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Which of these refers to the degree and nature of interdependence between the powerholder and others
Introducing clear rules for resource allocation is one way of
Which of the following statements about countervailing power in organizational relationships is true
_____ involves calling upon higher authority or expertise, or symbolically relying on these sources to support the influencer's position
Jason is effective at forming friendships with other people in the organization. Over time, he becomes well known and respected by numerous people in key positions in the organization. Through his networking, Jason has
_____ is an integral part of exchange
Which of the following is a consequence of power
Power is the _____ to change someone's behavior
Your team has been put in charge of a major project involving a client. Although the organization has many clients, this particular project is the largest source of revenue and affects the work of several other teams in the organization. The project requires continuous involvement with the client, so any problem with the client is immediately felt by others in the organization. According to the model of power, your team has
Which of the following statements about power is true?
Employees have ______ power, when others identify with them, like them, or otherwise respect them
Organizational politics is more common where decisions are
Increasing inventories between sequential work units tends to reduce potential conflict by
Which of the following statements is true of the relationship conflicts in a highly cohesive team
Effective managers should
Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low assertiveness
When negotiators have an audience watching their progress in the negotiations, the audience's negotiator
Which of the following immediately follows conflict perceptions and emotions in the conflict process model
Based on the characteristics of constructive conflicts, which of the following would help a manager create constructive conflicts during a debate
Which of the following conflict management styles may be necessary when it is apparent that the other party will take advantage of information sharing and other cooperative strategies
The bargaining zone model states that
Which of the following factors leads to relational conflicts in teams
_____ are employees who coordinate the activities of differentiated work units toward the completion of a common task
Which of the following is a third-party conflict resolution strategy with low process control and high decision control
Which of the following is a major advantage of having moderate levels of organizational conflicts
Which of the following sources of power originates from the powerholder's own characteristics
People with expertise tend to have more influence using persuasion, whereas those with a strong legitimate power base are usually more successful applying _____.
Networking potentially increases a person's power by
_____ is an integral part of exchange
Jason is effective at forming friendships with other people in the organization. Over time, he becomes well known and respected by numerous people in key positions in the organization. Through his networking, Jason has
A senior executive wants to introduce a new reward system for salespeople. To support this change, the executive retained a consultant to determine the benefits of the reward system for
salespeople in this organization. However, the consultant's report determined that the reward system would not work well for a variety of reasons. After reading the report, the executive discarded it without notifying others of its existence. Meanwhile, the executive continued to push for the reward system. What influence tactic did the executive use
As our society moves from an industrial to a knowledge-based economy, employees are gaining
Which of the following is a "hard"
People with high Machiavellian values tend to:
A supervisor pushes employee performance by constantly checking their work, reminding them of their deadlines, and threatens to put their unknown failures on the company notice board. Which of the following forms of influence is this supervisor using
Employees have _____, ranging from sarcasm to ostracism, to ensure that coworkers conform to team norms
Which of the following is the most common form of influence in high power distance cultures
What is the relationship between emotional intelligence and relationship conflicts
Salespeople at Widget Co. complain that they lose sales bonuses when the production department is out of stock of a particular item. This sometimes causes customers to buy from elsewhere rather than wait for the next production run. Meanwhile, production employees complain that salespeople don't appreciate the need to minimize inventory costs, for which production staff is rewarded. This instance is an example of conflict due to
The current perspective on organizational conflict is that
Direct communication minimizes conflict by
Third-party dispute resolution activities are classified in terms of their
Relationship conflict usually causes people to
Effective managers should
What is the major function of integrators in an organization
Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low assertiveness
Which of the following produce the highest risk of conflict
The third-party conflict resolution intervention that has a high level of control over the final outcome but little control over the process is known as
Employees in engineering and marketing often disagree with each other in how to achieve a target mainly because they have unique backgrounds, experiences, and training. The most apparent source of conflict here is
Which of the following precedes conflict outcomes in the conflict process
Which of the following is the most common form of influence in high power distance cultures
_____ is the strongest outcome of influence, whereby people identify with the influencer's request and are highly motivated to implement it even when extrinsic sources of motivation are no longer present
In order to maintain the exchange relationship, the dependent party has _____ over the dominant party
Your team has been put in charge of a major project involving a client. Although the organization has many clients, this particular project is the largest source of revenue and affects the work of several other teams in the organization. The project requires continuous involvement with the client, so any problem with the client is immediately felt by others in the organization. According to the model of power, your team has
_____ involves actively applying legitimate and coercive power to influence others
Introducing clear rules for resource allocation is one way of
Which of the following is a form of "soft" influence tactic
Krystal's boss in the accounting department initially rejected her proposal for a new budgeting process. So Krystal spoke to and received support from the heads of two other departments that would benefit from the proposed budgeting process. She also found support from several co-workers in the accounting department because they believed the new budgeting process would be simpler and fairer. When Krystal's boss realized that several key people supported the new budgeting system, he agreed to test it in a pilot project. What form of influence is Krystal mainly using here
Employees have ______ power, when others identify with them, like them, or otherwise respect them
