1. As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface,
A. their supply of nutrients increases.
B. they become dermal cells.
C. they degenerate and die.
D. they divide continually.
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
2. Sweat from eccrine glands
A. helps regulate body temperature.
B. is most commonly produced in the axilla and groin regions.
C. is not secreted during emotional stress.
D. is usually associated with hair follicles.
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
3. The hypodermis (subcutaneous layer) consists of .
A. adipose tissue and skeletal muscle tissue
B. areolar and adipose tissue with pressure-sensitive nerve endings
C. epithelial tissue with touch sensitive nerve endings
D. epithelium and loose connective tissue
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
4. What contributes to the color of skin and absorbs ultraviolet (UV) light?
A. keratin in keratinocytes in the epidermis
B. hemoglobin in capillaries of the dermis
C. melanin in melanocytes and keratinocytes
D. pigments in the stratum lucidum
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
5. Nails are formed from .
A. epidermal cells
B. specialized connective tissue cells
C. specialized dermal cells
D. subcutaneous tissue
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
6. Which layer of skin has no blood vessels?
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. hypodermis
D. peridermis
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
7. Which layer of skin undergoes cell division (mitosis)?
A. stratum basale
B. stratum granulosum
C. stratum lucidum
D. stratum spinosum
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
8. Which of the following best describes the stratum corneum?A. 3-5 layers of granular cells containing shriveled nuclei and keratin
B. a single layer of cells that undergo mitotic cell division and contains melanocytes
C. many layers of completely keratinized and dead cells
D. many layers of large oval cells and Merkel's discs in hairless areas
See 5.1: Skin
9. Hair is surrounded by these cells and is also a product of cells of the .A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. hypodermis
D. loose areolar connective tissue of the subcutaneous layer
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
10. People who rarely venture outdoors or completely cover their skin when outdoors may develop a deficiency of .
A. blood circulation to the skin
B. epidermal cells, resulting in thin skin
C. vitamin C
D. vitamin D
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
11. At what age, on average, do pronounced aging conditions begin to occur more rapidly?
A. early thirties
B. fifty-five
C. late forties
D. twenty-five
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
12. Gray hair and changes in skin pigmentation in older people are due to
A. changes in the DNA of skin cells due to poor diet.
B. decrease in the number of functioning melanocytes.
C. decreased circulation in the dermis of the skin.
D. long exposure to wind and sun.
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
13. Half of burn victims die when the burn area exceeds percent of the body.A. 30
B. 50
C. 70
D. 90
See 5.4: Aging and The Integumentary System
14. Nail growth originates at which of the following?A. cuticle
B. nail body
C. nail matrix
D. nail root
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
15. Which of the following is the most common cell type found in the epidermis?
A. keratinocyte
B. Langerhans cell
C. melanocyte
D. Merkel cell
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
16. Which of the following are cells of the epidermis that participate in immune responses mounted against microbes that invade the skin?
A. keratinocytes
B. Langerhans cells
C. melanocytes
D. Merkel cells
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
17. Which of the following does NOT impart color to skin?A. carotene
B. hemoglobin
C. keratin
D. melanin
See 5.1: Skin
18. Hair and nails are composed primarily of which of the following substances?
A. collagen
B. elastin
C. fibrin
D. keratin
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
19. In which stratum do new skin cells arise, in this figure of the epidermis?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
20. Which of the strata of the epidermis in the figure is missing in thin skin?
A. Stratum granulosum
B. Stratum basale
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum lucidum
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
21. Constant exposure to friction or pressure stimulates the formation of a , which is an abnormal thickening to the epidermis.
A. abrasion
B. blister
C. contact dermatitis
D. callus
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
22. Which term means itching?A. laceration
B. pruritis
C. psoriasis
D. impetigo
See 5.4: Aging and the Integumentary System
23. __________is a deadly type of skin cancer that metastasizes quickly.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is Malignant melanomaSee 5.3: Functions of the Skin
24. __________is the tough, fibrous protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from abrasion, heat, microbes, and chemicals.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is KeratinSee 5.3: Functions of the Skin
25. __________increase the area of the superficial surface of the dermis.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is Dermal papillaeSee 5.1: Skin
26. __________is the inherited inability to produce melanin.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is AlbinismSee 5.1: Skin
27. __________is a yellow-orange pigment and a precursor of vitamin A that contributes to skin color.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is CaroteneSee 5.1: Skin
28. The smooth muscle that gives one "goose bumps" and makes the hair stand on end is called the muscle.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is Arrector piliSee 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
29. The oil glands, or glands, produce an oily substance called sebum.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is SebaceousSee 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
30. A term that means bedsores is .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is Pressure ulcersSee 5.4: Aging and the Integumentary System
31. The portion of a hair which is below the surface of the skin is the .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is RootSee 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
32. The presence of the masculinizing hormones, , induces male-pattern baldness, the most common form of baldness.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is AndrogensSee 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
33. The deepest part of the skin is composed of dense regular connective tissue.
A. True
B. False
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
34. The build-up of bilirubin in the blood makes the mucous membranes, nail beds, and skin appear blue in color (cyanotic).
