View
6
Download
0
Category
Preview:
Citation preview
Page 1
NEET
Model Grand Test 2017
Instructions :
1. This paper contains 180 objective questions; 90 from Biology, 45 from Physics and
45 from Chemistry
2. Each question caries 4 marks. Candidate will get 4 marks for a correct response. For
each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score
3. Maximum time is 3 hours and maximum marks is 720
4. To darken the appropriate circle of the correct option against each question use blue
or black ball point pen only. Answer marked with pencil would not be evaluated.
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 2
CHEMISTRY
1. Common salt obtained from sea-water
contains 96% NaCl by mass. The
approximate number of NaCl units present in
10.0 g of the salt is
1)1021
2) 1022
3)1023
4) 1024
2. Ionisation potential of He+ ion is
1) 13.6 eV atom-1
2) 27.2 eV atom-1
3) 54.4 eV atom-1
4) 109.6 eV atom-1
3. For which of the following van’t Hoff
factor cannot be greater than unity?
1) K4[Fe(CN)6] 2) AlCl3
3) NH2CONH2 4) KNO3
4. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium
metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature,
which one of the following does not occur?
1) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
2) liquid NH3 solution remains diamagnetic
3) liquid NH3 solution becomes a good
conductor of electricity
4) blue coloured solution is obtained
5. NaCl is doped with 2 × 10–3
mol % SrCl2,
the concentration of cation vacancies is
1) 12.04 × 1018 mol–1
2) 10.01 × 108 mol–1
3) 12.04 × 1020 mol–1
4) 4.02 × 1018 mol–1
6. “A” is left over solution after the
electrolysis of brine solution. “A” reacts
with SO2 to give “B” which forms “C”
with excess of SO2. The substance “C”
is
1) Na2S 2) NaHSO3
3) Na2SO3 4) Na2SO4
7. The wavelength of the third line of
the Balmer series for a hydrogen atom is
1)21
100R∞
2) 100
21R∞
3) 21
100
R∞ 4) 100
21
R∞
8. 10 mL of propane was mixed with 70 mL
of oxygen and exploded. What would be
the volume of residual gases after
explosion at room temperature and after
exposure of the residual gases to alkali?
Assume that volume measurement are
made at the same temperature and pressure
1) 55 mL, 25 mL 2) 40 mL, 15 mL
3) 50 mL, 20 mL 4) 35 mL, 40 Ml
9. How many unpaired electrons are
present in a triplet carbene
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 3
10. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom
corresponds to increasing values of energy,
i.e., EA < EB < EC. If X1, X2 and X3 are
the
wavelengths of radiations for responding to
the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following
statement is correct?
C
BX1
X2 X3A
1) X1 + X2 + X3 = 0 2) X3 = X1 + X2
3) 2 2 23 1 2X X X= + 4) 1 2
3
1 2
X XX
X X=
+
11. An atom of element A has 3 elctrons in its
outermost shell while one of element X has
6
electrons in its outermost shell. The
formula
of the compound formed by A and X is
1) A2X4 2) A2X3
3) A3X2 4) A2X
12. Eight grams of oxygen effuses through a
small hole in 10 minutes. In the same time
the weight of hydrogen effusing out will be
1) 32 g 2) 8 g 3) 2 g 4) 1 g
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 3
13. Exhausted permutit can be regenerated
using
1) dilute HCl 2) brine solution
3) dilute KOH 4) pure water
14. For the reaction
CO(g) + ½ O2(g) → CO2(g), H and S
are -283kJ and -87 J/K respectively. It was
intended to carry out this reaction at 1000,
1500, 3000 and 3500K. At which of the
temperature given below the reaction is
thermodynamically not feasible?
1)1000K 2) 1500K 3) 3000K 4) 3500K
15. Calculate the half-life of the first order
reaction, ( ) ( ) ( )2 4 4C H O g CH g CO g→ +
if the initial pressure of C2H
4O(g) is 80mm
and the total pressure at the end of 20
minutes is 120 mm.
1) 40 min 2) 120 min
3) 20 min 4) 80 min
16. Biuret test is not answered by
1) Proteins 2) Carbohydrates
3) Polypeptides 4) Urea
17. 0.16 g of methane is subjected to
combustion at 27°C in a bomb calorimeter
system. The temperature of the
calorimeter system
(including water) was found to rise by
0.5°C.
Calculate the heat of combustion of
methane
at constant volume. The thermal capacity
of
the calorimeter system is 17.7 kJK–1
(R =8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
1) – 695 kJ mol–1 2) – 1703 kJ mol–1
3) – 890 kJ mol–1 4) – 885 kJ mol–1
18. In natural rubber, all isoprene units
have
1) trans-1,4 configuration
2) cis-1,4 configuration
3) Both cis and trans configuration
4) Neither cis not trans configuration
19. Blue baby syndrome is due to the
excess of ___ ions in water
1) sulphate 2) nitrate
3) phosphate 4) chloride
20. The hybridization states of the central
atoms
in the complexes 36Fe(CN) − , 4
6Fe(CN) − and
32 6Co(NO ) − are
1) d2sp3, sp3 and d4s2 respectively
2) d2sp3, sp3d and sp3d2 respectively
3) d2sp3, sp3d2 and dsp2 respectively
4) all d2sp3
21. The IUPAC name for the complex
[Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] is
1) hexaammine cobalt (III)
hexacyanochromate (III)
2) hexacyanochromium cobalt (III)
hexaammine(VI)
3) hexaammine cobalt (III)
hexacyanochromium (VI)
4) hexacyanochromium (III)
hexaammine cobalt(III)
22. The following conversion requires
C H3CH= CHCHO →
CH3CH = CHCH2OH
1) H2 – Ni 2) B2H6
3) NaB H4 4) HI+redP
23. HNO3 oxidises sulphur to “X”. H2SO4
oxidises sulphur to “Y”. X and Y are
respectively.
