VPM’s K.G Joshi College of Arts and N.G Bedekar College ... papers/TY BMS SEM VI...VPM’s K.G Joshi College of Arts and N.G Bedekar College of Commerce, Thane Department of Bachelor

VPM’s K.G Joshi College of Arts and N.G Bedekar College of Commerce, Thane

Department of Bachelor of Management Studies

ACADEMIC YEAR 2019-2020 (Sample Question)

Name of the Professor: Nitin Pagi/ Mohini Kulkarni Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: Operation Research Paper No: Paper: Core Compulsory

1. Who developed the Game Theory.

a) J. R. Hicks b) William J. Baumol

c) Neumann Morgenstern d) Samuelson P. T.

2. What is a saddle point?

a) Equilibrium point b) Balanced Growth Point

c) Imbalanced Growth Point d) Unstable Equilibrium Point

3. In a constant sum game, what is true?

a) Both players get equal gains b) Both players adopt the same strategy

c) Mixed strategies are adopted by players d) What one player gains, the other loses

4. When minimax and the maximin in a payoff matrix are equal

a) It is an indeterminate solution

b) It is a strictly determined game

c) It cannot be solved by a Two-person constant sum game.

d) It cannot be solved by zero sum game.

5. In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is referred to as

a) the dominant strategy. b) the game-winning choice.

c) super optimal. d) a gonzo selection.

6. Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?

a) All firm have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant strategy.

b) All firms have a dominant strategy, but only some choose to follow it.

c) All firms have a dominant strategy, and none choose it.

d) None of the above is correct

7. Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium?

a) A firm chooses its dominant strategy, if one exists

b) Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is optimal given the choices of every other firm.

c) Market price results in neither a surplus nor a shortage

d) All firms in an industry are earning zero economic profits

8. Game theory is concerned with

a) predicting the results of bets placed on games like roulette

b) the choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations

c) utility maximization by firms in perfectly competitive markets

d) the migration patterns of caribou in Alaska

9. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the

a) payoff b) penalty

c) reward d) end-game strategy

10. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called

a) first-mover advantage. b) a Nash equilibrium strategy

c) tit-for-tat. d) a dominant strategy.

11. A common assumption about the players in a game is that

a) neither player knows the payoff matrix.

b) the players have different information about the payoff matrix.

c) only one of the players pursues a rational strategy.

d) the specific identity of the players is irrelevant to the play of the game.

12. In a zero-sum game,

a) what one player wins, the other loses.

b) the sum of each player’s winnings if the game is played many times must be zero.

c) the game is fair – each person has an equal chance of winning.

d) long-run profits must be zero.

13.What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and

complex projects by using only one-time factor per activity?

a) Forecasting b) Critical path method

c) Program evaluation review technique d) Simulation

14. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and

complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?

a) Forecasting b) Program evaluation review technique

c) Critical path method d) Simulation

15. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities

and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly

known as CPM. What does CPM stand for?

a) Critical plan method b) Coordinated plan method

c) Critical project method d) Critical path method

16. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities

and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly

known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?

a) Project evaluation review technique b) Program evaluation review technique

c) Path evaluation review technique d) Program execution review technique

17. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in which year?

a) 1957 b) 1958

c) 1959 d) 1960

18. In what year was PERT developed?

a) 1957 b) 1959

c) 1960

19 MODI method is used to obtain _____

a) Optimal solutions b) Optimality test

c) Both A and B d) Optimization

20. Any feasible solution to a transportation problem containing m origins and n destinations is said to be _____

a) Independent b) Degenerate

c) Non-degenerate d) Non-Independent

21. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of which are occupied is called a _____

a) Occupied path b) Open path

c) Closed path d) Dummy path

22. Transportation algorithm can be used for minimizing the transportation cost of _____ from O origins and D destinations.

a) Goods b) Products

c) Items d) Service

23. If demand is lesser than supply then dummy demand node is added to make it a _____.

a) Simple problem b) Balanced problem

c) Transportation problem d) Unbalanced problem

24. Currently, LPP is used in solving a wide range of practical _____.

a) Business problems b) Agricultural problems

c) Manufacturing problems d) Trading problems

25. ______ refers to the combination of one or more inputs to produce a particular output.

a) Solution b) Variable

c) Process d) Non-Variable

26. An optimum solution is considered the _____ among feasible solutions.

a) Worst b) Best

c) Ineffective c) Effective

27. In simplex method, we add _____ variables in the case of ‘=’.

a) Slack Variable b) Surplus Variable

c) Artificial Variable d) Non-Artificial Variable

28. A BFS of a LPP is said to be ______ if at least one of the basic variables is zero.

a) Degenerate b) Non-degenerate

c) Infeasible d) Unbounded

28. Every LPP is associated with another LPP is called _____.

a) Primal b) Dual

c) Non-linear programming d) Fixed

29. Dual of the dual is _____.

a) Primal b) Dual

c) Alternative d) Fixed

30.Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only _____ variable

a) Four b) More than One

c) Two d) Three

31. The word ‘Linear’ means that the relationships are represented by____.

a) Diagonal lines b) Curved lines

c) Straight lines d) Slanting lines

32. The word ‘programming’ means taking decisions _____.

a) Systematically b) Rapidly

c) Slowly d) Instantly

33. LP is a major innovation since _______ in the fields of business decision-making, particularly under condition of certainty.

a) Industrial Revolution b) World War I

c) World War II d) French Revolution

34. The method of formal calculations often termed as Linear Programming was developed later in which

year?

a) 1947 b) 1988

c) 1957 d) 1944

35. Operations Research (OR), which is a very powerful tool for _____.

a) Research b) Decision-making

c) Operations d) Non-Research

36. The term v was coined in the year _____.

a) 1950 b) 1940

c) 1978 d) 1960

37. This innovative science of Operations Research was disclosed during ____.

a) Civil War b) World War I

c) World War II d) Industrial Revolution

38. Decision making is one of the ________ of Operations Research.

a) Features b) Advantage

c) Importance d) Steps

39. Credit policy Analysis and risks etc. are the areas of Applications of Operations Research in ______ Function

a) Marketing b) Accounting

c) Development d) Globalisation

40. Product selection, Product Introduction timing, Advertising strategy etc. are the areas of Applications of Operations Research in

______ Function.

a) Marketing b) Accounting

c) Development d) Globalisation


Department of BMS (Finance)

ACADEMIC YEAR 2019-2020

Name of the Professor: Mr. Nitin Ingawale Class: TYBMS

Subject :International Finance Semester: VI

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION (MCQ) SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Sr.No. Question Option A Option B Option C Option D

1 Current account includes all of the following,

except ___________.

