) State Government

(D) Owner of the Factory with permission of the District Magistrate

106. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, Painting and Varnishing of all doors and

window frames and other wooden or metallic framework and shutters shall be carried

out at least once in every period of _______ years.

(A) Three years (B) Ten years

(C) One year (D) Five years

107. Whoever spits in contravention of the provision of Section - 20(3) of the Factories Act,

1948 shall be punished with _______ .

(A) One hundred rupees fine (B) Fine not exceeding five rupees

(C) Fifty rupees fine (D) Two hundred rupees fine

108. The occupier shall, at least _______ days before, he begins to occupy or use any premises

as a factory, sent a written notice, to the Chief Inspector.

(A) Thirty days (B) Forty Five days

(C) Ten days (D) Fifteen days

AAW - A ] 17 P.T.O.

109. Under which of the Section of the Factories Act, 1948, he provision regarding the

precaution of the use of portable electric light is provided ?

(A) Section - 36A (B) Section - 35B

(C) Section - 30A (D) Section - 47D

110. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, who shall appoint site Appraisal

Committee ?

(A) Central Government (B) Inspector of Factories

(C) District Magistrate (D) State Government

111. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, in case of death or bodily injury due to

accident in the factory, to which authority, the manager shall give immediate notice with

regard to the same ?

(A) District Judge (B) District Health Officer

(C) Municipal Council of that Area (D) Chief Inspector

112. Under which of the Section of the Factories Act, 1948 the State Government has powers

to direct enquiry into cases of accident or disease ?

(A) Section - 78 (B) Section - 90

(C) Section - 89 (D) Section - 69

113. Under which of the following Chapter of the Factories Act, 1948, the provisions regarding

“Penalties and Procedure” have been provided ?

(A) Chapter VII (B) Chapter X

(C) Chapter XI (D) Chapter VIII

114. Who may recognize any person as “Competent Person”, under Rule 2-A of the Gujarat

Factories Rules, 1963 ?

(A) Chief Inspector (B) Manager of the Factory

(C) Supervisor (D) Head of the Trade Union

115. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, up to what age of children of women

workers the facility for “Creches” is to be provided ?

(A) For all children.

(B) For children below the age of three years only.

(C) For children who cannot be left alone at home.

(D) Under the age of Six years.

AAW - A ] 18 [Contd.

116. No manufacturing process shall be carried out in any premises of a factory constructed,

reconstructed or extended or in any premises which has been taken into use as a factory

or part of the factory unit a issuance of _______ .

(A) Certificate of manufacturing (B) Certificate of Stability

(C) Certificate of Production (D) Certificate of Process

117. Under which Rule of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, provisions regarding Application

for Registration of the Factory is provided ?

(A) Rule - 3 (B) Rule - 15

(C) Rule - 4 (D) Rule - 16

118. What is the amount of fees to be charged for the application of transfer of licence, under

the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963 ?

(A) One Hundred Rupees (B) Two Hundred Rupees

(C) Fifty Rupees (D) Five Hundred Rupees

119. Who is responsible for maintaining records under Rule 12-B of the Gujarat Factories

Rules, 1963 ?

(A) Manager (B) Occupier

(C) Workers (D) Inspector General

120. Under Rule-14 of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963 which of the following provision is

provided ?

(A) Powers of Inspector (B) Appointment of Inspector

(C) Issuance of Licence (D) Renewal of Licence

121. The expression “gas-holder” under Rule 61-A of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963 means

a water-sealed gas holder which has a storage capacity of not less than _______ .

(A) 140.5 Cubic meters (B) 141.5 Cubic meters

(C) 130.56 Cubic meters (D) 132.4 Centi meters

122. In factory where there are more than _______ workers employed, then, the drinking

water supplied to the workers shall from the 1st of March to 30th of November in every

year be cooled by Ice or other effective method as per the provisions of the Gujarat

Factories Rules, 1963.

(A) 100 (B) 50

(C) 75 (D) 25

123. Under which of the rule of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, a provision for means of

escape in case of Fire is provided ?

(A) Rule 66 (B) Rule 45

(C) Rule 78 (D) Rule 59

AAW - A ] 19 P.T.O.

124. According to Rule 68-F of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, where there are more than

_______ number of workers there is need to establish safety committee.

(A) 200 (B) 500

(C) 150 (D) 250

125. What is the tenure of safety committee, appointed under Rule 68-F of the Gujarat Factories

Rules, 1963 ?

(A) Five years (B) Ten years

(C) Two years (D) Three years

126. Under which of the provision of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, the term “Health

Officer” has been defined ?

(A) Rule - 2(j) (B) Rule - 2(i)

(C) Rule - 2(h) (D) Rule - 2(m)

127. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, “Adolescent” means a person, who has

completed _______ .

(A) 14th year of age

(B) Completed his 15th year of age but has not completed his 18th year of age

(C) 18th year and above

(D) 15th year and above

128. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 “Young Person” means a person _______.

(A) above 18th year of age

(B) minor below 18 years of age

(C) who is either a child or an adoscent

(D) below 21 years of age

129. As per provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, “Day” means _______ .

(A) A period of twenty four hours, beginning at midnight.

(B) A period before Sunset.

(C) A period after Sunrise.

(D) A period form 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM

130. Under which of the section of the Factories Act, 1948, the term “Week” has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(j) (B) Section 2(i)

(C) Section 2(h) (D) Section 2(f)

AAW - A ] 20 [Contd.

131. The meaning of the term “Occupier” is _______, under the Factories Act, 1948.

(A) The owner of the factory

(B) The person who has invested for the factory

(C) The manager or owner of the factory

(D) A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory.

132. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, who is empowered to appoint inspectors,

for the purposes of this Act ?

