NEET 2019-20 · 26/03/2020 Page No. (3) VERSION-P EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB THINK NEET THINK IIB PHYSICS 11. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a speed

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NEET 2019-20THINK NEET THINK IIB

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EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB

THINK NEET THINK IIB

Section ‘A’ : Physics

PHYSICS

01. A cannon after firing recoils due to

(1) Conservation of energy

(2) Backward thrust of gases produced

(3) Newton's third law of motion

(4) Newton's first law of motion

02. The linear momentum P of body varies with time

and is given by the equation P = x + yt2 where

x and y are constants. The net force acting on

the body for a one dimensional motion is

proportional to

(1) t2 (2) a constant

(3) 1

t(4) t

03. Two b locks of masses M1 and M

2 a re

connected to each other through a light spring

as shown in figure. If we push mass M1 with

force F and cause acceleration a1 in mass M

1,

what will be the magnitude of acceleration in

M2 ?

(1) F / M2

(2) F / (M1 + M

2)

(3) a1

(4) (F – M1a

1) / M

2

04. A 60 kg body is pushed horizontally with just

enough force to start it moving across a floor

and the same force continues to act afterwards.

The coefficient of static friction and sliding

friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The

acceleration of the body is (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 6 m/s2

(2) 4.9 m/s2

(3) 3.92 m/s2

(4) 1 m/s2

05. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45o

incline and then slides a distance d. The time

taken to slide is n times as much to slide on

rough incline then on a smooth incline. The

coefficient of friction is

(1) k 2

11

n (2) k 2

11

n

(3) s 2

11

n (4) s 2

11

n

06. If the overbridge is concave instead of being

convex, then the thrust on the road at the lowest

position will be

(1) 2mv

mgr

(2) 2mv

mgr

(3) 2 2m v g

r(4)

2v g

r

07. A suspended simple pendulum of length is

making an angle with the vertical. On

releasing, its velocity at lowest point will be

(1) 2g (1 cos ) (2) 2g sin

(3) 2g (1 cos ) (4) 2g

08. A gramophone record is revolving with an

angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance

r from the centre of the record. The static

coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve

with the record if

(1) 2

gr

(2) 2r g

(3) 2

rg

(4) 2

gr

09. A force 2F kx acts on a particle at an angleof 60o with the x-axis. The work done indisplacing the particle from x

1 to x

2 will be

(1) 2kx

2

(2) 2 22 1

kx x

2

(3) 3 32 1

kx x

6

(4) 3 32 1

kx x

3

10. The mass of a bucket full of water is 15 kg. It

is being pulled up from a 15m deep well. Due

to a hole in the bucket 6 kg water flows out of

the bucket. The work done in drawing the

bucket out of the well will be (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 900 Joule (2) 1500 Joule

(3) 1800 Joule (4) 2100 Joule

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PHYSICS

11. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a speed of

1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides

with a nearly weightless spring of force constant

k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the

spring would be

(1) 0.12 m (2) 1.5 m

(3) 0.5 m (4) 0.15 m

12. A body of mass m starting from rest from origin

moves along x-axis with constant power (P).

Calculate relation between velocity and

distance

(1) 1/2x v

(2) 2x v

(3) x v

(4) 3x v

13. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground

with some initial velocity say v0. If

3

4 of its

kinetic energy is lost due to friction in time t0

then coefficient of friction between the particleand the ground is

(1) 0

0

v

2gt (2) 0

0

v

4gt

(3) 0

0

3v

4gt (4) 0

0

v

gt

14. A block of mass m is on an inclined plane of

angle . The coefficient of friction between the

block and the plane is and tan>. Theblock is held stationary by applying a force P

parallel to the plane. The direction of force

pointing up the plane is taken to be positive.

As P is varies from P1 = mg (sin – cos) to

P2 = mg (sin + cos), the friction force f

versus P graph will look like

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

15. A rope is used to lower vertically a block of

mass M by a distance x with a constant

downward acceleration g/2. The work done by

the rope on the block is

(1) Mgx (2) 21

Mgx2

(3) 1

Mgx2

(4) 2Mgx

16. A block of mass m is attached with a massless

string. The block is placed over a rough

inclined surface for which the coefficient of

friction is = 3/4. The minimum value of M

required to move the block up the plane is

(Neglect mass of string and pulley and friction

in pulley)

