Page 1

NEET

Model Grand Test 2017

Instructions :

1. This paper contains 180 objective questions; 90 from Biology, 45 from Physics and

45 from Chemistry

2. Each question caries 4 marks. Candidate will get 4 marks for a correct response. For

each incorrect response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score

3. Maximum time is 3 hours and maximum marks is 720

4. To darken the appropriate circle of the correct option against each question use blue

or black ball point pen only. Answer marked with pencil would not be evaluated.

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CHEMISTRY

1. Common salt obtained from sea-water

contains 96% NaCl by mass. The

approximate number of NaCl units present in

10.0 g of the salt is

1)1021

2) 1022

3)1023

4) 1024

2. Ionisation potential of He+ ion is

1) 13.6 eV atom-1

2) 27.2 eV atom-1

3) 54.4 eV atom-1

4) 109.6 eV atom-1

3. For which of the following van’t Hoff

factor cannot be greater than unity?

1) K4[Fe(CN)6] 2) AlCl3

3) NH2CONH2 4) KNO3

4. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium

metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature,

which one of the following does not occur?

1) Na+ ions are formed in the solution

2) liquid NH3 solution remains diamagnetic

3) liquid NH3 solution becomes a good

conductor of electricity

4) blue coloured solution is obtained

5. NaCl is doped with 2 × 10–3

mol % SrCl2,

the concentration of cation vacancies is

1) 12.04 × 1018 mol–1

2) 10.01 × 108 mol–1

3) 12.04 × 1020 mol–1

4) 4.02 × 1018 mol–1

6. “A” is left over solution after the

electrolysis of brine solution. “A” reacts

with SO2 to give “B” which forms “C”

with excess of SO2. The substance “C”

is

1) Na2S 2) NaHSO3

3) Na2SO3 4) Na2SO4

7. The wavelength of the third line of

the Balmer series for a hydrogen atom is

1)21

100R∞

2) 100

21R∞

3) 21

100

R∞ 4) 100

21

R∞

8. 10 mL of propane was mixed with 70 mL

of oxygen and exploded. What would be

the volume of residual gases after

explosion at room temperature and after

exposure of the residual gases to alkali?

Assume that volume measurement are

made at the same temperature and pressure

1) 55 mL, 25 mL 2) 40 mL, 15 mL

3) 50 mL, 20 mL 4) 35 mL, 40 Ml

9. How many unpaired electrons are

present in a triplet carbene

1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4) 3

10. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom

corresponds to increasing values of energy,

i.e., EA < EB < EC. If X1, X2 and X3 are

the

wavelengths of radiations for responding to

the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A

respectively, which of the following

statement is correct?

C

BX1

X2 X3A

1) X1 + X2 + X3 = 0 2) X3 = X1 + X2

3) 2 2 23 1 2X X X= + 4) 1 2

3

1 2

X XX

X X=

+

11. An atom of element A has 3 elctrons in its

outermost shell while one of element X has

6

electrons in its outermost shell. The

formula

of the compound formed by A and X is

1) A2X4 2) A2X3

3) A3X2 4) A2X

12. Eight grams of oxygen effuses through a

small hole in 10 minutes. In the same time

the weight of hydrogen effusing out will be

1) 32 g 2) 8 g 3) 2 g 4) 1 g

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13. Exhausted permutit can be regenerated

using

1) dilute HCl 2) brine solution

3) dilute KOH 4) pure water

14. For the reaction

CO(g) + ½ O2(g) → CO2(g), H and S

are -283kJ and -87 J/K respectively. It was

intended to carry out this reaction at 1000,

1500, 3000 and 3500K. At which of the

temperature given below the reaction is

thermodynamically not feasible?

1)1000K 2) 1500K 3) 3000K 4) 3500K

15. Calculate the half-life of the first order

reaction, ( ) ( ) ( )2 4 4C H O g CH g CO g→ +

if the initial pressure of C2H

4O(g) is 80mm

and the total pressure at the end of 20

minutes is 120 mm.

1) 40 min 2) 120 min

3) 20 min 4) 80 min

16. Biuret test is not answered by

1) Proteins 2) Carbohydrates

3) Polypeptides 4) Urea

17. 0.16 g of methane is subjected to

combustion at 27°C in a bomb calorimeter

system. The temperature of the

calorimeter system

(including water) was found to rise by

0.5°C.

Calculate the heat of combustion of

methane

at constant volume. The thermal capacity

of

the calorimeter system is 17.7 kJK–1

(R =8.314 J K–1 mol–1)

1) – 695 kJ mol–1 2) – 1703 kJ mol–1

3) – 890 kJ mol–1 4) – 885 kJ mol–1

18. In natural rubber, all isoprene units

have

1) trans-1,4 configuration

2) cis-1,4 configuration

3) Both cis and trans configuration

4) Neither cis not trans configuration

19. Blue baby syndrome is due to the

excess of ___ ions in water

1) sulphate 2) nitrate

3) phosphate 4) chloride

20. The hybridization states of the central

atoms

in the complexes 36Fe(CN) − , 4

6Fe(CN) − and

32 6Co(NO ) − are

1) d2sp3, sp3 and d4s2 respectively

2) d2sp3, sp3d and sp3d2 respectively

3) d2sp3, sp3d2 and dsp2 respectively

4) all d2sp3

21. The IUPAC name for the complex

[Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] is

1) hexaammine cobalt (III)

hexacyanochromate (III)

2) hexacyanochromium cobalt (III)

hexaammine(VI)

3) hexaammine cobalt (III)

hexacyanochromium (VI)

4) hexacyanochromium (III)

hexaammine cobalt(III)

22. The following conversion requires

C H3CH= CHCHO →

CH3CH = CHCH2OH

1) H2 – Ni 2) B2H6

3) NaB H4 4) HI+redP

23. HNO3 oxidises sulphur to “X”. H2SO4

oxidises sulphur to “Y”. X and Y are

respectively.

1) H2SO4 and H2SO4 2) SO2 and SO2

3) SO2 and H2SO4 4) H2SO4 and SO2

24. Which of the following is not formed in the

hydrolysis of XeF6

1) XeOF4 2) XeO3

3) XeOF2 4) XeO2F2

25. How many moles of HCl gas should be

dissolved in one litre of 0.1M NH4OH

solution so that it results into a buffer

solution having pH = 9.26? (pKb =4.74)