(A) State Government (B) Central Government

(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) The Chief Inspector of Factories

133. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, if the plans / specification has been

submitted to the State Government / Chief Inspector, by Registered A.D. post and no

order is communicated then after, what period it shall be deemed that the permission

have been granted ?

(A) After one year

(B) After six months

(C) After three months from the date on which it is so sent

(D) After one month

134. What are the provisions under the Gujarat Factories Rues, 1963, where the licence granted

under these Rules is lost or destroyed ?

(A) The factory will have to be closed immediately.

(B) The plans of the building and machineries are to be resubmitted for approval.

(C) The duplicate license may be granted.

(D) The manager of the factory will be punished for loss or destroying license.

135. In which of the Form No, the leave book prescribed under Rule 95, which is to be provided

by the manager shall be maintained in ?

(A) Form No. : 16 (B) Form No. : 14

(C) Form No. : 19 (D) Form No. : 28

136. What is the object mentioned in the Preamble of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 is

to _______ .

(A) preserve the environment and matters connected therewith

(B) impose restrictions on polluted industries

(C) to initiate proper status of better environment

(D) provides for the protection and improvement of environment and matters connected

therewith

AAW - A ] 21 P.T.O.

137. As per the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 the term “Environmental

Pollutant” is defined as ;

(A) Industries which are polluting.

(B) Any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration is may be or

tend to be, injurious to environment.

(C) Hazardous and toxic chemicals which are injurious to environment.

(D) Any substance which is likely to pollute the Air.

138. Under the provisions of the Environment protecting Act, 1986, who is empowered to

take all such measures as deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and

improving the quality of environment ?

(A) State Pollution Control Board (B) State Government

(C) Central Government (D) High Court of the State

139. As per the provisions of the Environment protection Act, 1986, the measures for protecting

and improving quality of environment includes;

(A) Order to close down and dispose polluted industries

(B) Laying down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants

(C) To prosecute the polluted industries

(D) To assist the industries for manufacturing

140. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers Central government to issue direction

in writing to any person, officer or any authority to _______ .

(A) to direct stoppage or regulations of the supply of electricity or water or any other

service.

(B) to direct industries to stoppage of purchase of raw materials.

(C) to direct industries to terminate the services of the manpower deployed by them

(D) to direct industries for stoppage of selling its products

141. As per the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 any person empowered

by the central government in this behalf shall have a right to enter any place with assistance

as he considers necessary _______ .

(A) at any time

(B) during the day time from Sunrise to Sunset.

(C) at all reasonable times

(D) at the time which is given by the employer

AAW - A ] 22 [Contd.

142. Any person, empowered by the central government as per the provisions of the

Environment Protection Act, 1986, shall have power to take samples of air, water, soil or

other substance from any factory for _______ .

(A) for preserving the same

(B) for the purpose of analysis

(C) for the purpose to sell it

(D) for any reason as he deems fit and proper

143. Under the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which of the following is

vested with powers of establishing Environmental Laboratory or Laboratories

(A) The Central Pollution Control Board

(B) State Government

(C) The State Pollution Control Board

(D) Central Government

144. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 shall extend to _______ .

(A) whole of India except State of Jammu and Kashmir

(B) whole of India except State of Andhra Pradesh

(C) whole of India

(D) whole of India except State of Tripura

145. The officers, appointed under Section 4(1) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 are

under the control of ______ .

(A) State Government

(B) Ministry of Environment of the State

(C) Pollution Control Board

(D) Central Government

146. Which of the following is not the power granted to the central government under

Section - 5 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 ?

(A) Power to order for closure of any industry.

(B) Power to issue arrest warrant against the person polluting environment.

(C) Power to stoppage of any project.

(D) Power to stop supply of water or electricity.

AAW - A ] 23 P.T.O.

147. In which of the following chapter of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, the provisions

regarding the “Prevention, control and abetment of environmental pollution” are

provided ?

(A) Chapter III (B) Chapter II

(C) Chapter IV (D) Chapter V

148. Under the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, if any person having

intention to make complaint, has to give _______ days prior notice to the respondent

before making complaint to the central government or other authority.

(A) 30 days (B) 45 days

(C) 50 days (D) 60 days

149. Under which of the provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, all the members of the

authority so constituted under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 are deemed to be

“Public Servent” ?

(A) Section 12 (B) Section 34

(C) Section 21 (D) Section 67

150. On which date, the Environment Protection Act received assent of the President of India ?

(A) 23-04-1986 (B) 23-05-1986

(C) 23-06-1986 (D) 23-07-1986

151. Which provision of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, bars the jurisdiction of the

civil court ?

(A) Section - 22 (B) Section - 23

(C) Section - 24 (D) Section - 25

152. Under which of the section of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, makes the rules

thereunder ?

(A) Section - 20 (B) Section - 25

(C) Section - 18 (D) Section - 3

153. Every rule made under Section - 25 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 shall be laid

before the each house of parliament for the total period of how many days ?

(A) Sixty days (B) Thirty days

(C) Forty Five days (D) Fifteen days

154. From which date, the Environment Protection Act, came into force ?

(A) dt : 15-08-1986 (B) dt : 26-01-1986

(C) dt : 19-11-1986 (D) dt : 02-10-1986

AAW - A ] 24 [Contd.

155. From which date the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 has been commenced ?

(A) dt : 18-10-2010 (B) dt : 26-01-2010

(C) dt : 02-10-2010 (D) dt : 15-08-2010

156. Which of the following Court is having jurisdiction to try the offence punishable under

the Gujarat Payment of Unemployment Allowance to Workman (in Factories) Act, 1981 ?