_____ involves calling upon higher authority or expertise, or symbolically relying on these sources to support the influencer's position
Employees have _____, ranging from sarcasm to ostracism, to ensure that coworkers conform to team norms
Which of the following are the three general strategies for coping with uncertainty
The current perspective on organizational conflict is that
For everyday disputes between two employees, managers should use _____ as a third-party intervention
The problem-solving interpersonal style of conflict has
Relationship conflict usually causes people to
Which of the following interpersonal conflict management styles represents a purely win-win orientation
When negotiators have an audience watching their progress in the negotiations, the audience's negotiator
Conflict is ultimately based on
When team norms encourage _____, team members learn to appreciate honest dialogue without personally reacting to any emotional display during the disagreements
Which of the following precedes conflict outcomes in the conflict process
Which of the following conflict management styles may be necessary when it is apparent that the other party will take advantage of information sharing and other cooperative strategies
Salespeople at Widget Co. complain that they lose sales bonuses when the production department is out of stock of a particular item. This sometimes causes customers to buy from elsewhere rather than wait for the next production run. Meanwhile, production employees complain that salespeople don't appreciate the need to minimize inventory costs, for which production staff is rewarded. This instance is an example of conflict due to
Constructive conflict
The third-party conflict resolution intervention that has a high level of control over the final outcome but little control over the process is known as
Which of the following statements about power is true
(blank) involves calling upon higher authority or expertise, or symbolically relying on these sources to support the influencer's position
The effectiveness of as an influence tactic depends on characteristics of the powerholder, message content, communication medium, and the audience
Which of the following sources of power originates from the powerholder's own characteristics
(blank) occurs when people or work units oppose the behavior desired by the influencer and consequently refuse, argue, or delay engaging in the behavior
A supervisor pushes employee performance by constantly checking their work, reminding them of their deadlines, and threatens to put their unknown failures on the company notice board. Which of the following forms of influence is this supervisor using
Which of the following is an example of the influence tactic of forming coalitions
The norm of reciprocity is a central and explicit theme in strategies
Employees are more likely to comply with a supervisor's legitimate power when the
Employees have , ranging from sarcasm to ostracism, to ensure that coworkers conform to team norms
People with high Machiavellian values tend to
Ingratiation is part of a larger influence tactic known as .
Conflict is ultimately based on
Which of the following produce the highest risk of conflict
According to the literature on organizational conflict, constructive conflict
(blank) are employees who coordinate the activities of differentiated work units toward the completion of a common task
Which of the following interpersonal conflict management styles represents a purely win-win orientation
Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low assertiveness
Effective managers should
What is the relationship between emotional intelligence and relationship conflicts
The yielding conflict management style should be used if
Which of the following immediately follows conflict perceptions and emotions in the conflict process model
Increasing inventories between sequential work units tends to reduce potential conflict by
Which of the following is a major advantage of having moderate levels of organizational conflicts?
Which of the following factors leads to relational conflicts in teams
1. Power is the act of changing another person's attitudes and behavior. True False
2. People might gain power by convincing others that they have
something of value. True False
3. Countervailing power is the capacity of a person, team, or organization
to keep a more powerful person or group in the exchange relationship. True False
4. Legitimate power is created whenever the organization assigns a
supervisor with formal authority over subordinates. True False
5. Legitimate power has restrictions; it only gives the power holder the
right to ask for a range of behaviors from others. This range is known as the "norm of reciprocity." True False
6. Employees in low power distance cultures comply with legitimate
power. True False
7. Peer pressure typically represents a form of coercive power.
True False
8. Prevention, forecasting, and absorption are three types of expertise that cope with uncertainty in organizations. True False
9. Referent power is mainly developed through a person's interpersonal
skills. True False
10.
Reward power is associated with charisma. True False
11.
The four contingencies of power are prevention, forecasting, coercion, and distribution. True False
12.
An employee's ability to influence others increases as the source of his or her power becomes more substitutable. True False
13.
By avoiding written documentation of how to operate equipment or serve customers, employees are maximizing their expert power through non-substitutability. True False
14.
People have more power when their actions quickly affect many other people through the organization. True False
15.
Displaying one's diplomas and degrees on office walls is one way professionals increase their visibility. True False
16.
Even though your job entails that you should be visiting clients most of the time, you make it a point to stop by the office everyday so your boss sees that you are working. This increases your power by increasing your centrality. True False
17.
Playing "face time" instead of working productively behind closed doors is a strategy for gaining increased visibility at work. True False
18.
The only way employees get ahead is by developing their competencies. True False
19.
Networking is a form of influence that tends to increase the individual's expert and referent power. True False
20.
As people become more powerful they tend to become less goal-oriented, less motivated, and more focused on gaining additional power. True False
21.
People who have more power over others engage in more automatic rather than mindful thinking. True False
22.
People with power over others have more difficulty empathizing. True False
23.
A feature of influence is that it operates down the corporate hierarchy but not up or across that hierarchy. True False
24.
Exchange, ingratiation, and persuasion are considered "hard" influence tactics. True False
25.
Silent authority is also known as deference to authority. True False
26.
Extreme forms of assertiveness include blackmailing colleagues. True False
27.
A coalition attempts to influence people outside the group by pooling the resources and power of its members. True False
28.
A coalition gains power by symbolizing the legitimacy of the issue supported by the coalition. True False
29.
People are more persuasive when they rely on logical arguments and avoid emotional appeals. True False
30.
