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CODE : CYAN 29442/QB/HYD-NCO-CO / IITJEE / 14-2-2011 / IITJEE NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY INDIA IITJEE MODEL Exam Date : 19-2-2011 Time : 3:00 GRAND TEST-15 (PAPER -1) Max Marks : 240 ID.NO : INSTRUCTIONS : 1) This booklet is your Questions Paper containing 60 questions. Maximum marks: 240. 2) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics).Each part has 4 sections. 3) Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Q.No: 1 to 8, 21 to 28 and 41 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded. 4) Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Q.No: 9 to 12, 29 to 32 and 49 to 52. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded. 5) Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions bearing Q.No: 13 to 18, 33 to 38, 53 to 58 have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases minus one(-1) mark will be awarded. 6) Section-IV contains 2 questions. Q.No: 19, 20, 39, 40 and 59, 60. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

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  • CODE : CYAN 29442/QB/HYD-NCO-CO / IITJEE / 14-2-2011 / IITJEE

    NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY INDIA

    IITJEE MODEL Exam Date : 19-2-2011

    Time : 3:00 GRAND TEST-15 (PAPER -1) Max Marks : 240 ID.NO :

    INSTRUCTIONS : 1) This booklet is your Questions Paper containing 60 questions. Maximum marks: 240.

    2) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics).Each part

    has 4 sections.

    3) Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Q.No: 1 to 8, 21 to 28 and 41 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    4) Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Q.No: 9 to 12, 29 to 32 and 49 to 52. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    5) Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions bearing Q.No: 13 to 18, 33 to 38, 53 to 58 have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases minus one(-1) mark will be awarded.

    6) Section-IV contains 2 questions. Q.No: 19, 20, 39, 40 and 59, 60. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labeled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

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    CHEMISTRY SECTION-1

    Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded. 1) Analysis shows that nickel oxide consists of nickel ions with 96% ions having 8d

    configuration and 4% ions having 7d configuration which among following best represents the formula of the nickel oxide ? (Atomic number of Ni = 28)

    A) 1.02Ni O B) 0.96Ni O C) 0.97Ni O D) 0.98Ni O 2) Which of following statements is correct for the complex 4 25K Fe CN O

    having 620,g gt e electronic configuration?

    A) 2 3d sp hybridized and diamagnetic B) 3 2sp d hybridized and paramagnetic

    C) 3 2sp d hybridized and diamagnetic D) 2 3d sp hybridized and paramagnetic 3) An electron in an atom jumps from one energy level to another energy level in such a

    way that its kinetic energy changes from ' '4xx to . The change in potential energy will

    be

    A) 3

    2x

    B) 38

    x C) 3

    4x

    D) 34

    x

    4) The reaction 22 2A g B g AB g is second order in A and first order in 2B . When 10 mole of A and 4 mol 2B are taken in vessel of volume

    32dm together, and the initial rate is 32 10 mole 3 1dm s . What will be the rate when half quantity of the

    2B has reacted ?

    A) 3 3 14.3 10 mol dm s B) 4 3 13.6 10 mol dm s

    C) 3 3 13.6 10 mol dm s D) 3 3 13.2 10 mol dm s

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    5) Which of the following can give immediate turbidity on treatment with Lucas Reagent?

    A)

    OH

    B)

    2 23CH CH CH OH

    C)

    22CH CH CH OH D) OH

    6) Most stable conformer of 2-fluoro ethanol is

    A) F

    H

    HH

    H

    OH

    B) F

    HHH

    H OH

    C)

    FH

    H

    H

    HOH

    D)

    F

    HH

    HH

    OH

    7) Consider the following equilibria :

    3 2 3 3CH COOH H O H O CH COO

    2 4 3 3 2 4H SO CH COOH CH COOH HSO

    2 4 3 2 3 4H SO HNO H NO HSO

    3 2 4NH H O NH OH

    Select the incorrect statement among the following

    A) 2 4H SO is a stronger acid than 3HNO

    B) 4NH is weaker acid than 2H O

    C) Acetic acid is stronger acid than 2H O

    D) 2H O is a weaker acid than 2 4H SO and 3HNO both

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    8) Nitrogen and oxygen exist as diatomic but their congeners are 4 8P and S respectively because

    A) Phosphorus and sulphur are solids

    B) Phosphorus and sulphur catenate due to the existence of d-orbitals and form strainles structures

