NEET MODEL GRAND TEST 2017 - eenadupratibha.net...Plant material used as inoculum during tissue culture is 1) Explant 2) Callus 3) Somatic embryos 4) Cybrid 12. Choose the incorrectly

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NEET MODEL GRAND TESTIMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

Paper containing 180 objective type questions, from Biology, Physics and Chemistry.

Maximum time is 180 min., Maximum marks is 720.

Use Blue/ Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked with pencilwould not be evaluated. Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4marks.

For each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score.

BIOLOGY1. Choose the correct match from the following.

1) Housefly − Class Diptera 2) Leopard − Class Carnivora

3) Solanaceae − Order Sapindales 4) Wheat − Family Poaceae

2. Gene regulation at transcription level and at translation level is observed respectively in

1) Lac operon and RNA interference

2) RNA interference and Lac operon

3) Mutation and Lac operon

4) RNA interference and Mutation

3. Match the following.

I) Angiosperms A) Soil binders

II) Mosses B) SCP

III) Algae C) Naked ovules

IV) Gymnosperms D) Double fertilisation

I II III IV I II III IV

1) A B C D 2) D C B A

3) A A B C 4) D B A C

4. Stem tendrils, unisexual flower, dioecious condition, inferior ovary, parietal placentation, pepo fruit,bicollateral vascular bundles, dichogamy. How many of the above characters are observed inCucurbita?

1) 7 2) 6 3) 8 4) 5

5. Slime moulds and bread moulds in Whittaker's classification are found in these kingdoms respectively

1) Fungi and Fungi 2) Monera and Fungi

3) Protista and Fungi 4) Animalia and Plantae

6. ψw = ψπ + ψp is applicable for

1) Partly turgid cell 2) Turgid cell

3) Flaccid cell 4) All the above

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7. Pick the incorrect match.

8. Select the correct statement.

1) Pyramid of energy is always inverted

2) An organism in ecosystem may not occupy more than one trophic level simultaneously

3) Pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem is generally inverted

4) Phosphorous cycle is an example of gaseous nutrient cycle

9. Physical association of genes on a chromosome is called

1) Linkage 2) Synapsis 3) Alleles 4) Locus

10. Example for codominance is

1) ABO blood group

2) Flower colour in Snapdragon

3) Eye colour in Drosophila

4) Seed coat pattern in pea

11. Plant material used as inoculum during tissue culture is

1) Explant 2) Callus 3) Somatic embryos 4) Cybrid

12. Choose the incorrectly matched from the following.

1) Root propagation - Sweet potato

2) Root pressure - Guttation

3) Root modification - Potato

4) Root anatomy - Exarch xylem

13. Microbe used in the production of bread and beer is

1) Bacterium - Lactobacillus 2) Fungus - Aspergillus

3) Bacterium - Monascus 4) Fungus - Yeast

14. Chlorenchymatous epicarp, fibrous mesocarp, stony endocarp with oily endosperm is seen in

1) Pea 2) Tomato 3) Coconut 4) Maize

15. In C4 plants, 3 - PGA is produced in C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells, This 3 - PGA is

1) Further reduced to PGAL in bundle sheath cells by NADH2

2) Further reduced to PGAL by NADPH2

3) Used to produce oxaloacetic acid liberating CO2

4) Used to produce pyruvic acid which is changed to PEP



C3 Plant C4 Plant CAM Plant

1. Place of starch synthesis Mesophyll cell Bundle sheath cell Mesophyll cell

2. Time of starch synthesis Day Day Day

3. Atmospheric CO2 fixation Mesophyll cell Bundle sheath Mesophyll cell

4. Kranz Anatomy Absent Present Absent

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16. Choose the incorrect match.

1) Polycistronic gene - Gene coding for many introns and extrons

2) Promoter site - Located upstream to structural gene

3) RNA polymerase - Capable of catalyzing only elongation of RNA

4) Permease enzyme - Coded by lac Y gene in Lac operon

17. Methylophilus methylotrophus is

1) Citric acid producing bacterium

2) Biofertiliser bacterium

3) Mycorrhizal fungus

4) SCP bacterium

18. Scarification is a method of overcoming dormancy in seeds which

1) Contain immature embryo

2) Hard seed coat

3) Possess germination inhibiting substance

4) Contain fully formed but physiologically unripe embryo

19. Choose the one which is not a physiological effect of auxins

1) Apical dominance

2) Seed germination by amylase synthesis

3) Prevent premature fruit fall

4) Induce parthenocarpy

20. Function of rop gene in PBR322

1) Synthesis of proteins needed for plasmid replication

2) Initiator site for plasmid replication

3) Provides a phenotype used as selectable marker

4) 1 and 3

21. Choose the incorrect match in relation to the term and the process related to it

1) Sludge, flocs - Sewage treatment

2) Emasculation, bagging - Artificial hybridization

3) Log phase, pH, temperature control - Bioreactor

4) Clone, zygotic embryo - Genetic Engineering

22. Yellow mosaic virus resistance is observed

A) Mutant mung bean

B) Hybrid bhendi

C) Hybrid chilli variety

D) Potato somatic hybrid

1) A, D only 2) A, B only 3) B, C only 4) A, B, C, D



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23. In the given figure of the lac operon, an operon for inducible enzymes, identify components andenzymes

24. Pick the incorrect match.

1) Biofortification - Breeding crops to increase nutritional value

2) Bioremediation - Microbial utility to reduce pollutants

3) Biomagnification - Increased concentration of substance at higher levels in food chain

