DISTRICT OFFICE MANUAL & NOTING AND DRAFTING SKILLS

QUESTIONS

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1) Name the system followed in Government Offices.

a) Tottenham b) Macmillan c) Matrix d) None of the three ( a )

2) The Office system followed in Government Offices is prescribed in.

a) DOM b) SOM c) BOM d) None of the three ( a )

3) Who opens D.O Letters?

a) Tappal clerk b) A.O c) Middle Level Officer d) Officer to whom it is addressed ( a )

4) Who opens confidential letters?

a) A.O b) Middle Level Officer c) Head of the Office d) Head of the Dept ( c )

5) The periodicity of the Personal Register.

a) Financial Year b) Calendar year c) Academic year ( b ) d) For all the above

6) The Personal Register consists of ------ columns.

a) 12 columns b) 11 columns c) 18 columns d) none of the above ( a )

7) When will pending currents be taken into B.F?

a) 1st January b) 1st April c) 1st June d) According to their Officer’s choice ( b )

b

8) Why ‘Left margin’ for the front page and ‘Right Margin’ for the 2nd Page left in the note files and drafts?

a) For writing Rough b) For calculation c) For officer comments

d) For stitching without disturbing the matter and for referencing ( d )

9) In what ink the page numbers be put on the papers of note file and current file Respectively?

a) With Blue ink b) with red ink and blue ink c) with blue and red ink d) With any ink which appears brightly e) It is the case workers choice ( c )

10) The retention period of D.Dis, L.Dis and R.Dis respectively

a) 1 year, permanently, 10 years b) Permanently, 10 years, 1 year c) 10 years, permanently, 1year d) 10 years, 1 year, permanently ( d )

11) Which currents are entered in Call Book Register

a) Unimportant nature files b) All court case files c) long pending files

d) No action need within 6 months or more ( d )

12) The current file consists of. a) Communications sent (or) Received b) Communications received and sent

c) Communications received only d) All the above ( b )

13) What is meant by D.O Letter

a) Direct Office Letter b) Demi Official Letter c) Dist. Office Letter

d) None of the above ( b )

14) With in what time the observations of the officer noted on ‘Run on note’ be answered.

a) 3 days b) 24 Hrs c) 48 Hrs d) None ( c )

15) What subscription to be mentioned in the D.O letter at the end of the letter.

a) Yours obediently b) Yours truly c) Yours faithfully d) Yours sincerely ( d )

16) Once orders are passed in the note file, section should

a) Put up draft lr b) Put up D.O lr ( d )

c) Put up draft proc d) Put up suitable draft

17) What salutation be mentioned to the Highest Officials in the D.O letter

a) Dear Sri, b) Dear Sir, c) Sir, d) Respected Sir, ( d )

18) What is the salutation and subscription in the Memo

a) Sir, Yours Sincerely b) Yours faithfully, Sir, ( d )

c) Dear Sir, Yours sincerely d) No salutation and subscription

19) In which mode the Memo and Letter addressed respectively

a) 1st person and 3rd person b) 1st person and 2nd person ( c )

c) 3rd person and 1st person d) it is the option of the case worker

20) What type of subscription mentioned in the progs

a) Yours faithfully, b) Yours sincerely, ( d )

c) Yours truly d) No subscription

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DISTRICT OFFICE MANUAL & NOTING AND DRAFTING SKILLS

ANSWERS

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1) Name the system followed in Government Offices. a) Tottenham b) Macmillan c) Matrix d) None of the three ( a )

2) The Office system followed in Government Offices is prescribed in. a) DOM b) SOM c) BOM d) None of the three ( a )

3) What is the grace time after 10.30 A.M a) 10 mins b) 15 mins c) 20 mins d) 30 mins ( a )

4) What is late Attendance after 10.30 A.M a) One hour b) 2 hrs c) 2 ½ hrs d) 1/2 day ( a )

5) What is forfeiture of one C.L?

a) For ½ day late attendance b) for two ½ days late attendance c) For every 3 late attendances d) for every 4 late attendances ( c )

6) How many days of leave can be availed at a time including CL, OH & PH? a) 15 days b) 8 days c) 10 days d) 7 days ( c )

7) Who opens D.O Letters? a) Tappal clerk b) A.O c) Middle Level Officer

d) Officer to whom it is addressed ( d )

8) Who opens confidential letters? a) A.O b) Middle Level Officer c) Head of the Office

d) Head of the Dept ( c )

9) Security Register is intended for entering of a) Confidential Letters b) Govt. Letters c) D.O letters d) Drafts, cheques and other valuable items ( d )

10) The periodicity of the Personal Register. a) Financial Year b) Calendar year c) Academic year

d) For all the above ( b )