In persuasive communication, the inoculation effect involves warning listeners that others will try to influence them in the future and that they should be aware of the opponent's arguments. True False
31.
Impression management is a common strategy for people trying to get ahead in the workplace. True False
32.
As impression management is inherently unethical, it is discouraged by career professionals. True False
33.
Exaggerating one's résumé is a form of the influence tactic of persuasion. True False
34.
Soft influence tactics such as persuasion tend to build compliance rather than commitment to the influencer's request. True False
35.
People who have expertise tend to have more influence using persuasion. True False
36.
The most appropriate influence tactic depends in part on the influencer's power base and position in the organization. True False
37.
Supervisors who use ingratiation and impression management tactics tend to lose the respect of their staff. True False
38.
The preferred influence tactics vary across cultures. True False
39.
Research indicates that ingratiation is more commonly used by managers in high power distance cultures than by managers in low power distance cultures. True False
40.
Organizational politics refers to any use of power to influence others. True False
41.
Organizational politics can result in lower job satisfaction, and high levels of work-related stress. True False
42.
Organizational politics occurs when someone attempts to influence others for the purpose of promoting personal interests. True False
43.
Office politics flourish when resource allocation decisions are ambiguous and complex with no formal rules. True False
44.
Machiavellian values help employees to recognize and avoid using political tactics in organizational settings. True False
45.
People with an internal locus of control and strong Machiavellian values engage in organizational politics. True False
46.
Organizational leaders can minimize organizational politics by making decision rules more complex and ambiguous. True False
47.
Organizational politics tends to increase in situations where decisions become routine and programmed. True False
48.
In organizational settings, power is defined as:
A. the practice of trying to influence another person.
B. the capacity to influence others.
C. the act of changing another person's attitudes and behaviors.
D. the extent to which one person is required to follow another person's commands even though he or she does not want to follow the commands.
E. any situation where one person is dependent on another person, who is not at all dependent on the first person.
49.
Power is the _____ to change someone's behavior.
A. need
B. act
C. potential
D. duty
E. hidden agenda
50.
Which of the following statements about power is true?
A. Power exists only when the power holder is able to change someone's behavior.
B. Power requires interdependence in the relationship.
C. Power is the actual practice of influencing others.
D. Power exists only when one person has something of value for a second person, but the second person has nothing of value for the first person.
E. People cannot have power over others by controlling a desired job assignment, useful information, important resources, or even the privilege of being associated with someone.
51.
Which of the following statements about countervailing power in organizational relationships is true?
A. Countervailing power prevents anyone else from having any power over you.
B. Countervailing power is used by the stronger party to prevent the weaker party from leaving the relationship.
C. Countervailing power is the weaker party's power to maintain the stronger party's continued participation in the relationship.
D. Countervailing power is one of the ways that people have power by coping with uncertainty.
E. Countervailing power is a personality characteristic of people who crave power.
52.
In order to maintain the exchange relationship, the dependent party has _____ over the dominant party.
A. countervailing power
B. substitutability
C. reverse dependence
D. visibility
E. legitimate power
53.
Legitimate power occurs when:
A. the manager can remove negative sanctions.
B. the manager is able to reward or punish the employees.
C. the manager has the capacity to influence others on the basis of identification with and respect for the power-holder.
D. employees are blinded by the manager's charisma.
E. it is agreed that people in certain roles can request certain behaviors of others.
54.
Employees are more likely to comply with a supervisor's legitimate power when the:
A. employees have a high power distance value.
B. power holder gives orders outside the employees' normal role requirements.
C. company encourages people to disobey orders that interfere with their work.
D. manager has a low charisma.
E. manager has a very good reward system in place.
55.
Employees also have _____ power over their bosses through their feedback and ratings in 360-degree feedback systems.
A. referent
B. reward
C. legitimate
D. expert
E. coercive
56.
Employees have _____, ranging from sarcasm to ostracism, to ensure that coworkers conform to team norms.
A. reward power
B. legitimate power
C. referent power
D. expert power
E. coercive power
57.
Which of the following sources of power originates from the powerholder's own characteristics?
A. Legitimate power
B. Coercive power
C. Expert power
D. Reward power
E. Formal power
58.
The (perceived) ability to manage uncertainties in the business environment is a form of _____ power.
A. reward
B. legitimate
C. referent
D. expert
E. coercive
59.
As our society moves from an industrial to a knowledge-based economy, employees are gaining:
A. reward power.
B. legitimate power.
C. referent power.
D. expert power.
E. coercive power.
60.
Employees have more expert power today than a few decades ago because:
A. fewer people now attend university than a few decades ago.
B. referent and legitimate power are no longer valued in organizations.
C. society is shifting from an industrial to a knowledge-based economy.
D. employers have a higher power distance than in the past.
E. employees are no longer dependent on each other.
61.
Which of the following are the three general strategies for coping with uncertainty?
A. Visibility, discretion, prevention
B. Visibility, immediacy, pervasiveness
C. Prevention, forecasting, absorption
D. Discretion, immediacy, prevention
E. Immediacy, forecasting, and absorption
62.
Employees have ______ power, when others identify with them, like them, or otherwise respect them.
A. reward
B. legitimate
C. referent
D. expert
E. coercive
63.