Merchandise

balance

Services balance FDI Unilateral Transfers

2 FDI in BoP is covered under __________. Capital Account Current Account Official Reserve

Account

Balancing Items

3 The quote ‘1 GBP=Rs.99.85’ is a direct quote for:

__________.

India US UK Australia

4 Inverse quote for “1 GBP = 99.1100/9900 INR”

“GBP__________”.

0.0101/0.0100 0.0100/0.0105 0.0105/0.0100 0.0100/0.0101

5 If USD SGD 1.5423/33; SGD 0.3323/33; GBP USD

quotation is ____________.

1.9512/444 1.9441/512 1.9444/512 1.9512/441

6 Inverse quote for USD/DKK 5.7935-5.8085 is:

___________.

DKK/USD 0.1722-

0.1726

USD/DKK 0.1722-

0.1726

DKK/USD 0.1726-

0.1722

USD/DKK 0.1726-

0.1722

7 Currently the largest foreign exchange market in

the world is ___________.

New York Tokyo Frankfurt London

8 In quote of 1$ = Rs. 61, __________ is a Variable

currency.

INR USD CHF AUD

9 PPP theory ___________ government

intervention.

Ignores Includes Requires mandatory

10 _____________ Bond is issued in a local market by

a foreign borrower, denominated in local currency.

Foreign Euro Domestic Euro Credit

11 ADR’s are denominated in __________currency. USD Euro GBP INR

12 In ADR/GDR process, ________________ issues

the Depository Receipts in Foreign Markets.

Custodian Bank Depository Bank Issuing Company Lead Manager

13 ___ is the method used to minimize risk Hedging Speculation Arbitrage Day trading

14 ____ risk is also known as Balance sheet risk Transaction Risk Translation Risk Economic Risk Position Risk

15 Walmart opening a new retail outlet is an example

of _____________ Project.

Expansion Regulatory Replacement R&D

16 __________ is not included in the wholesale

foreign exchange market.

Small Investor RBI FII Commercial Bank

17 _______ is appraisal tool for projects with

uncertaiunty.

NPV IRR PBP Real Option

18 ___ is an internal hedging technique Leads and lags Futures Forwards Options

19 The demand for foreign currency arises due to

_______.

Exports Imports Investments from

abroad

Inflation

20 The supply of foreign currency is on account of

_______.

Exports Imports Investments from

abroad

Inflation

21 _____________ is a tax levied on passive income

earned by an individual or corporation of one

country within the tax jurisdiction of another

country.

Income tax Withholding tax Value added tax Poll tax

22 Tax havens include all of the following, except

_____________.

Switzerland Bahamans India Hong Kong

23 _______ analysis implies the study of confirming

the adequacy of proposed plant and equipment.

Financial Analysis Technical Analysis Market Analysis Economic Analysis

24 Project investments are irreversible as there is

always a certain unrecoverable _______ cost.

Sunk Investment Depreciation Sales

25 _______ analyses if the benefits from the project

will justify the project cost or investment done.

Financial Analysis Technical Analysis Market Analysis Economic Analysis

26

____ is an external hedging technique Exposure Netting Split currency

invoicing

Foreign currency

accounts

Options.

27 ___ is a customized contract to buy an underlying

asset on a future date.

Futures Forwards Options Leads and lags

28 When a company has receipts and payments in

the same foreign currency due at the same time, it

can use___ technique of managing forex risk

Risk sharing Lagging Leading Matching

29 An account which is held within a domestic

country by a foreign bank, in the currency of

domestic country __________.

Loro Nostro Vostro SWIFT

30 SBI A/c. with HSBC in UK is an example of

_________.

Loro Nostro Vostro SWIFT

***********************



ACADEMIC YEAR 2019-2020 (SAMPLE Question)

Name of the Professor: Roma Bhagtiani Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: Brand Management Paper No: Paper: Elective Marketing

1. A brand is defined as an __________________ asset.

(a) intangible (b) fixed (c) current (d) liquid

2. The brand image is a symbolic construct created within ____________.

(a) minds (b) hands (c) hearts d) stomach

3. Branding crates trust and ___________ attachment of product and company.

(a) emotional (b) cultural (c) traditional (d) occasional

4. Generally branding brings (builds) _________ recognition for product (company)

(a) name (b) color (c) size d) trade

5. A strong brand can make actual ___________ feature insignificantly

(a) product (b) price (c) process (d) pattern

6. A brand identify is the centering idea of business ______________.

(a) organisation (b) community (c) personality (d) Marketing

7. The branded products own the ______________ for its usefulness

(a) responsibility (b) repetitiveness (c) repetitive (d) renewability

8. Brands _________________ decision-making time.

(a) save (b) consume (c) cut (d) reduce

9. Branding exists in almost _________ the industries

(a) all (b) two (c) ten (d) one

10. Brand tracking studies collect information from the _______________.

(a) buyers (b) society (c) members (d) government

11. CBBE stands for customer-based ________________ equity

(a) Brand (b) Batch (c) Building (d)Building

12. Brand-positioning would mean to position the brand or ______________.

(a) product (b) process (c) price (d) period

13. _______________helps make purchasing decisions easier.

(a) Branding (b) Brand (c) Brand Identity (d) Product

14. A ____________ is something that nobody can take away.

(a) Brand (b) Branding (c) Brand Identity (d) Brand Essence

15. A _________ signals to build customer loyalty and not just sell product.

(a) Strong Brand (b) Branding (c) Brand Identity

16. Strong brands exhibit the “____________” of branding

(a) 3C (b) 4P (d) 4D (c) 7C

17. A ___________ is the centering idea of an organization.

(a) Brand Identity (b) Branding (c) Brand Positioning (d) Brand Essence

18. A ____________ should be focused on customer benefits.

(a) Brand Identity (b) Branding (c) Brand Positioning (d) Brand Essence

19. The _________________ serves as a metric to evaluate the seller's marketing strategies,

(a) Brand Essence (b) Branding (c) Brand Identity (d) Brand Positioning

20. A ___________ is a specific item that different organisations sell in the market to their consumers with the sole

purpose of making profits,

(a) Product (b) Goods (c) Market (d) Things

21. _________ is the sum total of all the different values people attach to the brand, or the holistic value of the brand to its

owner as a corporate asset.