(1) 6

m5

(2) 4

m5

(3) 2 m (4) 3

m2

17. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge

from infinity distance to a point at distance X

from a positive charge Q is W. When, the

potential V at that point is

(1) WQ

X(2) W

(3) W

Q (4) WQ

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PHYSICS

18. A charge Q is placed at each corner of a cube

of side a. The potential at the centre of the cube

is

(1) 0

8Q

a (2) 0

4Q

4 a

(3) 0

4Q

3 a (4) 0

2Q

a

19. The electric field and the potential of an electric

dipole vary with distance r as

(1) 2

1 1and

r r(2) 2

1 1and

rr

(3) 2 3

1 1and

r r(4) 3 2

1 1and

r r

20. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken

as fundamental units, then the dimensions of

mass are

(1) [F V T–1]

(2) [F V T–2]

(3) [F V–1 T–1]

(4) [F V–1 T]

21. In the equation 2

aP

V

(V – b) = constant,

the unit of a is

(1) dyne × cm5 (2) dyne × cm4

(3) dyne / cm3 (4) dyne × cm2

22. Write the dimensions of a × b in the relation2b x

Eat

, where E is the energy, x is the

displacement and t is time

(1) 2ML T

(2) 1 2 1M L T

(3) 2 2ML T

(4) 2MLT

23. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts

moving along with the positive x-direction with

a velocity 'v' that varies as x. The

displacement of the particle varies with time as

(1) t2 (2) t

(3) t1/2 (4) t3

24. A ball is dropped vertically from a height dabove the ground. It hits the ground bouncesup vertically to a height d/2. Neglectingsubsequent motion and air resistance its velocityv with the height h above the ground as

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

25. From the top of a building 40 m tall, a boy

projects a stone vertically upwards with an

initial velocity 10 m/s such that it eventually falls

to the ground. After how long will the stone

strike the ground ? Take g = 10 m/s2.

(1) 1 s (2) 2 s (3) 3 s (4) 4 s

26. A capacitor of 2F is charged as shown in the

diagram. When the switch S is turned to

position 2, the percentage of its stored energy

dissipated is

(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 75% (4) 80%

27. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C

is connected to a cell of emf V and then

disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of

dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air

gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which

of the following is incorrect ?

(1) The energy stored in the capacitor

decreases K times

(2) The change in energy s to red is

21 1CV 1

2 K

(3) The charge on the capacitor is not

conserved.

(4) The potential difference between the plates

decreases K times.

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PHYSICS

28. Electric charges are distributed in a small

volume. The flux of the electric field through a

spherical surface of radius 1 m surrounding the

total charge is 100 V-m. The flux over the

concentric sphere of radius 2 m will be

(1) 25 V-m

(2) 50 V-m

(3) 100 V-m

(4) 200 V-m

29. Two bu lbs of 500 W and 200 W are

manufactured to operate on 220 V line. The

ratio of heat produced in 500 W and 200 W,

in two cases, when firstly they are connected

in parallel and secondary in series will be

(1) 5 2

:2 5

(2) 5 5

:2 2

(3) 2 5

:5 2

(4) 2 2

:5 5

30. In the below circuit the current in each

resistance is

(1) 0.5A (2) 0 A

(3) 1 A (4) 0.25 A

31. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water

all around it. If the speed of water coming out

of the fountain is v, the total area around the

fountain that gets wet is

(1)

4

2g

(2)

4

22 g

(3)

2

2g

(4)

2

g

32. Two balls are projected at an angle and

(90 ) to the horizontal with the same speed.

The ratio of their maximum vertical heights is

(1) 1 : 1

(2) tan :1

(3) 1: tan

(4) 2tan :1

33. A charged particle with velocity 2 × 103 m/s

passes undeflected through electric and

magnetic field. Magnetic field is 1.5 Tesla. The

electric field intensity would be

(1) 2 × 103 N/C

(2) 1.5 × 103 N/C

(3) 3 × 103 N/C

(4) 4/3 × 103 N/C

34. Two particles X and Y having equal charge,

after being accelerated through the same

potential difference enter a region of uniform

magnetic field and describe circular paths of

radii R1 and R

2 respectively. The ratio of the

mass of X to that of Y is

(1) 1

2

R

R (2)

2

2

1

R

R

(3)

2

1

2

R

R

(4) 2

1

R

R

35. A bar magnet of length 'l ' and magnetic dipole

moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc as

shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole

moment will be

(1) 2

M

(2) M

2

(3) M

(4) 3

M

36. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of

radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a

uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of

magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is

(1) 0qf

2 R

(2) 0qf

2R

(3) 0q

2fR

(4) 0q

2 fR

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THINK NEET THINK IIBPHYSICS

37. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires

placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying

same current 'I along the same direction is

shown in fig. magnitude of force per unit length

on the middle wire 'B' is given by

(1) 2

02 i

d

(2)

202 i

d

(3) 2

0i

2 d

(4)

20i

2 d

38. A current of 3 A is flowing in a linear conductor

having a length of 40 cm. The conductor is

placed in a magnetic field of strength 500 gauss

and makes an angle of 30o with the direction of

the field. It experiences a force of magnitude.