(A) Principal Senior Civil Judge Court

(B) District Court

(C) Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate First Class Court

(D) Judicial Magistrate Second Class Court

157. Under which of the following Section of the Gujarat Payment of Unemployment Allowance

to Workman (in Factories) Act, 1981, the provision with regard to the offence committed

by the company is provided ?

(A) Section - 8 (B) Section - 9

(C) Section - 7 (D) Section - 10

158. As per the provision of Section 3 of the Gujarat Payment of Unemployment Allowance to

Workman (in Factories) Act, 1981, under which of the following situation a person would

not set unemployment allowance ?

(A) Where, the Employer fails to pay

(B) Where, the Employer refuses to pay

(C) Where, the Employer is ready to pay

(D) Where, the Employer is unable to pay

159. As per the Provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Management

Authority shall consist of not more than _______ members.

(A) Seven (B) Five

(C) Nine (D) Eleven

160. Under which of the following provision of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the

provision regarding the meeting of the National Disaster Authority is provided ?

(A) Section 3 (B) Section 4

(C) Section 5 (D) Section 6

161. On which of the following date, the Disaster Management Act, 2005 received the assent

of the President of India ?

(A) dt : 23-12-2005 (B) dt : 02-10-2005

(C) dt : 14-09-2005 (D) dt : 23-08-2005

AAW - A ] 25 P.T.O.

162. As per the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016, under which of the following section

the term “Commissioning mother” has been defined ?

(A) Section 3(ba) (B) Section 3(c)

(C) Section 3(da) (D) Section 3(a)

163. As per the provision of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016, what is the

maximum period for woman will set the maternity leave ?

(A) Twenty weeks (B) Fifteen weeks

(C) Thirty weeks (D) Twenty Six weeks

164. As per the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016, under which of the following section

the term “Creche facility” has been defined ?

(A) Section 10A (B) Section 11A

(C) Section 11B (D) Section 10B

165. As per the provisions of the Building and other Construction Workers (Regulation of

employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996, the term “Contractor” means a person

_______ .

(A) Who undertake to produce given result for any establishment

(B) Who supplies goods or articles of manufacture

(C) Who supplies building workers

(D) Who enters into contract

166. Under which of the rule of the Chemical Accidents (emergency planning, Preparedness)

and Response Rules, 1996, the term “Hazardous Chemical” has been defined ?

(A) Rule 2(a) (B) Rule 2(b)

(C) Rule 2(c) (D) Rule 2 (d)

167. Any industrial zone earmarked by the Industrial Development Corporation of the State

Government or by the State Government, under the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. and R.)

Rules, 1996 is known as _______ .

(A) Industrial Market (B) Industrial Board

(C) Industrial Pocket (D) Industrial Gate

168. Under which of the rule of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. and R.) Rules, 1996, the term

“Major Chemical Accident” has been defined ?

(A) Rule 2(d) (B) Rule 2(g)

(C) Rule 2(f) (D) Rule 2(h)

AAW - A ] 26 [Contd.

169. Within how many days from the enactment of these Rules, under Rule - 3 of the Chemical

Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996, the central government will constitute central crisis

group ?

(A) Sixty days (B) Ninety days

(C) Thirty days (D) One hundred twenty days

170. Under Rule - 3 of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. and R.) Rules, 1996, the central crisis

group shall meet at least once in _______ months and follow such procedure for transaction

of business as it deems fit,

(A) Six months (B) Three months

(C) Twelve months (D) Two months

171. Which of the following is not the work of the central crisis group, as per Rule - 4 of the

Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996 ?

(A) Setup a functional control room at such place as it deems fit.

(B) Publish a list of major Accident Hazards installations.

(C) Publish a list of members of the Central, State and District crisis groups.

(D) Publish a report specifying the pollutant contents used.

172. Who shall be the apex body to deal with major chemical accidents and to provide expert

guidance for handling major chemical accidents under Rule - 5 of the Chemical Accidents

(E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996 ?

(A) Central Group Crisis (B) State Crisis Group

(C) District Crisis Group (D) Local Crisis Group

173. Which of the following is not the function of the State Crisis Group, as per the provisions

of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996 ?

(A) Assist to State Government in managing chemical accidents at a site.

(B) Assist the State Government in managing the process of pollution clearance.

(C) Assist the State Government in the planning, preparedness and ruiligation of

major chemical accidents at site in the state.

(D) Review the progress report submitted by the District Crisis Group

174. As per the provisions of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996, the District

Crisis Group shall meet at every _______ days and send a report to the State Crisis

Group.

(A) 60 days (B) 30 days

(C) 90 days (D) 45 days

AAW - A ] 27 P.T.O.

175. As per Rule 8(4) of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996, to whom shall the

local crisis group submit the report of the proceedings ?

(A) State Crisis Group (B) Central Crisis Group

(C) District Crisis Group (D) Crisis Alert Authority

176. From which of the following section, the Central Government get power to enact the

Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rule, 1989 ?

(A) Section 6, 8 and 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(B) Section 4, 7 and 20 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(C) Section 5, 9 and 22 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(D) Section 10, 12 and 27 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

177. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical

Rules, 1989, the term “Hazardous Chemical” has been defined ?

(A) Rule 2(c) (B) Rule 2(d)

(C) Rule 2(e) (D) Rule 2(f)

178. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical

Rules, 1989, the term “Threshold quantity” has been defined ?

(A) Rule - 2(m) (B) Rule - 2(h)

(C) Rule - 2(o) (D) Rule - 2(n)

179. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical

Rules, 1989, general responsibility of the occupier has been provided ?

(A) Rule 4 (B) Rule 6

(C) Rule 8 (D) Rule 5

180. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical

Rules, 1989, the term “Transitional Provision” is provided ?