11) When will pending currents be taken into B.F? a) 1st January b) 1st April c) 1st June

d) According to their Officer’s choice ( b )

12) Why ‘Left margin’ for the front page and ‘Right Margin’ for the 2nd Page left in the note files and drafts?

a) For writing Rough b) For calculation c) For officer comments d) For stitching without disturbing the matter and for referencing ( d )

13) In what ink the page numbers be put on the papers of current file? a) With pencil b) with red ink c) with blue

d) With any other ink which appears brightly ( b )

14) The retention period of D.Dis, L.Dis and R.Dis respectively a) 1 year, permanently, 10 years b) Permanently, 10 years, 1 year

c) 10 years, permanently, 1year d) 10 years, 1 year, permanently ( d )

15) Which current are entered in Call Book Register a) Unimportant nature files b) All court case files c) long pending files

d) Currents on which the no action need be taken within 6 months or more ( d )

16) In what manner the papers in current file are arranged.

a) Chronicle order/Previous paper/tagged b) Previous papers/Current Papers

c) Current Papers/Previous Papers/tagged d) All the above ( a )

17) The current file consists of.

a) Communications sent (or) Received b) Communications received and sent

c) Communications received only d) All the above ( b )

18) What is meant by U.O note.

a) Urgent Office Note b) Unofficial office note c) All the above ( b ) d) None of the above

19) What is meant by D.O Letter

a) Direct Office Letter b) Demi Official Letter c) Dist. Office Letter

d) None of the above ( b )

20) With in what time the observations of the officer noted on ‘Run on note’ be answered.

a) 3 days b) 24 Hrs c) 48 Hrs d) None ( c )

21) What subscription to be mentioned in the D.O letter at the end of the letter.

a) Yours obediently b) Yours truly c) Yours faithfully d) Yours sincerely ( d )

22) What are the contents in the note.

a) Case of problem/facts, figures, Precedents/Action b) Linked files/figures/law opinion

c) Precedents/ Action d) None ( a )

23) How many days are accrued per year to a permanent employee under half pay leave account

a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30 ( b )

24) How many days a Govt. Servant is eligible to en cash of E.L at the time of his retirement

a) 180 b) 240 c) 300 d) 340 ( c )

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QUESTIONS ON FUNCTIONS OF EXECUTIVE MAGISTRACY

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1) Which Article of the Constitution of India envisages that Judiciary is to be separated from

Executive

a) Article 20 b) Article 30 c) Article 40 d) Article 50 ( d )

2) Under which sec. of the criminal procedure code Executive Magistrate shall be appointed.

a) Sec.20 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.30 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.40 of Cr.P.C ( a )

d) None of the three

3) Who will be appointed as Special Executive Magistrate and under which section ( b )

a) Tahsildar having law degree u/s 20 b) Dy.Collector having law degree u/s 21

c) Dy.Tahsildar having law degree u/s 19 d) None of the above

4) Under which section the Executive Magistrate shall take action to provide security for good behaviour from suspected person.

a) Sec.109 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.108 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.107 of Cr.P.C ( a )

d) Sec.110 of Cr.P.C

5) Security for good behaviour from Habitual offenders and suspected persons respectively

a) Sec.120 and 112 b) Sec.130 and 113 c) Sec.140 and 114 ( d )

d) Sec.110 and 109

6) Under which section a conditional order can be passed for removal of obstruction or nuisance

a) Sec.133 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.143 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.150 of Cr.P.C d) None ( a )

7) Under which section the DM/SDM can issue order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger

a) Sec.150 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.138 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.144 of Cr.P.C d) None ( c )

8) Under which section the Executive Magistrate shall intervene and tackle a dispute concerning

land or water which is likely to cause breach of peace.

a) Sec.140 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.145 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.150 of Cr.P.C d) None ( b )

9) Under which section the Executive Magistrate is empowered to hold Inquest that means to make

inquiry into the cause of unnatural or suspicious death.

a) Sec.174 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.190 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.180 of Cr.P.C d) None ( a )

10) Who can act as Executive Magistrate in such cases u/s 174 Cr.P.C

a) Tahsildar working in S.C.Corportaton or D.R.D.A on deputation b) KRC Tahsildar c) NSS Tahsildar d) Tahsildar working in a Mandal or Tahsil ( d )

11) Under which section the Police Officer can arrest any person

a) Sec.44 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.42 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.41 of Cr.P.C ( c )

d) None of the above

12) Under which section the Executive Magistrate can arrest or order to arrest in case if any offence is committed in his presence.

a) Sec.44 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.144 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.145 of Cr.P.C ( a ) d) Sec.41 of Cr.P.C.