(1) 3 × 10–4 N

(2) 3 × 10–2 N

(3) 3 × 102 N

(4) 3 × 104N

39. The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit

shown here is

(1) 4W (2) 16W

(3) 40W (4) 54W

40. A body which is initially at rest at a height R

above the surface of the earth of radius R, falls

freely towards the earth. Find out its velocity

on reaching the surface of earth.

(Take g = acceleration due to gravity on the

surface of the Earth.)

(1) 2gR (2) 3

gR2

(3) gR (4) 1

gR2

41. Which of the following represents the time

period of the planet moving around the sun. [R

= semi major axis of the path]

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

42. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and its

scale is graduated for a current upto 100 A.After an additional shunt has been connected

to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure

currents upto 750 A by this meter. The value

of shunt resistance is

(1) 20 (2) 2

(3) 0.2 (4) 2k

43. In the motorcycle stunt called "the well of

death" the track is a vertical cylindrical surface

of 18 m radius. Take the motorcycle to be a

point mass and 0.8. The minimum angular

speed of the motorcycle to prevent him from

sliding down should be

(1) 6/5 rad/s

(2) 5/6 rad/s

(3) 25/3 rad/s

(4) none of these

44. A body is dropped from a certain height. When

it loses U amount of its energy it acquires a

velocity 'v'. The mass of the body is

(1) 2U/v2

(2) 2v/U2

(3) 2v/U

(4) U2 / 2v

45. When a proton and an electron are brought

nearer, potential energy of the system

(1) Increase

(2) Decreases

(3) Remain same

(4) Can't say

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CHEMISTRY

Section ‘B’ : Chemistry

46. The electronic configuration of an element is1 s2,2 s2, 2 p6, 3 s2, 3 p6, 3 d10, 4 s2, 4 p6, 4 d10, 5 s2,

5 p3. From which group of the periodic table it

belongs?

(1) 2nd (2) 5th

(3) 3rd (4) 7th

47. An element has electronic configuration 1 s2, 2 s2, 2p6, 3 s2, 3 p4. Predict their period, group and block

(1) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 16

(2) Period = 5th, block = s, group = 1

(3) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 10

(4) Period = 4th, block = d, group = 12

48. The isoelectronic pair is

(1) CO, N2

(2) O2, NO

(3) C2, HF

(4) F2, HCl

49. A plot of the kinetic energy (1/2 m υ 2) of ejectedelectrons as a function of the frequency ( ) of inci-dent radiation of four alkali metals (M

1, M

2, M

3, M

4)

is shown below :

The alkali metals M1, M

2, M

3 and M

4 are respec-

tively

(1) Li, Na, K and Rb

(2) Rb, K, Na and Li

(3) Na, K, Li and Rb

(4) Rb, Li, Na and K

50. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the follow-ing transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise tothe least energetic photon ?

(1) n = 6 to n = 1

(2) n = 5 to n = 4

(3) n = 6 to n = 5

(4) n = 5 to n = 3

51. Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbersare respectively related to

(1) size, orientation and shape

(2) size, shape and orientation

(3) shape, size and orientation

(4) none of these

52. Which of the following molecules have three bondpairs but different shapes ?

1. BCl3 2. H

2S 3. PH

3 4. AsF

5

(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 and 3 (4) 3 and 4

53. Both NH3 and H

2O molecules have distored tetra-

hedral geometries but the bond angle in water is lessthan that of ammonia. This is because

(1) NH3 contains only one lone pair on N-atom to

repel the bond pairs whereas in H2O, there are two

lone pairs on O-atom to repel the bond pairs

(2) NH3 contains three bond pairs whereas H

2O

contains only two bond pairs

(3) NH3 is pyramidal whreas H

2O has V-shape

(4) N in NH3 is less electronegative than O in H

2O

54. The magnetic moment of KO2 at room temperature

is .............BM.