    C) Phosphorus and sulphur polymerise as soon as they are formed

    D) Catenation tendency of P and S is stronger because of the high P-P and S-S bond energies as compared to N-N and O-O bond energies SECTION-2

    Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer , and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    9) Product (s) formed during this reaction are

    CH2 - CH2 - OTs*

    AcONaAcOH

    *C isotopic carbon

    A)

    CH2 - CH2 - OAc*

    B) CH2 - CH2 - OAc*

    C) CH2 - CH2 - OTS

    OAc

    *

    D) CH = CH2

    10) Which of the following set of molecules have same shape but different hybridization

    A) 2 2,H O SnCl B) 3 3,XeO BrF C) 4 4,XeO SF D) 2 3,BeCl I

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    11) 2 nA O is oxidized to 3 4AO by KMnO in acidic medium. If 1.34 mmol of 2 nA O requires

    32.2mL of 0.05 M acidified 4KMnO solution for complete oxidation, which of the following statement (s) is (are) correct?

    A) The value of n = 2 B) Empirical formula of oxide is AO C) 1.0 mol of 2 nA O would require 1.0mol of acidified 72 2K Cr O solution

    D) can be a metal from second group of Periodic Table 12)

    3 gasCaCO A B

    2A H O C

    2white pptC B D H O

    2 2lubgasBoil

    BaClwater so le white pptH O D B E F

    Select the correct option(s) for white ppts. shown in the above reactions.

    A) 3CaCO B) 3MgCO C) 3BaCO D) 2 3Na CO SECTION-3

    Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded. P) crystallize in rock salt structure. Its cell parameter can be determined by various

    experimental methods like electrical conductivity measurement, colligative properties measurement, pH measurement etc. A cubic crystal of 4CuSO of edge length 17.1mm is

    dissolved in water to make 500ml solution of pH 5. 3 7 1.9 Given : 2 52 2 2 36 5 ; 10Cu H O H O Cu H O OH H O K

    13) Moles of 4CuSO dissolved in water to make above solution is

    A) 510 B) 52 10 C) 42 10 D) 65 10

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    14) Edge length of FCC unit cell of copper sulphate is

    A) 0190 A B) 0

    270 A C) 0

    120 A D) 0

    300 A

    15) If the given solution of 4CuSO is made 1M with respect to 3NH , 2Cu becomes

    1510 M . fK for the formation of 2

    3 4Cu NH

    is

    A) 1010 B) 810 C) 82 10 D) 102 10

    P) . 2 41 3

    22

    conc H SO PolymerizeNH OHMild acid medium P P P

    O

    16) Which type of the isomerism can be shown by 1P ?

    A) Geometrical isomerism B) Optical isomerism

    C) Tautomerism D) All of these

    17) The conversion of 1 2P to P involves

    A) Nitrene B) Electron deficient nitrogen

    C) Negatively charge Nitrogen D) Electron deficient oxygen

    18) Which of the following is monomer of 3.P

    A) Caprolactol B) Caprolactum C) Isoprene D) Caprolactone

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    SECTION-4

    Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV , you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

    19) Match the Following: Column I

    (Compounds) Column II

    (Can be differentiated by) (a)

    |3 3 3 2 2&

    OH

    CH C H CH CH CH CH OH (p) Lucas reagent

    (b)

    |

    |2 2 3 3

    3&

    OH

    CH

    CH CH CH OH CH C CH

    (q) Victor Meyer test

    (c) CH2 - CH3

    Cl

    CHCl CH3

    &

    (r) Iodoform test

    (D) 2 3 3&H C CHCl CH C Cl (s) Aqueous 3AgNO

    20) Match the Following: Column I Column II

    (a) Linear shape (p) 2CS (b) Sp hybridization (q) 3N

    (c) 3sp d hybridization (r) 3I

    (d) 2CO is isostructural to (s) NCO

    (t) 2NO

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    MATHEMATICS

    SECTION-1 Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    21) Let , 0f x P x q p is onto when defined from 1,1 to 0,2 , then

    1 1cot tan 2 sin sin 32

    is equal to

    A) 0f B) 1f C) 12

    f

    D) 1f

    22) A certain polynomial P x when divided by , ,x a x b x c leaves remainders , ,a b c respectively. The remainder when: P x is divided by x a x b x c is (where , ,a b c are constants)

    A) 0 B) x C) a x b c D) 2a x b x c

    23) The equation of line segment AB is .y x If A & B lie on same side of line mirror 2 1,x y then the equation of image of AB with respect to line mirror 2 1x y is

    A) 7 5y x B) 7 6y x C) 3 7y x D) 6 5y x

    24) 22 2 221 2 4 ,x y z x y z then x, y, z are in

    A) A.P. B) G.P. C) H.P. D) Not in A.P. /G.P./H.P.