1) 0.2moles 2) 0.1 moles

3) 0.05moles 4) 0.025moles

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26. Siderite and Sphalerite are respectively the

ores of the metals

1) Al and Zn 2) Fe and Cu

3) Cu and Zn 4) Fe and Zn

27. ZnO is white when cold but yellow when

hot because it develops

1) Frenkel defect

2) Schottky defect

3)Metal excess defect

4) Metal deficiency defect

28. If

3 3 2Ag 2NH Ag(NH ) ;+ ++

71K 1.8 10= ×

Ag Cl+ −+

92AgCl; K 5.6 10= ×

Then for

3 3 2AgCl 2NH [Ag(NH ) ] Cl+ −+ + ,

Equilibrium constant will be

1)0.32 × 10–2 2) 3.11 × 102

3)10.08 × 1016 4) 1.00 × 10–17

29. For a Ag – Zn button cell, net reaction is

2Zn(s) Ag O(s) ZnO(s) 2Ag(s)+ → +

o 1f 2G (Ag O) 11.21 kJ mol−∆ = −

o 1fG (ZnO) 318.3 kJ mol−∆ = −

Hence, ocellE of the button cell is

1) 3.591 V 2) 2.591 V

3) – 1.591 V 4) 1.591 V

30. Reduction potential of chlorine electrode in

contact with 0.01M HCl is

(given 2

0

/1.36

Cl ClE V− = + )

1) 1.48V 2) 1.42V

3) 1.3V 4) 1.33V

31. Which of the following has least gold

number value

1) haemoglobin 2) starch

3) gum arabic 4) gelatin

32. According to IUPAC nomenclature highest

priority is given for the group

1) – COX 2) – CHO

3) – CONH2 4) – CN

33. For the compound

HOOC –CHOH–CHOH – COOH, the

number of optical isomers (dextro, laevo

and meso) is

1) 1 2) 3

3) 4 4) 2

34. Which nitrogen atom in LSD is most basic?

N

H - N C N (Et)2

O

CH3

3

2

1

1) 1 2) 3

3) 2 4) all are equally basic

35. Which of the following is correct

List I List (II)

(Type of Reaction) (Phenomenon)

(A) SN2 (P) Walden inversion

(B) SN1 (Q) Carbanion

intermediate

(C) E2 (R) Anti-periplanar

Configuration

(D) E1Cb (S) Carbocation

intermediate

1)A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q

2)A-P,B-Q,C-R, D-S

3)A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S

4)A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

36.

CH32 2

'

SOCl HStrong

Oxidation Lindlar s CatalystA B C→ → →

The end product ‘C’ is

1) Ketone 2) Carboxylic acid

3) Aldehyde 4) Ester

37. ( )2

4....→ −

Br

CClRCOOAg R Br I

2 .....( )∆

→ −I

RCOOAg R COOR II

Reaction I is Hundsdicker reaction.

Reaction II is called_______ reaction

1) Simonini 2) HVZ

3) Fischer

4) Schotten-Baumann

38. The product (X) of the following reaction

3

2 2

BH / THF

H O / OH

1 Pentene X.−

− →

1) 2-pentanol 2) pentane

3) pentan-2-one 4) 1-pentanol

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39. Which of the following gives positive

iodoform test

1)OH

CH – CH3

2)

OH

3)

OH

4)

CH2CH2OH

40. Nucleophilicity is highest for which of the

following

1) F− 2) OH

−

3) 2NH− 4) 3CH

−

41. Which of the following is most reactive

towards nucleophilic addition reaction

1) formaldehyde 2) acetaldehyde

3) acetone 4) benzaldehyde

42. Which of the following is used in the

treatment of syphilis

1) pencillin 2) chloromphenical

3) arsphenamine 4) dysiderzine

43. Which of the following will not show

Geometrical isomerism (M stands for a

Metal. a and b are achiral ligends)

1) Ma2b

2 2) Ma

4b

2 3) Ma

5b 4) Ma3b3

44. Which of the following is not amphoteric

1) Mn2O7 2) Cr2O3

3) PbO 4) Sb4O6

45. The biological function of calcium ion is

A) Maintains cell membrane integrity

B) Responsible for regular heartbeat

C) Responsible for inter neuronal

functions

1) A and B 2) A and C

3) B and C 4) A, B and C

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PHYSICS :

46. If the capacitance of a nano capacitor

is measured in terms of a unit u made

by combining the electronic charge e,

Bohr radius a0, Plank’s constant ‘h’

and speed of light ‘C’ then

1) 2

0

e Cu

ha= 2)

2

0

e hu

Ca=

3) 2

0e au

hC= 4)

20

hCu

e a=

47. In an experiment, four quantities a, b,

c and d are measured with percentage

error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively.

Quantity ‘P’ is calculated as follows

3 2a b

Pcd

. Then percentage Error in

‘P’ is

1) 14% 2) 10% 3) 7% 4) 4%

48. A particle moves along X-axis. The

velocity of the particle as function of

x is V2 = 12x – 3x3 (in SI), then the

velocity of particle at the instant when

acceleration is 1.5 m/s2 is

1) 4 m/s 2) 3 m/s

3) 1.5 m/s 4) Zero

49. If a body moving in a circular path

maintains constant speed of 10 m/s,

then which of the following correctly

describes relation between

acceleration and radius ?

1) r

a

2) r

a

3) r

a

4) r

a

50. The angle between A i j= +ɵ ɵ and

B i j= −ɵ ɵ is

1) 450 2) 900 3) – 450 4) 1800

51. Two stones are projected

simultaneously with same speed

10 m/s from same point. The range of

both are same and is equal to 5 3 m.

Then the difference in their times of

flight is …. (g = 10 m/s2)

1) 3S 2) 1 S

3) ( )3 1 S− 4) 2 S

52. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon

by a force ( )F 3i 4j N= − +

ɵ ɵ . If its

initial velocity at t = 0 is

( )u 6i 12j= −

ɵ ɵ m/s, the time at which it

will just have

velocity along the y-axis is

1) Never 2) 10 S 3) 2 S 4) 15 S

53. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough

inclined plane as shown in figure. The

block is tied up by horizontal string which

has a tension of 50 N. The coefficient of

friction between the surface of contact is :

(g = 10 m/s2)

450

M

T

1) 1/2 2) 2/3

3) 3/4 4) 1/4

54. The average work done by a human

heart while it beats once is 0.5 J. What

is the power used by heart if it beats

72 times in a minute

1) 0.2 W 2) 0.4 W 3) 0.6 W 4) 0.8 W

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55. Two particles A and B of masses m

and 2 m are moving along the X-axis

and Y-axis respectively with the same

speed υ . They collide, at the origin

and coalesce into one body after the

collision. Then the loss of energy

during this collision is

1) 21m

2υ 2) 23

m2υ 3) 22

m5υ 4) 22

m3υ

56. Two semicircular rings of linear mass densities λ and 3λ and of radius R each are joined to form a complete ring. The distance of the centre of the mass of complete ring from its geometrical centre is

1) 2R

3π 2)

R

π 3)

2R

π 4)

R

3π

57. The diagram shows a uniform disc of mass M and radius ‘a’. If the moment of inertia of the disc about the axis XY is I, its moment of inertia about an axis through O and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is

X

Y

CO

a/2

a/2

1) 24Ma

3 2) 21

I Ma4

+

3) 2I 4) I

2

58. Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and

I2 and angular speeds 1ω and 2ω are

rotating along the collinear axes passing through their plane. If the two are made to rotate combined along the same axis the rotational K.E of system will be

1) ( )