(a) Brand Equity (b) Brand Positioning (c) Brand Identity (d) Brand Essence

22. ___________ is market segmentation on the basis of the attitudes, interests, opinions, values, and activities (the

lifestyles) of consumers.

(a) Psychographic segmentation (b) Demographic segmentation

(c) Behavioral segmentation (d) Geographical Segmentation

23. The word “___________ " is often used as referring to the company that is strongly

identified with.

(a) Brand (b) Branding (c) Brand Identity (d) Brand Essence

24. A brand is defined as an __________________.

(a) Intangible Asset (b) Batch (c) Building (d) Building

25. The growth pattern followed by the marketers are _________ or on both directions.

(a) Horizontal or Vertical (b) top or bottom (c) Below or above (d)Building




Name of the Professor: Purva Gaikwad Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: HRM in Global Perspective Paper No: Paper: Elective HR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION (MCQ) MODEL QUESTIONS

Sr.No Question Option A Option B Option C Option D

1 Under IHRM in a centralized training

approach following are true except

Training originates in

HQ and corporate

trainers travel to

subsidiaries adapting

to local situations

Trainers can be sent

from various

positions in either the

HQ or subsidiaries to

any other location in

company.

Local people

develop training

materials and

techniques for use

in their own areas.

The cultural

background of

trainers and

trainees are

dissimilar.

2 Ethnocentric means Subsidies are usually

managed by local

nationals

Selecting best people

for key jobs,

regardless of

nationality

International staff

is transferred

within the same

region they work.

Key management

positions are held

by parent country

nationals

3 The first contribution to cross-cultural

management research were made in

the early ________________.

1950s 1960s 1990s 2000s

4 Whirlpool’s use of a performance

management system worldwide is an

example

extended

management control

over employees

attempts to increase

productivity in all its

branches

an international

HRM policy

a policy that has

adopted a global

village philosophy

5 Cross cultural management Difference between

management

practices in various

countries

Participation in global

sports

Similarity between

management

practices in

various countries

Management

practices

6 The common problems of culture

shock are the following except

Information overload Appreciate foreign

culture

Language barrier homesickness

7 The employees from home country on

international assignments are known

as

HCN PCN TCN Other country

8 Which of the following factors is not

related directly to the success of

expatriate assignments?

the personality of

expatriate

employees

the intentions of

expatriate employees

the incapability of

the spouse to

adjust to the new

situation

the nature of

products produced

by the company

9 Shipping and storage charges is also

known as

Relocation

Allowances

Cost of living

allowances

Home leave

allowance

Education

Allowance

10 Going Rate approach is Links base salary for

expatriates to the

salary structure of the

relevant home

country

Complicated for

expatriates to

understand

Variation between

assignments for

the same

employee

Tuition allowance

11 Balance rate approach is Links base salary for

expatriates to the

salary structure of the

relevant home

country

Complicated for

expatriates to

understand

Variation between

assignments for

the same

employee

Tuition allowance

12 Market Rate Approach is also known

as

Local Plus Approach Build up Approach Balance sheet

Approach

Going rate

approach

13 ______________ are a precondition

for intercultural competence

Ability to perform Soft Skills Family

Requirement

Government policy

14 A German employee working at the

Malaysian subsidiary of Volkswagen

is an example of

TCN PCN HCN Other country

15 A Japanese employee working at the

Malaysian subsidiary of Volkswagen

is an example of

TCN PCN HCN Other country

16 Boundary Spanning Role Information gathering Shared values and

beliefs

Supervision Do not relocate to

the other country

17 Non expatriate Relocate to the other

country

Shared values and

beliefs

Information

gathering

Do not relocate to

the other country

18 International Assignees are Non expatriate Expatriate Executives Repatriates

19 The following are the role of the

expatriate except

Agent of Direct

control

Network Builder Language Node Visiting foreign

markets

20 Cultural shock which is often the

outcome of the negative experience of

moving from a familiar culture to one

that is unfamiliar is important to

understand in the context of

internationalization because

It can effect soldiers

returning from war

zones.

It can effect students

on 'gap year'

experiences.

It can impact on

individuals taking

overseas

assignments

Friends and

families reunited

21 Key to successful management of HR

processes is the ability to

Travel abroad Recruit local

managers

Identify key skills

and competencies

required for

working overseas

Having appropriate

training systems

22 Humanity is considered _________

global value according to United

Nations

First Second Third Fourth

23 The examples of Offshoring are the

following except

BPO International call

center

Software

development

Banks

24 Features of virtual organization are

the following except

Face to face Email Integration Voice mail Alert Computer

Telephony

Technology

25 A _____________ is the result of an

agreement between two companies to

join their operations together

Acquisition Merger Takeover Hostile takeover




Name of the Professor: Sujata Gada Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: Innovative Financial Services Paper No: Paper: Finance

1. The process of selling trade debts of a client to a financial intermediary is called ———

a. Bill discounting

b. Factoring

c. Securitisation

d. Materialisation

2. The idea of providing factoring services was first thought of in India by —————

a. Tandem Committee

b. Malhotra committee

c. Vaghul committee

d. Tandoan committee

3. The central theme of forfaiting is the purchasing of ————— by a financial service company.

a. Trade bills

b. Export bills

c. Import bills

d. Treasurer Bill

4. In India, forfaiting is done by ————— bank

a. Foreign bank

b. RBI

c. Commercial bank

d. EXIM bank

5. The minimum size of venture capital fund is Rs. —————

a. 1 crore

b. 5 crore

c. 10 crore

d. 2 crore

6. Venture capital is originated in —————

a. India

b. France

c. Britain

d. USA

7. ————— is considered to be the father of venture capital.

a. Dariot

b. Vaghul

c. Modigliani

d. Jimmy carter

8. In the implementation stage of a project, venture capital firms provide —————

finance

a. Loan

b. Seed

c. Assets

d. Discount

9. Which of the following is a fee-based service

a. hire purchase

b. leasing

c. capital issue management

d. Underwriting.

10. Find the odd one out

a. Commercial paper,

b. Share certificate,

c. Certificate of deposit,

d. Treasury bill.

11. The process of managing the sales ledger of a client by a financial service company is called factoring

a. Factoring

b. Forfaiting

c. Bill discounting

d. Underwriting

12. The best suited fund to the business people is

a. income fund,

b. balanced fund,

c. growth fund,

d. primary fund

13. Mutual funds are very popular in

a. USA,

b. UK,

c. Japan,

d. India

14. In India, the company which actually deals with the corpus of the mutual fund is called

a. sponsor company,

b. trustee company,

c. asset management company

d. Mutual fund company.