    25)

    Let

    2 32 3 ,2 3' ' '

    f x c f x c f x cg x f c f c f c

    f c f c f c

    where c is constant then 0

    limx

    g xx

    is equal to

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    A) 0 B) 1 C) 1 D) f c

    26) Let 3,5:f R be a differentiable function such that lim 3,'x f x f x then lim

    xf x

    A) Can be obtained and is equal to 4 B) Can be obtained and is equal to 3 C) Can be obtained and is equal to 5 D) Can not be obtained from the given information

    27) The number of solutions of the equation cos2 sinx x in 2 ,2 is

    A) 8 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

    28) If 3 2f x x x and sin ,g x x then domain of fog x is

    A) 2 ,2

    n n I

    B) 7 112 ,26 6n I

    n n

    C) 2 ,6

    n n I

    D) 7 114 1 ; 2 ,2

    2 6 6n Im m I n n

    SECTION-2 Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II , you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer , and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    29) Equation of a tangent to the parabola 2 8y x which makes an angle 45 with the line 3 5y x is

    A) 2 1 0x y B) 2 1y x C) 2 8 0x y D) 2 8 0x y

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    30) Let 1 1

    2

    1

    1cot cotJ x dxx

    and 7

    2

    sinsin

    xK dxx

    Then which of the following alternative(s) is/are correct?

    A) 2 3 8J K B) 2 2 24 26J K C) 2 3J K D) 25

    JK

    31) If 3sin sin 2 then

    A) cot cot cot 3cot 2 6 B) sin cos sin

    C) 2sin sin cos D) tan 2 tan

    32) If Rolles Theorem is applicable to the function f x defined by

    2 , 11 , 1

    , 1

    a x b xf x x

    c xx

    in the interval 3,3 , then which of the following alternative(s) is/are correct ?

    A) 2a b c B) 3a b c

    C) 2 4 3 8a b c D) 2 2 24 4 5 15a b c

    SECTION-3

    Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

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    P) If thr term of a series can be written as 1 ,ra f r f r then

    1

    0n rn

    rS a f n f

    and lim ,nnS S then

    33) Value of 2

    1

    4 1 5r

    r

    rr r

    A) is 5 B) is 5 C) is 10 D) Grows without bound

    34) Value of

    50 50

    11cos1 1 sin sin1 cosn n is equal to

    A) 0sin50 B) 0 0sin50 sin1 C) 0 0sin51 sin1 D) 12

    35) If 3 3! 4 4! 5 5! .... 50 terms ! !a b then a b is equal to

    A) 45 B) 50 C) 47 D) 48

    P) Let f x be a polynomial of degree n and let 1 2, ,...... n be its real roots. If R be any arbitrary number, then f x can uniquely be expressed as

    1 20 1 2 1.....n n n

    nnf x C x C x C x C x C

    for a

    polynomial 3 22 6 7 5g x x x x 36) If 3 20 1 2 32 2 2 ,g x C x C x C x C then 0 1 2 3C C C C

    A) 90 B) 91 C) 92 D) 0

    37) If 3 20 1 2 32 2 2 ,g x C x C x C x C then 2C is equal to

    A) 40 B) 39 C) 41 D) 41

    38) For 3 20 1 2 32 2 2 ,g x C x C x C x C then 3C

    A) 30 B) 31 C) 32 D) 31

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    SECTION-4

    Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV , you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

    39) Match the Following: Column I Column II

    (A)

    1

    1

    x y

    x ydy edx x y e

    (p) 3 22 2y x x y c

    (B) 2 2

    4 23 2

    dy xydx y x

    (q) 1sin 0y xx k e

    (C) 2 2x dy y dx x y dx (r) 31 1tan3

    yx y cx

    (D) 4 2 2 21 0x x dy y dx y x y x dy y dx (s) x yx y e c

    40) Match the Following: Column I Column II

    (A) The number of positive integral solutions of the equations 1 2 3 4 1050x x x x is , then is divisible by