Which of these sources of power originates mainly from the person rather than the position?
A. Referent power
B. Legitimate power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
E. Perceived right
64.
Referent power is typically associated with:
A. reward systems.
B. power distance.
C. uncertainty avoidance.
D. peer pressure.
E. charisma.
65.
Which of the following refers to availability of alternatives?
A. Visibility
B. Substitutability
C. Centrality
D. Discretion
E. Referent power
66.
Which of these refers to the degree and nature of interdependence between the powerholder and others?
A. Visibility
B. Substitutability
C. Centrality
D. Discretion
E. Expertise
67.
Which contingency of power are unions mainly applying by going on strike at a critical time in the company's business cycle?
A. Visibility
B. Non-substitutability
C. Centrality
D. Discretion
E. Persuasion
68.
Your team has been put in charge of a major project involving a client. Although the organization has many clients, this particular project is the largest source of revenue and affects the work of several other teams in the organization. The project requires continuous involvement with the client, so any problem with the client is immediately felt by others in the organization. According to the model of power, your team has:
A. very little power in the organization.
B. a high degree of centrality.
C. a high degree of substitutability.
D. a low level of visibility.
E. a lot of referent power.
69.
A new employee in the finance department prominently displays diplomas and past awards indicating his financial expertise. What contingency of power is this person trying to increase?
A. Counterpower
B. Non-substitutability
C. Centrality
D. Discretion
E. Visibility
70.
Which of the following networking styles increases a person's expert power?
A. Gaining valuable information through networking
B. Identifying people who are in the same network as you
C. Taking decisions in favor of others
D. Recognizing talents
E. Placing oneself in a strategic position in the network
71.
Networking potentially increases a person's power by:
A. increasing the person's legitimate power.
B. decreasing the person's centrality.
C. increasing the person's referent power.
D. decreasing the person's reward power.
E. increasing the person's coercive power.
72.
Jason is effective at forming friendships with other people in the organization. Over time, he becomes well known and respected by numerous people in key positions in the organization. Through his networking, Jason has:
A. increased his level of Machiavellianism.
B. reduced his centrality.
C. increased his coercive power.
D. increased his referent power.
E. reduced his visibility.
73.
Which of the following is a consequence of power?
A. Employees who feel more power feel humbled.
B. When people become more powerful, they hide from their environment.
C. Increasing power over others can potentially undermine an individual's effectiveness and interpersonal relations.
D. Powerful people gain the added skill of empathizing with subordinates.
E. People with power engage in mindful thinking and are concerned about the consequences of their actions.
74.
Which of the following is a "hard" influence tactic?
A. Ingratiation
B. Upward appeal
C. Persuasion
D. Visibility
E. Exchange
75.
Which of the following is the most common form of influence in high power distance cultures?
A. Silent authority
B. Coalition formation
C. Assertiveness
D. Ingratiation
E. Information control
76.
Which of the following is a form of "soft" influence tactic?
A. Ingratiation
B. Upward appeal
C. Coalition forming
D. Silent authority
E. Information control
77.
Assertiveness:
A. refers to the process of gaining support from one or more people with higher authority or expertise.
B. is an indicator that a person lacks power due to low centrality.
C. is an attempt to increase liking by, or perceived similarity to, some targeted person.
D. is also known as vocal authority.
E. refers to the use of logical arguments, factual evidence, and emotional appeals to convince people of the value of a request.
78.
_____ involves actively applying legitimate and coercive power to influence others.
A. Assertiveness
B. Upward appeal
C. Persuasion
D. Coalition forming
E. Information control
79.
Extreme forms of _____ include blackmailing colleagues, such as by threatening to reveal the other person's previously unknown failures unless he or she complies with your request.
A. coalition forming
B. upward appeal
C. persuasion
D. assertiveness
E. information control
80.
A supervisor pushes employee performance by constantly checking their work, reminding them of their deadlines, and threatens to put their unknown failures on the company notice board. Which of the following forms of influence is this supervisor using?
A. Legitimate
B. Silent authority
C. Referent
D. Assertiveness
E. Persuasion
81.
_____ involves explicitly manipulating others' access to critical work issues for the purpose of changing their attitudes and/or behavior.
A. Ingratiation
B. Upward appeal
C. Persuasion
D. Assertiveness
E. Information control
82.
A senior executive wants to introduce a new reward system for salespeople. To support this change, the executive retained a consultant to determine the benefits of the reward system for salespeople in this organization. However, the consultant's report determined that the reward system would not work well for a variety of reasons. After reading the report, the executive discarded it without notifying others of its existence. Meanwhile, the executive continued to push for the reward system. What influence tactic did the executive use?
A. Information control
B. Exchange
C. Forming coalitions
D. Cultivating networks
E. Persuasion
83.
Forming a coalition:
A. is typically part of the manager's job description.
B. takes advantage of situations where who you know is more important than what you know.
C. causes the decision to become more complex and ambiguous.
D. increases the legitimacy of its desired outcome.
E. more effectively communicates weaknesses with opposing positions.
84.
Which of the following is an example of the influence tactic of forming coalitions?
A. Employees get together to show management that they collectively demand that the company purchase new computer equipment.
B. Some employees of an airline threaten to go on strike just a few weeks before the company begins its busiest season and most profitable part of the year.