4) Biopiracy - Property rights granted by the state regarding production, processing of biologicalmaterial

25. Fermentor differ from bioreactor in the following character

1) Utility of Synthesis of proteins needed for plasmid replication

2) Usage of large volumes of culture medium

3) Maintainance of anaerobic conditions

4) Culturing of genetically modified

26. Match the following.

Column - I Column - II

A) Archegonia inside ovule I) Funaria

B) Archegonia on female thallus II) Pteris

C) Archegonia on monoecious prothallus III) Marchantia

D) Archegonia on a leafy gametophores IV) Cycas

A B C D A B C D

1) I II III IV 2) II III I IV

3) IV III II I 4) III IV I II



X Y E1 E2 E3

1. Repressor Inducer Permease Transacetylase b - Galactosidase

protein (lactose)

2. Repressor Inducer b - Galactosidase Transacetylase Permease

protein (lactose)

3. Inducer Repressor b - Galactosidase Permease Transaetylase

(lactose) protein

4. Repressor Inducer b - Galactosidase Permease Transacetylase

protein (lactose)

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27. For most ecosystems ....... is the ultimate source of energy and energy is liberated in the form of .......in an ecosystem

1) Sunlight, heat 2) Heat, light

3) Plants, heat 4) Producers, consumers

28. Identify the correct match from the column, I, II and III and select the correct option.

1) A-iii-b; B-iv-a; C-i-d; D-ii-c 2) A-i-b; B-ii-a; C-iii-d; D-iv-c

3) A-ii-a; B-iii-b; C-iv-c; D-i-d 4) A-iii-c; B-iv-d; C-i-b; D-ii-a

29. Polysaccharides, nucleic acids and proteins are similar in that they are

1) Synthesised from monomers by hydrolysis

2) Synthesised from monomers by dehydration

3) Decomposed into subunits by dehydration

4) All possess Nitrogen

30. Which bonds are created during primary structure of protein and which maintain secondary structureof protein?

1) Peptide and hydrogen bonds 2) Hydrogen and peptide bonds

3) Peptide and glycosidic bonds 4) Glycosidic and peptide bonds

31. A series of enzymes catalysed reactions is in the form of X → Y → Z → A. End product "A" binds tothe enzyme that convert X to Y at a position far away from active site. This binding decreases theactivity of enzyme. End product 'A' functions as

1) Co-enzyme 2) Competitive inhibitor

3) Allosteric inhibitor 4) Substrate

32. How many carbon atoms are fed into citric acid cycle as a result of oxidation of one molecule ofpyruvic acid?

1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8

33. Food → NADH → ETS → Oxygen

Electrons travel downhill in the above sequence in a cell organelle namely

1) Mitochondria 2) Lysosomes 3) Chloroplast 4) 1 and 3

34. A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would at its completion produce two nucleieach containing .......... chromosomes

1) 12 2) 92 3) 46 4) 23

35. A cell divided and produced two daughter cells that are genetically different. Then that cellparticipated in

1) Meiosis - I 2) Meiosis - II 3) Mitosis 4) All the above



Column - I Column - II Column - III

A. Catkin i. Modified calyx a. Neem

B. Pinnately compound leaf ii. Additional support b. Mulberry

C. Pappus iii. Unisexual flowers c. Maize

D. Stilt root iv. Rachis d. Sun flower

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36. During DNA replication, polymerization of nucleotides on the 5' to 3' template is in ....... direction

1) 5' to 3' 2) 3' to 5'

3) 3' to 5' upto replication fork and 5' to 3' 4) None

37. Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in

1) 2) 3) 4)

38. Which one of the following is a secondary parenchymatous tissue?

1) Wood 2) Phellogen 3) Phelloderm 4) Bast

39. The effect of this is obligatory to all flowering plants

1) Photoperiodism 2) Vernalisation

3) Plant growth regulators 4) Cross pollination

40. The ratio of male and female gametes produced from their respective gametophytes in angiosperms is

1) 8 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 8

41. A3+3 and A2+4 are present in flowers of two families respectively

1) Liliaceae and Solanaceae

2) Brassicaceae and Liliaceae

3) Liliaceae and Brassicaceae

4) Solanaceae and Liliaceae

42. Gametophytes are highly reduced and parasitic in

1) Bryophytes 2) Pteridophytes

3) Angiosperms 4) 1 and 2

43. All are roots with symbiotic association except

1) Mycorrhizal roots 2) Coralloid roots

3) Nodular roots 4) Haustorial roots

44. Simple tissue exclusive of dicots and always subepidermal in position is

1) Phloem parenchyma 2) Collenchyma

3) Fibers 4) Sclereids

45. Different types of aquatic plants growing in a pond represent

1) Population 2) Community 3) Species 4) Clone

46. Which of the following is a correct combination of biodiversity conservation methods?



In Situ Conservation Ex Situ Conservation

1) Botanical garden Aquarium

2) Cryopreservation Tissue culture

3) Sacred grooves Sanctuaries

4) National park Zoological park

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47. Given below is a representation of digestion of disaccharides in the human intestine.

Which one of the following options correctly represents two of the three blanks (A, B and C)?

1) B : Fructose, C : Galactose 2) A : Glucose, B : Fructose

3) A : Fructose, C : Galactose 4) B : Galactose, C : Glucose

48. An important indicator of progression of HIV infection is

1) Rise in number of killer T cells 2) Rise in antibody titre

3) Fall in number of macrophages 4) Fall in number of helper T cells

49. White muscle fibres are characterised by

1) High myoglobin content

2) Oxidative phosphorylation for ATP generation

3) Large amounts of glycogen

4) Numerous mitochondria

50. A normal man marries a normal woman whose father is haemophilic. What is the probability that theirdaughter is haemophilic?