A. True
B. False
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
35. Most sweat glands are eccrine (rather than apocrine).
A. True
B. False
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
36. The skin is the largest organ of the body both in surface area and in weight.
A. True
B. False
1. Hemopoiesis occurs inA. yellow marrow.
B. red marrow.
C. periosteum.
D. the osteogenic layer.
See 6.1: Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System
2. In osseous tissue, blood vessels and nerves are found in the .A. canaliculi
B. haversian canals
C. lamellae
D. osteocytes
See 6.3: Structure of Bone
3. When there is too little calcium in blood, which cells begin resorption of bone to release calcium into the blood?A. chondrocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. osteocytes
See 6.3: Structure of Bone
4. In adults, triglycerides are stored in the .A. endosteum
B. metaphysis
C. red marrow
D. yellow marrow
See 6.3: Structure of Bone
5. Which of the following cells is the precursor to bone forming cells?A. astroblast
B. chondroblast
C. hemocytoblast
D. osteogenic cells
See 6.3: Structure of Bone
6. Which of the following provide a pathway for the diffusion of nutrients within compact bone?A. canaliculi
B. lamellae
C. medullary cavity
D. periosteum
See 6.3: Structure of Bone
7. A bone which has an epiphysis at each end is a .
A. compact bone
B. flat bone
C. long bone
D. spongy bone
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
8. When blood calcium levels rise above normal, osteoclast activity is inhibited by which of the following hormones?
A. calcitonin
B. calcitriol
C. PTH
D. triodothyronine
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
9. Which of the following is/are found in the epiphyseal plate?A. chondrocytes
B. endosteum
C. red marrow
D. trabeculae
See 6.4: Bone Formation
10. Which of the following describes a metaphysis?
A. It consists of two layers and is essential for bone growth and repair.
B. It is formed by lacunae and canaliculi.
C. It is the area where the epiphysis joins the diaphysis.
D. It lines the medullary cavity and contains osteoprogenitor cells.
Congratulations, your answer is correct!
11. Bone is somewhat flexible due to the presence of .A. calcium
B. collagen
C. phosphates
D. triglycerides
See 6.3: Structure of Bone
12. As epiphyseal cartilage cells stop dividing and are replaced by bone, the result is a bony structure called the .A. epiphyseal line
B. metaphysis
C. osteon
D. periosteum
13. If epiphyseal plates are visible in an X-ray, the bone is .A. dead
B. diseased
C. still growing in length
D. weak due to lack of calcium
14. The first indication that a cartilage model is beginning to form into a bone is theA. differentiation of mesenchyme cells into chondroblasts.
B. calcification of the cartilage matrix and formation of a bone collar in the diaphyseal region.
C. formation of the epiphyseal plate.
D. penetration of a nerve into the cartilage.
15. Abnormal growth in height of an individual is caused by excessA. cancerous growth in the epiphyseal plates.
B. production of insulin.
C. production of vitamin D.
D. secretion of human growth hormone.
16. Which suture is found between the parietal bones?A. lambdoidal
B. parietal
C. sagittal
D. squamosal
17. In an infant, which curve of the vertebral column develops when the baby starts holding its head erect?A. cervical
B. lumbar
C. sacral
D. thoracic
18. Spinal nerves enter and leave the spinal cord through passages between the vertebrae called .
A. foramen magnum
B. intervertebral foramina
C. pedicles
D. vertebral arches
19. The rib pairs known as the false ribs are theA. 1st through 7th pairs.
B. 8th through 10th pairs.
C. 8th through 12th pairs.
D. 11th and 12th pairs.
20. _________ are posterior projections from the body of a vertebra that help to form the vertebral foramen.A. Laminae
B. Pedicles
C. Spinous processes
D. Transverse processes
21. Which of the following bones contains the mandibular fossa and external auditory meatus?A. frontal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
22. The lambdoid suture is found between the and bones.A. frontal and parietal bones
B. frontal and sphenoid bones
C. parietal and occipital bones
D. temporal and ethmoid bones
23. Which of the following bones has a styloid process and a mastoid process?A. ethmoid
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
24. The foramen magnum is found in which of the following bones?A. femur
B. occipital
C. scapula
D. temporal
25. The squamous suture lies between the and bones.A. frontal, sphenoid
B. parietal, frontal
C. parietal, temporal
D. temporal, occipital
26. In a newborn infant, the is located between the angles of the two parietal bones and the two segments of the frontal bone.
A. anterior fontanel
B. coronal suture
C. temporal foramen
D. vertical plate
27. Which of the following is associated with the ethmoid bone and it separates the two sides of the nose?A. foramen ovale
B. hypophyseal fossa
C. mastoid process
D. perpendicular plate
28. Thoracic vertebrae may be distinguished from other vertebrae by theA. characteristic short, stubby spines and thick bodies.