1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

2 I I

ω + ω

+

2) ( )( )

21 2 1 2I I

2

+ ω +ω

3) ( )

( )

21 1 2 2

1 2

I I

2 I I

ω + ω

+

4) None of these 59. A particle executes SHM on a straight path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the displacement of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of acceleration is equal to the numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM is (in

second-1) :

1) 2 3π 2) 2

3

π 3)

3

2π 4)

1

2 3π

60. A small satellite is moving in elliptical

orbit

around earth as shown. If L denotes

the magnitude of its angular

momentum and K denotes kinetic

energy :

1) L2 > L1 and K2 > K1

2) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1

3) L2 = L1 and K2 = K1

4) L2 = L1 and K2 > K1

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61. A block of mass m is having two similar

rubber ribbons attached to it as shown in the

figure. The force constant of each rubber

ribbon is K and surface is frictionless. The

block is displaced from mean position by x

cm and released. At the mean position the

ribbons are underformed. Period of

vibration of the block is

m

1) ( )

2

22

m k

kπ 2)

( )2

21

2

m k

kπ

3) 2m

kπ 4) 2

m

k kπ

+

62. The diagram shows a venturimeter,

through which water is flowing. The

speed of water at X is 2 cm/s. The

speed of water at Y (taking g = 1000

cm/s2) is (difference in the levels of

water in two vertical limbs is 5.1 mm)

1) 23 cm/s 2) 32 cm/s

3) 101 cm/s 4) 1024 cm/s

63. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The

surface tension of soap solution is T.

Keeping temperature constant, the

radius of the soap bubble is doubled,

the energy necessary for this will be

1) 224 r Tπ 2) 28 r Tπ

3) 212 r Tπ 4) 216 r Tπ

64. A gas is found to obey the law

P2V = constant. The initial

temperature and volume are T0 and V0.

If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, its

final temperature becomes

1) 0T

3 2) 0T

3 3) 3T0 4) 03 T

65. An insulated container contains

4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at

temperature T. Heat Q is supplied to

this gas, due to which 2 moles of the

gas are dissociated into atoms but

temperature of the gas remains

constant. Then

1) Q = 2RT 2) Q = RT

3) Q = 3RT 4) Q = 4RT

66. Two rods of lengths L1 and L2 are

welded together to make a composite

rod of length (L1+L2). If the

coefficients of linear expansion of the

rods are 1α and 2α respectively, the

effective coefficient of linear

expansion of the composite rod will

be

1) 1 2α α 2) ( )1 22

3α +α

3) 1 1 2 2

1 2

L L

L L

α + α

+ 4) 1 2 1 2

1 2

L L

L L

+α α

+

67. The densities of wood and benzene at

00C are 880 kg/m3 and 900 kg/m3

respectively. The coefficients of

volume expansion are 12 x 10–4/0C for

wood and 15 x 10–4/0C for benzene.

The temperature at which a piece of

wood just sink in benzene is

1)

0250

C3

2)

025

C3

3) 1250C 4) 5000C

68. Two spherical black bodies of radii r1

and r2 and with surface temperature T1

and T2 respectively radiate the same

power. Then the ratio of r1 and r2 will

be

1)

2

2

1

T

T

2)

4

2

1

T

T

3)

2

1

2

T

T

4)

4

1

2

T

T

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69. A substance of mass m kg requires a

power input of P watts to remain in

the molten state at its melting point.

When the power is turned off, the

sample completely solidifies in time

t sec. What is the latent heat of fusion

of the substance

1) Pm

t 2)

Pt

m 3)

m

Pt 4)

t

Pm

70. Focal length of a lense is f ( µµµµ of glass is

32

). Now it is immersed completely in

water 4( )3

µ =µ =µ =µ = . Then its focal length

changes to

1) 4f 2) 2f

3) 3f 4) f/2

71. If the focal length of objective lens is

increased, magnifying power of

1) Microscope and telescope both will

increase

2) Microscope and telescope both will

decrease

3) Microscope will increase but that of

telescope decrease

4) Microscope will decrease but that of

telescope will increase

72. A car is moving towards a cliff.

The car driver sounds a horn of

frequency f. The reflected sound

heard by the driver has a frequency 2f.

If ‘V’ be the velocity of sound, then

the velocity of the car, in the same

velocity units, will be

1) V

2 2)

V

3 3)

V

4 4)

V

2

73. A moving coil galvanometer has 150

equal divisions. Its current sensitivity

is 10 divisions per milli ampere and

voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per

milli volt. In order that each division

read 1 volt, the resistance in ohms

to be connected in series with

the coil will be

1) 9995 2) 995 3) 103 4) 105

74. A paramagnetic sample shows a net

magnetisation of 8 A/m when placed

in an external field of 0.6 T at a

temperature of 4K. When the same

sample is placed in an external

magnetic field of 0.2 T at a

temperature of 16 K, the

magnetisation will be

1) 32

3A/m 2)

2

3A/m

3) 6 A/m 4) 2.4 A/m

75. In a double slit experiment, the two

slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is

placed 1 m away. A monochromatic

light of wavelength 500 nm is used.

What should the width of each slit

to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit

pattern within the central maximum of

the single slit pattern ?

1) 0.1 mm 2) 0.2 mm

3) 0.3 mm 4) 0.4 mm

76. A resistance of 2Ω is connected

across one gap of a meter-bridge (the

length of the wire is 100 cm) and an

unknown resistance, greater than 2Ω

is connected across the other gap.

When these resistances are

interchanged, the balance point shifts

by 20 cm. Neglecting any corrections,

the unknown resistance is

1) 3Ω 2) 4Ω 3) 5Ω 4) 6Ω

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77. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P,

having a volume V expands

isothermally to a volume 4V and then

adiabatically to volume 16 V. The final

pressure of the gas is (Take 3

2γ = )

1) 32 P 2) P

32 3)

P

64 4) 64 P

78. In the electric network shown, when

no current flows through the 4Ω

resistor in the arm EB, the potential

difference between the points A and

D will be

2Ω

4Ω

F E D

2V

R

4V

A B C9V 3V

2Ω

1) 3V 2) 4V 3) 5V 4) 6V

79. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to C1=C, C2=2C, C3=3C and C4=4C are connected to a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of

the charges on C2 and C4 is

V

C1

C2

C3

C4

1) 7

4 2)

22

3 3)

3

22 4)

4

7

80. An infinite, uniformly charged sheet with surface charge density σ cuts through a spherical Gaussian surface of radius R at a distance x from its centre, as shown in the figure. The electric flux φ through the Gaussian

surface is

Rx

σ

1) π σ

ε

2

0

R 2)

( )π − σ

ε

2 2

0

2 R x

3) ( )π − σ

ε

2

0

R x 4)

( )π − σ

ε

2 2

0

R x

81. Shown in the figure is a conductor carrying a current I. The magnetic field intensity at the point O (common centre of all the three arcs) is

r

O

r

r θ

I

1) µ θ

π05 I

24 r 2)

µ θ

π0 I

24 r

3) µ θ

π01 I

24 r 4) Zero

82. A conducting circular loop is placed in

a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T

with its plane perpendicular to the

loop. The radius of the loop is made to

shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm/s.