1) H2SO4 and H2SO4 2) SO2 and SO2
3) SO2 and H2SO4 4) H2SO4 and SO2
24. Which of the following is not formed in the
hydrolysis of XeF6
1) XeOF4 2) XeO3
3) XeOF2 4) XeO2F2
25. How many moles of HCl gas should be
dissolved in one litre of 0.1M NH4OH
solution so that it results into a buffer
solution having pH = 9.26? (pKb =4.74)
1) 0.2moles 2) 0.1 moles
3) 0.05moles 4) 0.025moles
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 4
26. Siderite and Sphalerite are respectively the
ores of the metals
1) Al and Zn 2) Fe and Cu
3) Cu and Zn 4) Fe and Zn
27. ZnO is white when cold but yellow when
hot because it develops
1) Frenkel defect
2) Schottky defect
3)Metal excess defect
4) Metal deficiency defect
28. If
3 3 2Ag 2NH Ag(NH ) ;+ ++
71K 1.8 10= ×
Ag Cl+ −+
92AgCl; K 5.6 10= ×
Then for
3 3 2AgCl 2NH [Ag(NH ) ] Cl+ −+ + ,
Equilibrium constant will be
1)0.32 × 10–2 2) 3.11 × 102
3)10.08 × 1016 4) 1.00 × 10–17
29. For a Ag – Zn button cell, net reaction is
2Zn(s) Ag O(s) ZnO(s) 2Ag(s)+ → +
o 1f 2G (Ag O) 11.21 kJ mol−∆ = −
o 1fG (ZnO) 318.3 kJ mol−∆ = −
Hence, ocellE of the button cell is
1) 3.591 V 2) 2.591 V
3) – 1.591 V 4) 1.591 V
30. Reduction potential of chlorine electrode in
contact with 0.01M HCl is
(given 2
0
/1.36
Cl ClE V− = + )
1) 1.48V 2) 1.42V
3) 1.3V 4) 1.33V
31. Which of the following has least gold
number value
1) haemoglobin 2) starch
3) gum arabic 4) gelatin
32. According to IUPAC nomenclature highest
priority is given for the group
1) – COX 2) – CHO
3) – CONH2 4) – CN
33. For the compound
HOOC –CHOH–CHOH – COOH, the
number of optical isomers (dextro, laevo
and meso) is
1) 1 2) 3
3) 4 4) 2
34. Which nitrogen atom in LSD is most basic?
N
H - N C N (Et)2
O
CH3
3
2
1
1) 1 2) 3
3) 2 4) all are equally basic
35. Which of the following is correct
List I List (II)
(Type of Reaction) (Phenomenon)
(A) SN2 (P) Walden inversion
(B) SN1 (Q) Carbanion
intermediate
(C) E2 (R) Anti-periplanar
Configuration
(D) E1Cb (S) Carbocation
intermediate
1)A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
2)A-P,B-Q,C-R, D-S
3)A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
4)A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
36.
CH32 2
'
SOCl HStrong
Oxidation Lindlar s CatalystA B C→ → →
The end product ‘C’ is
1) Ketone 2) Carboxylic acid
3) Aldehyde 4) Ester
37. ( )2
4....→ −
Br
CClRCOOAg R Br I
2 .....( )∆
→ −I
RCOOAg R COOR II
Reaction I is Hundsdicker reaction.
Reaction II is called_______ reaction
1) Simonini 2) HVZ
3) Fischer
4) Schotten-Baumann
38. The product (X) of the following reaction
3
2 2
BH / THF
H O / OH
1 Pentene X.−
− →
1) 2-pentanol 2) pentane
3) pentan-2-one 4) 1-pentanol
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 5
39. Which of the following gives positive
iodoform test
1)OH
CH – CH3
2)
OH
3)
OH
4)
CH2CH2OH
40. Nucleophilicity is highest for which of the
following
1) F− 2) OH
−
3) 2NH− 4) 3CH
−
41. Which of the following is most reactive
towards nucleophilic addition reaction
1) formaldehyde 2) acetaldehyde
3) acetone 4) benzaldehyde
42. Which of the following is used in the
treatment of syphilis
1) pencillin 2) chloromphenical
3) arsphenamine 4) dysiderzine
43. Which of the following will not show
Geometrical isomerism (M stands for a
Metal. a and b are achiral ligends)
1) Ma2b
2 2) Ma
4b
2 3) Ma
5b 4) Ma3b3
44. Which of the following is not amphoteric
1) Mn2O7 2) Cr2O3
3) PbO 4) Sb4O6
45. The biological function of calcium ion is
A) Maintains cell membrane integrity
B) Responsible for regular heartbeat
C) Responsible for inter neuronal
functions
1) A and B 2) A and C
3) B and C 4) A, B and C
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 6
PHYSICS :
46. If the capacitance of a nano capacitor
is measured in terms of a unit u made
by combining the electronic charge e,
Bohr radius a0, Plank’s constant ‘h’
and speed of light ‘C’ then
1) 2
0
e Cu
ha= 2)
2
0
e hu
Ca=
3) 2
0e au
hC= 4)
20
hCu
e a=
47. In an experiment, four quantities a, b,
c and d are measured with percentage
error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively.
Quantity ‘P’ is calculated as follows
3 2a b
Pcd
. Then percentage Error in
‘P’ is
1) 14% 2) 10% 3) 7% 4) 4%
48. A particle moves along X-axis. The
velocity of the particle as function of
x is V2 = 12x – 3x3 (in SI), then the
velocity of particle at the instant when
acceleration is 1.5 m/s2 is
1) 4 m/s 2) 3 m/s
3) 1.5 m/s 4) Zero
49. If a body moving in a circular path
maintains constant speed of 10 m/s,
then which of the following correctly
describes relation between
acceleration and radius ?
1) r
a
2) r
a
3) r
a
4) r
a
50. The angle between A i j= +ɵ ɵ and
B i j= −ɵ ɵ is
1) 450 2) 900 3) – 450 4) 1800
51. Two stones are projected
simultaneously with same speed
10 m/s from same point. The range of
both are same and is equal to 5 3 m.
Then the difference in their times of
flight is …. (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 3S 2) 1 S
3) ( )3 1 S− 4) 2 S
52. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon
by a force ( )F 3i 4j N= − +
ɵ ɵ . If its
initial velocity at t = 0 is
( )u 6i 12j= −
ɵ ɵ m/s, the time at which it
will just have
velocity along the y-axis is
1) Never 2) 10 S 3) 2 S 4) 15 S
53. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough
inclined plane as shown in figure. The
block is tied up by horizontal string which
has a tension of 50 N. The coefficient of
friction between the surface of contact is :
(g = 10 m/s2)
450
M
T
1) 1/2 2) 2/3
3) 3/4 4) 1/4
54. The average work done by a human
heart while it beats once is 0.5 J. What
is the power used by heart if it beats
72 times in a minute
1) 0.2 W 2) 0.4 W 3) 0.6 W 4) 0.8 W
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 7
55. Two particles A and B of masses m
and 2 m are moving along the X-axis
and Y-axis respectively with the same
speed υ . They collide, at the origin
and coalesce into one body after the
collision. Then the loss of energy
during this collision is
1) 21m
2υ 2) 23
m2υ 3) 22
m5υ 4) 22
m3υ
56. Two semicircular rings of linear mass densities λ and 3λ and of radius R each are joined to form a complete ring. The distance of the centre of the mass of complete ring from its geometrical centre is
1) 2R
3π 2)
R
π 3)
2R
π 4)
R
3π
57. The diagram shows a uniform disc of mass M and radius ‘a’. If the moment of inertia of the disc about the axis XY is I, its moment of inertia about an axis through O and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is
X
Y
CO
a/2
a/2
1) 24Ma
3 2) 21
I Ma4
+
3) 2I 4) I
2
58. Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and
I2 and angular speeds 1ω and 2ω are
rotating along the collinear axes passing through their plane. If the two are made to rotate combined along the same axis the rotational K.E of system will be
1) ( )
1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
2 I I
ω + ω
+
2) ( )( )
21 2 1 2I I
2
+ ω +ω
3) ( )
( )
21 1 2 2
1 2
I I
2 I I
ω + ω
+
4) None of these 59. A particle executes SHM on a straight path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the displacement of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of acceleration is equal to the numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM is (in
second-1) :
1) 2 3π 2) 2
3
π 3)
3
2π 4)
1
2 3π
60. A small satellite is moving in elliptical
orbit
around earth as shown. If L denotes
the magnitude of its angular
momentum and K denotes kinetic
energy :
1) L2 > L1 and K2 > K1
2) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1
3) L2 = L1 and K2 = K1
4) L2 = L1 and K2 > K1
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 8
61. A block of mass m is having two similar
rubber ribbons attached to it as shown in the
figure. The force constant of each rubber
ribbon is K and surface is frictionless. The
block is displaced from mean position by x
cm and released. At the mean position the
ribbons are underformed. Period of
vibration of the block is
m
1) ( )
2
22
m k
kπ 2)
( )2
21
2
m k
kπ
3) 2m
kπ 4) 2
m
k kπ
+
62. The diagram shows a venturimeter,
through which water is flowing. The
speed of water at X is 2 cm/s. The
speed of water at Y (taking g = 1000
cm/s2) is (difference in the levels of
water in two vertical limbs is 5.1 mm)
1) 23 cm/s 2) 32 cm/s
3) 101 cm/s 4) 1024 cm/s
63. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The
surface tension of soap solution is T.