15. Trade debts have to be assigned in favour of the financing company under

a. discounting,

b. forfaiting,

c. factoring,

d. Underwriting

16. Under factoring the factor acts in the capacity of

a. an agent of his client,

b. a trustee,

c. a holder for value,

d. An administrator.

17. The first bank in India to start factoring business is

a. Canara bank,

b. SBI,

c. Punjab National Bank,

d. Allahabad Bank.

18. The inflation free instrument is .

a. Option bond

b. Variable rate bond

c. Index-linked guilt bond

d. Deep discount bond

19. Financial derivatives are mainly used for .

a. Speculative activities

b. Creating more risks

c. Hedging risks.

d. Earning income

20. In an option contract, if the option can be exercised only at the time of maturity, it. is called

a. Double option

b. American option

c. Put option.

d. European option

21. The predetermined price at which an underlying asset has to be bought or sold in. an option contract is called .

a. Option price.

b. Exercise price

c. Spot price

d. Future price

22. Combination of forwards by two counterparties with opposite but matching need is called

a. Swap

b. Option

c. Forward.

d. Future.

23. The first Indian Bank to set up Merchant Banking division in India is _

a. UCO Bank

b. State Bank of India

c. ICICI.

d. Punjab National Bank

24. The first foreign bank which started Merchant Banking services in India is

b. City Bank

c. Bank of America

d. The Federal Bank

e. The National Grindlays Bank

25. A very long tenure lease applicable to immovable properties is

a. Leverage lease

b. Conveyance lease

c. Consumer leasing

d. Balloon lease.

T.Y.B.M.S. - Sem VI CBCS [2M00156]

Paper Code 86006

Retail Management

Sample Question

1 ___________ stores are relatively small stores located near residential area, open

long hours, seven days a week & carrying a limited line of high-turnover convenience

products at slightly higher prices

(a) Specialty

(b) Departmental

(c) Convenience

(d) Non store

2 Advertising, Public relations & Sales promotion are the examples of:

(a) Price strategy

(b) Promotion strategy

(c) Place strategy

(d) Product strategy

3 _______ helps in maintaining relationship by utilizing IT for periodical emailing,

SMS, greetings & personal calling

(a) Point if sales

(b) Frequent shopper program

(c) Campaign

(d) CRM

4 _________ store is a large retail store offering wide variety of products under one

roof separated by different departments

(a) Convenience

(b) Departmental

(c) Specialty

(d) Supermarkets

5 ________________ defined as computer-to-computer transmission of

standardized business transitions.

(a) Electronic Data Interchange

(b) Electronic Data Interference

(c) Electronic Device Interchange

(d) Electronic Device Interference

6 Pizza hut, KFC, Amazon, Cadbury & MacDonald’s are examples of:

(a) FPI

(b) FDI

(c) FBI

(d) FIP

7 __________ stores are having narrow product line with deep variety, viz. apparel

stores, book stores etc.

(a) Specialty

(b) Departmental

(c) Convenience

(d) Non store

8 _________ forecasting is a self-assessment tool for a company

(a) Business

(b) Sales

(c) Management

(d) Customer

9 Direct mail, catalogue marketing, telemarketing are ______ form of marketing

(a) Direct

(b) Indirect

(c) Formal

(d) Simple

10 __________ retail sector is holding the larger share of the retail market.

(a) Unorganized

(b) Organized

(c) Small

(d) Large

11 Retailers sell in ________ quantities as they sell directly to the final consumers

a) Large

b) Medium

c) Small

d) Infinite

12 The _______ has direct links with the manufacturer and buys products or goods

directly from him.

(a) Customer

(b) Manufacturer

(c) Retailer

(d) Wholesaler

13_______ can be termed as value addition activity which adds services along with

products or goods and then offer it to personal or family use.

(a) Manufacturing

(b) Business

(c) Retailing

(d) Selling

14 Retailing of various products by carrying out operations form store is known as

________ retailing

(a) Product

(b) Shop

(c) Store

(d) goods

15) ________ is form of foreign investment which comes in form of physical set

up of plant in the country where investor wishes to invest

(a) Direct investment

(b) Global

(c) FPI

(d) FDI

16) ______ is right granted to an individual or group to market a company’s

goods or services within a certain territory or location

(a) Royalty

(b) Franchise

(c) Outlet

(d) Partnership

17) CRM is a comprehensive set of __________ and technologies for managing

the relationship with potential current customer across the business functions

(a) Process

(b) activity

(c) system

(d) management

18) ___________ is/are type/types of Retail locations

(a) Mall space

(b) free standing locations

(c) office building

(d) Store

19 ___________ is shopping through the Internet and other media forms

(a) E-retailing

(b) E-buying

(c) E-shopping

(d) E-shipping

20 Catalog channels is a ___________-retail channel

a) non-store

b) store

c) Multichannel

d) Internet

21. ________ is a type of retail location is basically any standalone location.

(a) Mall

(b) Home based

(c) Downtown area

(d) Free standing location

22 FPI stands for_______________________-

(a) Foreign Portfolio Investment

(b) Foreign Pattern Investment

(c) Foreign profit Investment

(d) Foreign portfolio Income

23) Eco-friendly environment is a part of _________ retailing

(a) Green

(b) Airport

(c) Multi channel

(d) Store based

24) . ________ stores are having narrow product line with deep variety, viz.

apparel stores, book stores etc.

(a) Departmental

(b) Convenience

(c) Multi-channel

(d) Specialty

25 _______ is a self-service device that enables customers to perform activities

& processes without the aid of a store employee

(a) Kiosk

(b) ATM

(c) Direct Purchase

(d) Franchiser




Name of the Professor: Roma Bhagtiani Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: Organisational Development Paper No: Paper: Elective HR

1) ___________________________ is an applied behavioural science that is concerned with the health of the organization.

A) organisational development

B) organisational process

C) organisational growth

D) organisational decision.

2) Organisational development is an ____________________________--based on the behavioural science.

A) Activity

B) Process

C) Knowledge

D) Productivity

3) Laboratory training is ____________________________small group situations in which participants learn from their own

actions.

A) Structured

B) Unstructured

C) Formal

D) Informal

4) Organisational development training for management usually includes ___________________________training.

A) Change management

B) Restructuring

C) Employee

D) Performance

5) Values and norms can help the organisation to uphold its own____________________________

A) Culture

B) Value

C) Prestige

D) Image

6) ____________________________includes formation of new work.