(A) Rule 11 (B) Rule 12

(C) Rule 9 (D) Rule 8

181. As per Rule 10(5) of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rules,

1989, the occupier shall forward a copy of the auditors report along with his comments

to the concerned authority within _______ days after the completion of such audit.

(A) 60 days (B) 30 days

(C) 15 days (D) 45 days

AAW - A ] 28 [Contd.

182. As per the Rule 13(4) of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical

Rules, 1989, the occupier shall ensure that a mock drill of the on-site emergency plan is

conducted at least once in every _______ months.

(A) Three months (B) Four months

(C) Twelve months (D) Six months

183. Under which of the following rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous

Chemical Rules, 1989, the provision with regard to information to be given to person

liable to be affected by a major accident is given ?

(A) Rule 20 (B) Rule 11

(C) Rule 15 (D) Rule 19

184. Under which of the following rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous

Chemical Rules, 1989, the power of the central government to modify the schedules has

been provided ?

(A) Rule 20 (B) Rule 34

(C) Rule 40 (D) Rule 29

185. In which of the following rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous

Chemical Rules, 1989, the term “Importer” has been defined ?

(A) Rule 2(g) (B) Rule 2(f)

(C) Rule 2(e) (D) Rule 2(i)

186. The payment of wages Act, 1936 extends to_______ .

(A) Whole of India except State of Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Whole of India except the Presidency Towns

(C) Whole of India

(D) Whole of India except the North-East states

187. In which of the following Section of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the term “Employed

Person” has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(i) (B) Section 2(ia)

(C) Section 2(ib) (D) Section 2(ic)

188. Which of the following is not included under the definition of “Wage” as defined under

Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?

(A) any remuneration payable under any award or settlement between the parties or

order of a Court.

(B) any additional remuneration payable under the term of employment.

(C) any sum to which the person employed is entitled under any scheme framed under

any law for the time being in force.

(D) any travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession.

AAW - A ] 29 P.T.O.

189. As per Section - 5 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, any railway factory or industrial

or other establishment upon or in which less than one thousand person are employed,

wages to all the employee shall be paid before the expiry of the _______ day.

(A) First (B) Seventh

(C) Forth (D) Tenth

190. Where the employment of any person is terminated by or on behalf of the employer, the

wages earned by him shall be paid before the expiry of the _______ working day from

the day on which his employment is terminated.

(A) second (B) same day

(C) seventh (D) fifteenth

191. Under which of the following section the provision regarding payment of wages shall be

made in the currency notes and coin is provided ?

(A) Section - 10 (B) Section - 8

(C) Section - 9 (D) Section - 6

192. Which of the following is not a part of deduction as specified under Section 7(2) of the

Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?

(A) Fine

(B) Deductions from absence from duty

(C) Suspension allowance

(D) Deduction for house-accommodation supplied by the employer

193. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, No fine shall be imposed on any

employed person, who is under the age of _______ years.

(A) Twenty years (B) Twenty one years

(C) Fifteen years (D) Eighteen years

194. Under which of the following provision of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the provision

regarding deduction in absence of duty has been provided ?

(A) Section - 9 (B) Section - 10

(C) Section - 11 (D) Section - 12

195. Who shall appoint an inspector, under Section - 14 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?

(A) Central Government (B) High Court

(C) Supreme Court (D) State Government

196. Under which of the following Section of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, a penalty for

malicious or vexatious claims has been provided ?

(A) Section 13 (B) Section 15

(C) Section 21 (D) Section 19

AAW - A ] 30 [Contd.

197. Under which of the following Section of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the powers of

authorities appointed under Section 15 are provided ?

(A) Section 18 (B) Section 19

(C) Section 20 (D) Section 21

198. Within how many days an appeal against the order, made under Subsection (2) or

Subsection (3) or Subsection (4) of Section - 15 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 may

be preferred ?

(A) Sixty days (B) Forty Five days

(C) Thirty days (D) Fifteen days

199. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the “Appropriate Government”

for all cases except Railway, Air Transport Services, Mines and Oil Fields means _______ .

(A) Central Government (B) Territorial Government

(C) State Government (D) None of the above

200. Who is the responsible person for the payment of all wages in factories, as per the

provisions of the Payment Wages Act, 1936 ?

(A) All directors of the Board

(B) Departmental Head

(C) General Manager

(D) Manager, who is named as per the provisions of the Act

201. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the “Wage Period” fixed shall

not exceed _______ .

(A) One month (B) Fifteen days

(C) Quarterly (D) Weekly

202. For a claim of unauthorised deduction from wages or delay in payment of wages, as per

the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the Appropriate Government may

appoint _______ .

(A) any special court

(B) any commissioner for workmen compensation

(C) any officer of the labour department

(D) special officer for recovery

203. What are the provisions, under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, for the wrongful

deductions or unpaid wages to the group of unemployed person in the same wage period ?

(A) All employed person have to file an applications.

(B) A single application may be presented.

(C) Trade union of the employed person should give an application.

(D) The government officer can file an application for recovery.

AAW - A ] 31 P.T.O.

204. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the power to make rules is

vested with the _______ .

(A) Appropriate Government

(B) State Government by notification in official gazette.

(C) Central Government by notification in official gazette.

(D) Governor of the State.

205. If any contract or agreement made before or after commencement of the Payment of

Wages Act, 1936, whereby any employed person has relinquishes any right conferred by

this Act.

(A) Such contract or agreement shall prevail.

(B) The appropriate Government will decide and direct.

(C) The Authority under the Act will decide and direct.

(D) Such contract or agreement shall be considered as null and void.

206. As per the provision of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 in case of death of the employed

person, the payment of an undisbursed wages shall _______ .