Keeping temperature constant, the
radius of the soap bubble is doubled,
the energy necessary for this will be
1) 224 r Tπ 2) 28 r Tπ
3) 212 r Tπ 4) 216 r Tπ
64. A gas is found to obey the law
P2V = constant. The initial
temperature and volume are T0 and V0.
If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its
final temperature becomes
1) 0T
3 2) 0T
3 3) 3T0 4) 03 T
65. An insulated container contains
4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at
temperature T. Heat Q is supplied to
this gas, due to which 2 moles of the
gas are dissociated into atoms but
temperature of the gas remains
constant. Then
1) Q = 2RT 2) Q = RT
3) Q = 3RT 4) Q = 4RT
66. Two rods of lengths L1 and L2 are
welded together to make a composite
rod of length (L1+L2). If the
coefficients of linear expansion of the
rods are 1α and 2α respectively, the
effective coefficient of linear
expansion of the composite rod will
be
1) 1 2α α 2) ( )1 22
3α +α
3) 1 1 2 2
1 2
L L
L L
α + α
+ 4) 1 2 1 2
1 2
L L
L L
+α α
+
67. The densities of wood and benzene at
00C are 880 kg/m3 and 900 kg/m3
respectively. The coefficients of
volume expansion are 12 x 10–4/0C for
wood and 15 x 10–4/0C for benzene.
The temperature at which a piece of
wood just sink in benzene is
1)
0250
C3
2)
025
C3
3) 1250C 4) 5000C
68. Two spherical black bodies of radii r1
and r2 and with surface temperature T1
and T2 respectively radiate the same
power. Then the ratio of r1 and r2 will
be
1)
2
2
1
T
T
2)
4
2
1
T
T
3)
2
1
2
T
T
4)
4
1
2
T
T
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 9
69. A substance of mass m kg requires a
power input of P watts to remain in
the molten state at its melting point.
When the power is turned off, the
sample completely solidifies in time
t sec. What is the latent heat of fusion
of the substance
1) Pm
t 2)
Pt
m 3)
m
Pt 4)
t
Pm
70. Focal length of a lense is f ( µµµµ of glass is
32
). Now it is immersed completely in
water 4( )3
µ =µ =µ =µ = . Then its focal length
changes to
1) 4f 2) 2f
3) 3f 4) f/2
71. If the focal length of objective lens is
increased, magnifying power of
1) Microscope and telescope both will
increase
2) Microscope and telescope both will
decrease
3) Microscope will increase but that of
telescope decrease
4) Microscope will decrease but that of
telescope will increase
72. A car is moving towards a cliff.
The car driver sounds a horn of
frequency f. The reflected sound
heard by the driver has a frequency 2f.
If ‘V’ be the velocity of sound, then
the velocity of the car, in the same
velocity units, will be
1) V
2 2)
V
3 3)
V
4 4)
V
2
73. A moving coil galvanometer has 150
equal divisions. Its current sensitivity
is 10 divisions per milli ampere and
voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per
milli volt. In order that each division
read 1 volt, the resistance in ohms
to be connected in series with
the coil will be
1) 9995 2) 995 3) 103 4) 105
74. A paramagnetic sample shows a net
magnetisation of 8 A/m when placed
in an external field of 0.6 T at a
temperature of 4K. When the same
sample is placed in an external
magnetic field of 0.2 T at a
temperature of 16 K, the
magnetisation will be
1) 32
3A/m 2)
2
3A/m
3) 6 A/m 4) 2.4 A/m
75. In a double slit experiment, the two
slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is
placed 1 m away. A monochromatic
light of wavelength 500 nm is used.
What should the width of each slit
to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit
pattern within the central maximum of
the single slit pattern ?
1) 0.1 mm 2) 0.2 mm
3) 0.3 mm 4) 0.4 mm
76. A resistance of 2Ω is connected
across one gap of a meter-bridge (the
length of the wire is 100 cm) and an
unknown resistance, greater than 2Ω
is connected across the other gap.
When these resistances are
interchanged, the balance point shifts
by 20 cm. Neglecting any corrections,
the unknown resistance is
1) 3Ω 2) 4Ω 3) 5Ω 4) 6Ω
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 10
77. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P,
having a volume V expands
isothermally to a volume 4V and then
adiabatically to volume 16 V. The final
pressure of the gas is (Take 3
2γ = )
1) 32 P 2) P
32 3)
P
64 4) 64 P
78. In the electric network shown, when
no current flows through the 4Ω
resistor in the arm EB, the potential
difference between the points A and
D will be
2Ω
4Ω
F E D
2V
R
4V
A B C9V 3V
2Ω
1) 3V 2) 4V 3) 5V 4) 6V
79. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to C1=C, C2=2C, C3=3C and C4=4C are connected to a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of
the charges on C2 and C4 is
V
C1
C2
C3
C4
1) 7
4 2)
22
3 3)
3
22 4)
4
7
80. An infinite, uniformly charged sheet with surface charge density σ cuts through a spherical Gaussian surface of radius R at a distance x from its centre, as shown in the figure. The electric flux φ through the Gaussian
surface is
Rx
σ
1) π σ
ε
2
0
R 2)
( )π − σ
ε
2 2
0
2 R x
3) ( )π − σ
ε
2
0
R x 4)
( )π − σ
ε
2 2
0
R x
81. Shown in the figure is a conductor carrying a current I. The magnetic field intensity at the point O (common centre of all the three arcs) is
r
O
r
r θ
I
1) µ θ
π05 I
24 r 2)
µ θ
π0 I
24 r
3) µ θ
π01 I
24 r 4) Zero
82. A conducting circular loop is placed in
a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T
with its plane perpendicular to the
loop. The radius of the loop is made to
shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm/s.