B. bifid spines and triangular shaped vertebral foramen.
C. presence of articulating facets on the transverse processes.
D. transverse foramina in the transverse processes.
29. Which of the following bones contains paranasal sinuses?A. frontal
B. mandible
C. temporal
D. zygomatic
30. With which of the following does the manubrium of the sternum articulate?A. clavicle, first rib and part of second rib
B. humerus
C. second cervical vertebra
D. xiphoid process
31. Which of the following is a moveable bone of the skull?A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. temporal bone
32. Which of the following type of bones are slightly curved to absorb the stress of the body, and consist mostly of compact bone?A. flat bones
B. long bones
C. regular bones
D. short bones
33. Which bone does NOT belong in the list with the others?A. femur
B. rib
C. sternum
D. vertebra
34. Which of the following is a cranial bone?A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. zygomatic bone
35. A facial bone that contains the mental foramen is the .A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. zygomatic bone
36. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the skull?A. ethmoid bone
B. hyoid bone
C. occipital bone
D. temporal bone
37. Which bone of the skull contains a sinus that is just inferior to the floor of the brain?A. maxilla
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. sphenoid
38. Which bone of the skull articulates with the vertebral column?A. hyoid
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. temporal
39. The carotid foramen is a hole through which the carotid artery passes. In what bone is this foramen located?A. frontal
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. temporal
40. Soft spots in the skull filled with fibrous connective tissue, which will eventually be replaced by bone are called .A. fontanels
B. meatuses
C. sinuses
D. sutures
41. The hypophyseal fossa, located in the sphenoid bone, is a depression where the _________ is located.
A. inner ear
B. optic nerve
C. pituitary gland
D. sphenoid sinus
42. Which of the following bones resembles a bat with outstretched wings.A. frontal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
43. Which bone is surrounded by and touches all of the other bones of the cranial floor?A. ethmoid
B. frontal
C. sphenoid
D. temporal
44. Which bones form most of the hard palate?A. mandible
B. maxilla
C. occipital
D. temporal
45. Which bone does NOT make up part of the bony orbit of the eye?A. frontal bone
B. maxilla
C. nasal bone
D. sphenoid bone
46. The olfactory foramina are located in the bone which makes up most of the nose.A. ethmoid
B. maxillary
C. nasal
D. sphenoid
47. Which curve of the vertebral column is convex with respect to the anterior side of the body, in other words, it bulges anteriorly?A. cervical curve
B. sacral curve
C. thoracic curve
D. all have concave curves.
48. The body of the sternum articulates directly or indirectly with the .A. cartilages of the second through tenth ribs
B. clavicle
C. floating ribs
D. thoracic vertebra
49. Abnormal elevation of the longitudinal arch often results from muscle deformities as may result from poliomyelitis. This condition is called .
A. clawfoot.
B. kyphosis.
C. osteoporosis.
D. rickets.
50. Distally, the tibia articulates with the of the fibula.A. fibular notch
B. medial condyle
C. medial malleolus
D. styloid process
51. The narrow, ridge-like projection along the superior aspect of the hip bone is the .A. greater trochanter
B. iliac crest
C. medial epicondyle
D. radial tuberosity
52. The acetabulumA. contains the coracohumeral ligament.
B. is formed by the ischium, ilium and pubis.
C. is inferior to the obturator foramen.
D. is lined with fibrocartilage.
53. The glenoid cavity isA. a depression for articulation with the head of the humerus.
B. a depression for articulation with the head of the femur.
C. a hole in tooth enamel.
D. the area around the spine of the scapula.
54. There is NO styloid process on the .A. radius
B. scapula
C. temporal bone
D. ulna
55. The bones of the fingers are called .A. carpals
B. metacarpals
C. phalanges
D. tarsals
56. The pectoral girdle consists of the .A. coxal bones
B. humerus and scapula
C. ribs, sternum, and clavicle
D. scapula and clavicle
57. Which bone of the foot articulates with both the tibia and the fibula?A. calcaneus
B. middle cuneiform
C. navicular
D. talus
58. The female pelvis differs from that of the male in that the pelvis of the female hasA. a heart-shaped pelvic brim and deep false pelvis.
B. a large acetabulum and rounded obturator foramen.
C. a more vertical ilium.
D. larger pelvic inlet and shallow false pelvis.
59. The clavicle is attached to the scapula at the .A. acromion
B. coracoid process
C. glenoid cavity
D. spine
60. The carpal most likely to be broken during an injury is the .A. hamate
B. pisiform
C. scaphoid
D. triquetrum
61. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the radius at the .A. styloid process.