A) Restructuring

B) Change management

C) Action planning

D) Goal setting

7) The data is used to determine the ____________________________.

A) Change goals

B) Effectiveness

C) Goal setting

D) Organisational development

8) ____________________________requires the analysis of several kinds of information to be successful.

A) Product innovation

B) Product management

C) Technology

D) Patent

9) OD facilitates ____________________________among employees and management.

A) Communication

B) Promotion

C) Innovation

D) Goals

10) ____________________________control the organisation resource and reward system.

A) Top managers

B) Middle managers

C) Employees

D) Lower level managers

11) ____________________________Act as a coach to the organisation leaders and change agents.

A) Manager

B) OD consultant

C) OD practitioner

D) Experts

12) The practitioner act as a ____________________________ in imparting skill related to OD and change process.

A) Mentor

B) Coach

C) Consultant

D) Influencer

13) The ____________________________is essentially useful for organisational problem solving and organisational renewal.

A) Organisational perspective

B) Organisational renewal

C) OD Practitioner

D) Technology

14) The ____________________________of organisation can be bureaucratic.

A) Plan

B) Policy

C) System

D) structure

15) ____________________________degree feedback the organisation gathers data on how and individual applies is

knowledge and other competencies.

A) 360 degree

B) 180 degree

C) 90 degree

D) 320 degree

16) Organisation ____________________________represents norms and values.

A) Culture

B) Planning

C) Process

D) Performance

17) ____________________________norms guide the type of jobs to be created within the group.

A) Individual

B) Group

C) Manager

D) Organisation

18) There are ____________________________ major techniques of organisational diagnosis.

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Five

19) ____________________________questionnaire are tailored to the needs of a particular client.

A) Customised

B) Formal

C) Informal

D) Simple

20) Interviews can be of ____________________________types

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Five

21) ____________________________interviews are more general.

A) Structured

B) Unstructured

C) Formal

D) Planned

22) ____________________________typically involve one to one interaction.

A) Survey

B) Interview

C) Questioner

D) Feedback

23) ____________________________aims at utilising information technology for involving a new process.

A) BPR

B) Strategies

C) Policies

D) Project

24) ____________________________creates supportive suitable values and norms.

A) organisational development

B) organisational process

C) organisational growth

D) organisational decision.

25) organisational development ____________________________are to be set as a priority.

A) goals

B) values

C)discipline

D)image




Name of the Professor: Nitin Pagi Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: Project Management Paper No: Paper: Finance

1) A project is basically a_______________ activity.

(A) Temporary

(B) Permanent

(C) Continue

(D) Global

2) Which of the following statement is NOT true about a project?

(A) It is temporary

(B) It has an end date

(C) It contains no risk

(D) It is unique and brings change

3) Which of the following is NOT considered as a project?

(A) Building another room

(B) Maintenance of the building

(C) Switching to new business process

(D) Renovating the conference room

4) Which of the following statement is true?

(A) NPV= PV of cash inflow – PV of cash outflow

(B) NPV= PV of cash outflow – PV of cash inflow

(C) IRR=NPV

(D) IRR=ARR

5) Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a project management?

(A) Initiation

(B) Planning

(C) Execution

(D) Closure

6) The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.

(A) Permanent

(B) temporary

(C) Fixed

(D) 3 to 5 year one

7) If any one factor of a project changes, _____ other factor(s) is/are likely to be affected.

(A) All

(B) one

(C) at least one

(D) at most one

8) Which from the following is NOT a tangible element?

(A) Fixtures

(B) Trademarks

(C) Monetary assets

(D) Stockholder equity

9) Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?

(A) Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing

(B) Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing

(C) Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing

(D) Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing

10) Which of the following statement is false?

(A) NPV= PV of cash inflow – PV of cash outflow

(B) NPV= PV of cash outflow – PV of cash inflow

(C) NPV= IRR

(D) NPV= ARR

(11) _____ refers to the analysis of a series of observations over a period of equally spaced time intervals.

A. Decision tree analysis

B. Index Number

C. Time Series Analysis

D. Econometric methods

(12) In the________ a tree-type structure is drawn to decide the best solution for a problem.

A. Trend Projection Method

B. Decision tree analysis

C. Time Series Analysis

D. Econometric methods

(13) _______ refers to the total number of product lines that a company offers to its customers.

A. Product mix

B. Demand mix

C. Price mix

D. Customer mix

(14) The four dimensions to a company's product mix include

_________

A. Width

B. Length

C. Depth

D. Consistency

(15) The ______of a company's product mix pertains to the number of product lines that a company sells.

A. Width

B. Length

C. Depth

D. Consistency

(16) Product mix ___________pertains to the number of total products or in a company's product mix.

A. Width

B. Length

C. Depth

D. Consistency

(17) _______of a product mix pertains to the total number of variations

for each product.

A. Width

B. Length

C. Depth

D. Consistency

(18) ______ Consistency pertains to how closely related product linesare to one another -- in terms of use, production and

distribution.

A. Product mix

B. Demand mix

C. Price mix

D. Customer mix

(19) ________in project management is inevitable

A. Project Implementation

B. Planning

C. Conflict

D. Negotiation

(20) ________ refers to the administration of business practices to create the highest level of efficiency possible within an

organization.

A. Operations management

B. Material management

C. Work study

D. Method study

21) Suppliers of plant and machinery offer a facility under which payment for the purchase of plant and machinery can be made

over a period of time.

A. commercial credit

B. loan

C. Factoring

D. deferred credit

(22) The government and its agencies may provide financial support as______ to certain types of promoters or for setting up

industrial units in certain locations.


B. loan

C. inventive

D. deferred credit

(23) A ________ is a short-term temporary loan provided by commercial bank to promoters of a business for arranging capital cost

of the project.


B. bridge loan

C. Factoring

D. deferred credit

(24) ______is one of the important sources of medium- and long term financing where the owner of an asset-gives another person,

the right to

use that asset against periodical payments.

A. Lease financing

B. Hire purchase

C. Factoring

D. Public deposit

25) In lease financing the owner of the asset is known as_________

A. lessor

B. lessee

C. lessor &lessee

D. Hirer

(26) In Lease financing the user is called__________

A. lessor

B. lessee

C. lessor &lessee

D. Hirer

(27) In _______ the periodical payment made by the lessee to the lessor is known as lease rental.

A. Lease financing

B. Hire purchase

C. Factoring

D. Public deposit

(28) Public deposits are _______ deposits.

A. Secured

B. Unsecured

C. Collateral

D. Government

(29) ______are invited by companies from the public- mainly to finance working capital needs.