The induced emf when the radius is
2 cm will be equal to
1) 2 Vπµ 2) Vπµ 3) V2
πµ 4) 2 Vµ
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Page 11
83. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the
voltage across R is 100 volts and
R=1KΩ with C=2µ F. The resonant
frequency ω is 200 rad/s. At resonance
the voltage across ‘L’ will be
1) 34 10 V−× 2) 32.5 10 V−×
3) 40 V 4) 250 V
84. A fully charged capacitor C with
initial charge 0q is connected to a coil
of self inductance L at t = 0. The time
at which the energy is stored equally
between the electric and magnetic
fields is
1) LCπ 2) LC4
π
3) 2 LCπ 4) LC
85. When photons of wavelength 1λ are
incident on an isolated sphere, the
corresponding stopping potential is
found to be V. When photons of
wavelength 2λ are used, the
corresponding stopping potential was
thrice that of the above. If light of
wavelength 3λ is used, then the
stopping potential for this case is
1) 3 2 1
hc 1 1 1
e
+ − λ λ λ
2) 3 2 1
hc 1 1 1
e 2
+ − λ λ λ
3) 3 2 1
hc 1 1 1
e
− − λ λ λ
4) 3 2 1
hc 1 1 3
e 2 2
+ − λ λ λ
86. As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of hydrogen like atom / ion
1) Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same 2) Kinetic energy increases, potential energy decreases but total energy remains same 3) Its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decreases 4) Kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decreases 87. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively. Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei will be 1) 1 : 16 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 5 : 4 88. Three photodiodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV respectively. Which one will be able to detect light of wavelength 6000A0 ? 1) D1 2) D2
3) D3 4) All the above 89. Statement-A : If the earth did not have an atmosphere, its average surface temperature be lower than what it is now. Statement-B : A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz
and the electromagnetic wave produced will have frequency of
2x109 Hz 1) Both A & B are true 2) A is true, B is false 3) A is false, B is true 4) Both A & B are false 90. A basic communication system consists of A) Transmitter B) Information source C) User of information D) Channel E) Receiver Choose the correct sequence in which
these are arranged in a basic communication system.
1) A, B, C, D, E 2) B, A, D, E, C 3) B, D, A, C, E 4) B, E, A, D, C
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
BIOLOGY :
91. The taxonomical aid which is an index
of plant species in an area is
1) Grade 2) Manuals
3) Monographs 4) Flora
92. Match the following column-I and
column –II
1) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
2) 1- iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
4) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
93. ‘The Drosophila of plant kingdom’
belongs to
1) Phycomycetes 2) Zygomycetes
3) Ascomycetes 4) Basidiomycetes
94. Which of the following are not a group
of brown algae ?
1) Sargassum and Fucus
2) Ectocarpus. Dictyota
3) Dictyota, Laminaria
4) Sargassum and Ficus
95. Ulothrix, Riccia and ferns are similar
in having
1) Dominant gametophyte
2) Unicellular gametangia
3) Absence of vascular tissues
4) Presence of flagellated gametes
96. Match the followings and choose correct
option.
Group-A Group-B
A)Aleurone layer i) Without fertilization
B)Parthenocarpic ii) Nutrition fruit
C) Ovule iii) Double fertilization
D) Endosperm iv) Seed
Option :
1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D - iv
2) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
3) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii
4) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
97. Which of the following group of plants
have root to provide the support to the
upright shoot system like ropes of a
tent?
1) Maize, Sugarcane, Mango
2) Jowar, Maize, Sugarcane
3) Sugarcane, Jowar, Banyan tree
4) Screw pine, Maize, Sweet potato
Column-I Column –II
1)Endogenous
mitospore
i) Basidiospore
2) Exogenous
mitospore
ii) Conidia
3)Exogenous
meiospore
iii) Ascospore
4) Endogenous
meiospore
iv) Sporangiospre
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
98. Floral formula of Solanaceae is
O+
P2 A3 G21)
O+
2) K4 - 5 C4 -5 A10 G(2)
O+
3) K(5) C5 A5 G(2)
O+
4) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)
99. Examine the types of aestivation shown in
the following diagram and select the
correct answer.
1) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-
Valvate
2) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate, D-
Twisted
3) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-
Vexillary
4) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-
Vexillary
100. Select the incorrect match
1) Sieve elements Conduction of
photosynthates
2)Bast fibre Support
3)Ray parenchyma Water storage
4) Bast parenchyma Food storage
101. Annual rings comprises
1) Primary and secondary xylem
2) Secondary xylem and secondary
phloem
3) Only secondary xylem
4) Secondary xylem and primary phloem
102. Arrange the correct sequence of
secondary growth in dicot root
1) Activity of vascular cambium
2) Formation of cambium strip from
pericycle part
3) Origin of cambium strips for
conjuctive tissue
4) Origin of cork cambium from
pericycle
5) Fusion of both cambium strips
1) 1,4,5,2,3 2) 3,2,5,1,4
3) 3,2,1,5,4 4)2,3,4,1,5
103. Catalase is present in
1) Lysosome 2) Glyoxisome
3) Ribosome 4) Peroxisome
104. One of the following serves as a
temporary storage place for proteins
and other compounds synthesized by
endoplasmic reticulum
1) Lysosomes 2) Spherosomes
3) Microsomes 4) Dictyosomes
105. What will happen to an enzyme when
apoenzyme is separated from its metal
component ?
1) Activity will be increased
2) Activity will be lose
3) Activity will be decreased
4) No change in activity
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
106. Which of the following sequence is
correct on the basis of increasing
molecular weight ?
1) DNA, ATP, NADP, AMP
2) AMP, ATP, NADP, DNA
3) ATP, AMP, DNA, NADP
4) ATP, ADP, NADP, DNA
107. The graph shows
1) Effect of 2CO concentration on rate of
photosynthesis.
2) Effect of 2O concentration on rate of
photosynthesis.
3) Effect of 2H O concentration on rate of
photosynthesis.
4) Effect of light intensity on rate of
photosynthesis.
108. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched ?