(1) 1.41 (2) 1.73

(3) 2.23 (4) 2.64

55. The increasing order of bond orders of

2 2 2 2O ,O ,O and O is

(1) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O (2) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O

(3) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O (4) 2 2 2 2O ,O ,O ,O

56. Highest viscosity is exhibited by

(1) glycerol (2) ethylene glycol

(3) ethanol (4) water

57. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in

(1) o-nitrophenol (2) m-nitrophenol

(3) p-nitrophenol (4) phenol

58. In the following reaction,

4P + 3 KOH + 3 H2O 3 KH

2PO

2 + PH

3

(1) P is only oxidised

(2) P is only reduced

(3) P is both oxidised as well as reduced

(4) none

59. The conversion of PbO2 to Pb(NO

3)

2 is

(1) oxidation

(2) reduction

(3) neither oxidation nor reduction

(4) both oxidation and reduction

60. How many peroxy linkages are present in CrO5 ?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

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THINK NEET THINK IIBCHEMISTRY

61. The volume of oxygen evolved at STP by decom-position of 0.68 g 20 volume hydrogen peroxidesolution is

(1) 2.24 mL (2) 22.4 mL

(3) 224 mL (4) 2240 mL

62. The molarity of pure water at 277 K is

(1) 55.5 M (2) 1 M

(3) 2.5 M (4) 5 M

63. A gas expands isothermally and reversibly.

The work done by the gas is

(1) Zero (2) Maximum

(3) Minimum (4) Cannot be determined

64. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded iso-thermally from initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The

E for the process is ( R = 2 cal mol-1 K-1)

(1) 163.7 cal (2) zero

(3) 138.1 cal (4) 9 L atm

65. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A to Balong ACB and is brought back to A along BDA asshown in the P-V diagram. The net work done dur-ing the complete cycle is given by the area

(1) P1ACBP

2P

1(2) ACBB

1A

1A

(3) ACBDA (4) ADBB1A

1A

66. The heat of combustion of yellow P and red P are

- 9.91 kJ mol-1 and -8.78 kJ mol-1 respectively.

The heat of transition of yellow P red P is

(1) - 18.69 kJ

(2) + 1.13 kJ

(3) + 18.69 kJ

(4) - 1.13 kJ

67. 2 1HA OH H O A q kJ

+2 2H OH H O q kJ

The enthalpy of dissociation of HA is

(1) (q1 + q

2)

(2) (q1-q

2)

(3) (q2 - q

1)

(4) - (q1+ q

2)

68. The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at con-stant volume is - 321.30 kJ at 270C . The heat ofcombustion at constant pressure is

(1) -321.30- 300 R

(2) -321.30 + 300 R

(3) -321.30 - 150 R

(4) -321.30 + 900 R

69. There is no S-S bond in

(1) 2-2 4S O

(2) 2-2 5S O

(3) 2-2 3S O

(4) 2-2 7S O

70. The xenon compound(s) that are iso-structural with

-2IBr and 3BrO respectively are

(1) linear XeF2 and Pyramidal XeO

3

(2) bent XeF2 and Pyramidal XeO

3

(3) bent XeF2 and planar XeO

3

(4) linear XeF2 and tetrahedral XeO

3

71. Which of the following is the correct order of acidicstrength ?

(1) Cl2O

7 > SO

2 > P

4O

10

(2) CO2 > N2O

5 > SO

3

(3) Na2O > MgO > Al

2O

3

(4) K2O > CaO > MgO

72. The hybride state of phosphorous atom in each PCl5

and PBr5 in gaseous phase are sp3d. But, in solid

PCl5, Phosphorous shows sp3d and sp3 hybrid states.

while, P in PBr5 is in sp3 hybrid state. this is because

(1) PCl5 in solid form exists as 6 4PCl PCl

(2) PBr5 in solid form exists as 4 6PBr PBr

(3) PCl5 in solid form exists as 4PCl Cl

(4) PBr5 in solid form exists as 4PBr Br

73. An inorganic salt (A) is decomposed at about 523

K to give products (B) and (C). Compound (C) is

liquid at room tempearature and is neutral to litmus

paper while oxide (B) on burning with white Phos-

phorous given, a dehybrating agent (D). Compound

(A), (B), (C) and (D) will be identified as

(1) NH4NO

3, N

2O, H

2O, P

2O

5

(2) NH4NO

2, K

2O, H

2O, P

2O

5

(3) CaCO3, CaO, H

2O, CaCl

2

(4) CaCO3, CaO, H

2O, Ca (OH)

2

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CHEMISTRY

74. 2 2

4

N .Δ H O

CuSO(colourlessgas) TX Y Z

(blue colour)

Then, substances Y and T are

(1) Y = Mg3N

2 and T = CuSO

4. 5H

2O

(2) Y = Mg3N

2 and T = CuSO

4. 4NH

3

(3) Y = Mg(NO3)

2 and T = CuO

(4) Y = MgO and T = CuSO4. 4NH

3

75. The change in the state of hybridization of theasterisked carbon in the following reaction is

2 5P O

3 2 3 2CH C ONH CH C N H O

(1) sp3 to sp2

(2) sp2 to sp

(3) sp to sp2

(4) sp2 to sp3

76. Which is the most stable compound among the

following

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All are equally stable

77. Most stable radical is

(1) (2)

(3) 2 2CH CH C H

(4) 2CH C H

78. In which of the following conformation of cyclohexene,

flagpole flagpole interaction is present ?