A. Lease financing

B. Hire purchase

C. Factoring

D. Public deposit

(30) Public deposits of a company cannot exceed ________ per cent of its share

A. 15

B. 18

C. 20

D. 25

VPM’s K.G Joshi College of Arts and N.G Bedekar College of Commerce, Thane Department of BMS

Name of the Professor: Dr. Urmila Shetve Subject: International Marketing Class: TYBMS Semester: VI (2019-2020)

Multiple Choice Sample Question Bank

Sr. no

Question Option A Option B Option C Option D

1 International marketing is dominated by ______ countries.

Poor Developing Developed Rich

2 International marketing ensures _______ utilization of resources.

Minimum Maximum Normal Few

3 Direct exporting refers exporting the products by ________.

joint venture Through middlemen

Through franchising manufacturer

4 ___ is a horizontal expansion of a firm. Merger Diversification Combination Turnkey project

5 ___pricing strategy is followed at the time of new product Launch.

Trial Value Transfer Probe

6 Consular Invoice is a type of ____ barrier. Tariff non-tariff Revenue non-revenue

7 Duty imposed on commodities imported- Import duty Export Duty Sales tax Fees

8 Bata is an example of ___.

Contract Manufacturing

Merger assembling activity Financing

9 SAPTA was formed in year ___. 1995 1966 1975 1945

10 Following country is not OPEC member - Oman Libya UAE Nepal

11 IFC was established in year ___. 1955 1956 1988 1975

12 ____ has impact on decision regarding which products is to be exported in Foreign market

Currency Religion Elements Research

13 ________ intervention may be described as a decision taken by the government of the host country intended to force a change in the operations, policies, and strategies.

Social Economical Legal Political

14 __________ is a type of pricing strategy for selling products in foreign markets below cost, or below the price charged to domestic customers.

Niche Skimming Dumping Marginal

15 Risk due to imposition of controls by Host country on Foreign Country -

Operating risk

Credit risk

Transfer risk Legal risk

16 Traditions and customs are considered as _____ environment.

Cultural National Demographic Behavioral

17 Modification takes place during _____ stage of International PLC.

Withdrawal Growth Maturity Decline

18 ______ is an important part of product planning

Packaging Demand IPLC Consultancy

19 Health and safety warnings are included in _______.

packaging Branding Labeling Price

20 __ is not a type of an International strategy. Cost leadership Differentiation Strategy

Focus strategy Corporate Strategy

21 _______ strategy wants parent company to develop products.

Global Transnational Multi-domestic Local

22 Singapore is member country of ___.

NAFTA ASEAN OPEC SAARC

23 Services sector acts as ____ of growth. Barometer Engine Basis Phase

24 Introducing product in a market according to the preferences of market.

Product Modification

Product Strategy Product Standardization

Product Adaptation

25 Component of marketing mix variable Price- Discount Dumping Local brand Global brand


Department of B. Com (Bachelor of Management Studies)

ACADEMIC YEAR 2019-2020 SAMPLE QUESTION

Name of the Professor: PURVA RAJESH GAIKWAD Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: HRM in SERVICE SECTOR MANAGEMENT Paper No: Paper: Elective/Core

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION (MCQ)

Sr.No Question Option A Option B Option C Option D

1 Intangible nature of services poses Problems to

marketers

Problem for service

designers

The difficulty for

the researcher

Problems to

customers

2 ……………is the difference between customer expectations and perceptions.

Customer Delight Customer

Satisfaction

Customer Gap The supplier Gap

3 ………….is defined as the caring, individualized attention that the firm provides its customers.

Empathy Responsiveness Sympathy Assurance

4 What are the typical characteristics of

services?

Services confer

benefits; are

tangible; are time-

and place-

dependent; are

consistent; cannot

be owned; and

providers and

consumers form

part of the service.

Services confer no

benefits; are

intangible; are

time- and place-

dependent; are

inconsistent;

cannot be owned.

Services confer

benefits; are

intangible; are

time- and place-

dependent; are

inconsistent;

cannot be owned;

and providers

and consumers

form part of the

service

Services confer

ownership; are

intangible; can be

consumed at any

time or place; are

inconsistent; and

providers

5 Babysitting and psychotherapy are

examples of

Pure tangible good

Tangible good with

accompanying

services

Hybrid Pure service

6 Physical evidence is known as Servicescape Service place Service Service trend

7 Six Market model consist of the following

except

Supplier Market Internal Market Influence Market Service Market

8 The discrepancy that arises from what

one feels inside and has to show to show

in front of customers is known as

Emotions Emotional Labour Empathy Assurance

9 Customer expectation becomes

exaggerated by

Over expectation

from the service

provider

The acts of

competitors

Exaggerated

advertising

The activities of

middlemen

10 Important components of internal service

quality include all of the following except

for

Customer referrals.

Rewards and

recognition

Workplace

design.

Job design.

11 Initially, bank counter staff were

uncomfortable with their new task of

selling services to customers.

They viewed themselves as bank

counter staff and not salespersons. This

is an example of which type of conflict?

Channel conflict.

Organization/client

conflict

Person/role

conflict.

Inter-client conflict.

12 As part of the internal marketing

strategy, the company takes up

Performance

appraisal.

Training

employees.

Assigning more

responsibilities

Transferring the

employees

13 ___________ act as clue for physical evidence

Interior of the building

Cheque leaves Quotation Food

14 The Gap model doesn’t have the following gap

Customer Gap Provider Gap Service Gap Service Delivery

15 Physical evidence is more important in-

service marketing because

It is the evidence of service quality

Every service

provider uses it.

Customers are

going to value

based on this

evidence.

Every employee

expects this.

16 Service quality much depends on Customer involvement in the process.

The involvement of

the customer and

employee.

Timing of the

delivery process.