1) 0 2) 0.25 3) 0.5 4) 0.75

51. Adenosine deaminase deficiency causes

1) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome 2) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

3) Immune Complex Mediated Hypersensitivity 4) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

52. Amensalism is an association between two species where

1) One species is harmed and other is benefitted

2) One species is benefitted and other is unaffected

3) One species is harmed and other is unaffected

4) Both the species are harmed

53. Match the items in column I with those in column II and choose the correct option from the codes givenbelow.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Catalytic converter (i) Hospital waste

(b) Muffler (ii) SO2

(c) Incinerator (iii) Noise

(d) Scrubber (iv) CO

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)



sucrose maltose lactose

A B C

< < < < <

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54. Which one of the following gives the correct description of a health disorder?

1) Jaundice - Deposition of bile salts in skin and eyes

2) Tetany - Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction

3) Heart failure - Sudden stoppage of heartbeat

4) Emphysema - Damaged alveolar walls

55. 'Minipill' used as oral contraceptive contains

1) Oestrogens 2) Progestin

3) Oestrogens and progestin 4) Mifepristone

56. Which of the following is not true about depolarisation of axonal membrane?

1) Depolarisation occurs due to rapid influx of Na+

2) The polarity of the membrane at the site of depolarisation is reversed

3) The outer surface of the membrane becomes negatively charged

4) The membrane is more permeable to K+ and nearly impermeable to Na+

57. The following are the two statements about inbreeding.

(a) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes as it increases heterozygosity.

(b) Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding, usually reduces fertility.

Of the above statements, which one of the following options is correct?

1) (a) is correct but (b) is false 2) (b) is correct but (a) is false

3) Both (a) and (b) are correct 4) Both (a) and (b) are false

58. The process of sperm capacitation occurs mostly in the

1) Seminiferous tubules 2) Epididymis

3) Seminal vesicle 4) Fallopian tube

59. Choose the correctly matched pair.

1) Tendon - Orientation of fibres shows irregular pattern

2) Compound epithelium - Lining of body cavities

3) Cardiac muscle - Communication junctions allow the cells to contract as a unit

4) Cartilage - Solid and non-pliable intercellular material

60. Which of the following gives the correct action of a birth control method?

1) Vasectomy - Prevents spermatogenesis but not fertilization

2) Spermicides - Prevent implantation but not conception

3) Cervical caps - Prevent conception but not ovulation

4) Oral - Prevent pregnancy contraceptives but not ovulation

61. The biological product of transgenic animal used to treat emphysema is

1) Alpha lactalbumin 2) Alpha-1-antitrypsin

3) Alpha interferon 4) Alpha fetoprotein

62. Which of the following is an edible freshwater fish?

1) Carp 2) Sardine 3) Mackerel 4) Pomfrets



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63. Which of the following pairs of hormones are antagonistic to each other?

1) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

2) Triiodothyronine and tetraiodothyronine

3) Relaxin and inhibin

4) Thyrocalcitonin and parathormone

64. Both greenhouse effect and ozone depletion are caused by

1) CFCs 2) CO2 3) SO2 4) CO

65. 'Lubb' sound coincides with which component of ECG?

1) P wave 2) QRS complex 3) T wave 4) P-R interval

66. The biotic potential of a population is displayed during the ..... phase of a logistic growth curve.

1) Asymptote 2) Deceleration 3) Lag 4) Acceleration

67. Heroin is obtained by

1) Drying the leaves of Erythroxylum coca

2) Crushing the seeds of Claviceps purpurea

3) Acetylation of morphine

4) Rubbing the flower buds of Cannabis sativa in the palm

68. The main cause of extinction of passenger pigeon is

1) Alien species invasion 2) Overexploitation

3) Co-extinction 4) Environmental pollution

69. Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?

1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

2) Forelimbs of whales, bats and cheetah

3) Sweet potato and potato

4) Beak form in Darwin's finches

70. Which of the following procedures would be the second after you rearrange them in sequence as perDNA fingerprinting protocol?

1) Autoradiography 2) Hybridisation

3) Electrophoresis 4) Blotting

71. Pituitary gland synthesizes all of the following hormones except

1) ADH 2) PRL 3) TSH 4) ACTH

72. Long term high altitude residents exhibit all of the following adaptations except

1) Decreased blood plasma volume

2) Increased oxygen-binding capacity of haemoglobin

3) Increased RBC count

4) Increased 2, 3 BPG concentration in RBC

73. Which of the following has the largest cranial capacity?

1) Neanderthal man 2) Java man 3) Heidelberg Man 4) Peking man



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74. The factors favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin are

1) High pO2, low pCO2, greater H+ concentration and lower temperature

2) High pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and higher temperature

3) High pO2, low pCO2, lower pH and lower temperature

4) High pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature

75. In a female cockroach, sperms are stored in

1) Seminal vesicles 2) Spermathecae 3) Vagin 4) Colleterial glands

76. Which of the following is not useful in the treatment of hypertension?

1) Antihistamine 2) Diuretics 3) ACE inhibitor 4) Renin inhibitor

77. Which of the following characteristics is shared by urochordates and cephalochordates?

1) Pharynx is perforated by gill-slits

2) Notochord is persistent throughout life

3) Nerve cord is ventral, solid, and double

4) Heart is dorsal and myogenic

78. Study the following graph representing dynamics of haemopoiesis in embryonic and foetal life andchoose the option that correctly identifies the labels A, B, C and D.

79. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry large amounts of glucose?

1) Hepatic portal vein 2) Hepatic vein

3) Dorsal aorta 4) Inferior vena cava

80. Mark the correct sequence of synthesis hormones in human being.

1) GnRH → FSH → Testosterone

2) GnRH → Progesterone → LH

3) GnRH → LH → Testosterone

4) TRH → TSH → Progesterone



A B C D

1) spleen yolk sac liver bone marrow

2) spleen bone marrow yolk sac liver

3) yolk sac spleen liver bone marrow

4) bone marrow liver spleen yolk sac

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81. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B).

(A) (B)Acetabulum is the socket of the ____ that receives the head of ____.

The one correct option for the two blanks is:

A B

1) Scapula Humerus

2) Coxal bone Femur

3) Scapula Femur

4) Coxal bone Humerus

82. When a photon of light strikes a rod cell in the retina,

1) Retinal dissociates from opsin

2) Trans-retinal isomerises to cis retinal

3) Retinal binds to opsin forming rhodopsin

4) Na+ influx into the rod cell occurs

83. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group ofanimals?

84. Human placenta produces

1) Oxytocin 2) Relaxin

3) Prolactin 4) LH

85. Recycling is a method for controlling

1) Solid waste 2) Nuclear waste

3) Hospital waste 4) Toxic waste

86. During their early stages of development, the embryos of fish, salamander, turtle, chick, and pig lookvery similar. This suggests that they

1) Live in same type of evolution

2) Evolved from a common ancestor

3) Have undergone parallel evolution

4) Are no longer undergoing evolution

87. Select the correct matching of the part of nephron with its function.

1) PCT - Reabsorption of H+

2) DCT - Secretion of Urea

3) Collecting duct - Reabsorption of glucose

4) Loop of Henle - Maintenance of high osmolarity in medulla



1) Marine habitat, asymmetry Porifera

2) Organ-system level, water vascular system Echinodermata

3) Tracheae, Malpighian tubules Arthropoda

4) Flame cells, hooks and suckers Platyhelminthes

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88. The following pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a genitally inherited disorder in human beings.What is the most likely mode of inheritance of the disorder?

1) Autosomal dominant 2) Autosomal recessive

3) X-linked dominant 4) X-linked recessive

89. If a person is infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required, we needto inject

1) Attenuated pathogens 2) Preformed antibodies

3) Serum albumins 4) Anticoagulants

90. A 'red list' of threatened species is published by

1) ICZN 2) WWF 3) IUCN 4) ICAR

PHYSICS

91. Object distance, u = (50.1 ± 0.5) cm and image distance. v = (20.1 ± 0.2) cm then focal length is

1 1 1[ ⎯ = ⎯ + ⎯ and u and v are +ve]f v u

1) (12.4 ± 0.4) cm 2) (14.3 ± 0.3) cm 3) (14.3 ± 0.4) cm 4) (14.3 ± 0.1) cm

92. We can associate vectors with

a) The length of wire bent into a loop

b) A plane area

c) a sphere

1) Only a is true 2) Only b is true

3) Both a and b are true 4) a, b and c are true

93. A bird flies for 4 s with a velocity of ⎟ t − 2⎟ ms−1 in a straight line, where t is in second. The distancetravelled by it is

1) 4 m 2) 2 m 3) 6 m 4) 5 m

94. Two fixed frictional inclined planes making an angle 30° and 60° with the vertical are shown in thefigure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two planes. What is the relative vertical acceleration ofA with respect to B?

1) 14.7 ms−2 in vertical direction 2) 9.8 ms−2 in vertical direction

3) Zero 4) 4.9 ms−2 in vertical direction



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95. A uniform rod of mass 15 kg and length 5 m is held stationary with the help of a light string as shown.Then tension in the string is

1) 150 N 2) 225 N 3) 100 N 4) None of these

96.

A smooth tube of certain mass closed at both ends is rotated in a gravity free space and released. Thetwo balls shown in figure move towards the ends of the tube and stay there. Then which statement isincorrect about this whole system:

1) Total angular momentum will remain conserved

2) Total linear momentum will remain conserved

3) Total kinetic energy of system will decrease

4) Total mechanical energy will remain constant

97. F⎯

= a i−

+ 3 j−

+ 6 k−

and r = 2 i−− 6 j

−−12 k

−. The value of 'a' for which the angular momentum is

conserved is

1) −1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2

a98. The mass per unit length of a non uniform rod is given by λ = ⎯ x2 where a is constant, L is length

L

of the rod and x is distance of any point from one end. The distance of the centre of mass of the rodfrom the same end is

L 2L 3 31) ⎯ 2) ⎯ 3) ⎯ L 4) ⎯ L

2 3 5 4

99. If A is a real velocity of a planet of mass M, its angular momentum is .........

M1) ⎯ 2) 2MA 3) A2M 4) MA

A

100. The length of a metallic wire is l1, when the tension is T1 and is l2 when the tension is T2. Theoriginal length of the wire is

l1 + l2 l1T2 + l2T1 l1T2 − l2T1 ⎯1) ⎯⎯⎯ 2) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 3) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 4) √ T1T2l1l22 T1 + T2 T2 − T1

101. An ideal fluid flows steadily in a pipe of varying cross section. If velocity at a pointwhere radius is3 R is υ, then its velocity at a point where radius is R will be