(1) Chair

(2) Boat

(3) Twist boat

(4) Half chair

79. 2, 3-Dimethyl-2-butene when reacted with bromineforms a compound which upon heating with alco-holic KOH produces the following major product

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

80. Observe the following reactions and predict the

nature of A and B

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in

the following reaction ?

2ZnCl2R OH HCl R Cl H O

(1) 10 > 20 > 30

(2) 10 < 20 < 30

(3) 30 > 20 > 10

(4) 30 > 10 > 20

82. Which one is the most acidic compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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CHEMISTRY

83. Identify A and predict the type of reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

84. Compounds A and C in following reaction are......

3 2 4

2

(i) CH MgBr H SO .3 (ii)H O

Hydroboration oxidation

CH CHO (A) (B)

(C)

(1) identical (2) positional isomers

(3) functional isomers (4) optical isomers

85. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehydewith a primary amine is

(1) Schiff base (2) Ketone

(3) Carboxylic acid (4) Aromatic acid

86. Consider the reactions :-

Indentify A, X, Y and Z

(1) A- Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ehtanoicacid, Z- Semicarbazide

(2) A- Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But - 2- enal, Z -Semicarbazone

(3) A-Ethanol, X- Acetaldehyde, Y - Butanone, Z-Hydrazone

(4) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Ac--etate ion, Z-hydrazine.

87. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D.

The structure of the product D would be :

(1) C6H

5NHOH (2) C

6H

5NHCH

2CH

3

(3) C6H

5CH

2NH

2(4) C

6H

5CH

2OH

88.

In this reaction [X] will be -

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

89. The product - (C) obtained in the following sequenceof reactions is

(1) (2)

(3) (4) None of tese

90. Which of the following is not fit into the group ?

(1) Nickel tetracarbonyl

(2) Ferrous-ammonium sulphate

(3) Potassium ferrocynide

(4) Haemoglobin

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Section ‘C’ : Biology

91. Some of the cnidarians like corals have a

skeleton composed of

(1) Silica

(2) Spongin fibres

(3) Calcium carbonate

(4) Magnesium carbonate

92. Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms

(with respect to six kingdom system) ?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) One

(4) Four

93. Genetic material of bacterial viruses is generally

(1) ss RNA

(2) ds RNA

(3) ds DNA

(4) ss DNA

94. Which one of the following is not basis of five

kingdom classification

(1) Cell structure

(2) Body organization

(3) Reproduction

(4) Mode of nutrition.

95. The animals phylum are bilaterally symmetrical,

triploblastic and pseudocoelomates

(1) Platyhelminthes

(2) Aschelminthes

(3) Annelida

(4) Arthropoda

96. Recognise figure and find the correct matching.

(1) (a) Sycon, (b) Euspongia, (c) Spongilla

(2) (a) Euspongia, (b) Spongilla, (c) Sycon

(3) (a) Spongilla, (b) Sycon, (c) Euspongia

(4) (a) Euspongia, (b) Sycon, (c) Spongilla.

97. Which of the following is not a member ofaschelminthes

(1) Round worm

(2) Filarial worm

(3) Tape worm

(4) Hook worm

98. Portuguese-Man-of-War is a

(1) Colonial monomorphic coelenterate

(2) Polymorphic coelenterate

(3) Coral

(4) Sea Anemone

99. Nerve cells are found in

(1) Hydra

(2) Sycon

(3) Paramecium

(4) Amoeba

100. Rhabditoid/ rhabditiform larva occurs in lifecycle of

(1) Liver fluke

(2) Ascaris

(3) Tapeworm

(4) Planaria.

101. Which one belongs to mollusca

(1) Devil Fish

(2) Dog Fish

(3) Silver Fish

(4) Jelly Fish

102. Toxins (Saxitoxins) secreted by somedinoflagellates enter the body of human beingsthrough food chain and result in

(1) Madness

(2) Paralysis

(3) Brain stroke

(4) Unconsciousness

103. Which one is correctly matched ?

(1) Agaricus - Smut

(2) Ustilago - Mushroom

(3) Puccinia - Insectivorous plant

(4) Deuteromycetes - Imperfect fungi.

104. The excretory organ in Balanoglossus is

(1) Mantle cavity

(2) Malpighian tubules

(3) Nephridia

(4) Proboscis gland

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105. An animal devoid of anus is

(1) Unio

(2) Fasciola

(3) Pheretima

(4) Periplaneta.