1)Anaphase I-Homologous
chromosomes are separated
2) Metaphase I- Pairing of maternal and
paternal homologous chromosomes
take place
3) Interphase- A nuclear envelope
encloses each haploid set of
chromosomes
4) Prophase-Non- homologous
chromosomes are separated
109. A condition necessary for imbibition is
1) Larger positive water potential of
imbibant
2) Higher matric potential of imbibant
3) High proportion of colloids in
imbibant
4) Lower negative water potential of
imbibant
110. Mark the incorrect statement
1) Water moves from hypotonic solution
to hypertonic solution
2) Water moves from cell having higher
water potential to cell with lower
water potential
3) Water moves from cell with high
wψ to cell with low
wψ
4) Water moves from cell with lower
turgor pressure to cell with higher
turgor pressure
111. Zn is required for synthesis of
precursor of
1) Auxin 2) Gibberellin
3) Cytokinin 4) ABA
112. Match the following
1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
2) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
3) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
4) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
1) Copper i)Nitrate reductase
2)Molybdenum ii) OEC
3) Zinc iii) Plastocyanin
4) Manganese iv) Carbonic
anhydrase
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
113. Choose the correct combinations of
labeling the carbohydrate molecule
involved in the Calvin cycle.
1) (i) RuBP (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) PGA
2) (i) PGA (ii) RuBP (iii) Triose phosphate
3) (i) PGA (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) RuBP
4) (i) RuBP (ii) PGA (iii) Triose phosphage
114. Components of cytochrome –C
reductase complex of ETS in
mitochondria are
1) Cyt a , 3a 2)Cyt c, c1
3) 1, &Cyt b FeS Cyt c 4) FMN, FeS
115. Maximum RQ value is seen when
1) Malic acid is respiratory substrate
2) Tripalmitic acid is respiratory
substrate
3) Glucose is respiratory substrate
4) Gram seed is germinating
116. Choose the wrongly matched pair from the
following.
1) Auxins – “to grow”
2) Gibberelins – Gibberella fujikurai
3) Cytokinins – Herring sperm DNA
4) Abscissic acid – Flowering hormone
117. Antibiotics are mostly obtained from
1) Fungi
2) Actinomycetes
3) Cyanobacteria
4) Both 1 and 2
118. Abscissic acid acts as an inhibitor of
plant growth and metabolism. In other
words we can say that is
1) Stimulates seed germination
2)Stimulates closure of stomata
3) Decreases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stress
4) Inhibits dormancy in seeds
119. In haplontic life cycle, meiosis occurs
at the time of
1)Spore formation
2) Gamete formation
3) Zygote germination
4) Zygote formation
120. Select an incorrect statement
regarding endosperm formation
from central cell
1) PEN (primary endosperm nucleus)
divides by free nuclear division in
many plants
2) Endosperm is main nutritive tissue in
dicot seeds
3) It is a post fertilization event
4) Its is a formation is absent in some
angiosperms
121. A tetraploid Triticum plant released
pollen grains on Monday morning, but
pollen grains reached stigma of a
diploid plant on Tuesday morning.
What will be the number of
chromosomes in its endosperm ?
1) 28 2) 21 3) 42
4) None endosperm will be produced
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
122. Arrange the stages of embryogeny in a
dicotyledonous embryos in correct
order -
1) Zygote, proembryo, globular, heart-
shaped, mature embryo
2) Zygote, globular, proembryo, heart –
shaped, mature embryo
3) Zygote, heart- shaped, globular,
proembryo, mature embryo
4) Zygote, mature embryo, globular,
heart- shaped, proembryo
123. The Mendelian principle which has
always stood true is
1) The law of independent assortment
2) The law of segregation
3) The law of dominance
4) All the above
124. Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel
to the behaviour of genes during
inheritance. It was noted by
1) Sutton and Boveri
2) Morgan
3) Punnett
4) Cuenot
125. Which of the following is not included
in mendelian principles of inheritance ?
1) Dominance
2) Purity of gametes/segregation
3) Linkage
4) Independent assortment
126. RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes
helps in synthesis of
1) Ribosomal RNA 2) snRNA
3) t RNA 4) All of these
127. Four samples of double stranded DNA
are analysed and the following
information is obtained
1) Sample 1-15% thymine
2) Sample 2-20% guanine
3) Sample 3-30% adenine
4) Sample 4-40% cytosine
Which of these samples represent
DNA from the same source ?
1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3
3) 3 and 4 4) 1 and 4
128. Khorana and his colleagues
synthesized a RNA molecule with
repeating sequence of UG N-bases
(UGUGUGUGUGUG).It produced a
tetrapeptide with alternating sequence
of cysteine and valine. It proves that
codon for cysteine and valine is
1) UGG and GUU
2) UUG and GGU
3) UGU and GUG
4) GUG and UGU
129. Differentiation of callus into plant
parts is
1) Embryogenesis
2) Embryoid formation
3) Morphogenesis 4) Totipotency
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
130. Citric acid is derived form
1) Aspergillus niger
2) Rhizobium nigricans
3) Penicillium citrinum
4) Lactobacillus vulgaricus
131. Match the following column-I and
column –II
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
132. Identify the statement which is not
true for Bt- toxin ?
1) It is the product of cry – gene of
Bacillus thuringienis
2) It is secreted I crystalline state called
protoxin
3) It creates pores in the midgut of insect
larvae
4) The toxin causes cell wall damage to
Bacillus thuringiensis
133. The protein encoded by the gene cry II
Ab controls
1) Corn borer
2) Cotton boll worms
3) Root knot disease of tobacco
4) Loose smut of wheat
134. Robert Costanza and his colleagues
have tried to put price tags on nature’s
life support services. The average price
tags of ecosystem services estimated is
1) 18 trillion dollar
2) Half of GNP
3) Nearly two times of GNP
4) Equal to the GNP
135. Which one of the following
representation shows the pyramid of
number in a forest ecosystem ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
136. Study the stages in cross bridge cycle and
identify B, C and E respectively.
1) ATP, P, ADP 2) ADP, ATP, P
3) ADP, P, ATP 4) ATP, ADP, P
137. A drug after administration causes
depression and slows down body functions.
The receptors for this drug are present in the
1) CNS and GI - tract
2) Liver
3) Cardiovascular system
4) Spinal cord
Column-I Column –II
a)Himgiri i)White rust
b)Pusa swarnim ii)Leaf and
stripe rust
c) Prabhani
kranti
iii) Bacterial
blight
d) Pusa komal iv) Yellow
mosaic virus
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
138. Which one of the following options gives
the correct matching of a disease with its
causative organisms and mode of infection ?
Disease Causative
Organism
Mode of
infection
1) Typhoid Salmonella
typhi
With
inspired air
2) Pneumonia Streptococcus
pneumoniae
Droplet
inhaling
3) Elephantiasis Wuchereria
bancrofti
Contaminat
ed water
and food
4) Malaria Plasmodium
vivax
Bite of
female
Culex
mosquito
139. Which is the best breeding method for
animals that are below average in
productivity ?
1) Out Crossing
2) Cross breeding
3) Out breeding
4) Interspecific hybridization
140. If the stressful external conditions are
localized or remain only for a short
duration, the organisms have some
alternatives like
1) Migrate 2) Conform
3) Regulate 4) 2 and 3
141. In feeding efficiency of one species might
be reduced due to the interfering and
inhibitory presence of the other species,
even if resources are abundant then it is
called
1) Competitive release
2) Resource partitioning
3) Interference competition
4) Competitive exclusion
142. Which scientist found that plots with more
species showed less year - to - year variation
in total biomass ?