υ υ1) ⎯ 2) ⎯ 3) 9υ 4) 3υ

3 9



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102. A small drop of clean water is squeezed between two clean glass plates so that a thin layer of large areais formed. Assuming the thickness of the layer as 10−6 m, the area of it as 40 cm2. Surface tension ofwater as 7 × 10−2 N/m, the force pushing the plates together is

1) 460 N 2) 760 N 3) 1120 N 4) 560 N

103. A cylindrical metal rod of length L0 is shaped into a ring with a small gap as shown. On heating thesystem,

1) x decreases, r and d increase 2) x and r increase, d decrease

3) x, r and d will increase 4) data insufficient to arrive at a conclusion

104. Two solid spheres A and B made of the same material have radii rA and rB respectively. Both thespheres are cooled from the same temperature under the conditions valid for Newton's law of cooling.The ratio of the rate of change of temperature in A and B is

rA rB r2A r2B1) ⎯ 2) ⎯ 3) ⎯ 4) ⎯

rB rA r2B r2A

105. Figure shows cylindrical container containing oxygen gas enclosed by a piston of mass 50 kg. Pistoncan slide smoothly in the cylinder. Its cross-sectional area is 100 cm2 and atmospheric pressure is 105 Pa. Some heat is supplied to the cylinder, so that the piston is slowly displaced up by 20 cm. Theamount of heat supplied to the gas is

1) 800 J 2) 1275 J 3) 920 J 4) 1050 J

106. Four carnot engines operate between reservoir temperatures of (a) 300 K and 400 K (b) 400 K and500 K (c) 500 K and 600 K (d) 600 K and 800 K. Which engine has least efficiency?

1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)

107. The rms speed of gas molecules is υrms . The rms speed in a specific direction will be

υrms υrms 1) υrms 2) ⎯⎯ 3) √⎯3υrms 4) ⎯⎯

3 √⎯3

108. A block is kept on a rough horizontal plank. The coefficient of friction between the block and the plankis 1/2. The plank is undergoing SHM with angular frequency 10 rad/s. The maximum amplitude ofplank in which the block does not slip over the plank is : (g = 10 m/s2)

1) 4 cm 2) 5 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 16 cm



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109. In damped oscillations, the amplitude of oscillations is reduced to one - third of its initial value a0 atthe end of 100 oscillations. When the oscillator completes 200 oscillations, the amplitude must be

a0 a0 a0 a01) ⎯ 2) ⎯ 3) ⎯ 4) ⎯

2 4 6 9

110. Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve round a planet in coplanar circular orbits in the same sense. Theirperiods of revolution are 1 hour and 8 hour respectively. The radius of orbit of S1 is 104 km. The speedof S2 relative to S1 when S2 is closest to S1, is (in km h−1)

1) 2 × 104 2) π × 104 3) 2 π × 104 4) 104

111. The gravitational field in a region is −E = (2 i +3 j )N kg−1 The equation for equipotential line is

1) 2x + 3y = c 2) 2y + 3x = c 3) x + 2y = c 4) 1.5x + 2y = c

112. In Davisson-Germer experiment the decrease of the wavelength of the electron wave was done by

1) keeping the same potential difference between anode and filament

2) decreasing the potential difference between anode and filament

3) increasing the potential difference between anode and filament

4) keeping more distance between the anode and filament

113. The ionization potential of mercury is 10.39V. How far an electron must travel in an electric field of1.5 × 106 V/m to ionize mercury ?

10.39 10.391) ⎯⎯⎯ m 2) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ m

1.6 × 10−19 2 ×1.6 × 10−19

10.39 3) 10.39 × 1.6 × 10−19 m 4) ⎯⎯⎯ m

1.5 × 106

114. Three point charges +q, −2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and(x = a, y = 0, z = 0), respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector ofthis charge assembly are

1) √⎯2 qa along + y direction

2) √⎯2 qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

3) qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

4) √⎯2 qa along + x direction

115. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The magneticfield is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD are -

1) B to A and D to C 2) A to B and C to D

3) A to B and D to C 4) B to A and C to D

116. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water fromtemperature 20°C? The temperature of boiling water is 100°C.

1) 6.3 min 2) 8.4 min 3) 12.6 min 4) 4.2 min



X X X X X

X X X X X

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117. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge −2µC in a magnetic field 2T acting iny-direction, when the particle velocity is (2i + 3 j) ×106 ms−1would be

1) 8 N in -z direction 2) 4 N in z direction

3) 8 N in y direction 4) 8 N in z direction

118. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associatedmagnetic moment µ is given by

qvR qvR21) ⎯⎯ 2) qvR2 3) ⎯⎯ 4) qvR

2 2

119. A particle mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field ofinduction B. After 3s the kinetic energy of the particle will be

1) 3T 2) 2T 3) T 4) 4T

120. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop.If the force on one arm of the loop is F, the force on the remaining three arms of the loop is

1) 3F 2) −F 3) −3F 4) F

121. The most appropriate magnetization M versus magnetising field H curve for a paramagnetic substanceis:

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

122. In an AC circuit the emf (e) and the current (i) at any instant are given respectively by e = E0 sin ω t.

i = I0 sin(ωt − φ) The average power in the circuit over one cycle of AC is

E0 I0 E0 I0 E0 I01) ⎯⎯ 2) ⎯⎯ sin φ 3) ⎯⎯ cos φ 4) E0 I02 2 2

123. Alternating current can not be measured by DC ammeter because

1) AC cannot pass through DC ammeter

2) AC changes direction

3) Average value of current for complete cycle is zero

4) DC ammeter will get damaged

124. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?

1) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and sametime.

2) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors.

3) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the directionof propagation of wave.

4) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.



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125. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light from the cointravels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface (see figure)

How fast is the light travelling in the liquid ?

1) 1.8 × 108 ms−1 2) 2.4 × 108 ms−1

3) 3.0 × 108 ms−1 4) 1.2 × 108 ms−1

126. An equi convex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following optionsdescribe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ? [µ = 1.5]

1) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm 2) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm

3) Real, inverted, height = 1 cm 4) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm

127. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 A° is of the order of

1) 106 rad 2) 10−2 rad 3) 10−4 rad 4) 10−6 rad

128. A person sees clearly at a distance of 100 cm, then power of lens used to see object at 40 cm is

1) 3 D 2) −3 D 3) −1.5 D 4) +1.5 D

129. Two coherent monochromatic light sources are located at two vertices of an equilateral triangle. If theintensity due to each of the sources independently is 1 Wm−2 at the third vertex, the resultantintensity due to both the sources at that point (ie, at the third vertex) is (in Wm−2)

1) zero 2) √⎯2 3) 2 4) 4

130. A light of wavelength 5890 A° falls normally on a thin air film. The minimum thickness of the film suchthat the film appears dark in reflected light

1) 2.945 × 10−7 m 2) 3.945 × 10−7 m

3) 4.95 × 10−7 m 4) 1.945 × 10−7 m

131. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is9 mW. The number of photons arriving per second on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is[nearly]

1) 9 × 1017 2) 3 × 1016 3) 9 × 1015 4) 9 × 1019

132. The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y which is stable. Thetwo elements X and Y where found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age ofthe rock was estimated to be

1) 200 years 2) 250 years 3) 100 years 4) 150 years

133. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.5 eV. The minimum frequency of theradiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly

1) 10 × 1014 Hz 2) 6 × 1014 Hz 3) 1 × 1014 Hz 4) 20 × 1014 Hz

134. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain without feedbackwill be

1) 90 2) 100 3) 1.25 4) 1000



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135. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table

1) A B Y 2) A B Y

0 0 0 0 0 1

0 1 0 0 1 1

1 0 0 1 0 1

1 1 1 1 1 0

3) A B Y 4) A B Y

0 0 1 0 0 0

0 1 0 0 1 1

1 0 0 1 0 1

1 1 0 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

136. Ozone and hydrogen peroxide resemble each other in many properties. Which of the following is usedto distinguish ozone and hydrogen peroxide

1) KMnO4 / H+ 2) PbS

3) Starch paper + I2 4) K4 [Fe(CN)6]

137. Nitrogen present in 'X' cannot be estimated by Kjeldahl method. 'X' is neither heterocyclic nor an azocompound. 'X' is aromatic. Reduction of 'X' in acidic medium gives

1) 3° Amine 2) 2° Amine

3) 1° Amine 4) Hydrazo benzene

138. Which of the following gives brown ring test and also on heating with NaOH liberates a pungentsmelling gas which gives white dense fumes with glass rod dipped in HCl

1) (NH4)3 PO4 2) NH4NO3 3) NH4Cl 4) (NH4)2 CO3

139. C = C is more reactive than C ≡ C towards HCl but in certain reactions C ≡ C reacts faster than C = C.In which of the following C ≡ C reacts faster with HCl than C = C

1)

2)

3)

4)

140. Fluorine and chlorine are good oxidizing agents, which of the following property is not required tocompare their oxidizing power

1) Ionization potential 2) Hydration enthalpy

3) Electron gain enthalpy 4) Bond dissociation enthalpy



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H3 PO2 + H2O CH3COCl Zn−Hg a) KMnO4 KOH141. N

+

2Cl

−⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ D. Here 'D' is

FeCl3 Conc.HCl b) H+

1) C6H5CHO 2) C6H5CONH2

3) C6H5COCH3 4) C6H5COOH

142. [Co (NH3)3 (ONO)3] can exhibit ........isomerism

1) Optical 2) Ionization 3) Fac − mer 4) Coordination

143.

'X' is the major product of the reaction. It is represented by the structure

1) 2)

3) 4)

144. 'sp2d' hybridization is observed in

1) [Cu (NH3)4] SO4 2) K2 [Ni (CN)4]

3) K2 [NiCl4] 4) Na2 [CuCl4]

145. Which of the following is most acidic?

1) 2) 3) 4)

146. Which among the following complexes has square pyramidal geometry?

1) Tetra carbonyl nickel (O)

2) Hexamine cobalt (II) nitrate

3) Penta carbonyl iron (O)

4) Bis(acetylacetonato) oxovandium (IV)

147. Mesityl oxide is

1) 1, 3, 5 − Trimethylbenzene

2) 2, 6 − Dimethylhept 2, 5 − dien − 4 − one

3) 4 − Methylpent − 3 − ene − 2 − one

4) Crotenaldehyde

148. In the extraction of iron from Haematite in blast furnace, the reaction occurring at 1500°C is

1) Fe2O3 + CO ⎯⎯→ Fe + CO2

2) CaO + SiO2 ⎯⎯→ CaSiO3

3) FeO + C ⎯⎯→ Fe + CO

4) Fe2O3 + CO ⎯⎯→ Fe3O4 + CO2



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149. Glucose cannot give positive .......... test

1) Tollen's 2) Fehling's 3) Sanger's 4) Molisch

150. Which of the following is thermally most stable

1) K2CO3 2) NaHCO3 3) CaCO3 4) BeCO3

151. When a hydrogen atom emits a photon of energy 12.09 eV, its orbital angular momentum will changeby

h 2h h h1) ⎯ 2) ⎯ 3) ⎯ 4) ⎯

2π π π 3π

152. The vander Waals parameters for gases W, X, Y and Z are

Which one of these gases has the highest critical temperature?