B. radial notch.
C. deltoid tuberosity.
D. radial tuberosity.
62. The part of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder is the .A. acromion
B. coracoid process
C. glenoid cavity
D. spine
63. The bony prominence on the posterior surface of the elbow is the .A. medial condyle of the humerus
B. olecranon process of the ulna
C. radial tuberosity
D. trochlea of the humerus
64. When you sit, the part of the hip that touches the seat of the chair is the .A. acetabulum
B. ilium
C. ischium
D. pubis
65. Which of the following is a component of the axial skeleton?A. clavicle
B. pelvis
C. scapula
D. sternum
66. The vertebra featured is which of the following?
A. cervical
B. lumbar
C. sacral
D. thoracic
67. Which of the following is NOT part of the thorax?A. clavicles
B. costal cartilages
C. sternum
D. thoracic vertebrae
68. Which of the following form(s) the posterior portion of the hard palate?A. ethmoid bone
B. maxillae
C. palatine bones
D. sphenoid bone
69. _____________are the two bones that form the only moveable join in the skull.A. maxillae and mandible
B. temporal and mandible
C. occipital and atlas
D. occipital and axis
70. Which of the following is a characteristic exclusively of spongy bone, but NOT of compact bone?A. composed of haversian systems
B. composed of trabeculae
C. contains lacunae
D. displays concentric lamellae when cut in cross-section
71. Which of the following are bone-forming cells?A. chondrocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. osteocytes
72. _________are contained within the lacunae of compact bone.A. Chondrocytes
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteoclasts
D. Osteocytes
73. The longest, heaviest, and strongest bone of the human skeleton is the .A. femur
B. humerus
C. sacrum
D. tibia
74. The lateral and medial condyles of the femur articulate with the .A. acetabulum of the pelvic girdle
B. fibula
C. tibia
D. tibia and fibula respectively
75. The bony prominence on the lateral surface of the thigh near the hip joint is the .A. acetabulum
B. crest of the ilium
C. greater trochanter of the femur
D. lateral condyle of the femur
76. __________is the bony prominence on the anterior surface of the tibia to which the patellar ligament attaches.A. Medial malleolus of the tibia,
B. Lateral malleolus of the fibula,
C. Lesser trochanter.
D. Tibial tuberosity.
77. The lateral malleolus on the lateral surface of the ankle is part of the .A. calcaneus
B. fibula
C. talus
D. tibia
78. The obturator foramen of the female pelvis is .A. round
B. oval
C. smaller than that of the male
D. located within the skull
79. Most cranial bones are classified as which of the following?A. flat bones
B. irregular bones
C. long bones
D. short bones
80. Which of the following is a fracture in which the broken ends of the bone protrude through the skin?A. complete
B. compound
C. partial
D. simple
81. All of the following bone markings are located at the proximal epiphysis of a bone except the:A. condyles of tibia
B. head of femur
C. condyles of femur
D. greater trochanter
82. The bone does NOT articulate with any other bone.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is hyoidSee 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone
83. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, incorrectly positioned hands may fracture the and drive it into internal organs.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is xiphoid processSee 6.9: Thorax
84. _________is a tough sheath of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds and protects a long bone.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is PeriosteumSee 6.3: Structure of Bone
85. Yellow bone marrow is contained in the of long bones.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is medullary cavitySee 6.3: Structure of Bone
86. __________is responsible for bone formation during intramembranous ossification.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is PeriosteumSee 6.4: Bone Formation
87. ___________is the addition of minerals and collagen fibers to bone.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is Bone depositionSee 6.4: Bone Formation
88. ___________is the process of bone formation which occurs directly on or within mesenchyme.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is Intramembranous ossificationSee 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone
89. The meninges of the brain are attached to the ethmoid bone at the .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is crista galliSee 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone
90. The heads of are commonly called “knuckles” and are readily visible as features of a clenched fist.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is metacarpalsSee 6.11: Upper Limb
91. The is the anterior joint that unites the hip bones.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is pubic symphysisSee 6.12: Pelvic (Hip) Girdle
92. ____________is a small triangular bone located in front of the knee joint between the femur and the tibia.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is PatellaSee 6.13: Lower Limb
93. The single, plow-shaped bone that forms the lower part of the nasal septum is the .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is vomerSee 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone
94. The human skeleton is composed of ____ bones of which ____ are in the axial skeleton and ____ are in the appendicular skeleton.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is 206, 80, 126See 6.1: Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System
95. The spinal cord passes to and from the brain by passing through an opening in the skull known as the foramen ________.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is magnumSee 6.2: Types of Bones
96. Articular cartilage is composed of elastic cartilage.A. True
B. False
97. In adults, red bone marrow is found in the trabeculae of spongy bone tissue.A. True
B. False
98. The secondary ossification centers in long bones are in the epiphyses.A. True
B. False
99. The first cervical vertebra is known as the axis.A. True
B. False
100. Exercise that stresses bone causes bone resorption more so than bone deposition.A. True
B. False
101. Once bones are formed, they are static and unchanging.A. True
B. False
102. The structural unit of compact bone is the osteon.A. True
B. False
1. The type of movement associated with a planar joint isA. circumduction.
B. many types, but no rotation.
C. rotation around a central axis.
D. side to side and back and forth movement.
2. The are fluid-filled sacs that help cushion certain joints.A. bursae
B. menisci
C. trochoids
D. vesicles
3. The type of movement associated with a pivot joint isA. many types, but no rotation.
B. side to side and back and forth movement.
C. sliding movement.
D. rotation around its longitudinal axis.
4. An accessory ligament is associated with which type of joint?A. diarthrosis
B. gomphosis
C. synarthrosis
D. synostosis
5. Which of the following is an example of a synchondrosis?A. humeroscapular articulation
B. epiphyseal plate
C. pubic symphysis
D. tibiofibular articulation
6. Which of the following types of joints is characterized by the absence of a joint cavity and the presence of fibrous connective tissue connecting articulating bones?