The induced emf when the radius is

2 cm will be equal to

1) 2 Vπµ 2) Vπµ 3) V2

πµ 4) 2 Vµ

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83. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the

voltage across R is 100 volts and

R=1KΩ with C=2µ F. The resonant

frequency ω is 200 rad/s. At resonance

the voltage across ‘L’ will be

1) 34 10 V−× 2) 32.5 10 V−×

3) 40 V 4) 250 V

84. A fully charged capacitor C with

initial charge 0q is connected to a coil

of self inductance L at t = 0. The time

at which the energy is stored equally

between the electric and magnetic

fields is

1) LCπ 2) LC4

π

3) 2 LCπ 4) LC

85. When photons of wavelength 1λ are

incident on an isolated sphere, the

corresponding stopping potential is

found to be V. When photons of

wavelength 2λ are used, the

corresponding stopping potential was

thrice that of the above. If light of

wavelength 3λ is used, then the

stopping potential for this case is

1) 3 2 1

hc 1 1 1

e

+ − λ λ λ

2) 3 2 1

hc 1 1 1

e 2

+ − λ λ λ

3) 3 2 1

hc 1 1 1

e

− − λ λ λ

4) 3 2 1

hc 1 1 3

e 2 2

+ − λ λ λ

86. As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of hydrogen like atom / ion

1) Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same 2) Kinetic energy increases, potential energy decreases but total energy remains same 3) Its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decreases 4) Kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decreases 87. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively. Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei will be 1) 1 : 16 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 5 : 4 88. Three photodiodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV respectively. Which one will be able to detect light of wavelength 6000A0 ? 1) D1 2) D2

3) D3 4) All the above 89. Statement-A : If the earth did not have an atmosphere, its average surface temperature be lower than what it is now. Statement-B : A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz

and the electromagnetic wave produced will have frequency of

2x109 Hz 1) Both A & B are true 2) A is true, B is false 3) A is false, B is true 4) Both A & B are false 90. A basic communication system consists of A) Transmitter B) Information source C) User of information D) Channel E) Receiver Choose the correct sequence in which

these are arranged in a basic communication system.

1) A, B, C, D, E 2) B, A, D, E, C 3) B, D, A, C, E 4) B, E, A, D, C

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BIOLOGY :

91. The taxonomical aid which is an index

of plant species in an area is

1) Grade 2) Manuals

3) Monographs 4) Flora

92. Match the following column-I and

column –II

1) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii

2) 1- iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii

3) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

4) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv

93. ‘The Drosophila of plant kingdom’

belongs to

1) Phycomycetes 2) Zygomycetes

3) Ascomycetes 4) Basidiomycetes

94. Which of the following are not a group

of brown algae ?

1) Sargassum and Fucus

2) Ectocarpus. Dictyota

3) Dictyota, Laminaria

4) Sargassum and Ficus

95. Ulothrix, Riccia and ferns are similar

in having

1) Dominant gametophyte

2) Unicellular gametangia

3) Absence of vascular tissues

4) Presence of flagellated gametes

96. Match the followings and choose correct

option.

Group-A Group-B

A)Aleurone layer i) Without fertilization

B)Parthenocarpic ii) Nutrition fruit

C) Ovule iii) Double fertilization

D) Endosperm iv) Seed

Option :

1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D - iv

2) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii

3) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii

4) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii

97. Which of the following group of plants

have root to provide the support to the

upright shoot system like ropes of a

tent?

1) Maize, Sugarcane, Mango

2) Jowar, Maize, Sugarcane

3) Sugarcane, Jowar, Banyan tree

4) Screw pine, Maize, Sweet potato

Column-I Column –II

1)Endogenous

mitospore

i) Basidiospore

2) Exogenous

mitospore

ii) Conidia

3)Exogenous

meiospore

iii) Ascospore

4) Endogenous

meiospore

iv) Sporangiospre

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98. Floral formula of Solanaceae is

O+

P2 A3 G21)

O+

2) K4 - 5 C4 -5 A10 G(2)

O+

3) K(5) C5 A5 G(2)

O+

4) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

99. Examine the types of aestivation shown in

the following diagram and select the

correct answer.

1) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-

Valvate

2) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate, D-

Twisted

3) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-

Vexillary

4) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-

Vexillary

100. Select the incorrect match

1) Sieve elements Conduction of

photosynthates

2)Bast fibre Support

3)Ray parenchyma Water storage

4) Bast parenchyma Food storage

101. Annual rings comprises

1) Primary and secondary xylem

2) Secondary xylem and secondary

phloem

3) Only secondary xylem

4) Secondary xylem and primary phloem

102. Arrange the correct sequence of

secondary growth in dicot root

1) Activity of vascular cambium

2) Formation of cambium strip from

pericycle part

3) Origin of cambium strips for

conjuctive tissue

4) Origin of cork cambium from

pericycle

5) Fusion of both cambium strips

1) 1,4,5,2,3 2) 3,2,5,1,4

3) 3,2,1,5,4 4)2,3,4,1,5

103. Catalase is present in

1) Lysosome 2) Glyoxisome

3) Ribosome 4) Peroxisome

104. One of the following serves as a

temporary storage place for proteins

and other compounds synthesized by

endoplasmic reticulum

1) Lysosomes 2) Spherosomes

3) Microsomes 4) Dictyosomes

105. What will happen to an enzyme when

apoenzyme is separated from its metal

component ?

1) Activity will be increased

2) Activity will be lose

3) Activity will be decreased

4) No change in activity

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106. Which of the following sequence is

correct on the basis of increasing

molecular weight ?

1) DNA, ATP, NADP, AMP

2) AMP, ATP, NADP, DNA

3) ATP, AMP, DNA, NADP

4) ATP, ADP, NADP, DNA

107. The graph shows

1) Effect of 2CO concentration on rate of

photosynthesis.

2) Effect of 2O concentration on rate of

photosynthesis.

3) Effect of 2H O concentration on rate of

photosynthesis.

4) Effect of light intensity on rate of

photosynthesis.

108. Which one of the following pairs is

correctly matched ?

1)Anaphase I-Homologous

chromosomes are separated

2) Metaphase I- Pairing of maternal and

paternal homologous chromosomes

take place

3) Interphase- A nuclear envelope

encloses each haploid set of

chromosomes

4) Prophase-Non- homologous

chromosomes are separated

109. A condition necessary for imbibition is

1) Larger positive water potential of

imbibant

2) Higher matric potential of imbibant

3) High proportion of colloids in

imbibant

4) Lower negative water potential of

imbibant

110. Mark the incorrect statement

1) Water moves from hypotonic solution

to hypertonic solution

2) Water moves from cell having higher

water potential to cell with lower

water potential

3) Water moves from cell with high

wψ to cell with low

wψ

4) Water moves from cell with lower

turgor pressure to cell with higher

turgor pressure

111. Zn is required for synthesis of

precursor of

1) Auxin 2) Gibberellin

3) Cytokinin 4) ABA

112. Match the following

1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii

2) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv

3) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii

4) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

1) Copper i)Nitrate reductase

2)Molybdenum ii) OEC

3) Zinc iii) Plastocyanin

4) Manganese iv) Carbonic

anhydrase

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113. Choose the correct combinations of

labeling the carbohydrate molecule

involved in the Calvin cycle.