(A) be deposited in the State Bank of India

(B) be paid to the successor of the deceased

(C) be paid as per the order of the Civil Court

(D) be paid to the persons nominated by him as per the provisions of the Act

207. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the property of employer or

other persons responsible for the payment of wages _______ .

(A) may be attached by the Authority under the Act

(B) Can not be attached by the Authority

(C) Can be attached by Trade Union only

(D) None of the above

208. The preamble of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 confirms to _______ .

(A) to give wages to employed persons

(B) to regulate payment of certain classes of employed persons

(C) to disburse wages weekly

(D) to disburse wages to the right person

209. On which date, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 was enacted ?

(A) dt : 15-08-1961 (B) dt : 01-11-1963

(C) dt : 12-12-1961 (D) dt : 26-01-1961

AAW - A ] 32 [Contd.

210. As per the provision of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, in case of a woman, who is

pregnant, notice for claim of maternity benefit and payment shall state the date from

which she will be absent from work, not being a date earlier than _______ weeks from

the date of her expected delivery.

(A) Ten weeks (B) Six weeks

(C) Four weeks (D) Twelve weeks

211. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 applies to _______ .

(A) All government offices

(B) All educational institutions

(C) All shops and establishments in a state, where Ten or more persons are employed

(D) All industries

212. May the State Government apply the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 to

any other establishment ?

(A) When it deems fit and necessary.

(B) On the direction or order of High Court.

(C) If the Trade Union demand for the same.

(D) After giving not less than two months notice of its intention of so doing and after

approval of the Central Government.

213. Whether a “still born child” is included in the definition of the “Child” under the

Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 ?

(A) A child up to Six years of age

(B) Yes

(C) A child up to Fourteen years of age

(D) Any child

214. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the term “Wages” does not

include _______ .

(A) Incentive bonus

(B) Overtime earnings

(C) Money value of the concessional supply of food grains

(D) Such cash allowances as a woman, is time being entitle

215. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a woman is prohibited to work

_______ .

(A) when she is pregnant

(B) on her weekly holiday

(C) during the Six weeks immediately following the day of delivery or her micarriage

(D) before delivery

AAW - A ] 33 P.T.O.

216. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, no woman shall be entitled to

maternity benefits, unless _______ .

(A) she has completed 240 days working days in service

(B) she has actually worked in an establishment for a period not less than 80 days

from whom she claims maternity benefits

(C) she has completed her probation period

(D) she is permanent workman

217. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the amount of the maternity

benefit for the period preceding the date of her accepted delivery shall be paid _______.

(A) on completion of next wage period

(B) after the delivery

(C) in advance on production of proof that she is pregnant

(D) when she resumes her work after delivery

218. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, if the woman entitled to maternity

benefit fails to give notice to her employer _______ .

(A) she will loose all benefits

(B) she will get benefits only after the date of delivery

(C) it will be presumed that she has waived her right for maternity benefit

(D) she shall not be disentitled for maternity benefit

219. What are the provisions under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, in case of a death of a

woman, who is entitled for maternity benefit or any other amount before receiving benefit

or amount ?

(A) Her child will get the benefit

(B) The employer shall pay such benefit or amount to the person nominated by a

deceased woman

(C) It will be presumed as unclaimed amount

(D) Employer has to deposit such amount with State Government

220. Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a woman is entitled for leave, in

case of miscarriage for a period of _______ .

(A) One month extra

(B) Twelve weeks from the date of miscarriage

(C) Six weeks for the date of miscarriage

(D) Three months from the date of miscarriage

AAW - A ] 34 [Contd.

221. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the woman who returns to

work after such delivery shall be entitled to _______ .

(A) take rest for two hours from her duty

(B) take two weekly holidays

(C) two breaks in addition to interval, for nursing the child

(D) leave her duty thirty minutes early

222. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the employer is prohibited to

______ .

(A) take resignation from woman entitled for maternity benefit

(B) take extra work

(C) discharge or dismiss her during or on account of such absence

(D) to withheld her wages due

223. What are the provisions under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, if after the woman is

permitted to absent herself by her employer and if that woman works at any other

establishment during authorised absence ?

(A) She shall be dismissed from her services

(B) She shall forfeit her claim for maternity benefit for such period

(C) she will have to face disciplinary actions

(D) she has to leave the job

224. Under which of the following section of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, an appointment

of inspector has been done ?

(A) Section 13 (B) Section 14

(C) Section 16 (D) Section 15

225. Under which of the following section of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, provision of

“Nursing break” is provided ?

(A) Section 11 (B) Section 10

(C) Section 15 (D) Section 17

226. Under which precision of the Maternity benefit Act, 1961, The “Application of the Act is

provided” ?

(A) Section 2 (B) Section 3

(C) Section 4 (D) Section 4-A

227. Which of the following in not considered as “Establishment” under section 3(e) of the

Maternity benefit Act, 1961 ?

(A) Factory (B) Shop

(C) Mine (D) Household work

AAW - A ] 35 P.T.O.

228. Under which of the following section of the maternity benefit Act, 1961, the precision of

“Payment of Medical Bonus” is provided ?

(A) Section - 10 (B) Section - 8

(C) Section - 9 (D) Section - 7

229. When the buildings and other construction workers (Regulation of Employment and

conditions of service) Act, 1996 came into force ?

(A) dt : 01-03-1996 (B) dt : 05-06-1996

(C) dt : 06-04-1996 (D) dt : 12-08-1996

230. The buildings and other construction workers (Regulation of Employment and conditions

of service) Act, 1996 extends to _______ ?

(A) Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Whole of India

(C) Whole of India except Manipur and Nagaland

(D) Whole of India except Sikkim

231. How many building workers shall be employed for the application of the buildings and

other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act,

1996 ?