C. A new executive immediately posts her diplomas and awards on the office wall for others to see.
D. To demonstrate that cost overrun errors aren't due to production employees, the production manager privately shows senior executives examples of how the marketing manager makes mistakes on orders.
E. Employees present facts and logical arguments to change the attitude of their boss.
85.
Krystal's boss in the accounting department initially rejected her proposal for a new budgeting process. So Krystal spoke to and received support from the heads of two other departments that would benefit from the proposed budgeting process. She also found support from several co-workers in the accounting department because they believed the new budgeting process would be simpler and fairer. When Krystal's boss realized that several key people supported the new budgeting system, he agreed to test it in a pilot project. What form of influence is Krystal mainly using here?
A. Silent authority
B. Coalition formation
C. Assertiveness
D. Impression management
E. Ingratiation
86.
_____ involves calling upon higher authority or expertise, or symbolically relying on these sources to support the influencer's position.
A. Ingratiation
B. Assertiveness
C. Machiavellianism
D. Exchange
E. Upward appeal
87.
The effectiveness of _____ as an influence tactic depends on characteristics of the powerholder, message content, communication medium, and the audience.
A. coalition forming
B. upward appeal
C. persuasion
D. information control
E. silent authority
88.
Which of the following does ingratiation include?
A. Flattering a boss
B. Offering advice to the employees
C. Listening to counterarguments
D. Relying on the influencer's position
E. Appearing neutral
89.
Ingratiation is part of a larger influence tactic known as _____.
A. upward influence
B. impression management
C. persuasion
D. risk management
E. upward appeal
90.
Which of the following is true about impression management?
A. Employees rarely engage in pleasant impression management behavior to satisfy the basic norms of social behavior.
B. Career professionals do not encourage impression management.
C. Impression management is part of a larger influence tactic known as ingratiation.
D. It is not common for people to rely on impression management to get ahead in the workplace.
E. Individuals carry impression management beyond ethical boundaries by exaggerating their credentials and accomplishments on their résumés.
91.
Many job applicants falsify information on their resume. Which of the following influence tactic does this refer to?
A. Persuasion
B. Forming coalitions
C. Networking
D. Impression management
E. Exchange
92.
The norm of reciprocity is a central and explicit theme in _____ strategies.
A. persuasion
B. exchange
C. upward appeal
D. impression management
E. coalition
93.
_____ is an integral part of exchange.
A. Silent authority
B. Coerciveness
C. Ingratiation
D. Negotiation
E. Assertiveness
94.
_____ occurs when people or work units oppose the behavior desired by the influencer and consequently refuse, argue, or delay engaging in the behavior.
A. Compliance
B. Upward appeal
C. Commitment
D. Assertiveness
E. Resistance
95.
_____ is the strongest outcome of influence, whereby people identify with the influencer's request and are highly motivated to implement it even when extrinsic sources of motivation are no longer present.
A. Compliance
B. Commitment
C. Organizational politics
D. Role modeling
E. Resistance
96.
People with expertise tend to have more influence using persuasion, whereas those with a strong legitimate power base are usually more successful applying _____.
A. upward appeal
B. coalition formation
C. silent authority
D. assertiveness
E. information control
97.
Organizational politics typically involves:
A. an unconscious attempt to increase your own power.
B. a conscious attempt to motivate others to work harder for the firm.
C. attempts to influence others to promote personal objectives.
D. helping other employees to fulfill their needs through organizational activities.
E. setting up stricter policies.
98.
Organizational politics is more common where decisions are:
A. easy to understand.
B. based on complex and ambiguous rules.
C. based on the brainstorming technique.
D. based on clearly defined principles.
E. based on formal criteria.
99.
People with high Machiavellian values tend to:
A. place a lot of trust in their colleagues.
B. stay away from organizations where politics is tolerated.
C. use more socially acceptable forms of power to influence others.
D. are comfortable using power to manipulate others toward their own personal goals.
E. believe that deceit is totally inappropriate in organizational settings.
100.
People who seldom trust coworkers and tend to use cruder influence tactics have:
A. strong Machiavellian values.
B. a high level of organizational citizenship.
C. excellent skills for working in teams.
D. more expert power than most people in organizations.
E. strong work ethics.
101.
Introducing clear rules for resource allocation is one way of:
A. increasing the company's substitutability in the marketplace.
B. avoiding the presence of counter-power in the organization.
C. reducing organizational politics regarding that decision.
D. applying the inoculation effect.
E. applying ingratiation.
102.
Organizational politics may be reduced by:
A. cutting back resources available to organizational units.
B. encouraging leaders to become role models of organizational citizenship instead of symbols of successful organizational politicians.
C. being more tolerant of employees who use political tactics to get what they want from the organization.
D. selecting employees with a high need for personalized power.
E. conducting background checks on potential employees.
1. Conflict is a process in which one party perceives that its interests are
being opposed or negatively affected by another party. True False
2. Conflict is based on the technical skills of the parties involved and is
independent of their perceptions. True False
3. Conflicts could reduce the significance of organizational politics.
True False
4. Organizations should eliminate conflicts in order to be more
productive. True False
5. The modern perspective on conflict is that an optimal level exists which
is beneficial to the organization. True False
6. Constructive conflict tests the logic of arguments and encourages
participants to reexamine their basic assumptions. True False
7. Organizations will be more responsive to changing business environment if they have very little conflict. True False
8. Conflicts could result in stronger team cohesion when conflict occurs
between the team and an outside source. True False
9. Constructive conflict refers to conflict between departments and
organizations. True False
10.