1) David Tilman 2) Paul Ehrlich
3) Robert May 4) Edward Wilson
143. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching with respect to green house gases.
1) b - CFCs, a – N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4
2) a – CO2, b – CH4, c - CFCs, d – N2O
3) b - CFCs, a – N2O, c - CO2, d - CH4
4) a - CFCs, b – N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
144. Match the Columns I and II, and choose the
correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II
a) Pinctada 1) Chiton
b) Loligo 2) Sea-hare
c) Polyplacophora 3) Pearl oyster
d) Dentalium 4) Squid
e) Aplysia 5) Tusk-shell
1) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 5, e – 2
2) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 5, e – 1
3) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2, e – 5
4) a – 5, b – 1, c – 3, d – 4, e – 2
145. Match the Columns-I and II, and choose the
correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II
a) Macaca 1) Scaleless vertebrate
b) Columba 2) Cloacal chamber
c) Vipera 3) Pneumatic bones
d) Bufo 4) Pinnae are present
1) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1
2) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
3) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2
4) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
146. In males, spermatogenesis is regulated by
1) Testosterone and FSH
2) LH and Oxytocin
3) Androgens and prolactin
4) FSH and LTH
147. PTH stimulates
1) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules
2) Mineralization of bones
3) Secretion of Ca2+ by the renal tubules
4) Hypocalcemia in blood
148. Hormone which regulate gene expression or chromosome function by interact with intracellular receptor and then with genome is
1) Oxytocin 2) Aldosterone
3) Adrenaline 4) Glucagon
149. Otolith organs are related to sense of
1) Touch 2) Hearing
3) Smell 4) Balance
150. Study the given pathway of conduction of
visual impulses.
A→Generation of Action Potential→
B→C→Brain.
In the above A, B and C are respectively
1) Breakdown of rhodopsin, ganglion cells,
bipolar cells
2) Formation of rhodopsin, bipolar cells,
ganglion cells
3) Formation of rhodopsin, ganglion cells,
bipolar cells
4) Breakdown of rhodopsin, bipolar cells,
ganglion cells
151. When trochlear nerve is damaged.
1) Shape of lens in eye can not be altered
2) Amount of light that enters into eye can not
be altered
3) Normal movements of eye ball are not
possible
4) Sharp central vision is completely failed
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
152. Increased osmotic pressure in the body
1) Stimulates secretion of glucagon
2) Inhibits secretion of vasopressin
3) Never influence the secretion of aldosterone
4) Stimulates secretion of vasopressin
153. Match the given columns with respect to
human brain.
Column-I Column-II
A) Medulla I) Body temperature
B) Limbic system II) Communication
C) Association
areas III) Gastric secretions
D) Epiphysis IV) Motivation
A B C D
1) IV II I III
2) II IV I III
3) III IV II I
4) IV III I II
154. Statement-I : In an axon, ionic gradients
across the resting membrane are maintained
by the active transport of ions by the Na+ –
K+ pump.
Statement-II : The axolemma is
comparatively more permeable to K+ and
nearly impermeable to Na+ when neuron is
not conducting any impulse.
1) Both I and II statements are correct
2) Both I and II statements are wrong
3) Statement-I correct but II is wrong
4) Statement-I wrong but II is correct
155. In human, renal organs are situated between
the levels of
1) Last lumbar and fifth sacral vertebra
2) Last cervical and third thoracic vertebra
3) Fifth lumbar and first sacral vertebra
4) Last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra
156. Cancer is caused due to activation of ….. to
….. or inactivation of …..
1) Tumour suppressor gene, oncogene
protooncogene
2) Oncogene, tumour suppressor
protooncogene
3) Protooncogene, oncogene, tumour
suppressor gene
4) Oncogene, protooncogene, tumour
suppressor gene
157. The ovaries are located one on each side of
the abdomen and is connected to the pelvic
wall and uterus by
1) Dense irregular connective tissue
2) Tendons
3) Loose connective tissue
4) Ligaments
158. The first meiotic division during oogenesis
is completed at the stage of
1) Primary oocyte within primary follicle
2) Primary oocyte within graafian follicle
3) Primary oocyte within tertiary follicle
4) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicle
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
159. In spermatogenesis, the phase of maturation
involves
1) Growth of spermatogonia into primary
spermatocytes
2) Formation of spermatogonia from
spermatophytes through mitosis
3) Formation of spermatozoa from primary
spermatocytes through mitosis
4) Formation of spermatids from
spermatocytes through meiosis
160. Which of the following statements is not
correct ?
1) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of
stomach and secrete HCl
2) Acini are present in the pancreas and
secrete carboxypeptidase
3) Brunner’s glands are present in the
submucosa of stomach and secrete mucus of
saccus entericus
4) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of
intestine and secrete mucus
161. Foetal membrane that provides the first
blood corpuscles for circulation in embryo
is
1) Yolk sac 2) Trophoblast
3) Amnion 4) Chorion
162. Implants under the skin and injections are
also used as contraceptive device. These
devices contain
1) Progestogens alone
2) Estrogen alone
3) Progestogen-estrogen combination
4) Either 1 or 3
163. Female who cannot produce ovum, but can
provide suitable environment for
fertilisation and further development, could
be assisted by
1) GIFT 2) ZIFT 3) ICSI 4) IUI
164. During prolonged fasting, the sequence of
organic compounds used by the body is
1) Proteins, lipids, carbohydrates
2) Fats, carbohydrates, proteins
3) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids
4) Carbohydrates, fats, proteins
165. Volume of air that remains in the lungs after
a normal expiration is called
1) ERV 2) TLC 3) FRC 4) VC
166. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the
atmospheric air compared to those in the
alveolar air ?
1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher
2) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser
3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher
4) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
167. Philadelphia chromosome occurs in patients
suffering from
1) Albinism 2) Phenylketonuria
3) Hepatitis 4) Leukemia
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
168. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
1) Sickle cell
anaemia a) 7th chromosome
2) Phenylketonuria b) 16th chromosome
3) Cystic fibrosis c) 11th chromosome
4) Alpha thalassemia d) X-chromosome
5) Protanopia e) 12th chromosome
1) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – e
2) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d
3) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a
4) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d
169. Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation of
1) CTC to CAC 2) CTG to CAG
3) CAG to CTC 4) CGC to CAC
170. Sequencing the whole set of genome that
contained all the coding and non-coding
sequence and later assigning different
regions in the sequence with functions are
referred to as
1) ESTs 2) Sequence Annotation
3) BAC 4) SNP’s
171. Statement-I : The size of VNTR varies from
0.1 to 20 kb in human.
Statement-II : The number of tandem
repeats show very high degree of
polymorphism.