The timing of the

process

17 Two diners complain about a

restaurant’s slow service but are

delighted to be given a free bottle of wine

and canapés to make the wait less

tedious. In the end, they thoroughly

enjoy their evening. In terms of services

marketing, what is this a good example

of?

service encounter

service quality

process

service recovery

18 As per service-quality model, the courtesy and knowledge of employees and their ability to instill confidence and trust is

Responsiveness

Reliability Assurance Empathy

19 Issues and challenges of HR faced in

Advertising is

Lack of Formal

education

Developing Talent Hazards in

Service Life

Requirement in

Renewable energy

20 According to Parasuraman, Zeithaml &

Berry, the most important determinant of

service quality

Responsiveness Assurance Empathy Reliability

21 Cycle of Failure Businesses with

high employee

turnover

Organizations

which offer job

security but little

scope for personal

initiative

Organizations

where there is

potential for

virtuous cycles in

service

employment

Industries with

incentives to

perform

22 Driving for services that customers want

and are willing to pay for means

service excellence customer delight Service

leadership

company

standards

23 Lack of opportunity for advancement is

the reason for ____________ in service

sector

Retention Attrition Recruitment Selection

24 Organizational effectiveness is Effectiveness of

organization

Ability to achieve

outcomes of the

organization

Success of

organization

Leadership of

organization

25 Select name of the country having

maximum percent of GDP attributed to

services

United States

India Germany China




Name of the Professor: Sujata Gada Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: Strategic Financial Management Paper No: Paper: Finance

1.Investment can be defined.

A) Person’s dedication to purchasing a house or flat

B) Use of capital on assets to receive returns

C) Usage of money on a production process of products and services

D) Net additions made to the nation’s capital stocks

2. The concept of Financial management is.

A) Profit maximization

B) All features of obtaining and using financial resources for company operations

C) Organization of funds

D) Effective Management of every company

3. What is the primary goal of financial management?

A) To minimize the risk

B) To maximize the return

C) To maximize the owner’s wealth

D) To raise profit

4. GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on.

A) Development

B) Dividend

C) Destiny

D) Duration

5. The finance manager is accountable for.

A) Earning capital assets of the company

B) Effective management of a fund

C) Arrangement of financial resources

D) Proper utilization of funds

6. The market value of a share is responsible for.

A) The investment market

B) The government

C) Shareholders

D) The respective companies

7. The capital budget is associated with.

A) Long terms and short terms assets

B) Fixed assets

C) Long terms assets

D) Short term assets

8. CAPM stands for.

A) Capital asset pricing model.

B) Capital amount printing model.

C) Capital amount pricing model.

D) Capital asset printing model.

9. What does financial leverage measure?

A) No change with EBIT and EPS

B) The sensibility of EBIT with % change with respect to output

C) The sensibility of EPS with % change in the EBIT level

D) % variation in the level of production

10. From the below-mentioned items which are financial assets?

A) Machines

B) Bonds

C) Stocks

D) B and C

11.................is the planning process used to determine Investments

A) Capital rationing

B) Capital budgeting

C) Cash inflow

D) dividend decision

12.A company may not have sufficient funds to issue dividends in the near future, so instead it issues a ---- dividend.

A) Cash dividend

B) Stock dividend

C) Property dividend

D) Scrip dividend

13.Relevance Theory of Dividend is supported……..

A) Walter

B) MM

C) Gordon

D) Pecker

14.Merger between firms engaged in unrelated types of business activities…….

A) Horizontal

B) Vertical

C) Conglomerate

D) None

15.The committee appointed by SEBI on Corporate Governance was chaired by……….

A) Kumar mangalam Birla

B) Ratan Tata

C) R.K.Joshi

D) Mukesh Abani

16.The NPA is……… loss of the Asset of the Banking sector.

A) 85%

B) 90%

C) 100%

D) 90%

17.Walter's Model suggests that a firm can always increase the value of

(a) increasing dividend

(b) decreasing dividend

(c) constant dividend

(d) none of the above

18.. …………….'argument is given by Gordon Model.

(a) Equity Valuation

(b) Bird in hand

(C) Irrelevant Theory

(d) Residual's Theory

19. Dividend irrelevance argument of MM Model is based on

(a) Issue of Debentures

(b) Arbitrage

(c) Issue of Bonus Share

(d) Hedging

20.Project costing 8,00,000 and a life of 5 years is expected to bring cash inflows of p.a. What is the payback period?

(a) 5 years

(b) 3 years

(c) 4 years

(d) 10 years

21.Which of the following assumes that cash flows from a project are uniform throughout the project?

(a) Internal Rate of Return

(b) Net Present Value

(c) Profitability Index

(d) Pay Back Period

22.Which of the following represents passive dividend policy?

(a) That dividend is paid as a % of EPS

(b) That dividend is paid as a constant amount

(c) That dividend is paid after retaining profits for reinvestment

(d) That dividend is paid of Super profit

23.In case of Gordon's Model, the MP for zero payout is zero. It means that

(a) shares are not traded

(b) shares available free of cost

(c) investors are not ready to offer any price

(d) investor get discount

24. Gordon's Model of dividend relevance is same as

(a) No-growth Model of equity valuation

(b) Constant growth model of equity valuation

(c) Price-earnings ratio

(d) Inverse of price

25.……...Module is the Irrelevance theory of Dividend Decision Making in the firm.

(a) MM theory.

(b) Bird in hand

(C) Irrelevant Theory

(d) Residual Theory




Name of the Professor: Tejal Shinde Class: TYBMS Semester: VI

Subject: Media Planning and Management Paper No: Paper: Elective Marketing

1. Whose goal is to reach the right audience at the right time with right message.

A. Media Planner

B. Copy Writer

C. Graphic Designer

D. Art Director

2. An online marketplace where publishers, advertisers, agencies can buy and sell inventory is known as

A. Ad Exchange

B. Ad Network

C. Ad Bazar

D. Ad Web

3. What is the full form of BARC?

A. Broadcast Audience Research Council

B. Broadcast Audience Review Council

C. Broadcast Audience Research Committee

D. Broadcast Audience Review Committee

4. _________Media is a good way to promote content in order to drive earned media.

a) Paid

b) Owned

c)Earned

d)Unpaid

5. _______media refers to vehicles that the marketer themselves create and inhabit with materials relating to their products

and services.

a) Paid

b) Owned

c)Earned

d)Unpaid

6. What is the full form of TAM?

A. Television Audience Measurement

B. Tally Average Media

C. Television Audio Media

D. Telephone Audio Movie

7. __ is the ratio of the number of advertisement views and the number of successful conversions

a) Cost per Action

b) Cost per Annum

c) Cost per Conversion

d) Cost per Account

8. Role of Media planner is to co-ordinate, decision maker, managing client relationship, ______, evaluating campaigns, budget

allocation to right media.

A. Research and Analysis

B. Art Work

C. Graphics

D. Client service

9. surveys conducted to investigate what segments of Consumers read which periodicals and/or listen to or watch radio or

Television Programs is termed as

A. Media plan

B. Media Research

C. Media Buying

D. Media Mix

10. Online advertising pricing model where advertiser pays publisher a commission every time a visitor clicks on the advertiser's

ad.