    (p) 2

    (B) If n is the number between 500 and 4000 that can be formed with the digits 2,3,4,5,6 when repetition is not allowed, then n is divisible by

    (q) 3

    (C) If 3 is the number of solutions of 15,x y z such that 1, 2x y and 3,z then 3 is divisible by

    (r) 5

    (D) The largest integer n for which 34 ! is divisible by 3n has its factors as

    (s) 11

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    PHYSICS SECTION-1

    Section-I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each questions in Section I , you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    41) The magnetic flux through each of five faces of a neutral playing dice is given by ,NWb where 1 to 5N is the number of spots on the face. Thus flux is

    positive (out-ward) for N even and negative (in ward) for N odd. What is the flux through the sixth face of the die?

    A) 3Wb B) 4 Wb C) 3 Wb D) 4 Wb

    42) Three liquids A,B and C are at temperature of 060 ,C 055 C and 050 C respectively 4 g of A mixed with 3g of C gives 055 C and 2g of A mixed with 3g of B gives 057 C . The temperature of the mixture when equal masses of B and C are mixed is

    A) 052.1 C B) 055 C C) 052.5 C D) 053 C

    43) The binding energies of the atom of elements A & B are Ea & Eb respectively. Three atoms of the element B fuse to give one atom of element A. This fusion process is accompained by release of energy e. Then Ea, Eb are related to each other as

    A) 3a bE e E B) 3a bE E C) 3a bE e E D) 3 0a bE E e

    44) In the system shown in figure find the angular frequency of small oscillations of block of mass M. Here Pulley has moment of inertia I about horizontal axis passing through O. In equilibrium, Line OA is horizontal:

    A)

    22R K

    I MR

    B)

    2R K

    M

    C) KRI

    D)

    22 2R K

    I MR

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    45) Two rods are joined between fixed supports as shown in the figure. Condition for no change in the length of individual rods with the increase of temperature ( 1 2 , linear expansion co efficient, 1 2,A A area of cross section of rods, 1 2,y y Young modulus)

    A) 1 1

    2 2

    1

    2

    A yA y

    B) 1 1 1

    2 2

    1

    2 2

    A L yA L y

    C) 2 2 2

    1 1

    1

    2 1

    A L yA L y

    D) 2 2

    1 1

    1

    2

    A yA y

    46) A jet traveling at a constant speed of 21.20 10 /m s executes a vertical loop with a radius of 25.00 10 m . (See Fig). find the magnitude of the force of the seat on a 70.0-kg pilot at the top of the loop. (Take 210 /g m s )

    A) 1316N B) 2700N C) 700N D) 2000N

    47) Consider the circuit shown in figure (Assume that batteries and ammeter are ideal).

    Initially when the key K is open reading of ammeter is I. now if key k is closed.

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    A) If 2 1 reading of ammeter will not change

    B) If 2 1 2 reading of ammeter will not change

    C) If 2 1 reading of ammeter will be zero

    D) If 2 1 reading of ammeter will be more than I.

    48) Two point charges + q and -4q are placed at ,0a and ,0a . Take electric field intensity to be positive if it is along positive x direction and negative if along negative x direction. The variation of the electric field intensity as one moves along the x axis is

    A)

    B)

    C)

    D)

    SECTION-2 Section-II contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) , out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. For each question in Section II , you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer , and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    49) The potential at a is higher than the potential at b which of the following statements about ideal inductor can be true?

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    A) If I is from a to b, it is steady B) If I is from a to b, it is increasing C) If I is from b to a, it is decreasing D) If I is from b to a, it is increasing

    50) A single conservative force acts on a 1kg particle that moves along x axis . The potential energy of the particle varies with x as 220 2U x here U is in joules and x is in meters. When the particle is at 5x m , its kinetic energy is 20 J . Then which of the following is/are correct?

    A) Mechanical energy of particle is .

    B) Least and greatest value of x between which particle can move is 2 29 m and

    2 29 m respectively C) Maximum kinetic energy of the particle is 29 J D) At 2x the body is in equilibrium

    51) Two particles A and B have charge and mass ,q m and , 2q m respectively. They are projected simultaneously from same height h horizontally towards each other with velocity 0v . Assume acceleration due to gravity to be uniform and vertically downward. Neglect the force due to magnetic field and effect of time verying magnetic and electric field. Assume that distance D is sufficiently large so that there is no collision between these particles. Select the correct statements:

    A) The time to hit the ground is independent of 0v . B) The two particles will be always at the same height. C) The particle B will be always below the particle A. D) The particle A will be always below the particle B.