13) Under which section the Local Jurisdiction of the Executive Magistrate is determined

by the District Magistrate

a) Sec.24 b) Sec.24 c) Sec.22 d) None of the above ( c )

14) Under which section the Executive Magistrate record Dying Declarations.

a) Sec.32 of Cr.P.C b) Indian Evidence Act Sec 32 (1) c) IPC 32 ( b ) d) None of the above

15) Which form is used to issue Magistrate order prohibiting the Doing of any thing on Land or Water.

a) Form No.27 b) Form No.28 c) Form No.29 d) None ( a )

16) How many columns are there in the Inquest report

a) 24 b) 22 c) 26 d) None ( c )

17) In which column of the Inquest report Apparent cause of death is being mentioned

a) Col.16 b) Col.15 c) Col.17 d) None ( b ) 18) Under which section the Executive Magistrate can Issue order of attachment of the property in dispute.

a) Sec.146 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.147 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.148 of Cr.P.C d) None ( a ) 19) Under which section the Executive Magistrate can issue prohibitory order concerning Right of use of Land or Water

a) Sec.148 of Cr.P.C b) Sec.149 of Cr.P.C c) Sec.147 of Cr.P.C d) None ( c ) 20) Executive Magistrate mainly deals with the following aspects

a) Security for keeping good behaviour and public nuisance ( d )

b) Maintenance of Public order and Tranquillity and urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger

c) Inquest and Inquires into unnatural deaths and Dying Declarations d) All the above

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QUESTIONS ON CHILD LABOUR

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1) What is the definition of a child?

a) Who has not completed 10 years b) 12 years c) 14 years d) 18 years ( c )

2) What is the united National convention on the age of child.

a) 18 years b) 10 years c) 12 years d) 14 years ( a )

3) What is the I.L.O convention on the age of child ( d )

a) 10 years b) 12 years c) 14 years d) 18 years

4) Under which article in the Constitution of India, the services of children should not be used as child labour.

a) Article 21 of COI b) Article 22 of COI c) Article 24 of COI ( c )

d) Article 25 of COI

5) Child line toll free number ( a )

a) 1098 b) 1096 c) 1010 d) 1095

6) Expand the following

a) NCPCR : National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

b) SCERT : State Council of Educational Research Training

c) NCTE : National Council for Teacher Education

d) CWC : Child Welfare Committee.

e) ILO : International Labour Organisation

f) UNICEF : United Nations International Children Emergency Fund

g) UNO : United Nations Organisation

h) MOU : Memorandum of Understanding.

QUESTIONS ON R.O.R. ACT

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1) The Tahsildar issued PPB entering same sub division separately adding ‘P’ to sub divisions of survey number which is having change of classification.

Yes/No

2) The Registrar when transaction took place entered the transacted extent in the PPB of the Vendee and deleted the same extent from the Vendor’s PPB as vendee is having PPB for the same village.

Yes/No

3) The Tahsildar issued a small farmer certificate to a ryot basing on the PPB of his native village whereas the same ryot is having some more lands in other villages of his jurisdiction and in other districts also.

Yes/No

4) How much fee be collected from a ryot for issue of duplicate Title deed when he surrended the mutilated Title deed.

a) Rs.1000 b) Rs.15 c) Rs.30 d) Rs.100 ( d )

5) How much fee be collected from a ryot for issue of duplicate Title deed in case of loss of Title deed after fulfilling all the procedures as prescribed in the Rules.

a) Rs.100 b) Rs.1000 c) Rs.15 d) Rs.30 ( b )

6) Who is the Appellate Authority U/s 5B of R.O.R Act on issue of PPB by the Tahsildar

a) Collector b) Joint Collector c) Dist.Court d) R.D.O ( d )

7) Who has got the Revisional Powers U/s 9 of R.O.R Act against the orders in Appeal by R.D.O.

a) Collector b) Joint Collector c) High Court d) Dist.Court ( b )

8) With in what time the Appeal U/s 5B can be preferred after communication of the orders by the Tahsildar.

a) 60 days b) 30 days c) 15 days d) No limit ( b )

QUESTIONS ON DISCIPLINARY AND VIGILANCE PROCEDURES

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1) Chief Minister or Minister is a Public Servant

a) No b) Yes c) Sometimes d) doubtful ( b )

2) Govt. Servant must observe certain standards of decency and morality in private life.

a) No b) Sometimes c) Yes d) Not required ( c )

3) Action can be taken against Disciplinary Authority for acting slipshod manner ( d )

a) Never b) No c) At times d) Yes

4) In respect of disproportionate assets cases burden of proof lies with the govt.