Relationship conflict focuses on the other party as the source of conflict. True False
11.
Relationship conflict is apparent when the conflict is explained in terms of differences of opinion regarding tasks or decisions. True False
12.
When people experience relationship conflict, they tend to increase their reliance on communication with the other party. True False
13.
When conflict reduces each side's motivation to communicate, they rely more on stereotypes to reinforce their perceptions of the other side. True False
14.
Employees with high emotional intelligence are able to avoid the escalation of constructive conflict into relationship conflict. True False
15.
Strong cohesion in teams leads to strong relational conflicts. True False
16.
Conflicts escalate into relationship conflict among employees in highly cohesive teams. True False
17.
Conflict perceptions and emotions produce manifest conflict—the decisions and behaviors of one party toward the other. True False
18.
The conflict model starts with the sources of conflict. True False
19.
Poor communication is a part of manifest conflict. True False
20.
Two employees from different departments who are evaluated on different performance criteria and compensated based on different reward systems are likely to experience conflict due to goal incompatibility. True False
21.
The lowest risk of conflict tends to occur in reciprocal interdependence situations. True False
22.
Resource scarcity is a potential source of conflict in organizations. True False
23.
Conflicts tend to be higher when rules and procedures exist. True False
24.
People are more motivated to communicate and engage in exchanges when there is a perception of conflict. True False
25.
The five interpersonal conflict management styles are distinguished by their level of interdependence with the other party. True False
26.
The problem solving conflict management style involves a high degree of assertiveness and cooperativeness. True False
27.
Yielding style of conflict resolution involves making unilateral concessions and unconditional promises. True False
28.
Forcing style of conflict management presents the highest risk of relationship conflict and it should never be used to manage conflicts in organizations. True False
29.
The yielding conflict management style is preferred when both parties have equal power and enough trust to share information. True False
30.
The yielding conflict management style can produce more conflict rather than resolve it. True False
31.
People from collectivist cultures tend to apply a forcing style of conflict with colleagues more than people do from individualist cultures. True False
32.
Creating common experiences for all employees would help organizations reduce organizational conflicts. True False
33.
Resolving differences with the opposing party through direct communication is not as comfortably applied in collectivist cultures. True False
34.
Buffers tend to resolve conflict by reducing the level of interdependence between the conflicting parties. True False
35.
Integrators have direct authority over the departments they integrate and they rely on legitimate power to manage conflict and accomplish the work. True False
36.
Increasing resources and creating more precise rules for the allocation of those resources represent two ways to increase conflict. True False
37.
Arbitration has a high level of process control but a low level of decision control. True False
38.
Inquisitors control all discussion about the conflict and they choose the form of conflict resolution. True False
39.
Mediation has a high level of process control but a low level of decision control. True False
40.
Research suggests that managers tend to avoid the inquisitional approach to third-party conflict resolution. True False
41.
Managers should arbitrate decisions when employees cannot resolve their differences alone. True False
42.
Negotiation occurs whenever two or more conflicting parties try to redefine the terms of their interdependence. True False
43.
According to the bargaining zone model, the parties should begin negotiations by describing their resistance point to each other. True False
44.
The resistance point in the bargaining zone model is the team's realistic goal or expectation for a final agreement. True False
45.
When negotiators get closer to their time deadline, they become less committed to resolving the conflict. True False
46.
Negotiators who make the first offer have the advantage of creating a position around which subsequent negotiations are anchored. True False
47.
Skilled negotiators prefer using e-mail, videoconferences, and other forms of electronic communication when negotiating, rather than meeting face-to-face. True False
48.
Negotiators tend to be more competitive and less willing to give concessions when their audience directly observes the negotiations. True False
49.
Negotiators tend to avoid "hard-line" behaviors when they know an audience is watching them. True False
50.
Conflict is best defined as:
A. any event where two parties demonstrate their dislike of each other.
B. any occasion where both parties perceive each other as a threat to achieving the other party's goals.
C. a process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party.
D. any event where one party acts in a way that prevents another party from achieving its goals.
E. a process in which each party tries to learn the resistance point of the other party.
51.
The process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party is called:
A. mediation.
B. conflict.
C. negotiation.
D. dialogue.
E. arbitration.
52.
Conflict is ultimately based on:
A. perceptions of people.
B. actual intentions.
C. organizational structure.
D. technical competence.
E. skills and abilities of individuals.
53.
Which of the following is an advantage of having moderate levels of organizational conflicts?
A. It helps reduce organizational politics.
B. It boosts employee motivation.
C. It promotes organizational communication.
D. It energizes people to evaluate alternatives.
E. It reduces distorted perceptions and stereotypes.
54.
The current perspective on organizational conflict is that:
A. conflict should be minimized across all departments.
B. conflicts could be promoted in some functions and discouraged in some others.
C. conflict is an inevitable result of increased technology and globalization.
D. use of technology and virtual teams could minimize organizational conflicts.
E. moderate levels of conflict are necessary and produce favorable outcomes.
55.
