VIGYAN DHARA EDUCATION PVT LTDvigyandhara.in/downloads/TEST-9 DROPPER NEET .pdfVIGYAN DHARA: #197-C, Old Court Complex, Lajpat Nagar, Hisar, Haryana Contact No.9812073815,16 GRAND

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GRAND TEST - 9

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VIGYAN DHARATEST SERIES NEET-2020

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GRAND TEST-9 (2) VD20/GT/NEET/03/2103

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SYLLABUS GRAND TEST - 9

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT & MAGNETISM

ELECTROCHEMISTRY, P-BLOCK (15TH GROUP),ALCOHOL, PHENOL & ETHER

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE,EVOLUTION


VD20/GT/NEET/03/2103 (3) GRAND TEST-9


1. An -particle is moving along a circle of radius Rwith constant angular velocity . Point A lies inthe same plane at a distance 2R from the centre.Point A records magnetic field produced by -particle. If the minimum time interval between twosuccessive times at which A records zeromagnetic field is t, then the angular speed , interms of t, is

(A)2t (B)

23t

(C)3t (D)

2t

2. An electron having kinetic energy K is moving ina circular orbit of radius R perpendicular to auniform magnetic induction B. If the kinetic energyis doubled and magnetic induction tripled, theradius will become

(A)

3 R2 (B)

3 R2

(C)

2 R9 (D)

4 R3

3. If plane of coil and uniform magnetic field B(8T) issame then torque on the current carrying coil is

(A) 2l R 8

(B) 2 8 3l R2

(C) 2 8l R

2

(D) Zero

4. In a dip circle, the measurement of an apparentdip is 60° at a place and true dip is 30°. If the dipcircle is rotated through 90° then the reading ofdip circle is

(A)

1 8cot3 (B)

1 8cot3

(C)

1 8tan3 (D)

1 8tan3

5. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic

field ˆ ˆB 2i 3 j T . Which of the following

statements is incorrect?

(A) If the velocity of the particle is ˆ6k m/s, particle

moves in a circle

(B) If the velocity of the particle is ˆ ˆ4i 6 j m/s,

particle moves in a straight line

(C) If the velocity of the particle is ˆ î 2 j m/s,

particle moves in a helical path(D) In case of (B) and (C), the speed of the particledoes not remain same

6. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 2Am2 is freeto rotate about a vertical axis passing through itscentre. If magnet is released from rest in eastwest position, then kinetic energy of magnet as ittakes north-south position is (horizontalcomponent of earth’s magnetic field is 25 µT)

(A) 125 µJ (B) 200 µJ

(C) 25 µJ (D) 50 µJ




7. Which of the following is mismatched?

(A) Magnetic induction vector 1 2MA T

(B) Magnetising field intensity 0 1M AL

(C) Magnetic moment 0 2M L A

(D) Ratio of magnetic moment to angular

momentum 2 1AT M

8. In the arrangement below, both x and y have samemass m. Charge on x is +q but y is neutral. Thesystem is released from rest at t = 0. Assumingfrictionless surface, the time at which the block xwill loose contact with the surface will be

(A)mqB (B)

2mqB

(C)3mqB (D)

4mqB

9. A magnetic field

0ˆB B k exists from x = 0 to

x = 1 m. Find the deviation produced by themagnetic field, if a charge particle of charge 2C is

given a velocity

0ˆv v i at origin. [Assume B0 =

1T and v0 = 20 m/s and mass of particle 20 g]

(A)3 (B)

4

(C)2 (D)

10. The acceleration of an electron at a certain

moment in a magnetic field ˆ ˆ ˆB 2i 3 j 4k is

ˆ ˆ â xi j k . The value of x is

(A) 0.5 (B) 1

(C) 0.05 (D) 1.5

11. The magnetic fioeld at a distance x on the axis of

a circular coil of radius R is1 th8 of that at the

centre. The value of x is

(A)R3 (B)