A. symphysis)
B. synchondrosis
C. fibrous
D. synovial
7. Another term for a freely movable joint is .A. amphiarthrosis
B. diarthrosis
C. gomphosis
D. synarthrosis
8. Which of the following is stretched or torn in about 70% of all serious knee injuries?A. anterior cruciate ligament
B. articular discs
C. prepatellar bursae
D. medial meniscus
9. Which of the following is NOT a type of diarthrosis?A. hinge joint
B. planar joint
C. pivot joint
D. symphysis
10. Which term means forcible wrenching or twisting of a joint that stretches or tears ligaments but does not dislocate the bones?A. sprain
B. strain
C. bursitis
D. arthralgia.
11. Which of the following special movements is the mandible NOT capable of performing?A. depression
B. elevation
C. eversion
D. protraction
12. The distal articulation of the tibia and fibula is an example of a .A. gomphosis
B. symphysis
C. synchondrosis
D. syndesmosis
13. Movement along one plane is associated with joints.A. ball and socket
B. condyloid
C. hinge
D. saddle
14. The point of contact between bones is called a(n) .A. angle
B. articulation
C. joint line
D. tuberosity
15. Structurally, the knee joint is classified as a .A. symphysis
B. syndesmosis
C. synovial joint
D. suture
16. The inner lining of a synovial cavity is called the .A. articular capsule
B. fibrous capsule
C. periosteum
D. synovial membrane
17. The joint at the base of the thumb is classified as a .A. gliding joint
B. hinge joint
C. pivot joint
D. saddle joint
18. The movement of the head when you tilt it back to look at something above you is called .
A. elevation
B. extension
C. hyperextension
D. rotation
19. A pivot joint is found between the .A. femur and the tibia
B. humerus and scapula
C. occipital and the atlas
D. proximal ends of the radius and ulna
20. When you bend the ankle to lift the toes toward the knee your ankle is .A. dorsiflexed
B. everted
C. inverted
D. plantar flexed
21. Movement of a protracted part backward on a plane parallel to the ground is called .
A. contraction
B. eversion
C. pronation
D. retraction
22. A synovial, ball-and-socket joint of the lower extremity is the .A. ankle joint
B. hip joint
C. knee joint
D. toe joint
23. The elbow joint is a .A. hinge joint
B. ball-and-socket joint
C. gliding joint
D. symphysis
24. The cause of the inflammatory disease, rheumatoid arthritis, isA. a bacterial infection.
B. a dislocation of the joint.
C. an autoimmune reaction.
D. uric acid build-up.
25. Which of the following is classified as an amphiarthrosis?A. distal articulation between the tibia and fibula
B. epiphyseal plate that connects the epiphysis and diaphysis of an elongating bone
C. joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum
D. suture between skull bones
26. Damage to which of the following would cause a synovial joint to be more easily dislocated?A. articular cartilage
B. articular fat pad
C. fibrous capsule
D. synovial membrane
27. Which of the following joints is capable of circumduction?A. atlantoaxial joint
B. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
C. elbow joint
D. hip joint
28. Inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion are movements associated with which of the following?A. feet
B. hands
C. lower leg
D. upper arms
29. The posterior cruciate ligament, patellar ligament, and prepatellar bursa are all parts of the _____ joint.A. ankle
B. hip
C. knee
D. shoulder
30. Dislocation of the __________ is the most common upper limb dislocation in children.A. humerus
B. radius
C. ulna
D. scaphoid bone
31. ___________ is the movement found at the joint between the atlas and axis that allows you to "just say no."
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is RotationSee 7.5: Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
32. In anatomical position, the palms must be .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is supinatedSee 7.5: Types of Movements at Synovial Joints
33. The pads of fibrocartilage found between the articular surfaces of some bones, such as the knee, are called articular discs or .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is menisciSee 7.7: Details of a Synovial Joint: The Knee Joint
34. ____________is a procedure that permits access to the interior of a synovial joint such as the shoulder or hip so that structures can be observed and surgery can be performed.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is ArthroscopySee 7.7: Details of a Synovial Joint: The Knee Joint
35. __________ is a degenerative joint disease commonly known as "wear-and-tear" arthritis.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is OsteoarthritisSee 7.8: Aging and Joints
36. The saddle joint allows the greatest range of motion of any synovial joint.A. True
B. False
37. Sutures are found only between the bones of the skull.A. True
B. False
38. All synovial joints are diarthrotic.A. True
B. False
39. Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are types of angular movements.A. True
B. False
40. To restore a body part to the anatomical position after it has been flexed involves hyperextension.A. True
B. False
41. As shown in the figure, synovial membrane does cover over articular cartilages.
A. True
B. False
1. The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the .A. endomysium
B. epimysium
C. perimysium
D. sarcomysium
2. Specific regions on the surface of actin serve as active sites for the formation of cross-bridges with molecules of .A. ATP
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
3. Myofibrils are composed primarily of .A. actin and myosin
B. ATP
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
4. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causesA. acetylcholine to break down.