Which of the following is a major advantage of having moderate levels of organizational conflicts?
A. More responsiveness to changing business environment
B. Reduced attrition in the organization
C. Reduced stress and job dissatisfaction among employees
D. Increased information sharing
E. Less wastage of time because of reduced communication among employees
56.
According to the literature on organizational conflict, constructive conflict:
A. is a positive application of conflict in organizations.
B. is one of the most common outcomes of organizational conflict.
C. is the only conflict management style that has high assertiveness and low cooperativeness.
D. is the main source of conflict in organizations.
E. should not be used as a conflict management strategy in organizations.
57.
Constructive conflict:
A. is the opposite of task-related conflict and often involves verbal attacks.
B. encourages employees to reexamine their basic assumptions about a problem and its possible solutions.
C. is apparent when the conflict is explained in terms of interpersonal incompatibilities.
D. is more likely to trigger defense mechanisms and a competitive orientation among team members.
E. sometimes replaces manifest conflict in the conflict escalation process.
58.
Based on the characteristics of constructive conflicts, which of the following would help a manager create constructive conflicts during a debate?
A. Support the weaker members during the debate
B. Explain conflict in terms of interpersonal incompatibilities
C. Support the stronger members during the debate
D. Keep the debate focused on the issue
E. Maintain competitive orientation in the debate
59.
Which of the following best describes relationship conflict?
A. One party perceives that another party might oppose its interests.
B. The conflict is between two individuals rather than departments or organizations.
C. The conflict episodes are viewed as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem.
D. Two people adopt a win-win rather than a win-lose orientation.
E. The conflict is between two departments rather than individuals in the organization.
60.
Relationship conflict usually causes people to:
A. use logical analysis in organizational decision making.
B. reduce communication and information sharing with the other party.
C. rethink their assumptions and beliefs about the issue that is the source of conflict.
D. stay away from organizational politics and related activities.
E. concentrate on the issue rather than the people involved in the issue.
61.
Effective managers should:
A. increase the amount of conflict among employees.
B. remove all forms of conflict from the organization, because it saps productivity.
C. remove manifest conflict as well as negative conflict outcomes even though the sources of conflict remain in place.
D. convince employees to engage in relationship conflict rather than the other forms of conflict.
E. minimize the relationship conflicts that exist in the organization.
62.
What is the relationship between emotional intelligence and relationship conflicts?
A. Emotional intelligence is unrelated to relationship conflicts.
B. Emotional intelligence tends to increase the likeliness of relationship conflicts.
C. Relationship conflict is less likely to occur if emotional intelligence is high.
D. Emotional intelligence tends to maintain all types conflicts to be relationship-based.
E. The conversion of relationship conflicts to constructive conflicts is slow with high emotional intelligence.
63.
Which of the following statements is true of the relationship conflicts in a highly cohesive team?
A. Relationship conflicts tend to be more because of the increased relationship.
B. Mediation is needed to resolve relationship conflicts in such teams.
C. Relationship conflict is absent in such teams.
D. Conflicts tend to be more in such teams if it has a large number of members.
E. Relationship conflict is suppressed when the conflict occurs.
64.
When team norms encourage _____, team members learn to appreciate honest dialogue without personally reacting to any emotional display during the disagreements.
A. conscientiousness
B. introversion
C. neuroticism
D. openness
E. agreeableness
65.
Which of the following precedes conflict outcomes in the conflict process?
A. Manifest conflict
B. Conflict emotions
C. Conflict beliefs
D. Conflict perceptions
E. Conflict sources
66.
Which of the following immediately follows conflict perceptions and emotions in the conflict process model?
A. Sources of conflict
B. Manifest conflict
C. Conflict outcomes
D. Conflict management
E. Conflict beliefs
67.
Salespeople at Widget Co. complain that they lose sales bonuses when the production department is out of stock of a particular item. This sometimes causes customers to buy from elsewhere rather than wait for the next production run. Meanwhile, production employees complain that salespeople don't appreciate the need to minimize inventory costs, for which production staff is rewarded. This instance is an example of conflict due to:
A. ambiguity.
B. technical incompetence of the production team.
C. pooled task interdependence.
D. differentiation.
E. goal incompatibility.
68.
Employees in engineering and marketing often disagree with each other in how to achieve a target mainly because they have unique backgrounds, experiences, and training. The most apparent source of conflict here is:
A. task interdependence.
B. differentiation.
C. goal incompatibility.
D. scarce resources.
E. ambiguity.
69.
Which of the following sources of conflict is typically associated with mergers and acquisitions, where everyone wants the company to succeed, but they fight over the "right way" to do things because of their unique experiences in the separate companies?
A. Task interdependence
B. Differentiation
C. Goal incompatibility
D. Scarce resources
E. Disintermediation
70.
Which of the following produce the highest risk of conflict?
A. Ambiguous rules and low task interdependence
B. Precise rules and resource scarcity
C. Plentiful resources and high goal compatibility
D. Scarce resources and high task interdependence
E. Strict rules and high task interdependence
71.
The potential for conflict between two employees would be highest under conditions of _____ interdependence.
A. pooled
B. total
C. reciprocal
D. anticipatory
E. sequential
72.
Which of the following factors leads to relational conflicts in teams?