1) Both I and II statements are correct
2) Both I and II statements are wrong
3) Statement-I correct but II is wrong
4) Statement-I wrong but II is correct
172. DNA polymorphism that has been used to
develop the DNA fingerprinting technology
is based upon
1) Single nucleotide polymorphism
2) VNTRs
3) Number of protein coding genes
4) Unique nucleotide bases present in genome
173. Resemblance between widely different
groups due to a common adaptation is
1) Convergent evolution
2) Divergent evolution
3) Parallel evolution
4) Retrogressive evolution
174. Read the following statements and find out
the incorrect statement in context of ECG.
1) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s
function, multiple leads are attached to the
chest region.
2) The end of the P-wave marks the end of
atrial diastole.
3) QRS complex marks ventricular systole.
4) By counting the number of QRS complexes
that occur in a given time period, one can
determine the heart beat rate of an individual
175. Which of the following pair is incorrectly
matched with respect to convergent
evolution ?
1) Lemur – Spotted cuscus
2) Flying squirrel – Flying phalanger
3) Anteater – Numbat
4) Bobcat – Tasmanian wolf
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
176. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360
individuals with genotype AA, 480 with Aa
and remaining 160 with aa. Based on this
data, the frequency of allele A in the
population is
1) 0.6 2) 0.5 3) 0.7 4) 0.4
177. According to Darwinism some bacteria can
grow in streptomycin containing medium
due to
1) Founder effect
2) Natural selection
3) Induced mutation
4) Dormency
178. The fossils discovered in Java in 1891
revealed a stage in human evolution which
was called
1) Homo erectus 2) Dryopithecus
3) Australopithecus 4) Homo habilis
179. BCG vaccine provides protection against
1) Measles 2) Tuberculosis
3) Cholera 4) Small pox
180. Which pair of disease is viral ?
1) Hepatitis, Syphilis
2) Typhoid, Tetanus
3) Rabies, Mumps
4) Cholera, Tetanus
1) d 2)a 3) b 4) c
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
KEY SHEET
CHEMISTYCHEMISTYCHEMISTYCHEMISTY
1) 3 2) 3 3) 3 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 3
11) 2 12) 3 13) 2 14) 4 15) 3 16) 2 17) 4 18) 2 19) 2 20) 4
21) 1 22) 3 23) 4 24) 3 25) 3 26) 4 27) 3 28) 1 29) 4 30) 1
31) 4 32) 1 33) 2 34) 3 35) 1 36) 3 37) 1 38) 4 39) 1 40) 4
41) 1 42) 3 43) 3 44) 1 45) 4
PHYSICSPHYSICSPHYSICSPHYSICS
46) 3 47) 1 48) 2 49) 3 50) 2 51) 3 52) 2 53) 1 54) 3 55) 4
56) 2 57) 3 58) 3 59) 3 60) 4 61) 3 62) 2 63) 1 64) 4 65) 2
66) 3 67) 1 68) 1 69) 2 70) 1 71) 4 72) 2 73) 1 74) 2 75) 2
76) 1 77) 2 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4 81) 1 82) 2 83) 4 84) 2 85) 4
86) 3 87) 4 88) 2 89) 2 90) 2
BIOLOGYBIOLOGYBIOLOGYBIOLOGY
91) 4 92) 2 93) 3 94) 4 95) 4 96) 2 97) 2 98) 4 99) 4 100) 3
101) 3 102) 2 103) 4 104) 4 105) 2 106) 2 107) 2 108) 1 109) 3 110) 4
111) 1 112) 1 113) 4 114) 3 115) 1 116) 4 117) 4 118) 2 119) 3 120) 2
121) 4 122) 1 123) 2 124) 1 125) 3 126) 4 127) 2 128) 3 129) 3 130) 1
131) 2 132) 4 133) 2 134) 3 135) 3
136) 3 137) 1 138) 2 139) 1 140) 1 141) 3 142) 1 143) 2 144) 1 145) 1
146) 1 147) 1 148) 2 149) 4 150) 4 151) 3 152) 4 153) 3 154) 1 155) 4
156) 3 157) 4 158) 3 159) 4 160) 3 161) 1 162) 4 163) 1 164) 4 165) 3
166) 4 167) 4 168) 2 169) 1 170) 2 171) 1 172) 2 173) 1 174) 2 175) 4
176) 1 177) 2 178) 1 179) 2 180) 3
This model test paper was prepared and verified by Senior faculty
Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy
Telangana & Andhra Pradesh.
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
NEET MODEL GRAND TEST NEET MODEL GRAND TEST NEET MODEL GRAND TEST NEET MODEL GRAND TEST ---- 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS
46. Regarding dimensions
energy = ( )
2charg e
capacity
Also energy = 1
hT
, 0
1C a
T
=
2
0
C eha capacity=
capacity = 2
0e a
hC
47. P a b c d100 3 100 2 100 100 100
P a b c d
∆ ∆ ∆ ∆ ∆× = × + × + × + ×
48. 2 3V 12x 3x= − 29
a 6 x2
= −
2dV2V 12 9x
dx= − 23 9
6 x2 2= −
2dV 9V 6 x
dx 2= − 29
x 4.52
=
2x 1 x 1= ⇒ =
( ) ( )32
V 12 1 3 1= −
2V 9=
V = 3 m/s
49. 2V
a ,r
= υ is constant
Hence 1
a arr
∝ ⇒ = constant
50. ( ) ( )A.B i j . i j 1 1 0= + − = − =
ɵ ɵ ɵ ɵ
so A
perpendicular to B
so angle between them is 900
51. If 1θ = θ then 2 90θ = −θ
2u sin 2
R , 5g
θ=
210
3=10× sin 2
10
θ
0 03sin 2 2 60 , 30
2θ = ⇒ θ= θ =
11
2u sin 2 10 sin 30T 1
g 10
θ × ×= = =
22
2u sin 2 10T
g
θ ×= =
sin 60
10
×3=
Difference in time = ( )3 1 s−
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
52. 3 4
a F / m i j5 5
= =− +
ɵ ɵ
u 6i 12j= −ɵ ɵ
as finial velocity in along y-axis, its x-component must be zero
Vx = 0
ux + axt = 0⇒3
6 t 05
− =
⇒ t = 10 sec
53.
150 50 150 50
2 2 2 2
− = Μ +
( ) ( )150 50
1 12 2
− µ = + µ
3 3 1− µ = + µ
2 1
4 2µ = =
54. Work done by the heart in 1 min = 0.5 x 72
= 36 J
Power of the heart
P = 36
0.6 W60=
55. By Law of conservation of linear momentum
3 m fV m=
Vi 2 m+ɵ V jɵ
f
V 2VV i j
3 3= +
ɵ ɵ
2 2
f
V 4V 5V V
9 9 3= + =
Loss of kinetic energy during the collision
( )2
2 21 1 1 5Vm 2m 3m
2 2 2 3
= υ + υ −
= 22m
3υ
56. Let the mass of ring having density λ be M. Centre of mass
1 1 2 2
1 2
2R 2RM 3MM x M x R
M M 4M
− ++ π π= =+ π
57.