B. ATP to break down to ADP.
C. breakdown of pyruvic acid to lactic acid.
D. troponin to bind to tropomyosin.
5. Creatine phosphateA. activates ATPase.
B. breaks down ATP.
C. supplies energy to break ATP into ADP.
D. supplies energy for synthesis of ATP.
6. The amount of oxygen needed in part to support the conversion of lactic acid to pyruvic acid is called the .A. aerobic concentration
B. anaerobic concentration
C. oxygen debt
D. refractory quantity
7. The oxygen-binding protein found in skeletal muscle fibers is .A. adenosine triphosphate
B. creatine phosphate
C. hemoglobin
D. myoglobin
8. Muscle contraction is triggered by impulses carried over .A. afferent neurons
B. motor neurons
C. myofibrils
D. sensory neurons
9. In the liver, some of the lactic acid is converted to .A. acetylcholinesterase
B. ATP
C. glycogen
D. myoglobin
10. In tetanus,A. Ca2+ levels drop too low to sustain contractions.
B. muscles tire due to build up of ATP.
C. muscles undergo sustained contractions.
D. muscles wither away.
11. An increase in the number of motor units activated as the threshold stimulus increases is called .A. peristalsis
B. recruitment
C. treppe
D. wave summation
12. The sarcoplasmic reticulumA. is the cell membrane around each muscle fiber.
B. opens to the outside through the sarcolemma.
C. produces ATP for muscle contraction.
D. stores Ca2+ when the fiber is at rest.
13. Smooth muscle differs from skeletal because smooth muscleA. has better developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. has no actin or myosin.
C. is multi-nucleated.
D. is nonstriated.
14. Cardiac muscle fibers are attached to one another at .A. A bands
B. intercalated discs
C. sarcomeres
D. T-tubules
15. AcetylcholineA. breaks down acetylcholinesterase.
B. is made in synaptic vesicles.
C. is stored in synaptic vesicles.
D. stops nerves impulse transmission.
16. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events leading to muscle contraction?A. Acetylcholine is released, calcium (Ca2+) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm, the troponin-tropomyosin complex changes
shape, and cross bridges form between actin and myosin.B. Calcium (Ca2+) ions are pumped through the sarcolemma, protein receptors are activated, pH of the sarcoplasm changes,
and ATP is produced.C. Calcium (Ca2+) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, cross bridges break, and cholinesterase is released.
D. Cross-bridges form, calcium (Ca2+) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm, and troponin covers tropomyosin.
17. A muscle fascicle is surrounded by .A. endomysium
B. epimysium
C. perimysium
D. sarcomysium
18. Muscle growth due to an increase in the size of existing fibers is called .A. fusion extension
B. hyperplasia
C. hypertrophy
D. pericytosis
19. Which of the following molecules stores energy that is used to synthesize additional ATP molecules?A. creatine phosphate
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
20. A motor end plate is part of a .A. cardiac muscle cell at the intercalated disc
B. motor neuron
C. skeletal muscle cell at the synapse
D. muscle cell when two cells meet
21. Calcium (Ca2+) ions move from the cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle cell (sarcoplasm) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, because of the action of
A. acetylcholine receptors on the cell surface.
B. active transport pumps in the reticulum membrane.
C. ion diffusion channels in the membrane.
D. myosin binding sites.
22. When ATP attaches to the myosin head,A. actin and myosin both shorten.
B. Ca2+ ions react with the ATP.
C. the head attaches to troponin.
D. the head detaches from actin.
23. When calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm is low theA. actin detaches from the Z discs.
B. muscle cell membrane releases acetylcholine.
C. myosin stretches and the muscle relaxes.
D. troponin-tropomyosin complex slides back over the myosin binding sites.
24. Which of the following describes fast oxidative glycolytic (FOG) fibers of skeletal muscle tissue?A. intermediate diameter, contains a large amount of myoglobin, generates ATP by both aerobic cellular respiration and
glycolysisB. large diameter, contains a large amount of myoglobin, generates ATP mainly by aerobic cellular respiration
C. large diameter, contains a small amount of myoglobin, generates ATP mainly by glycolysis
D. small diameter, contains a small amount of myoglobin, generates ATP by both aerobic cellular respiration and glycolysis
25. When examined under a microscope, in which type of muscle tissue are striations NOT apparent?A. cardiac muscle
B. cardiac and smooth muscle
C. skeletal muscle
D. smooth muscle
26. Which muscle tissue is involuntary, slow in contracting, and able to regenerate considerably better than other types of muscle?A. cardiac
B. skeletal
C. smooth
D. striated
27. A weakness of muscles caused by an abnormality at the neuromuscular junction that partially blocks contraction is known as .
A. fibrillation
B. lumbago
C. muscular dystrophy
D. myasthenia gravis
28. Tendinitis of the tibialis anterior can result in a painful condition commonly known as .
A. painful heel syndrome
B. pulled hamstring
C. shinsplints
D. stress fracture
29. The origin of a muscle is theA. attachment of a muscle tendon to a moveable bone.
B. attachment of a muscle tendon to a stationary bone.
C. fleshy portion of a muscle between tendons.
D. part of the muscle that crosses the joint.
30. A runner suffers a pulled hamstring. Which of the following muscles might be involved?A. biceps femoris
B. rectus femoris
C. vastus lateralis
D. vastus medialis
31. A muscle which functions as the prime mover is called a(n) .A. agonist
B. antagonist
C. fixator
D. third class lever
32. Which of the following is true concerning the quadriceps femoris muscle?A. All four heads function to flex the thigh.