1) (i) RuBP (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) PGA

2) (i) PGA (ii) RuBP (iii) Triose phosphate

3) (i) PGA (ii) Triose phosphate (iii) RuBP

4) (i) RuBP (ii) PGA (iii) Triose phosphage

114. Components of cytochrome –C

reductase complex of ETS in

mitochondria are

1) Cyt a , 3a 2)Cyt c, c1

3) 1, &Cyt b FeS Cyt c 4) FMN, FeS

115. Maximum RQ value is seen when

1) Malic acid is respiratory substrate

2) Tripalmitic acid is respiratory

substrate

3) Glucose is respiratory substrate

4) Gram seed is germinating

116. Choose the wrongly matched pair from the

following.

1) Auxins – “to grow”

2) Gibberelins – Gibberella fujikurai

3) Cytokinins – Herring sperm DNA

4) Abscissic acid – Flowering hormone

117. Antibiotics are mostly obtained from

1) Fungi

2) Actinomycetes

3) Cyanobacteria

4) Both 1 and 2

118. Abscissic acid acts as an inhibitor of

plant growth and metabolism. In other

words we can say that is

1) Stimulates seed germination

2)Stimulates closure of stomata

3) Decreases the tolerance of plants to

various kinds of stress

4) Inhibits dormancy in seeds

119. In haplontic life cycle, meiosis occurs

at the time of

1)Spore formation

2) Gamete formation

3) Zygote germination

4) Zygote formation

120. Select an incorrect statement

regarding endosperm formation

from central cell

1) PEN (primary endosperm nucleus)

divides by free nuclear division in

many plants

2) Endosperm is main nutritive tissue in

dicot seeds

3) It is a post fertilization event

4) Its is a formation is absent in some

angiosperms

121. A tetraploid Triticum plant released

pollen grains on Monday morning, but

pollen grains reached stigma of a

diploid plant on Tuesday morning.

What will be the number of

chromosomes in its endosperm ?

1) 28 2) 21 3) 42

4) None endosperm will be produced

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122. Arrange the stages of embryogeny in a

dicotyledonous embryos in correct

order -

1) Zygote, proembryo, globular, heart-

shaped, mature embryo

2) Zygote, globular, proembryo, heart –

shaped, mature embryo

3) Zygote, heart- shaped, globular,

proembryo, mature embryo

4) Zygote, mature embryo, globular,

heart- shaped, proembryo

123. The Mendelian principle which has

always stood true is

1) The law of independent assortment

2) The law of segregation

3) The law of dominance

4) All the above

124. Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel

to the behaviour of genes during

inheritance. It was noted by

1) Sutton and Boveri

2) Morgan

3) Punnett

4) Cuenot

125. Which of the following is not included

in mendelian principles of inheritance ?

1) Dominance

2) Purity of gametes/segregation

3) Linkage

4) Independent assortment

126. RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes

helps in synthesis of

1) Ribosomal RNA 2) snRNA

3) t RNA 4) All of these

127. Four samples of double stranded DNA

are analysed and the following

information is obtained

1) Sample 1-15% thymine

2) Sample 2-20% guanine

3) Sample 3-30% adenine

4) Sample 4-40% cytosine

Which of these samples represent

DNA from the same source ?

1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3

3) 3 and 4 4) 1 and 4

128. Khorana and his colleagues

synthesized a RNA molecule with

repeating sequence of UG N-bases

(UGUGUGUGUGUG).It produced a

tetrapeptide with alternating sequence

of cysteine and valine. It proves that

codon for cysteine and valine is

1) UGG and GUU

2) UUG and GGU

3) UGU and GUG

4) GUG and UGU

129. Differentiation of callus into plant

parts is

1) Embryogenesis

2) Embryoid formation

3) Morphogenesis 4) Totipotency

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130. Citric acid is derived form

1) Aspergillus niger

2) Rhizobium nigricans

3) Penicillium citrinum

4) Lactobacillus vulgaricus

131. Match the following column-I and

column –II

1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

132. Identify the statement which is not

true for Bt- toxin ?

1) It is the product of cry – gene of

Bacillus thuringienis

2) It is secreted I crystalline state called

protoxin

3) It creates pores in the midgut of insect

larvae

4) The toxin causes cell wall damage to

Bacillus thuringiensis

133. The protein encoded by the gene cry II

Ab controls

1) Corn borer

2) Cotton boll worms

3) Root knot disease of tobacco

4) Loose smut of wheat

134. Robert Costanza and his colleagues

have tried to put price tags on nature’s

life support services. The average price

tags of ecosystem services estimated is

1) 18 trillion dollar

2) Half of GNP

3) Nearly two times of GNP

4) Equal to the GNP

135. Which one of the following

representation shows the pyramid of

number in a forest ecosystem ?

a)

b)

c)

d)

136. Study the stages in cross bridge cycle and

identify B, C and E respectively.

1) ATP, P, ADP 2) ADP, ATP, P

3) ADP, P, ATP 4) ATP, ADP, P

137. A drug after administration causes

depression and slows down body functions.

The receptors for this drug are present in the

1) CNS and GI - tract

2) Liver

3) Cardiovascular system

4) Spinal cord

Column-I Column –II

a)Himgiri i)White rust

b)Pusa swarnim ii)Leaf and

stripe rust

c) Prabhani

kranti

iii) Bacterial

blight

d) Pusa komal iv) Yellow

mosaic virus

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138. Which one of the following options gives

the correct matching of a disease with its

causative organisms and mode of infection ?

Disease Causative

Organism

Mode of

infection

1) Typhoid Salmonella

typhi

With

inspired air

2) Pneumonia Streptococcus

pneumoniae

Droplet

inhaling

3) Elephantiasis Wuchereria

bancrofti

Contaminat

ed water

and food

4) Malaria Plasmodium

vivax

Bite of

female

Culex

mosquito

139. Which is the best breeding method for

animals that are below average in

productivity ?

1) Out Crossing

2) Cross breeding

3) Out breeding

4) Interspecific hybridization

140. If the stressful external conditions are

localized or remain only for a short

duration, the organisms have some

alternatives like

1) Migrate 2) Conform

3) Regulate 4) 2 and 3

141. In feeding efficiency of one species might

be reduced due to the interfering and

inhibitory presence of the other species,

even if resources are abundant then it is

called

1) Competitive release

2) Resource partitioning

3) Interference competition

4) Competitive exclusion

142. Which scientist found that plots with more

species showed less year - to - year variation

in total biomass ?