106. Collar cells occur in

(1) Scypha

(2) Hydra

(3) Sandworm

(4) Star fish

107. Internal bud for overcoming unfavourableconditions in Spongilla is

(1) Budding

(2) Regeneration

(3) Gemmule

(4) Parenchymula.

108. Cyanophyceae has got

(1) Definite nucleus and plastid

(2) No definite nucleus but plastid

(3) Neither definite nucleus nor plastid

(4) Definite nucleus but no plastid.

109. The smallest living cells have all knowncharacteristics except

(1) Survive in presence of oxygen

(2) Infect animals and plants

(3) Complete lack of cell membrane

(4) Contains ds DNA as genetic material.

110. Aristottle classified animals in two groups on thebasis of presence or absence of RBC. The groupwhich does not have RBC is

(1) Anaima

(2) Enaima

(3) Ovipara

(4) Vivipara

111. In which of the following groups would you placea plant, which produces spores and embryos butlacks seeds and vascular tissues

(1) Angiosperms

(2) Gymnosperms

(3) Pteridophytes

(4) Bryophytes

112. A fern differs from moss in having

(1) An independent gametophyte

(2) An independent sporophyte

(3) Swimming antherozoids

(4) Archegonia

113. In the moss life cycle, the gametophyte

(1) Is the dependent generation

(2) Is the heart-shaped prothallus

(3) Consists of a foot, a stalk, and a capsule

(4) Consists of leafy green shoots

114. A phylum exclusively marine is

(1) Coelenterata

(2) Porifera

(3) Protozoa

(4) Echinodermata.

115. In gymnosperms, male or female cones are borne

(1) On the same tree

(2) On different trees

(3) On the same tree or on different trees

(4) On the gametophytes

116. In plants, the haploid plant body produces

(1) Spores by mitosis and meiosis

(2) Gametes by meiosis

(3) Spores by mitosis

(4) Gametes by mitosis

117. Maiden Hair Tree is

(1) Araucaria

(2) Thuja

(3) Ginkgo

(4) Pinus

118. Tube feet are locomotory organs of

(1) Cockroach

(2) Star Fish

(3) Cuttle Fish

(4) Cat Fish

119. Which is cold blooded animal

(1) Pigeon

(2) Kangaroo

(3) Shark

(4) Rabbit

120. Find out the wrongly matched pair.

(1) Cnidoblast - Anchorage

(2) Flame cells - Defense

(3) Parapodia - Swimming

(4) Radula - Rasping organ

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121. Which is not a true amphibian animal

(1) Salamander

(2) Toad

(3) Tortoise

(4) Frog

122. Recognise figure and find the correct matching

(1) (a) Nereis, (b) Hirudinaria, (c) Maleroundworm, (d) Female round worm

(2) (a) Hirudinaria, (b) Nereis, (c) Maleroundworm, (d) Female round worm

(3) (a) Male roundworm, (b) Female roundworm, (c) Nereis, (d) Hirudinaria

(4) (a) Female round worm, (b) Maleroundworm, (c) Hirudinaria, (d) Nereis.

123. Male and female gametophytes are independentand free-living in

(1) Pinus

(2) Sphagnum

(3) Mustard

(4) Castor

124. A plant in which sporophytic generation isrepresented by zygote only

(1) Pinus

(2) Selaginella

(3) Ulothrix

(4) Dryopteris

125. Seed habit originated in certain

(1) Bryophytes

(2) Ferns

(3) Gymnosperms

(4) Angiosperms

126. Death is the most important regulatory process

on the earth . It avoids

(1) Pollution

(2) Over crowding on earth

(3) Passing of traits

(4) Reproduction.

127. Which of the following promotes similarityamong living things ?

(1) Classification of organisms

(2) Discovery of new organisms

(3) Inheritance from a common ancestor

(4) Homeostatic regulation.

128. Consider the following statements regarding‘Characteristics’ of “living being” and choosethe incorrect statement.

(1) Plants grow througout their life

(2) All living organisms are required to assimilateenergy through metabolism

(3) Living beings are responsive to theirenvironment

(4) Reproduction is a more important aspect ofliving beings as compared to metabolism.

129. Which is not characteristic of all chordates

(1) Dorsal nerve cord

(2) Diaphragm between thorax and abdomen

(3) Coelom

(4) Pharyngeal gill slits.

130. Which is correct ?

(1) Platypus lays eggs

(2) Camel has biconcave RBCs

(3) Rat has cloaca

(4) Bat has feathers.