(A) Ten or more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.

(B) Five of more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.

(C) Fifteen or more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.

(D) Twenty or more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.

232. Which authority has power to constitute central Advisory committee under Section - 3 of

the buildings and other construction workers (Regulations of employment and conditions

of service) Act, 1996 ?

(A) State Government (B) Central Government

(C) Judiciary (D) Executive Magistrate

233. When shall an employer applies for registration of establishments under the buildings

and other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of service)

Act, 1996 ?

(A) Within period of thirty days from commencement of the Act.

(B) Within period of sixty days from commencement of the Act.

(C) Within period of ninety days from commencement of the Act.

(D) Within period of ten days from commencement of the Act.

AAW - A ] 36 [Contd.

234. Any change in ownership or management after the registration of an establishment shall

be intimated to registering authorities within _______ days of such change, under the

building and other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of

service) Act, 1996 ?

(A) Thirty days (B) Twenty days

(C) Ninety days (D) Sixty days

235. Any person aggrieved by an order made under Section 8 may within _______ days prefer

and appeal to the appellate officer from the date on which the order is communicated to

him ?

(A) Ten days (B) Thirty days

(C) Sixty days (D) Ninety days

236. Who is a beneficiary under Section 12 of the buildings and other construction workers

(Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 ?

(A) a building worker registered under Section - 12

(B) Children of building worker only

(C) all the dependents of building workers only

(D) legal heir of building worker only

237. Under which of the following Section of the buildings and other construction workers

(Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 the term “Building or

other construction work” has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(b) (B) Section 2(c)

(C) Section 2(d) (D) Section 2(e)

238. What is the meaning of the term “Director General", as per the provision of Section 2(h)

of the building and other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions

of service) Act, 1996 ?

(A) Director General of the Factory (B) Director General of inspection

(C) Director General of company (D) Director General of building

239. Under which of the following Section of the buildings and other construction workers

(Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 the term “Employer”

has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(i) (B) Section 2(j)

(C) Section 2(k) (D) Section 2(l)

240. Who shall constitute “State welfare fund” as per the provision of the buildings and other

construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 ?

(A) Welfare committee of the centre (B) Central government

(C) State government (D) Welfare board of the centre

AAW - A ] 37 P.T.O.

241. What is the meaning of the term “Certifying surgeon", under the Gujarat State Physically

Handicapped persons (Employment in factories) Act, 1982 ?

(A) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 9 of the factories Act, 1948

(B) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 37 of the industrial disputes Act, 1942

(C) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 10 of the factories Act, 1948

(D) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 28 of the industrial disputes Act, 1942

242. As per the provisions of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment

in factories) Act, 1982, “Person registered as physical handicap” means the physical

handicap person whose name is registered with ................ ?

(A) Employment exchange (B) Registered doctors

(C) Government hospitals (D) Central Government

243. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person

(Employment in factories) Act, 1982, the term “Physically handicapped person” has been

defined ?

(A) Section 2(g) (B) Section 2(f)

(C) Section 2(h) (D) Section 2(e)

244. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person

(Employment in factories) Act, 1982 “Certificate of fitness” has been granted to the person

who is handicapped ?

(A) Section 7 (B) Section 9

(C) Section 6 (D) Section 5

245. Under which of the following provision of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person

(Employment in factories) Act, 1982, who will pay the required fee for the certificate of

fitness ?

(A) Person who is handicapped

(B) Legal guardian of the handicapped person

(C) State government

(D) Occupier

246. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person

(Employment in factories) Act, 1982, the powers and duties of the inspector has been

provided ?

(A) Section 19 (B) Section 7

(C) Section 17 (D) Section 9

AAW - A ] 38 [Contd.

247. Under section 9 of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment in

factories) Act, 1982, an occupier who is not following any of the provisions of the Act,

shall be punished with the _______ ?

(A) Imprisonment which max extent to six months or fine which may extent to 1000

Rupees or both.

(B) Imprisonment which may extent to three months or fine which may extent to 100

Rupees or both.

(C) Imprisonment which may extent to two months or fine which may extent to 500

Rupees of both.

(D) Imprisonment which may extent to one month or fine which may extent to 3000

Rupees of both.

248. Under section 11 of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment in

factories) Act, 1982 the court shall take cognisance after the previous sanction of the

_______ ?

(A) High court (B) Supreme court

(C) Inspector (D) Central Government

249. When the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment in factories)

Act, 1982, received the assent of the president of India ?

(A) dt : 21-02-1982 (B) dt ; 19-02-1982

(C) dt ; 28-02-1982 (D) dt : 16-02-1982

250. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person

(Employment in factories) Act, 1982 the term “New factory” has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(d) (B) Section 2(f)

(C) Section 2(e) (D) Section 2(g)

251. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowances to workmen

(in factories) Act, 1982, the term “Badli workman” means _______ ?

(A) Who is employed in place of another workman who is temporarily absent

(B) Who is not permanent workman

(C) Workman who is changed everyday

(D) Outside workman

252. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workman

(In factories) Act, 1981, the definition of “Factory” excludes ?

(A) Government factories

(B) Non registered factories

(C) Factories where the central government is appropriate government

(D) Private factories

AAW - A ] 39 P.T.O.

253. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workman

(in factories) Act, 1981, unemployment allowance is to be paid when the employer fails,

refuses or is unable to provide employment on any day due to _______ ?

(A) Reduction of not less than 25% of the maximum demand of electrical energy

(B) Closure of factory due to shortage of raw material

(C) Lock out declared in the factory

(D) for any reason of failure to give employment

254. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment Allowance to workman

(In factories) Act, 1981, “Temporary workman” means _______ ?