22 2Ma a MaI M
4 2 2
= + =
Now
22 22
0Ma a a
I M2 2 2
= + +
= 2 2
2Ma MaMa 2I
2 2+ = =
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
58. ( ) ( ) /1 1 2 2 1 2I I I Iω + ω = + ω
( )
/ 1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
I I
ω + ωω =
+
( ) /2f 1 2
1K I I
2= + ω
=( )
( )
21 1 2 2
1 2
I I
2 I I
ω + ω
+
59. ( )22 3
V a a/2 a2
=ω − = ω
2
n aacc f
2
ω=
∴V = f
2a 3
a2 2
ω= ω
2 n 3π =
3
n2
=π
60. Conceptual
61. 1
E2
= y (strain)2
strain = 2E
y
62. ( )22 2 1
2 1V V 2gh 2 2 1000 5.1 10 1024−= + = + × × × =
V2 = 32 cm/s
63. ( )W T A= ∆
= ( )2 2T2 4 2r 4 r π − π
= ( )22T 4 r 3π
= 224 r Tπ
64. P2V = constant and PV = nT
2T V⇒ ∝2
02
00
3VT
VT⇒ = 0T 3 T⇒ =
65. f uQ U U U=∆ − − = [internal energy of 4 moles of a monoatomic gas + internal energy of
2 moles of a diatomic gas] – [internal energy of 4 moles of a diatomic gas]
=3 5 5
4 RT 2 RT 4 RT RT2 2 2
× + × − × =
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Note : (a) 2 moles of diatomic gas becomes 4 moles of a monoatomic gas when gas dissociated
into atoms.
(b) Internal energy of µ moles of an ideal gas of degrees of freedom F is given by
fU RT
2= µ , F = 3 for a monoatomic gas and 5 for diatomic gas
66. At 00C, total length of the rod is L0=L1+L2 when the composite rod is heated to t0C, its
length at t0C will be
( ) ( )1 1 2 2L L 1 t L 1 t= +α + +α =( )1 2 1 1 2 2L L L t L t+ + α + α or,
( )0 1 1 2 2L L L L t= + α + α
∴Effective coefficient of expansion of the composite rod is,
1 0 1 1 2 2
0 1 2
L L L L
L t L L
− α + αα = =
+
67. ( )
( )
( )
( )0 0w B
w B
d d
1 t 1 t=
+γ +γ
68. 4 2 4 2 4P A T 4 r T P r T= σ = π σ ⇒ ∝ or
2
4
1r
T∝ [As P=constant]
2
1 2
2 1
r T
r T
∴ =
69. Heat lost in t sec = mL or heat lost per sec = mL
t.
This must be the heat supplied for keeping the substance in molten state per sec.
mL
Pt
∴ = or Pt
Lm
=
70. 1 2
1 3 1 11
f 2 R R
= − −
1 2
1 3/ 2 1 11
f ' 4 / 3 R R
= − −
f ' 1/ 2
4 f ' 4ff 1/8
= =
71. For microscope 0 e 0
L n 1m M
t t t= ⇒ ∝
For telescope 00
e
tm M t
t= ⇒ ∝
72. | V at f
V a
+ = − 2V – 2a = V + a
V a
2t fV a
+ = − V = 3a
a = V/3
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
73. g150
V 75mV2
= = 10
15015
= ( )5 R1000
+
g150
i 15mA10
= = 1000 = 5 + R
g
g
V 75G 5
i 15= = = Ω R 9995= Ω
V = if (G + R)
74. as mM H=ψ and mC
Tψ =
CH
MT
= (or) 1 1 2
2 2 1
M H T
M H T=
( )2 12 1
1 2
H T 0.2 4 2M M 8 A /m
H T 0.6 16 3
= = =
75. 10 D 2 D 1mmd
a 0.2mmd a 5 5
λ λ= ⇒ = = =
In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m
away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used.
76. 2 x 20
,x 100 2 80
+= =
− −
ℓ ℓ
ℓ ℓ
on solving we get x 3= Ω
77. Isothermal process
P1V1 = P2V2
( )2P V P 4V× =
P2 = P/4
For adiabatic process
( ) ( )fP4V P 16V
4
γ γ=
3/2
fP 1 P 1 P
P4 4 4 8 32
= = × =
78.
2Ω
4Ω
F E D
2V
R
4V
A B C9V 3V
2Ω
i i
i
i
Given no current pass through 4V
Apply KVL to EBCDE
– 4 + 3 + iR = 0⇒ iR = 1V
Now VA–9+3+iR=VD
VA–9+3+1=VD
VA–VD=9–3–1=9–4=5V
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
79.
V
C
C2=2C
3C
4C=C4
Q4 = 4CV
22
4
6 6CV Q 6CV 1 3Q C V
11 11 Q 11 4CV 22
= = ⇒ = × =
80. Charge enclosed ( )2 2enq R x=σπ −
R
xr
Here 2 2r R x= −
( )2 2
sphere0
R xσπ −φ =
∈
81. 0I 1 1 1B
4 r 2r 3r
µ θ = − + π
05 I
24 r
µ θ
π
82. 2BA B rφ= = π
d dr
e B 2rdt dt
φ=− =− π
= 20.025 2 2 10
−− ×π× × ×
( )31 10−− ×
= Vπµ
83. at resonance rmsrms 3
V 100 1i A
R 1010= = =
L C rms 6
1 1 1V V i
WC 10 200 2 10−
= = = × ×
=1000 1000×
4 1000×250V=
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
84. Charge on the capacitor at any instant ‘t’ is q = q0 coswt …. (1)
equal sharing of energy means
energy of a capacitor = 1
2total energy
22
0 0q q1 q 1 1q
2 C 2 2 C 2= ⇒ =
from (1) 00
qq cos wt wt
42
π= ⇒ =
t t LC4W 4
π π⇒ = ⇒ =
85. 1 0
hC hCeV= −
λ λ ……. (1)
2 0
hC hC3eV= −
λ λ……. (2)
|
3 0
hC hCeV = −
λ λ……. (3)
from (1), (2) ⇒0 1 2
hC 3hC hC
2 2= −
λ λ λ Put it is (3) we get V| =
3 1 2
hC 1 3 1
e 2 2
− + λ λ λ
86. Conceptual
87. t = 80 min, for ‘A’ 4 half lives and for ‘B’ 2 half lives
Ans.
00 04
000 2
N 15N N
5162N 3 4
NN42
−= =
−
88. Energy of a photon of wavelength 6000A0 is 12400
E 2.07eV600
= ≈
For the photodiode to detect incident light E > Eg (Band gap). This condition is satisfied by
photodiode D2 where
Eg = 2eV
89. Conceptual
90. Conceptual
This model test paper solutions were prepared and verified by Senior faculty
Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy
Telangana & Andhra Pradesh.
www.eena
dupra
tibha
.net
Recommended