1) David Tilman 2) Paul Ehrlich

3) Robert May 4) Edward Wilson

143. Recognise the figure and find out the correct

matching with respect to green house gases.

1) b - CFCs, a – N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4

2) a – CO2, b – CH4, c - CFCs, d – N2O

3) b - CFCs, a – N2O, c - CO2, d - CH4

4) a - CFCs, b – N2O, d - CO2, c - CH4

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144. Match the Columns I and II, and choose the

correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II

a) Pinctada 1) Chiton

b) Loligo 2) Sea-hare

c) Polyplacophora 3) Pearl oyster

d) Dentalium 4) Squid

e) Aplysia 5) Tusk-shell

1) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 5, e – 2

2) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 5, e – 1

3) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2, e – 5

4) a – 5, b – 1, c – 3, d – 4, e – 2

145. Match the Columns-I and II, and choose the

correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II

a) Macaca 1) Scaleless vertebrate

b) Columba 2) Cloacal chamber

c) Vipera 3) Pneumatic bones

d) Bufo 4) Pinnae are present

1) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1

2) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2

3) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2

4) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1

146. In males, spermatogenesis is regulated by

1) Testosterone and FSH

2) LH and Oxytocin

3) Androgens and prolactin

4) FSH and LTH

147. PTH stimulates

1) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules

2) Mineralization of bones

3) Secretion of Ca2+ by the renal tubules

4) Hypocalcemia in blood

148. Hormone which regulate gene expression or chromosome function by interact with intracellular receptor and then with genome is

1) Oxytocin 2) Aldosterone

3) Adrenaline 4) Glucagon

149. Otolith organs are related to sense of

1) Touch 2) Hearing

3) Smell 4) Balance

150. Study the given pathway of conduction of

visual impulses.

A→Generation of Action Potential→

B→C→Brain.

In the above A, B and C are respectively

1) Breakdown of rhodopsin, ganglion cells,

bipolar cells

2) Formation of rhodopsin, bipolar cells,

ganglion cells

3) Formation of rhodopsin, ganglion cells,

bipolar cells

4) Breakdown of rhodopsin, bipolar cells,

ganglion cells

151. When trochlear nerve is damaged.

1) Shape of lens in eye can not be altered

2) Amount of light that enters into eye can not

be altered

3) Normal movements of eye ball are not

possible

4) Sharp central vision is completely failed

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152. Increased osmotic pressure in the body

1) Stimulates secretion of glucagon

2) Inhibits secretion of vasopressin

3) Never influence the secretion of aldosterone

4) Stimulates secretion of vasopressin

153. Match the given columns with respect to

human brain.

Column-I Column-II

A) Medulla I) Body temperature

B) Limbic system II) Communication

C) Association

areas III) Gastric secretions

D) Epiphysis IV) Motivation

A B C D

1) IV II I III

2) II IV I III

3) III IV II I

4) IV III I II

154. Statement-I : In an axon, ionic gradients

across the resting membrane are maintained

by the active transport of ions by the Na+ –

K+ pump.

Statement-II : The axolemma is

comparatively more permeable to K+ and

nearly impermeable to Na+ when neuron is

not conducting any impulse.

1) Both I and II statements are correct

2) Both I and II statements are wrong

3) Statement-I correct but II is wrong

4) Statement-I wrong but II is correct

155. In human, renal organs are situated between

the levels of

1) Last lumbar and fifth sacral vertebra

2) Last cervical and third thoracic vertebra

3) Fifth lumbar and first sacral vertebra

4) Last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra

156. Cancer is caused due to activation of ….. to

….. or inactivation of …..

1) Tumour suppressor gene, oncogene

protooncogene

2) Oncogene, tumour suppressor

protooncogene

3) Protooncogene, oncogene, tumour

suppressor gene

4) Oncogene, protooncogene, tumour

suppressor gene

157. The ovaries are located one on each side of

the abdomen and is connected to the pelvic

wall and uterus by

1) Dense irregular connective tissue

2) Tendons

3) Loose connective tissue

4) Ligaments

158. The first meiotic division during oogenesis

is completed at the stage of

1) Primary oocyte within primary follicle

2) Primary oocyte within graafian follicle

3) Primary oocyte within tertiary follicle

4) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicle

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159. In spermatogenesis, the phase of maturation

involves

1) Growth of spermatogonia into primary

spermatocytes

2) Formation of spermatogonia from

spermatophytes through mitosis

3) Formation of spermatozoa from primary

spermatocytes through mitosis

4) Formation of spermatids from

spermatocytes through meiosis

160. Which of the following statements is not

correct ?

1) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of

stomach and secrete HCl

2) Acini are present in the pancreas and

secrete carboxypeptidase

3) Brunner’s glands are present in the

submucosa of stomach and secrete mucus of

saccus entericus

4) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of

intestine and secrete mucus

161. Foetal membrane that provides the first

blood corpuscles for circulation in embryo

is

1) Yolk sac 2) Trophoblast

3) Amnion 4) Chorion

162. Implants under the skin and injections are

also used as contraceptive device. These

devices contain

1) Progestogens alone

2) Estrogen alone

3) Progestogen-estrogen combination

4) Either 1 or 3

163. Female who cannot produce ovum, but can

provide suitable environment for

fertilisation and further development, could

be assisted by

1) GIFT 2) ZIFT 3) ICSI 4) IUI

164. During prolonged fasting, the sequence of

organic compounds used by the body is

1) Proteins, lipids, carbohydrates

2) Fats, carbohydrates, proteins

3) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids

4) Carbohydrates, fats, proteins

165. Volume of air that remains in the lungs after

a normal expiration is called

1) ERV 2) TLC 3) FRC 4) VC

166. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the

atmospheric air compared to those in the

alveolar air ?

1) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher

2) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser

3) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher

4) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser

167. Philadelphia chromosome occurs in patients

suffering from

1) Albinism 2) Phenylketonuria

3) Hepatitis 4) Leukemia

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168. Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II

1) Sickle cell

anaemia a) 7th chromosome

2) Phenylketonuria b) 16th chromosome

3) Cystic fibrosis c) 11th chromosome

4) Alpha thalassemia d) X-chromosome

5) Protanopia e) 12th chromosome

1) 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – e

2) 1 – c, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d

3) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – e, 5 – a

4) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – d

169. Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation of

1) CTC to CAC 2) CTG to CAG

3) CAG to CTC 4) CGC to CAC

170. Sequencing the whole set of genome that

contained all the coding and non-coding

sequence and later assigning different

regions in the sequence with functions are

referred to as

1) ESTs 2) Sequence Annotation

3) BAC 4) SNP’s

171. Statement-I : The size of VNTR varies from

0.1 to 20 kb in human.

Statement-II : The number of tandem

repeats show very high degree of

polymorphism.