B. All four muscles in this group function to extend the leg.
C. All of the muscles in this group originate on the femur.
D. It consists of four muscles located in the leg.
33. In order for skeletal muscles to cause movement of a bone they mustA. act as fixators.
B. be associated with an aponeurosis.
C. consist of long fibers.
D. cross at least one joint.
34. The rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles all have one function in common. What is it?
A. All are classified architecturally as parallel muscles.
B. All are on the posterior surface of the body.
C. All function to compress the abdomen.
D. They are the only muscles never to undergo tetanus.
35. Which of the following is true of synergistic muscle groups?A. Examples are triceps brachii and biceps brachii.
B. They are always red muscles.
C. They are usually on the opposite of a limb.
D. They contract together for coordinated movement.
36. An example of a circular muscle is the .A. biceps brachii
B. deltoid
C. orbicularis oris
D. sartorius
37. Antagonistic muscle groupsA. are usually circular muscles.
B. are usually located on the same side of a limb.
C. contract together to perform a coordinated movement.
D. perform opposite functions.
38. The deltoid muscle isA. pear-shaped.
B. saw-toothed shaped.
C. square shaped.
D. triangularly shaped.
39. Muscles that hold the scapula firmly in place while the forearm moves are called the .
A. adductors
B. antagonists
C. fixators
D. prime movers
40. An adductor muscleA. decreases the angle of a joint.
B. decreases the size of an opening in the body.
C. moves a part of the body toward the midline.
D. rotates a bone around its long axis.
41. The gracilis muscle is located in the .A. abdomen
B. forearm
C. leg
D. thigh
42. The masseter muscle is located in the .A. abdomen
B. forearm
C. head
D. neck
43. Which muscle is contracted when you open your eyes (elevate the upper eyelid)?A. frontalis
B. levator palpebrae superioris
C. orbicularis oculi
D. orbicularis oris
44. Which muscle is attached to (inserts on) the corners of the mouth and is the "smiling muscle"?A. buccinator
B. orbicularis oris
C. platysma
D. zygomaticus major
45. Which broad, flat muscle covers the mandible and the sides of the throat region?A. frontalis
B. masseter
C. occipitalis
D. platysma
46. Which broad, flat muscle originates on the bone over the ears?A. masseter
B. occipitalis
C. platysma
D. temporalis
47. A muscle originating on the sphenoid bone that moves the lower jaw is the .A. lateral pterygoid
B. masseter
C. platysma
D. temporalis
48. The inferior rectus muscleA. keeps the eyeball erect.
B. moves the eyeball upward and laterally.
C. rolls the eyeball down.
D. rolls the eyeball medially.
49. All of the extrinsic muscles that move the eyeball insert on the .A. bones of the orbit of the eye
B. ethmoid bone
C. outer surface (sclera) of the eyeball
D. sphenoid bone
50. The brachioradialis muscle is named after its .A. action
B. shape
C. origin and insertion
D. location
51. The action of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is antagonistic to which of the following muscles.A. digastric
B. erector spinae
C. masseter
D. temporal
52. The transversus abdominis muscle is located to the internal oblique muscle.A. deep
B. lateral
C. medial
D. superficial
53. Which muscle flexes the vertebral column?A. pectoralis major
B. quadratus lumborum
C. rectus abdominis
D. trapezius
54. The diaphragm muscle inserts onA. a strong aponeurosis called the central tendon.
B. the first lumbar vertebra.
C. the first three thoracic vertebrae.
D. the inferior border of the eleventh and twelfth ribs.
55. Part of the insertion of the trapezius muscle is on the .A. cervical vertebrae
B. clavicle
C. occipital bone
D. sternum
56. Which muscle of the pectoral girdle acts as an accessory muscle of inspiration?A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. serratus anterior
D. trapezius
57. Which muscle originates on the largest number of ribs?A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. rhomboideus major
D. serratus anterior
58. Which muscle of the pectoral girdle has the broadest origin?A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. rhomboid major