A. Pay-per-click (PPC)

B. Cost per action (CPA)

C. Pay-per-install (PPI)

D. Pay-per-call

11. ABC stands for?

A. All Broadcast of Circulation

B. Audit Bureau of Circulation

C. Annual Broadcast of Channels

D. All board of Circulation

12.In India _________ is a specialized research to measure the readership of Publication among the business and

Professionals and the private and public sections.

a. Businessman’s Readership Survey

b. National Readership Survey

c. Neilson Clear Decision

d. Audience Measurements

13. ______ is a type of advertising that is located on websites which contains items such as texts, images, flash, video and

audio.

A. Display advertising

B. Mobile Advertising

C. Internet Advertising

D. Media Sharing

14. Which is not a Type of social media:

A. Twitter

B. Instagram

C. Facebook

D. Radio

15. A device called ______ is attached to the TV set in a Few Thousand viewers houses for judgement purpose.

a. People’s Meter

b. BAR – O – Meters

c. Laser Meters

d. Diary System

16. _____refers to the average number of times an individual within target audience is exposed to a media vehicle during a

given period of time.

a) Reach

b) Frequency

c)Continuity

d)Media Weight

17. What is the ability to influence people’s thoughts and actions through specific strategies known as?

a) Acclimatization

b) Comprehension

c)Compulsion

d)Persuasion

18. When the advertising strategy encompasses the use of more than one type of advertising media to get its message across

the target audience, it is called_______

a) Media Mix

b) Advertising Mix

c)Category Index

d)Brand Index

19. What among the following is considered to be the key for television buying?

a) Negotiation

b) Spot buys

c)Social networking skills

d)Sensational ads

20. The number of people that will be exposed to a media vehicle at least once during a given period of time.

A. Frequency

B. Reach

C. CPM

D. Scheduling

21. which of the following is an advantage of using direct mail as a media vehicle?

A. combines sight, sound and movement

B. larger than life

C. social dominance

D. highly personal

22. Print advertising is sometimes called ____________

a) Business Advertising

b) Press Advertising

c)Electronic Advertising

d)Media Advertising

23. Interactive media can be best described as ____________

a) customized marketing message

b) marketing communications mix

c)Marketing mix

d)media that allows two-way message between company and consumer.

24. The more media vehicles used with lots of different programs with more messages leaves the consumers in a

___________

A. Fragmentation

B. isolation

C. Composition

D. Clutter

25. Under this strategy, advertisements will run throughout the year but in specific period there will be more advertisement

A. Continuous advertising

B. Flighting

C. Pulsing

D. Scheduling

TY BMS (HR) Semester - VI

Sub: Indian Ethos in Management

Paper Code: 86019

Sample Questions

Unit – I

1. _____________ provides knowledge of creation and means to balance between

materialistic and spiritual life.

a) Holistic approach

b) Value driven approach

c) Integrated approach

d) Dignity of work

2. One should possess________________ spirit.

a) Fighting

b) Sacrificing

c) Achievement

d) Materialistic

3. _______________ is the act of coming to direct knowledge or certainty without

reasoning or inferring.

a) Thinking

b) Feeling

c) Perception

d) Intuition

4. Organizations should encourage __________________ among the employees.

a) Team spirit and Cooperation

b) Individualism

c) Competition

d) Comparison

5. Management lessons from Mahabharata includes

_______________________________.

a) Appreciation, Cooperation, Responsibility, Loyalty

b) Allies, Leadership, Team spirit, Commitment

c) Do not Complain, Forgive Others, Respect for all, Be honest

d) Obedience and respect for authority, Equal opportunity, Motivation and

commitment, Elimination of wastage

6. Management lessons from Vedas includes _______________________________.






7. Management lessons from Bible includes _______________________________.






8. Management lessons from Kuran includes _______________________________.






9. Management lessons from Kautilya’s Arthashtra includes

______________________.




d) Management principles, avoid misuse of power, Integrate ethics and economic

Unit – III

10. _____________ occurs when the body as a whole suffers from stressful situations.

a) Physical Stress

b) Emotional Stress

c) Eustress

d) Burn out

11. ______________________ is also called as “on the spot” stress.

a) Physical Stress

b) Emotional Stress

c) Acute Stress

d) Chronic Stress

12. ___________________ affects the mind and body for long duration and may result

into diseases such as heart problems, diabetes etc.

a) Physical Stress

b) Emotional Stress

c) Acute Stress

d) Chronic Stress

13. _______________ is type of negative stress which occurs due to changes in the

routine activities of employees.

a) Physical Stress

b) Distress

c) Acute Stress

d) Chronic Stress

14. _____________________ occurs when the person is bored of doing the routine

job.

a) Hypo Stress

b) Acute Stress

c) Chronic Stress

d) Physical Stress

15. ______________________ is a group creativity technique by which efforts are

made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering list of ideas

spontaneously contributed by its members.

a) Meditation

b) Yoga

c) Brain Storming

d) Brain Stilling

16. _______________ means union between the mind, body and spirit.

a) Meditation

b) Yoga

c) Brain Storming

d) Brain Stilling

17. _______________________ leaders have the ability to bring changes in the mind-

set of people in the organization.

a) Transformational Leaders

b) Visionary leaders

c) Transactional leaders

d) Charismatic leaders

Unit - IV

18. Accountability refers to ______________

a) Taking responsibility of our actions

b) Purity in thoughts & feelings

c) Inter connectedness of thoughts which talks about holism

d) Being honest

19. Purity of heart and mind refers to _________________________




d) Being honest

20. Integrity of Thoughts refers to _____________________




d) Being honest

21. Truthfulness refers to _________________




d) Being honest

22. Fearlessness refers to__________________________

a) Purity in thoughts & feelings

b) Inter connectedness of thoughts which talks about holism

c) Being honest

d) Possess confidence

23. ________________ is also called as “The Law of Cause and Effect”.

a) Law of Humanity

b) Law of Responsibility

c) Law of Connection

d) The Great Law

24. The Sanskrit word Audarya refers to ________________.

a) Sacrifice

b) Generosity

c) Respect

d) Patience

25. The Sanskrit word Dhairya refers to ________________.

a) Sacrifice

b) Generosity

c) Respect

d) Patience

Documents

VPM’s K.G Joshi College of Arts and N.G Bedekar College ... papers/TY BMS SEM VI...VPM’s K.G Joshi College of Arts and N.G Bedekar College of Commerce, Thane Department of Bachelor