1) Both I and II statements are correct

2) Both I and II statements are wrong

3) Statement-I correct but II is wrong

4) Statement-I wrong but II is correct

172. DNA polymorphism that has been used to

develop the DNA fingerprinting technology

is based upon

1) Single nucleotide polymorphism

2) VNTRs

3) Number of protein coding genes

4) Unique nucleotide bases present in genome

173. Resemblance between widely different

groups due to a common adaptation is

1) Convergent evolution

2) Divergent evolution

3) Parallel evolution

4) Retrogressive evolution

174. Read the following statements and find out

the incorrect statement in context of ECG.

1) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s

function, multiple leads are attached to the

chest region.

2) The end of the P-wave marks the end of

atrial diastole.

3) QRS complex marks ventricular systole.

4) By counting the number of QRS complexes

that occur in a given time period, one can

determine the heart beat rate of an individual

175. Which of the following pair is incorrectly

matched with respect to convergent

evolution ?

1) Lemur – Spotted cuscus

2) Flying squirrel – Flying phalanger

3) Anteater – Numbat

4) Bobcat – Tasmanian wolf

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176. In a population of 1000 individuals, 360

individuals with genotype AA, 480 with Aa

and remaining 160 with aa. Based on this

data, the frequency of allele A in the

population is

1) 0.6 2) 0.5 3) 0.7 4) 0.4

177. According to Darwinism some bacteria can

grow in streptomycin containing medium

due to

1) Founder effect

2) Natural selection

3) Induced mutation

4) Dormency

178. The fossils discovered in Java in 1891

revealed a stage in human evolution which

was called

1) Homo erectus 2) Dryopithecus

3) Australopithecus 4) Homo habilis

179. BCG vaccine provides protection against

1) Measles 2) Tuberculosis

3) Cholera 4) Small pox

180. Which pair of disease is viral ?

1) Hepatitis, Syphilis

2) Typhoid, Tetanus

3) Rabies, Mumps

4) Cholera, Tetanus

1) d 2)a 3) b 4) c

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KEY SHEET

CHEMISTYCHEMISTYCHEMISTYCHEMISTY

1) 3 2) 3 3) 3 4) 2 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 3

11) 2 12) 3 13) 2 14) 4 15) 3 16) 2 17) 4 18) 2 19) 2 20) 4

21) 1 22) 3 23) 4 24) 3 25) 3 26) 4 27) 3 28) 1 29) 4 30) 1

31) 4 32) 1 33) 2 34) 3 35) 1 36) 3 37) 1 38) 4 39) 1 40) 4

41) 1 42) 3 43) 3 44) 1 45) 4

PHYSICSPHYSICSPHYSICSPHYSICS

46) 3 47) 1 48) 2 49) 3 50) 2 51) 3 52) 2 53) 1 54) 3 55) 4

56) 2 57) 3 58) 3 59) 3 60) 4 61) 3 62) 2 63) 1 64) 4 65) 2

66) 3 67) 1 68) 1 69) 2 70) 1 71) 4 72) 2 73) 1 74) 2 75) 2

76) 1 77) 2 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4 81) 1 82) 2 83) 4 84) 2 85) 4

86) 3 87) 4 88) 2 89) 2 90) 2

BIOLOGYBIOLOGYBIOLOGYBIOLOGY

91) 4 92) 2 93) 3 94) 4 95) 4 96) 2 97) 2 98) 4 99) 4 100) 3

101) 3 102) 2 103) 4 104) 4 105) 2 106) 2 107) 2 108) 1 109) 3 110) 4

111) 1 112) 1 113) 4 114) 3 115) 1 116) 4 117) 4 118) 2 119) 3 120) 2

121) 4 122) 1 123) 2 124) 1 125) 3 126) 4 127) 2 128) 3 129) 3 130) 1

131) 2 132) 4 133) 2 134) 3 135) 3

136) 3 137) 1 138) 2 139) 1 140) 1 141) 3 142) 1 143) 2 144) 1 145) 1

146) 1 147) 1 148) 2 149) 4 150) 4 151) 3 152) 4 153) 3 154) 1 155) 4

156) 3 157) 4 158) 3 159) 4 160) 3 161) 1 162) 4 163) 1 164) 4 165) 3

166) 4 167) 4 168) 2 169) 1 170) 2 171) 1 172) 2 173) 1 174) 2 175) 4

176) 1 177) 2 178) 1 179) 2 180) 3

This model test paper was prepared and verified by Senior faculty

Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy

Telangana & Andhra Pradesh.

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NEET MODEL GRAND TEST NEET MODEL GRAND TEST NEET MODEL GRAND TEST NEET MODEL GRAND TEST ---- 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS 2 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS

46. Regarding dimensions

energy = ( )

2charg e

capacity

Also energy = 1

hT

, 0

1C a

T

=

2

0

C eha capacity=

capacity = 2

0e a

hC

47. P a b c d100 3 100 2 100 100 100

P a b c d

∆ ∆ ∆ ∆ ∆× = × + × + × + ×

48. 2 3V 12x 3x= − 29

a 6 x2

= −

2dV2V 12 9x

dx= − 23 9

6 x2 2= −

2dV 9V 6 x

dx 2= − 29

x 4.52

=

2x 1 x 1= ⇒ =

( ) ( )32

V 12 1 3 1= −

2V 9=

V = 3 m/s

49. 2V

a ,r

= υ is constant

Hence 1

a arr

∝ ⇒ = constant

50. ( ) ( )A.B i j . i j 1 1 0= + − = − =

ɵ ɵ ɵ ɵ

so A

perpendicular to B

so angle between them is 900

51. If 1θ = θ then 2 90θ = −θ

2u sin 2

R , 5g

θ=

210

3=10× sin 2

10

θ

0 03sin 2 2 60 , 30

2θ = ⇒ θ= θ =

11

2u sin 2 10 sin 30T 1

g 10

θ × ×= = =

22

2u sin 2 10T

g

θ ×= =

sin 60

10

×3=

Difference in time = ( )3 1 s−

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52. 3 4

a F / m i j5 5

= =− +

ɵ ɵ

u 6i 12j= −ɵ ɵ

as finial velocity in along y-axis, its x-component must be zero

Vx = 0

ux + axt = 0⇒3

6 t 05

− =

⇒ t = 10 sec

53.

150 50 150 50

2 2 2 2

− = Μ +

( ) ( )150 50

1 12 2

− µ = + µ

3 3 1− µ = + µ

2 1

4 2µ = =

54. Work done by the heart in 1 min = 0.5 x 72

= 36 J

Power of the heart

P = 36

0.6 W60=

55. By Law of conservation of linear momentum

3 m fV m=

Vi 2 m+ɵ V jɵ

f

V 2VV i j

3 3= +

ɵ ɵ

2 2

f

V 4V 5V V

9 9 3= + =

Loss of kinetic energy during the collision

( )2

2 21 1 1 5Vm 2m 3m

2 2 2 3

= υ + υ −

= 22m

3υ

56. Let the mass of ring having density λ be M. Centre of mass

1 1 2 2

1 2

2R 2RM 3MM x M x R

M M 4M

− ++ π π= =+ π

57.