(A) All workmen of factory other than permanent

(B) Who has not completed to 240 working day in the last year

(C) Who is a Badli workman

(D) Who is employed temporarily with temporary increase in work

255. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workman

(In factories) Act, 1981, “Permanent workman” means _______ ?

(A) Who has completed 240 working days in the last year

(B) Who has been employed on permanent basis and whose appointment has been

confirmed in writing

(C) All workman of the factories

(D) Who is entitled for unemployment allowance

256. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen

(in factories) Act, 1981, the workman is deprived of unemployment allowances if _______?

(A) He refuses to accept any alternative employment in the same factory

(B) He is on Sick leave

(C) He has resigned

(D) The employer is not willing to give him the allowance

257. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen

(in factories) Act, 1981, the workman is entitled for unemployment allowances for

maximum days is to be counted as _______ ?

(A) Equal to the average of the total number of days in each month of last one year

(B) 240 days in year

(C) Days of his attendance of the last month

(D) One day for every twenty working day

AAW - A ] 40 [Contd.

258. What are the provisions under the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to

workman (in factories) Act, 1981, for recovery of money of unemployment allowances

due from employer in case of death of a workman ?

(A) His advocate can recover

(B) His assignee or heirs may make an application to the state government

(C) The trade union of which he was a member can recover

(D) His borrower can recover

259. What is the normal time limit for making an application for recovery under the provisions

of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen (in factories) Act, 1981 ?

(A) At any time but within 30 days

(B) One year from the date on which the money became due

(C) End of the financial year

(D) No time limit is prescribed

260. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen

(in factories) Act, 1981, the authority hearing an application for recovery of money due

from employer shall issue certificate for that amount to the collector _______ .

(A) within thirty days of the application

(B) after the fees for filing application paid

(C) after the publication in the official gazette of the state government

(D) after the employer has been given an opportunity to show cause why he has not paid

261. What are the provisions regarding “Filing up at vacancy” under which of the Gujarat

safety officers, Duties qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983 ?

(A) Rule 3 (B) Rule 5

(C) Rule 6 (D) Rule 4

262. Under which of the following rule the duties of the safety officer has been provided,

under the Gujarat safety officers duties qualification and service conduct rules, 1983 ?

(A) Rule 5 (B) Rule 6

(C) Rule 7 (D) Rule 8

263. As per the schedule to the Gujarat safety officers duties qualification and service conduct

rules, 1983, when there are 1501-3000 workers working in the factory, how many safety

officers are required ?

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) Four (D) Five

AAW - A ] 41 P.T.O.

264. As per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983, a

person may be continued as a safety officer not withstanding that he has not obtained

the degree or diploma in any branch of engineering or technology, if he _______ ?

(A) is working as safety officer in a factory

(B) has experience of five years as an inspector

(C) has special knowledge of safety measures

(D) is willing to serve as safety officer

265. As per the Gujarat safety officers duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983,

No person shall be allowed to be and appointed as a safety officer nor shall be allowed to

hold such post, if _______ ?

(A) he has reached to the age of 58 years

(B) He completes ten year of service on the same post

(C) he is directly or indirectly interested in any factory or in any patent or machinery

connected with it or after he becomes so interested in the factory

(D) He is found doing unsafe work in the factory

266. As per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983, it

is obligatory for the occupier of a factory to fill up the post of safety officer, from the

publication of notification _______ ?

(A) within a reasonable time

(B) Within a period of three months

(C) Immediately when the suitable person as per the specified rule is found

(D) Within a period of nine months

267. It shall be the duty of the safety officer as per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualification

and service conduct rules, 1983, to _______ ?

(A) maintain accident free factory

(B) work and superwise the working of the factory

(C) advise and assist the factory management in the fulfilment of its statutory

obligation and to maintain safe working

(D) give direction to the management to close the factory if it is found unsafe

AAW - A ] 42 [Contd.

268. What is the procedure to be adopted in case the vacancy in the post of a safety officer

caused by death, dismissal, resignation or discharge of a person holding such post, under

the Gujarat safety officers, duty qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983 ?

(A) to be notified to the chief inspector of factory and shall be filled up in three months

from the occurrence

(B) shall be notified to chief inspector of factory and to be filled immediately to run the

factory in safe condition

(C) filled up when the suitable and eligible person is found to be

(D) notified to the employment exchange of the area and to invite candidates from

them

269. As per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualification and service conduct rules, 1983,

the chief safety officer or safety officer who is required to be appointed shall be given the

status of senior executive and he shall work directly under the control?

(A) the occupier of the factory

(B) the manager of the factory

(C) the chief executive officer of the factory

(D) the chairman of the safety committee

270. As per the Gujarat safety officers duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983,

the person shall not be eligible to be appointed as safety officer unless ....... ?

(A) he is appointed by the director

(B) he possesses a recognised degree in any branch of engineering or technology and

has practical experience for two year

(C) he has acquired the sufficient knowledge of safety in the factory

(D) he is registered with an employment exchange for this category

271. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the term “Mitigation” means

_______ .

(A) Measures to be taken for Disaster

(B) Measures already taken for Disaster

(C) Measures to find out affected area

(D) Measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of Disaster or threatening

Disaster situation

AAW - A ] 43 P.T.O.

272. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the term “Resources” includes

_______ .

(A) manpower, services, materials and provisions

(B) the fund required to meet Disaster in the specified area

(C) the fund which is allotted by National Disaster Management Authority

(D) the amount kept reserve to meet any situation in case of Disaster

273. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the powers of appointment

of National Disaster Management Authority are vested with _______ .

(A) the President of India

(B) The department of Disaster Management of Central Government

(C) the Central Government by notification in the official gazette

(D) the office of the Prime Minister

274. Who is the Chair Person of the National Disaster Management Authority under the

provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 ?