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    52) A sound wave of length of frequency v travels horizontally to the right. It is reflected from a large vertical plane surface moving to left with a speed u. the speed of sound in medium is c.

    A)

    The number of waves striking the surface per second is c u vc

    B)

    The wavelength of reflected wave is

    c c uv c u

    C) The frequency of the reflected wave as observed by the stationary observer is

    c u

    vc u

    D) The number of beats heard by a stationary listener to the left of the reflecting surface

    is uvc u

    SECTION-3 Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph , 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A) , (B) , (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in Section III , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases , minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

    P) The figure shows a cylinder container, fitted with a piston. It contains two immiscible incompressible liquids with densities 1 and 2 . A block floats in equilibrium in the position shown.

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    53) Suppose the spring is initially in compressed state. Now, if the piston is moved downwards slowly then

    A) Spring will become more compressed B) Spring will become less compressed C) The compression in spring will remain same as before. D) Nothing can be said

    54) Suppose the spring is initially in compressed state. Now, if the whole system is moved with some acceleration upward then

    A) Spring will become more compressed B) Spring will become less compressed C) The compression in spring will remain same as before. D) Nothing can be said

    55) Suppose the spring is initially in relaxed state. The piston is moved downward slowly and the whole system is accelerated upward then

    A) Spring will become compressed B) Spring will become stretched C) No change will occur in the state of the spring . D) Nothing can be said

    P) A small block of mass m, can move without friction on the outside of a fixed vertical circular track of radius R. The block is attached to a spring of natural length R/2 and spring constant k. The other end of spring is connected to a point at height R/2 directly above the centre of track..

    56) If the block is released from rest when the spring is in horizontal state (see figure) then

    at that moment,

    A)

    Tangential acceleration is 3 3 12 4kRgm

    B)

    Radial acceleration is 3 3 12 4g kR

    m

    C)

    Tangential acceleration is 3 3 12 4g kR

    m

  • This Question paper contains 20 Pages GRAND TEST-15 PAPER-1_19-02-11

    Space for rough work Page 19 of 20

    D)

    Radial acceleration is 3 3 12 4kRgm

    57) Consider block to be at rest at top most point A of track. If the block is slowly pushed

    from rest at the highest point A, when the spring reaches in horizontal state, then.

    A)

    Spring potential energy is 23 2 3

    4kR

    B)

    Spring potential energy is 2 2

    3 18

    kR

    C)

    Gravitational potential energy (taking 0U at 0 ) is 2

    mgR

    D)

    Gravitational potential energy (taking 0U at 0 ) is 38

    mgR

    58) If the complete setup is in a gravity free space, then the minimum speed 0v required at the highest point A to just reach the lowest point is

    A) 2 kR

    m

    B)

    32R k

    m

    C) kRm

    D)

    Motion not possible in gravity free space

    SECTION-4 Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns , which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labeled A , B , C and D , while the statements in Column II are labeled p , q , r , s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. For each question in Section IV , you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus , each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

    59) An electric circuit is shown. In the circuit there are three elements X,Y and Z. The high potential point is shown by positive sign and low potential point is shown by negative sign. In one column different conditions are given and in other column effects are given, match them properly. Any of the circuit element is either battery or resistor.

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    Space for rough work Page 20 of 20

    Column I Column II

    (a) If X is a resistance (p) current will flow clockwise (b) If X is a battery (q) current will flow anticlockwise (c) If Y is a resistance (r) Z will act like a load (d) If Y is a battery (s) Z will act like a source (t) It is not possible to decide whether Z is a battery

    or resistor 60) Match the Following:

    In each situation of Column I a physical quantity related to orbiting electron in a hydrogen like atom is given. The terms Z and n given in Column II have usual meaning in Bohrs theory, Match the quantities in Column I with the terms they depend on in Column II

    Column I Column II (A) Frequency of orbiting electron (p) In directly proportional to 2Z (B) Angular momentum of orbiting

    electron (q) Is directly proportional to n

    (C) Magnetic moment of orbiting electron (r) Is inversely proportional to 3n

    (D) The average current due to orbiting of electron

    (s) Is independent of Z

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