22 2Ma a MaI M

4 2 2

= + =

Now

22 22

0Ma a a

I M2 2 2

= + +

= 2 2

2Ma MaMa 2I

2 2+ = =

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58. ( ) ( ) /1 1 2 2 1 2I I I Iω + ω = + ω

( )

/ 1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

I I

ω + ωω =

+

( ) /2f 1 2

1K I I

2= + ω

=( )

( )

21 1 2 2

1 2

I I

2 I I

ω + ω

+

59. ( )22 3

V a a/2 a2

=ω − = ω

2

n aacc f

2

ω=

∴V = f

2a 3

a2 2

ω= ω

2 n 3π =

3

n2

=π

60. Conceptual

61. 1

E2

= y (strain)2

strain = 2E

y

62. ( )22 2 1

2 1V V 2gh 2 2 1000 5.1 10 1024−= + = + × × × =

V2 = 32 cm/s

63. ( )W T A= ∆

= ( )2 2T2 4 2r 4 r π − π

= ( )22T 4 r 3π

= 224 r Tπ

64. P2V = constant and PV = nT

2T V⇒ ∝2

02

00

3VT

VT⇒ = 0T 3 T⇒ =

65. f uQ U U U=∆ − − = [internal energy of 4 moles of a monoatomic gas + internal energy of

2 moles of a diatomic gas] – [internal energy of 4 moles of a diatomic gas]

=3 5 5

4 RT 2 RT 4 RT RT2 2 2

× + × − × =

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Note : (a) 2 moles of diatomic gas becomes 4 moles of a monoatomic gas when gas dissociated

into atoms.

(b) Internal energy of µ moles of an ideal gas of degrees of freedom F is given by

fU RT

2= µ , F = 3 for a monoatomic gas and 5 for diatomic gas

66. At 00C, total length of the rod is L0=L1+L2 when the composite rod is heated to t0C, its

length at t0C will be

( ) ( )1 1 2 2L L 1 t L 1 t= +α + +α =( )1 2 1 1 2 2L L L t L t+ + α + α or,

( )0 1 1 2 2L L L L t= + α + α

∴Effective coefficient of expansion of the composite rod is,

1 0 1 1 2 2

0 1 2

L L L L

L t L L

− α + αα = =

+

67. ( )

( )

( )

( )0 0w B

w B

d d

1 t 1 t=

+γ +γ

68. 4 2 4 2 4P A T 4 r T P r T= σ = π σ ⇒ ∝ or

2

4

1r

T∝ [As P=constant]

2

1 2

2 1

r T

r T

∴ =

69. Heat lost in t sec = mL or heat lost per sec = mL

t.

This must be the heat supplied for keeping the substance in molten state per sec.

mL

Pt

∴ = or Pt

Lm

=

70. 1 2

1 3 1 11

f 2 R R

= − −

1 2

1 3/ 2 1 11

f ' 4 / 3 R R

= − −

f ' 1/ 2

4 f ' 4ff 1/8

= =

71. For microscope 0 e 0

L n 1m M

t t t= ⇒ ∝

For telescope 00

e

tm M t

t= ⇒ ∝

72. | V at f

V a

+ = − 2V – 2a = V + a

V a

2t fV a

+ = − V = 3a

a = V/3

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73. g150

V 75mV2

= = 10

15015

= ( )5 R1000

+

g150

i 15mA10

= = 1000 = 5 + R

g

g

V 75G 5

i 15= = = Ω R 9995= Ω

V = if (G + R)

74. as mM H=ψ and mC

Tψ =

CH

MT

= (or) 1 1 2

2 2 1

M H T

M H T=

( )2 12 1

1 2

H T 0.2 4 2M M 8 A /m

H T 0.6 16 3

= = =

75. 10 D 2 D 1mmd

a 0.2mmd a 5 5

λ λ= ⇒ = = =

In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m

away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used.

76. 2 x 20

,x 100 2 80

+= =

− −

ℓ ℓ

ℓ ℓ

on solving we get x 3= Ω

77. Isothermal process

P1V1 = P2V2

( )2P V P 4V× =

P2 = P/4

For adiabatic process

( ) ( )fP4V P 16V

4

γ γ=

3/2

fP 1 P 1 P

P4 4 4 8 32

= = × =

78.

2Ω

4Ω

F E D

2V

R

4V

A B C9V 3V

2Ω

i i

i

i

Given no current pass through 4V

Apply KVL to EBCDE

– 4 + 3 + iR = 0⇒ iR = 1V

Now VA–9+3+iR=VD

VA–9+3+1=VD

VA–VD=9–3–1=9–4=5V

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79.

V

C

C2=2C

3C

4C=C4

Q4 = 4CV

22

4

6 6CV Q 6CV 1 3Q C V

11 11 Q 11 4CV 22

= = ⇒ = × =

80. Charge enclosed ( )2 2enq R x=σπ −

R

xr

Here 2 2r R x= −

( )2 2

sphere0

R xσπ −φ =

∈

81. 0I 1 1 1B

4 r 2r 3r

µ θ = − + π

05 I

24 r

µ θ

π

82. 2BA B rφ= = π

d dr

e B 2rdt dt

φ=− =− π

= 20.025 2 2 10

−− ×π× × ×

( )31 10−− ×

= Vπµ

83. at resonance rmsrms 3

V 100 1i A

R 1010= = =

L C rms 6

1 1 1V V i

WC 10 200 2 10−

= = = × ×

=1000 1000×

4 1000×250V=

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84. Charge on the capacitor at any instant ‘t’ is q = q0 coswt …. (1)

equal sharing of energy means

energy of a capacitor = 1

2total energy

22

0 0q q1 q 1 1q

2 C 2 2 C 2= ⇒ =

from (1) 00

qq cos wt wt

42

π= ⇒ =

t t LC4W 4

π π⇒ = ⇒ =

85. 1 0

hC hCeV= −

λ λ ……. (1)

2 0

hC hC3eV= −

λ λ……. (2)

|

3 0

hC hCeV = −

λ λ……. (3)

from (1), (2) ⇒0 1 2

hC 3hC hC

2 2= −

λ λ λ Put it is (3) we get V| =

3 1 2

hC 1 3 1

e 2 2

− + λ λ λ

86. Conceptual

87. t = 80 min, for ‘A’ 4 half lives and for ‘B’ 2 half lives

Ans.

00 04

000 2

N 15N N

5162N 3 4

NN42

−= =

−

88. Energy of a photon of wavelength 6000A0 is 12400

E 2.07eV600

= ≈

For the photodiode to detect incident light E > Eg (Band gap). This condition is satisfied by

photodiode D2 where

Eg = 2eV

89. Conceptual

90. Conceptual

This model test paper solutions were prepared and verified by Senior faculty

Sri Chaitanya Medical Academy

Telangana & Andhra Pradesh.

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