(A) The Managing Director of the Authority

(B) The President of India

(C) The Speaker of Loksabha

(D) The Prime Minister of India

275. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Executive

committee may _______ .

(A) act as the coordinating and monitoring body for Disaster Management

(B) supervise the functions of National Disaster Management Authority

(C) execute the policy to be framed for disaster management

(D) any other function which committee may decide

276. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the term “National Plan”

includes _______ .

(A) Planning for whole of nation

(B) Roles and responsibilities of different ministries or departments of Government of

India

(C) The plan to be prepared for nation

(D) all plans which are other than state plans

AAW - A ] 44 [Contd.

277. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Authority

shall recommend guidelines for minimum standard of relief to be person affected by

Disaster includes _______ .

(A) giving them permanent employment

(B) giving them monitory benefits for the rest of life

(C) special provisions to be made for widows and orphans

(D) provide insurance facility for future

278. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State Authority when it

considers necessary to constitute an advisory committee the persons will be included

_______ .

(A) Who are from Disaster Management

(B) Who are members of legislative Assembly

(C) Who are experts in the fields of Disaster Management having practical experience

of Disaster Management

(D) Persons who are recommended by affected people

279. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, which authority can establish

District Disaster Management Authority ?

(A) The District Collector

(B) The Chief Minister of the State

(C) The Governor of the State

(D) The State Government after issue of notification in the official gazette

280. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, who shall take all measures

specified in the guidelines laid down by the National Authority for the purpose of Disaster

Management ?

(A) National Executive Committee

(B) District Disaster Management Authority

(C) State Government

(D) National Authority

281. As per the provision of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2016, who

amongst the following is not considered as “Dependant” ?

(A) Widow (B) Son-in-law

(C) Unmarried daughter (D) Widow mother

AAW - A ] 45 P.T.O.

282. Employer's liability for the compensation has been provided under which of the following

section of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2016 ?

(A) Section 10 (B) Section 8

(C) Section 3 (D) Section 15

283. Under which of the following Provision of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment)

Act, 2016, the term “Compensation” has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(a) (B) Section 2(b)

(C) Section 2(c) (D) Section 2(d)

284. Which of the following Section of the Employee's Compensation Act, 1923 has been

omitted by the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016,

(A) Section 31 (B) Section 24-A

(C) Section 11 (D) Section 30-A

285. As per the definition of “Seaman", whom of the following is not included in the definition

of Seaman as per the provision of the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016 ?

(A) Master of ship (B) Owner of ship

(C) Possessor of ship (D) Captain of ship

286. Under which of the following section of the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016, the

term “Wage” has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(g) (B) Section 2(h)

(C) Section 2(m) (D) Section 2(o)

287. Under which of the following section of the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016, the

“Amount of Compensation” has been determined ?

(A) Section 8 (B) Section 10

(C) Section 18 (D) Section 4

288. No claim of compensation shall be made under Employee's Compensation Act, 2016,

unless giving notice to the commissioner within _______ years of occurrence or death of

the person.

(A) Three years (B) Four years

(C) Two years (D) One year

289. As per Section 30 of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2016, no appeal

shall lie against any order, unless substantial question of law is involved in appeal or the

issue of appeal is as specified under Section 30(1)(b), if the amount in dispute of appeal is

not less than _______ rupees.

(A) One Thousand Rupees (B) Five Thousand Rupees

(C) Ten Thousand Rupees (D) Three Thousand Rupees

AAW - A ] 46 [Contd.

290. On which date the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013 has

obtained assent of the Governor ?

(A) dt : 01-04-2013 (B) dt : 01-06-2013

(C) dt : 01-03-2013 (D) dt : 01-08-2013

291. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety

Measures Act, 2013, the term “Chief Fire Officer” has been defined ?

(A) Section 2(b) (B) Section 2(c)

(C) Section 2(d) (D) Section 2(e)

292. What is the full form of G.D.R.C., under the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety

Measures Act, 2013 ?

(A) Gujarat District Control Regulations

(B) General Development Control Regulation

(C) General Development Commission Rules

(D) General Development Control Rules

293. As per Section - 3 of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013, at

least how many fire service shall be there in the state ?

(A) ONE (B) THREE

(C) SIX (D) TWO

294. Who shall appoint the Director of Fire Services as per the provision of the Gujarat Fire

Prevention and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013 ?

(A) Chairman of Fire Service (B) Central Government

(C) State Government (D) High Court

295. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety

Measures Act, 2013, the powers, duties and functions of the Director has been provided ?

(A) Section 5 (B) Section 6

(C) Section 7 (D) Section 9

296. Who shall appoint regional fire officer under Section 8(3) of the Gujarat Fire Prevention

and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013 ?

(A) Chairman of the Fire Service (B) Central Government

(C) State Government (D) Director of Fire

297. As per the provision of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures Rule,

2014, who shall identify the place of establishment of Fire Station ?

(A) Manager (B) Director

(C) Central Government (D) Inspector

AAW - A ] 47

298. Under which of the following chapter of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety

Measures Act, 2013, the provision with regard to “Training of Fire Personnels” is

provided ?

(A) Chapter IV (B) Chapter V

(C) Chapter III (D) Chapter VII

299. Under which of the following rule of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures

Rules, 2014, the provision of restriction respecting “Right to form Association” has been

provided ?

(A) Rule 7 (B) Rule 8

(C) Rule 9 (D) Rule 10

300. Under which of the following section the provision relating to “Appointment of Fire

Safety Officer” has been provided under the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety

Measures Act, 2013 ?

(A) Section 14 (B) Section 16

(C) Section 12 (D) Section 11