131. Vertebrates having air sacs are

(1) Birds (2) Amphibians

(3) Reptiles (4) Mammals

132. A cartilaginous fish with an operculum is

(1) Scoliodon

(2) Chimaera

(3) Torpedo

(4) Trygon

133. Psilophytes, lycophytes, horsetails, and ferns are......... palnts.

(1) Multicellular aquatic

(2) Seedless vascular

(3) Haploid dominant

(4) Seed-bearing vascular

134. Which of the following is not correctly matched

(1) Dinoflagellate - Noctiluca

(2) Slime mould - Physarum

(3) Protozoa - Slipper animalcule

(4) Chrysophytes - Autospores

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135. Which of the following hypha can neverparticipate in

gamentangial copulation

(1) +ve septate

(2) -ve aseptate

(3) +ve aseptate

(4) (+ve, -ve) aseptate

136. In bacteria, sexual reproduction throughconjugation is seen in

(1) Diploccus pneumoniae

(2) Escherichia coli

(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(4) Nostoc

137. In Brown algae, the gametes are

(1) Pyriform and bear two apically attachedflagella

(2) Pyriform and bear one laterally attachedflagella

(3) Pyriform and bear one apically attachedflagella

(4) Pyriform and bear two laterally attachedflagella

138. Majority of the red algae are ............. withgreater concentrations found in the ......

(1) Fresh water, colder areas

(2) Marine, warmer areas

(3) Marine, colder areas

(4) Fresh water, warmer areas

139. Gambusia is

(1) Parasitic fish

(2) Pest of fishes

(3) Fish predator of mosquito larvae

(4) A mosquito spreading yellow fever.

140. A post-anal tail is found in

(1) Scorpion (2) Earthworm

(3) Snake (4) Lepisma

141. Which one is devoid of coelom or is acoelomate?

(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelida

(3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata

142. Chemo-taxonomy is the

(1) Taxonomy of chemicals

(2) Joint collaboration of chemistry andtaxonomy

(3) Chemistry of taxonomical principles

(4) Application of phytochemistry in planttaxonomy

143. A land plant produces flagellated sperm and thedominant generation is diploid. The plant is mostlikely

(1) Fern (2) Moss

(3) Dicot (4) Conifer

144. Cyanobacteria differ from other photosyntheticbacteria in

(1) Possessing chlorophyll-a

(2) Using H2O as source of hydrogen in

photosynthesis

(3) Performing oxygenic photosynthesis

(4) All the above three

145. One of the following groups includes allexclusively endoparasitic protozoans

(1) Apicomplexa

(2) Mastigophora

(3) Ciliateae

(4) Sarcodina

146. Well developed, septate mycelium is present in

(1) Imperfect fungi

(2) The sac fungi

(3) The club fungi

(4) All of these

147. Division angiosperms is classified into classDicotyledons and class Monocotyledons. In thisclassification

(1) ‘Class’ is a category

(2) ‘Class’ is a taxon

(3) ‘Dicotyledon’ is a category

(4) ‘Division’ is a taxon.

148. “Neo systematic” was introduced by JulienHuxley in

(1) 1940 (2) 1840

(3) 1900 (4) 1890

149. You are apt to find ferns in a moist locationbecause they have

(1) A water-dependent sporophytic generation

(2) Flagellated spores

(3) Swimming sperm

(4) Swimming spores

150. Of the following, the most recent ancestors ofvascular plants were probably

(1) Mosses

(2) Red algae

(3) Horsetails

(4) Green algae

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151. In Penicillium, the female sex organ is called

(1) Archegonium

(2) Ascogonium

(3) Carpogonium

(4) Trichogyne

152. Recognise figure and find the correct matching.

(1) (a) Tape worm, (b) Liver fluke, (c)

Pleurobrachia

(2) (a) Pleurobrachia, (b) Tape worm, (c) Liver

fluke

(3) (a) Liver fluke, (b) Tape worm, (c)

Pleurobrachia

(4) (a) Ctenoplasma, (b) Liver fluke, (c)

Tapeworm

153. The ctenophores commonly known as

(1) Sea snakes

(2) Sea fish

(3) Sea walnuts

(4) Sea groundnut.

154. Structure common among Bryophyta,

Pteridophyta and Gymnosperm is

(1) Antheridium

(2) Motile male gamete

(3) Archegonium

(4) Both antheridia and archegonia

155. Which of the following causes “Sulphur shower”

?

(1) Moss (2) Fern

(3) Pinus (4) Cycas

156. Select the correct statement with respect to

chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

(1) Majority of them are decomposers

(2) Play an important role in recycling nutrients

(3) Helpful in production of antibiotics

(4) More than one option are correct.