A. Low levels of communication
B. Low levels of interdependence
C. Abundant resources
D. Homogeneous workforce
E. Common goal
73.
The problem-solving interpersonal style of conflict has:
A. high assertiveness and low cooperativeness.
B. high assertiveness and high cooperativeness.
C. low assertiveness and high cooperativeness.
D. low assertiveness and low cooperativeness.
E. medium assertiveness and medium cooperativeness.
74.
Which of the following interpersonal conflict management styles represents a purely win-win orientation?
A. Forcing
B. Yielding
C. Avoiding
D. Problem solving
E. Compromising
75.
Which of the following conflict management styles may be necessary when it is apparent that the other party will take advantage of information sharing and other cooperative strategies?
A. Forcing
B. Yielding
C. Avoiding
D. Problem-solving
E. Compromising
76.
Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low assertiveness?
A. Forcing
B. Inquisition
C. Compromising
D. Arbitration
E. Avoiding
77.
You have resolved a conflict with another department by offsetting your losses by equally valued gains. Which of the following conflict handling styles is used here?
A. Forcing
B. Yielding
C. Avoiding
D. Compromising
E. Problem-solving
78.
You are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments of an organization. Both parties have equal power. Both the parties are under time pressure to resolve the conflict. You also realize that the parties lack trust/openness for problem solving. You are actively searching for a middle ground between the interests of the two parties. Which of the following conflict resolution styles would you use in this situation?
A. Forcing
B. Yielding
C. Compromising
D. Avoiding
E. Problem-solving
79.
The yielding conflict management style should be used if:
A. the parties have equal power.
B. the issue is much less important to you than to the other party.
C. the other party has much less power than you do.
D. the issue is important to both parties.
E. you have a deep conviction about your position.
80.
Direct communication minimizes conflict by:
A. reducing task interdependence.
B. reducing reliance on stereotypes about the other party.
C. creating organizational buffers.
D. reducing the differentiation in the work force.
E. increasing the available resources.
81.
Increasing inventories between sequential work units tends to reduce potential conflict by:
A. reducing resource scarcity.
B. reducing differentiation.
C. increasing the required level of communication between employees in sequential units.
D. reducing ambiguity in resource allocation.
E. reducing task interdependence.
82.
What is the major function of integrators in an organization?
A. Reducing interdependence
B. Clarifying rules and procedures
C. Increasing resources
D. Reducing differentiation
E. Improving understanding
83.
_____ are employees who coordinate the activities of differentiated work units toward the completion of a common task.
A. Inquisitors
B. Arbitrators
C. Mediators
D. Integrators
E. Moderators
84.
Third-party dispute resolution activities are classified in terms of their:
A. arbitrariness and firmness.
B. level of process control and level of decision control.
C. assertiveness and cooperativeness.
D. differentiation and interdependence.
E. consequences for the organization.
85.
Which of the following is a third-party conflict resolution strategy with low process control and high decision control?
A. Inquisition
B. Arbitration
C. Mediation
D. Imposition
E. Compromise
86.
Which of the following third-party conflict resolution strategies is characterized by high process control and high process control?
A. Inquisition
B. Arbitration
C. Mediation
D. Imposition
E. Compromise
87.
Which third-party conflict resolution strategy manages the process and context of interaction between the disputing parties but does not impose a solution on the parties?
A. Inquisition
B. Arbitration
C. Mediation
D. Legislation
E. Imposition
88.
Which of the following types of third-party intervention approaches do managers usually adopt?
A. Inquisitional
B. Competitive
C. Mediation-based
D. Arbitration-based
E. Abstainer
89.
The third-party conflict resolution intervention that has a high level of control over the final outcome but little control over the process is known as:
A. mediation.
B. inquisition.
C. arbitration.
D. negotiation.
E. compromise.
90.
For everyday disputes between two employees, managers should use _____ as a third-party intervention.
A. inquisition
B. mediation
C. arbitration
D. retaliation
E. negotiation
91.
The bargaining zone model states that:
A. the physical space around the negotiations affects the negotiation outcome.
B. the negotiation process moves each party along a continuum in opposite directions with an area of potential overlap.
C. the best negotiations occur in a neutral territory.
D. negotiators must try to move the other party from a win-lose orientation towards a win-win orientation.
E. win-lose negotiations typically begin by each party communicating its resistance point.
92.
In a purely win-lose situation, the bargaining zone states that:
A. the parties usually apply a collaborative approach to resolving their differences.
B. one should begin negotiations by describing the resistance point for each item on the agenda.
C. the two parties rarely know each other's initial point.
D. parties tend to move from their target point to their initial point very quickly.
E. neither the target nor the resistance point is revealed to the other party.
93.
Initial offer points, target points, and resistance points represent three elements in:
A. the conflict process model.
B. the bargaining zone model.
C. the types of third-party conflict resolution.
D. the sources of conflict.
E. the conflict escalation cycle.
94.
When negotiators have an audience watching their progress in the negotiations, the audience's negotiator:
A. is more likely to give in to the other party's demands.
B. has more interest in saving face.
C. tends to feel more cooperative towards the other party.
D. tends to be more willing to make concessions to the other party.
E. tends to feel more cooperative and is more willing to make concessions to the other party.