1) W 2) X 3) Y 4) Z

153. If 'M2X' (ionic compound) is dissolved in water, where, the hydration energy of M+ ion is 100 kJ/mol,and that of X2− ion is 200 kJ/mol and the lattice energy of M2X is 150 kJ/mol. Then the heat ofdissolution is '−' kJ/mol. Heat of dissolution cycle for ionic compound is given below:

M2X (s) 2M+ (g) + X2− (g)

2M+ (aq) + X2− (aq)

Heat of dissolution

1) −300 2) −250 3) −150 4) −200

1 1154. If ⎯ X2O(s)→ X(s) + ⎯ O2 (g); ∆H = 90 kJ

2 4

then heat change during reaction of metal 'X' with one mole of O2 to form oxide is

1) 360 kJ 2) − 360 kJ 3) −180 kJ 4) + 180 kJ

155. Values of ∆H and ∆ S for five different reactions are given below.

On the basis of these values predict which one of these will be spontaneous at all temperatures?

1) Reaction I 2) Reaction II 3) Reaction III 4) Reaction IV



Gas a(atm L2 mol-2) b(L mol-1)

W 4.0 0.027

X 8.0 0.030

Y 6.0 0.032

Z 12.0 0.027

∆Hs

Reaction DH (kJ mol-1) DS (J K-1mol-1)I + 98.0 + 14.8

II - 55.5 - 84.8

III + 28.3 - 17.0

IV - 40.5 + 24.6

V + 34.7 0.0

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156. With which of the following solutions lead cannot be precipitated as PbCl2 (Ksp = 2.4 × 10−4) whenequal concentration of Pb (NO3)2 is mixed with equal volume of

1) 0.5 N HCl 2) 0.05 N HCl 3) 1.0 N HCl 4) 2.0 N HCl

157. The unit cell with the structure given below represents ........ crystal system

1) Cubic 2) Monoclinic 3) Triclinic 4) Trigonal

158. A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 400 pm. The density of the metal is2.8 g cm−3. The molar mass of the metal is (NA Avogadro's constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1)

1) 27 g mol−1 2) 20 g mol−1 3) 40 g mol−1 4) 30 g mol−1

159. The proportion of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid used in the preparation of nylon 6, 6 is:

1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 1 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2

160. On adding AgNO3 solution to KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol will be formed in whichof the following conditions?

1) 100 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.1 M KI


3) 100 mL of 0.2 M AgNO3 + 100 mL of 0.1M KI


161. Arrange the following samples in decreasing order of number of molecules?

A) 1.0 g of butane (C4H10 )

B) 1.0 g of nitrogen ( N2)

C) 1.0 g of silver chloride [Atomic weight of Ag = 108]

D) 1.0 g of water ( H2O)

1) B > D > A > C 2) A > D > B > C 3) D > B > A > C 4) A > C > D > B

162. Cottrell precipitator is a device to

1) coagulate the particles of any sol

2) coagulate the particles of carbon from smoke

3) coagulate the mud particles from water

4) coagulate the dirt particles of sewage water

163. Identify the incorrect statement?

1) Glycerol is more viscous than ethyl alcohol

2) HF is more acidic than HI

3) C6H6 and B3N3H6 are isoelectronic species

4) Al (OH)3 is amphoteric in nature



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164. In blister copper, the blisters are formed due to passing out of the following gas

1) Nitrogen 2) CO 3) CO2 4) SO2

165. The method of purification of metal employing the technique of fractional crystallization is

1) cupellation 2) zone refining

3) van Arkel method 4) oxidative refining

166. Shape of XeOF4 molecule is

1) square planar 2) trigonal bipyramidal

3) square pyramidal 4) octahedral

CH3 Br2/KOH

167. CH3 − CH2 − CH − C − NH2 ⎯⎯→ (A) ⎯⎯→ The major product 'B' is: ∆O

(B)

CH3 CH3

1) CH3 − CH2 − CH = CH2 2) CH3 − CH2 − CH − C − NO CH3

CH3 CH3

3) CH3 − CH = CH − CH3 4) CH3 − CH2 − CH − N

CH3

168.

1) 2)

3) 4)

Conc.HNO3 Cl2 Zn/ HCl NaNO2 + HCl Cu2Cl2169. Benzene ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Α ⎯⎯⎯→ Β ⎯⎯⎯→ C ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ D ⎯⎯⎯→ E. 'E' isConc.H2SO4, < 60oC FeCl3 HCl

1) Chlorobenzene

2) m-Dichloro benzene

3) o-Dichloro benzene

4) p-Dichloro benzene

170. SiO2 cannot react with

1) HF 2) NaOH 3) Na2SiO3 4) KOH



(1)CH3I (excess )

(2) AgOH/D

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171. β − Naphthol (or) 2 −Naphthol is