157. Exogenously produced asexual spores andendogenously formed sexual spores are foundin

(1) Ascomycetes

(2) Basidiomycetes

(3) Deuteromycetes

(4) Phycomycetes

158. Which of the following structures in Pinus arehaploid

(1) Megaspore, integument, root

(2) Endosperm, megaspore, pollen grain

(3) Pollen grain, leaf, root

(4) Megaspore, endosperm and embryo

159. The megaspore of a conifer, which is neverreleased from the sporangium, divides by mitosisto produce a

(1) Male gametophyte

(2) Female gametophyte

(3) Multicellular embryo

(4) Pollen grain

160. The scientific name of a species ‘X’ was givenby a scientist in 1960 as ‘P’ and another scientistgave the other name to the same species in 1990as ‘Q’. Which is considered as valid name ?

(1) P (2) Q

(3) Both P and Q (4) Neither P nor Q

161. The chart shows the classification of two species

of Crocodile.

Animalia

Chordata

Reptilia

Loricata

Crocodylidae

Crocodylus

Crocodylus niloticus (Nile Crocodile)

Crocodylus porosus (Salt water Crocodile)

To which order do these crocodile belong ?

(1) Chordata (2) Crocodylidae

(3) Loricata (4) Reptilia

162. A biological museum and a herbarium have one

thing in common Identify

(1) Both maintain living specimens

(2) Both preserve dead and stuffed animals

(3) The specimens preserved in both are dead

(4) Each of the above mentioned is common to

both

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163. A phylogenetic system does not depend upon

(1) Morphological criteria

(2) Data from other branches of biology

(3) The study of only one or few characters

(4) The evolutionary sequence of taxa.

164. The chracteristic metal box used for collectingplant specimens from the field is known as

(1) Haversack (2) Vasculum

(3) Polythene box (4) Vascular system.

165. In fungi, the ascospores and basidiospores arecalled sexual spores because

(1) They produce sex organs

(2) They fuse to form zygote

(3) They take part in sexual union

(4) None of the above three

166. Viroids differ from viruses in

(1) Possessing free, naked RNA only

(2) Absence of protein capsid

(3) Never possessing DNA

(4) Each of the above mentioned

167. The Litmus dye used as chemical indicator inlaboratory is obtained from

(1) Blue green bacteria (2) Algae

(3) Fungi (4) Lichen

168. The most distinctive feature of eachinodermswhich helps in locomotion, capture and transportof food and respiration is

(1) Water transport system

(2) Water jelly system

(3) Water vascular system

(4) Canal system

169. Animal of which of the phylum are bilateralsymmetry, triploblastic, metamericallysegmented, organ-system level of bodyorganisation and coelomate animals

(1) Aschelminthes (2) Annelida

(3) Echinodermata (4) Mollusca

170. Actinomycetes differ from fungi because

(1) The former are autotrophic

(2) The later are prokaryotic

(3) The later are autotrophic

(4) The former are prokaryotic

171. Oxygenic photosynthesis takes place in

(1) All photosynthetic bacteria

(2) All photosynthetic eubacteria

(3) All cyanobacteria

(4) All archebacteria

172. In a very few members, the mycobiont in thelichen thallus happens to be

(1) A Deuteromycetes (2) A Basidiomycets

(3) An Ascomycetes (4) A phycomycetes

173. Which of the following is not a taxon but acategory ?

(1) Division (2) Angiosperms

(3) Polypetalae (4) Hibiscus

174. Gymnosperms resemble angiosperms in having

(1) Vessels (2) Archegonia

(3) Ovules (4) Ovary

175. One of the following includes the remaining three.Identify it ;

(1) Taxonomy (2) Nomenclature

(3) Systematics (4) Classification.

176. In the life cycle of moss, which of the followinggenerations is dominant ?

(1) Haploid sporophyte

(2) Diploid gametophyte

(3) Haploid gametophyte

(4) Diploid sporophyte

177. The chemical nature of indicative structures ofreproduction in mycoplasma is

(1) Lipid (2) Protein

(3) Sugar (4) Nucleic acid.

178. Phylogenetic classification is based on

(1) Utilitarian system

(2) Habits

(3) Overal similarities

(4) Common evolutionary descent

179. Of all land plants, bryophytes alone haveindependent ........... and attached, dependent.........

(1) Sporophytes; gametophytes

(2) Rhizoids; zygotes

(3) Gametophytes; sporophytes

(4) Rhizoids; stalked sporangia

180. In pteridophytes spores germinate to give riseto

(1) Conspicuous, small but multicellular,parasitic, thalloid gametophytes called prothallus

(2) Conspicuous, large and multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloidgametophytes called prothallus

(3) Incospicuous, small, unicellular, free-living,mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytescalled prothallus

(4) Inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloidgametophytes called prothallus

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NEET 2019-20 · 26/03/2020 Page No. (3) VERSION-P EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION! THINK NEET THINK IIB THINK NEET THINK IIB PHYSICS 11. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a speed