D. trapezius
59. The latissimus dorsi and the pectoralis major muscles have their insertions on the __ .
A. cervical vertebrae
B. humerus
C. ribs
D. scapula
60. The strength and stability of the shoulder joint is provided by theA. pectoralis minor muscle.
B. shape of the articulating bones and ligaments.
C. muscles and tendons of the rotator cuff.
D. latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major muscles
61. Which muscle that crosses the shoulder joint moves the arm in the greatest number of different directions?A. deltoid
B. supraspinatus
C. subscapularis
D. teres major
62. The only muscle that originates on both the clavicle and the scapula is the .A. deltoid
B. pectoralis major
C. supraspinatus
D. trapezius
63. Which muscle acts to extend the forearm?A. biceps brachii
B. brachialis
C. deltoid
D. triceps brachii
64. The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle originate on the .A. clavicle
B. humerus
C. scapula
D. sternum
65. The flexor digitorum profundus muscle acts to flex theA. distal phalanges of the fingers.
B. thumb.
C. wrist.
D. proximal phalanges of the fingers.
66. Which muscles that extend the vertebral column run parallel with the vertical axis of the spine?A. erector spinae
B. psoas major
C. rectus abdominis
D. sternocleidomastoid
67. Which of the muscle groups which extend the vertebral column is located most laterally?A. iliocostalis
B. longissimus
C. psoas major
D. spinalis
68. The large muscle of the body that extends the thigh is the .A. biceps brachii
B. gluteus maximus
C. latissimus dorsi
D. quadriceps femoris
69. Of the muscles that flex the thigh, the only one that originates on the vertebral column is the A) iliacusA.
B. pectineus
C. psoas major
D. tensor fasciae latae
70. Which muscle originates on the ilium and inserts on the medial surface of the tibia?A. gracilis
B. rectus femoris
C. sartorius
D. tensor fasciae latae
71. Which muscle lies deep to the rectus femoris muscle?A. sartorius
B. vastus intermedius
C. vastus lateralis
D. vastus medialis
72. The medial compartment of the thigh contains muscles that the thigh.A. abduct
B. adduct
C. extend
D. flex
73. The longest muscle of the human body is the .A. gastrocnemius
B. latissimus dorsi
C. rectus femoris
D. sartorius
74. The hamstring muscles act toA. extend the leg.
B. extend the thigh and flex the leg.
C. flex the thigh.
D. flex the thigh and extend the leg.
75. The muscles of the anterior compartment of the legA. dorsiflex the foot.
B. evert the foot.
C. invert the foot.
D. plantar flex the foot.
76. The Achilles tendon attaches (inserts) on the .A. calcaneus
B. fibula
C. patellla
D. tibia
77. The bone of the leg that is often damaged in a stress fracture is the .A. femur
B. fibula
C. talus
D. tibia
78. Which of the following is NOT a property of muscle cells?A. ability to expand forcefully when stimulated
B. ability to respond to stimuli by producing electrical signals
C. ability to return to its original length and shape after contraction or extension
D. ability to stretch without damage
79. Which of the following contains Ca2+-binding sites, which are important in initiating the contraction cycle?A. actin subunits
B. myosin heads
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
80. Receptors for acetylcholine (ACh) are located on which of the following?A. external surface of T tubules
B. external surface of the sarcolemma
C. external surface of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. presynaptic membrane of the synaptic bulb
81. Which of the motor unit sizes listed below would allow for the greatest degree of skeletal muscle control?A. 3 muscle fiber/motor neurons
B. 15 muscle fiber/motor neurons
C. 90 muscle fiber/motor neurons
D. 150 muscle fiber/motor neurons
82. Which of the following is the proper sequence of the structures, from 1 to 4, labeled in the illustration below?
A. insertion, belly, tendon, origin
B. insertion, origin, belly, tendon
C. origin, belly, tendon, insertion
D. origin, tendon, belly, insertion
83. Contractions of which of the following muscles contribute(s) to forceful exhalation?A. diaphragm
B. external intercostals
C. internal intercostals
D. sternocleidomastoid
84. Contractions of which of the following pairs of muscles flexes the cervical portion of the vertebral column?A. erector spinae
B. infraspinatus
C. quadratus lumborum
D. sternocleidomastoid
85. Considering flexion of the forearm, which of the following terms describes the triceps brachii muscle?
A. agonist
B. antagonist
C. prime mover
D. synergist
86. The belly (contractile elements) of the extensor digitorum longus muscle lies entirely in the .
A. anterior compartment of the leg
B. lateral compartment of the leg
C. plantar surface of the foot
D. posterior compartment of the leg
87. A very common muscle injury in individuals who run hard is to the .A. gastrocnemius
B. hamstrings
C. quadriceps femoris
D. sartorius
88. Which is the following is not part of RICE therapy for sports injuries? A. Rest
B. Ice
C. Compression
D. Extension
89. All of the following characteristics are true of fibromyalgia except:A. Pain results from gentle pressure at specific “tender points.”
B. The condition is 15 times more common in men than in women.
C. The condition is most common after the age of 50 years.
D. Fatigue and poor sleep typically occur with fibromyalgia
90. The iliotibial tract is a strong connective tissue structure located on the ________ aspect of the thigh.A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Laterial
91. The ___is the basic unit of contraction in skeletal muscle.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is sarcomereSee 8.3: Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle
92. There is a slight delay between the application of the stimulus and the beginning of contraction called the .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is latent periodSee 8.3: Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle
93. The fibers generate ATP mainly by aerobic cellular respiration and have a slow contraction cycle.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is slow oxidativeSee 8.3: Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle
94. ___________is the integrated system of bones, muscles, and joints functioning together.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is Musculoskeletal system
See 8.1: Overview of Muscular Tissue
95. After prolonged activity, is the inability of a muscle to forcefully contract.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is muscle fatigueSee 8.6: Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue
96. A characteristic of cardiac muscle, , is the intrinsic rhythm of cardiac muscle fibers.
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is autorhythmicitySee 8.7: Cardiac Muscle Tissue
97. The tunnel-like extensions of the sarcolemma which carry the muscle action potential deep into the muscle are called .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is transverse tubules (T tubules)See 8.2: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
98. The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium extend beyond the muscle as a .
YOUR ANSWER:
The suggested answer is tendonSee 8.2: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
99. The quadriceps muscles all insert on the tibial tuberosity.A. True
B. False
100. The thick filaments are found in the I band.A. True
B. False
101. The four muscles and tendons of the rotator cuff provide stability to the shoulder. The muscles involved are the subscapularis, the supraspinatus, the infraspinatus, and the teres major.
A. True
B. False
102. Muscular dystrophy refers to a group of inherited conditions in which muscles degenerate.A. True
B. False
103. Myalgia refers to pain in muscles.A. True
B. False
104. The flexors of the wrist, hand, and fingers originate on the humerus and form the anterior compartment of the forearmA. True
B. False