If it undergoes coupling with benzene diazonium chloride in alkaline medium then coupling occurs at............ position. According to IUPAC system the numbering

in Naphthalene is

1) 1st 2) 4th 3) 6th 4) 8th

172. Wrong match is

1) Na4 [ Fe(CN)5NOS ] - Violet

2) Fe4 [ Fe(CN)6 ]3 - Prussian blue

3) PbS − Black

4) (NH4 )3 PO4.12 MoO3 - Red

173. Which of the following is incorrect?

1) Bridged hydrogen atom in a bicyclo compound can involve in tautomerism

2) Molecules not containing chiral carbon can exhibit optical activity

3) Diastereomers must be enentiomeric optical isomers

4) Tautomers are always in dynamic equilibrium

174. Which of the following gives a compound which is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition?

1) Ethene

2) 2 − butene

3) 2, 3 − dimethyl - 2 − butene

4) 2 − methyl − 2 − butene

175. A gas present in a cylinder, expands against a constant pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 2 litre to avolume of 6 litre. In doing so, it absorbs 800 joule heat from surrounding. The change in internalenergy of process is:

1) +305.85 joule 2) +796 joule

3) +395 joule 4) −463.28 joule

176. In following reaction PF5 + F−→ PF6−. Select the correct statement.

1) Hybridization of P changes from sp3d to sp3

2) % s character of hybrid orbital changes

3) Bond angle remains unchanged

4) "Maximum no. of atoms are lying in the same plane" remains same



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177. Following data are obtained for the reaction A + B → product

[A] [B] Rate

(mole L−1) (mole L−1) (mole L−1s−1)4 × 10−2 4 × 10−2 2 × 10−2

4 × 10−2 8 × 10−2 4 × 10−2

2 × 10−2 8 × 10−2 2 × 10−2

The reaction confirms the rate law

d [B] d [B]1) − ⎯⎯ = k [A] 2) − ⎯⎯ = k [A ] [B]2

dt dt

d [B] d [B]3) − ⎯⎯ = k [A] [B] 4) − ⎯⎯ = k [B]

dt dt

178. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

1) Aspartame : Food preservative

2) BHT: Antioxidant

3) Saccharin: Artificial sweetener

4) Norethindrone: Synthetic progesterone derivative

179. FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN6)] aqueous solution gives blue colour. These are separated by asemipermeable membrane as shown. Due to osmosis there is :

1) blue colour formation in side X.

2) blue colour formation in side Y.

3) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y.

4) no blue colour formation.

180. Molar conductance of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl at infinite dilutions are 200W −1cm2 / mole,300 W−1 cm2 / mole and 50W−1cm2 / mole respectively. Equivalent conductance of BaSO4 atinfinite dilution is

1) 200 W−1 cm2 / g eq

2) 100 W−1 cm2 / g eq

3) 400 W−1 cm2 / g eq

4) 300 W−1 cm2 / g eq



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KEY1-4; 2-1; 3-3; 4-2; 5-3; 6-4; 7-3; 8-3; 9-1; 10-1; 11-1; 12-3; 13-4; 14-3; 15-2; 16-1; 17-4; 18-2; 19-2; 20-1;21-4; 22-2; 23-4; 24-4; 25-3; 26-3; 27-1; 28-1; 29-2; 30-1; 31-3; 32-1; 33-1; 34-3; 35-1; 36-1; 37-2; 38-3;39-3; 40-3; 41-3; 42-3; 43-4; 44-2; 45-2; 46-4; 47-3; 48-4; 49-3; 50-1; 51-4; 52-3; 53-4; 54-4; 55-2; 56-4;57-2; 58-4; 59-3; 60-3; 61-2; 62-1; 63-4; 64-1; 65-2; 66-4; 67-3; 68-2; 69-3; 70-4; 71-1; 72-2; 73-1; 74-4;75-2; 76-1; 77-1; 78-3; 79-1; 80-3; 81-2; 82-1; 83-2; 84-2; 85-1; 86-2; 87-4; 88-1; 89-2; 90-3; 91-4; 92-2;93-1; 94-4; 95-3; 96-4; 97-1; 98-4; 99-2; 100-3; 101-3; 102-4; 103-3; 104-2; 105-4; 106-3; 107-4; 108-2;109-4; 110-2; 111-1; 112-3; 113-4; 114-2; 115-1; 116-1; 117-1; 118-1; 119-3; 120-2; 121-1; 122-3; 123-3;124-3; 125-1; 126-2; 127-4; 128-4; 129-4; 130-1; 131-2; 132-1; 133-2; 134-4; 135-4; 136-1; 137-3; 138-2;139-3; 140-1; 141-4; 142-3; 143-3; 144-1; 145-3; 146-4; 147-3; 148-3; 149-3; 150-1; 151-3; 152-4; 153-2;154-2; 155-4; 156-2; 157-1; 158-1; 159-2; 160-4; 161-3; 162-2; 163-2; 164-4; 165-2; 166-3; 167-1; 168-1;169-2; 170-3; 171-1; 172-4; 173-1; 174-1; 175-3; 176-2; 177-3; 178-1; 179-4; 180-1.

( -Ñ -†´‚-Ø√ -v°æ-¨¡o°æ--vû√-Eo -vQ-îÁj-ûª-†u -N-ü∆uÆæçÆæn-©èπ◊ -îÁç-C-† -E°æ¤-ù’-©’ ®Ω÷-§Òç-Cç-î√®Ω’)



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NEET MODEL GRAND TEST 2017 - eenadupratibha.net...Plant material used as inoculum during tissue culture is 1) Explant 2) Callus 3) Somatic embryos 4) Cybrid 12. Choose the incorrectly