a) Yes b) on ACB c) on Vigilance Dept. d) on the Govt. Servant ( d )

5) Prosecution can be launched on the same facts on which disciplinary action taken

a) Sometimes b) Never c) At times d) Yes ( d )

6) Evidence Act is applicable in dept. cases

a) Rarely b) No c) Yes d) Always ( b )

7) Inquiry if conducted exparte, due to non payment of subsistence allowances is invalid

a) Rarely b) Surely c) Often d) Probably ( b )

8) Refusal to receive registered envelop constitute due service?

a) Basing on the circumstances b) No c) Yes d) Not applicable ( c )

9) Evidence recorded in the absence of charged officer is valid.

a) Yes b) No c) Not known d) Perhaps ( b )

10) Hear say evidence is acceptable in dept inquires?

a) No b) No chance c) Rarely d) Yes ( d )

11) Minor penality cannot be imposed where major penality proceedings are initiated

a) Never b) No c) Yes d) Not possible ( c )

12) Charged officer is entitled for supply of preliminary enquiry report.

a) Yes b) No c) Alright d) Compulsory ( b )

13) Formal dept Inquiry starts with a charge sheet

a) No b) Yes c) Not required d) Improper ( b )

14) For imposing lenient penality action can be taken against D.A

a) No b) Yes c) Not possible d) Impossible ( a )

15) An employee can be dismissed from service for criminal misconduct prior to entry into service.

a) Yes b) No c) Definitely d) after conducting enquiry ( b )

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QUESTIONS ON RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT

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1) The year in which the R.T.I Act came into force ( c )

a) 2002 b) 2003 c) 2005 d) 2006

2) Information means. ( d )

a) Available in records b) Available in news papers c) Available in Electronic

shape d) All the above

3) Right to information means ( d )

a) Copying of the information available in records b) Inspection of records

c) Obtain information available in Floppies, Tapes d) All the above

4) With in what time the Public Authority has to publish the information available in their office

a) 100 days b) 120 days c) 160 days. d) 200 days ( b )

5) In which language the applicant can apply for information. ( d )

a) English b) Hindi c) Local official language

d) Any of the above

6) The applicant seeking information. ( b )

a) Has to give the reason why it is needed

b) Has to give his postal address required to send the information

c) Has to give his personal details

d) Has to give his property details

7) The applicant seeking information has to enclose to the applicant ( a )

a) The receipt of the fee paid in case the fee is prescribed

b) Applicant photo c) The photos of all his family members

d) Information about his assets and liabilities

8) In case the information required by an applicant is available with some other officer,

Within what time the application has to be transferred to such officer ( b )

a) 2 days b) 5 days c) 10 days d) 15 days

9) With in what time the information concerns the life or liberty of a person is involved.

a) 24 hrs b) 48 hrs c) 2 days d) 5 days ( b )

10) In case the applicant belongs to BPL, how much fee he has to pay to obtain information

a) Rs.2/- b) Rs.5/- c) Rs.10/- d) No payment need be paid ( d )

11) In case no reply is received from the PIO within the stipulated time, though he filed with full

address then it can be treated as ( b )

a) Waiting for the information expecting he will get

b) Rejected c) The fee paid is not sufficient

d) not approached to get information personally.

12) 3rd party means ( d )

a) Applicant seeking information b) PIO c) A.O d) Any person other than the applicant

13) With in what time the PIO has to give 3rd party information or decision on furnishing of the said

information to the applicant.

a) 10 days b) 20 days c) 30 days d) 40 days ( d )

14) The total number of members in the Central Information Commission excluding the Chief Information Commissioner

a) 6 b) 10 c) 11 d) 15 ( b ) 15) The total number of members in the State information commission including the State Chief Information Commissioner

a) 6 b) 10 c) 11 d) 15 ( c )

16) The main function of the central / state information commission ( c )

a) Imposing of penalties b) to send information to the subordinates c) To receive claims, conduct inquires and pass suitable orders d) To give suggestions to the subordinates.

17) In case the commission feels that there are sufficient grounds to require then

a) To file suit on the failing authority b) orders to prosecute the authority ( d ) c) Imposing of penalty d) order for re - inquiry.

18) With in what period the applicant can prefer an appeal in case he did not receive any information with in the time or received with insufficient information

a) 30 days b) 20 days c) 40 days d) 60 days ( a )

19) Appellate Authority means ( a )

a) 1st Appellate Authority b) 2nd Appellate Authority

c) State information Commission d) Central Information Commission 20) The information cannot be given in respect of ( d )

a) Indian Railways b) Central Excise

c) Indian Airways d) Exemptions provided in Sub sec (1) of Sec.8

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