2R3

(C) R 3 (D) R 2

12. Four long straight wires are located at the cornersof a square ABCD. All the wires carry equalcurrents. Current in thewires A and B are inwardsand in C and D are outwards. The magnetic fieldat the centre O is along

(A) AD (B) CB

(C) AB (D) CD




13. A charged particle of mass m and charge q isaccelerated through a potential difference of Vvolts. It enters a region of uniform magnetic fieldB which is directed perpendicular to the directionof motion of the particle. The particle will move ona circular path of radius

(A) 2Vm

2qB (B) 22VmqB

(C)

2Vm 1q B (D)

Vm 1q B

14. A current loop, having two circular arcs joined bytwo radial lines is shown in the figure. It carries acurrent of 10 A. The magnetic field at points O willbe close to

(A) 1.0 × 10–5 T

(B) 1.5 × 10–5 T

(C) 1.0 × 10–7 T

(D) 1.5 × 10–7 T

15. An insulating rod of length l carries a charge quniformly distributed on it. The rod is pivoted atone of its ends and is rotated at a frequency fabout a fixed perpendicular axis. The magneticmoment of the rod is

(A) 2qfl12

(B) 2qfl

2

(C) 2qfl

6(D) 2qfl

3

16. If the acceleration and velocity of a chargedparticle moving in a constant magnetic field region

is given by

1 2ˆ â a i a k ,

1 2ˆ ˆv b i b k [a1, a2, b1

and b2 are constants], then choose the wrongstatement

(A) Magnetic field may be along y-axis

(B) a1b1 + a2b2 = 0

(C) Magnetic field is along x-axis

(D) Kinetic energy of particle is always constant17. A particle of mass 1 × 10–26 kg and charge +1.6 ×

10–19 C travelling with a velocity of 1.28 × 106 m/salong positive direction of x-axis enters a region

in which a uniform electric field E and a uniform

magnetic field B are present such that

2 2z yE 102.4 kV /m and B 8 10 Wb/m

The particle enters this region at origin at timet = 0. Then(A) Net force acts on the particle along the +ve z-direction(B) Net force acts on the particle along –ve z-direction

(C) Net force acting on particle is zero

(D) Net force acts in x-z plane

18. Two circular coils of radii 5 cm and 10 cm carrycurrents of 2A. The coils have 50 and 100 turnsrespectively and are placed in such a way thattheir planes as well as their centres coincide.Magnitude of magnetic field at the common centreof coils is




1. 48 10 T if currents in the coils are in same

sense

2. 44 10 T if currents in the coils are in

opposite sense3. Zero if currents in the coils are in oppositesense

4. 48 10 T if currents in the coils are in

opposite sense

(A) Only 1 is correct

(B) Only 2 is correct

(C) 3 and 4 are correct

(D) 1 and 3 are correct

19. An infinitely long straight wire is carrying a currentI 1. Adjacent to it there is another equilateraltriangular wire having current I2. Choose the correctoption

(A) Net force on loop is leftwards

(B) Net force on loop is rightwards

(C) Net force on loop is upwards

(D) Net force on loop is downwards

20. A charged particle revolves in circular path inuniform magnetic field after accelerating by apotential difference of V volts. Choose the correctoption if V is doubled

1. Kinetic energy of particle will become two times

2. Radius of circular path will become two times

3. Radius of circular path will become 2 times

4. Angular velocity will remain unchanged




(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

21. abcd is a square. There is a current I in wire efgas shown

Choose the correct option:

1. Net magnetic field at a is inwards

2. Net magnetic field at b is zero

3. Net magnetic field at c is outwards

4. Net magnetic field at d is inwards




(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Dell

Typewriter

I




22. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an electric

and magnetic f ield given by ˆ Ê 2i 3j

;

ˆ ˆB 4 j 6k . The charged particle is shifted from

the origin to the point P(x = 1; y = 1) alng a straightpath. The magnitude of the total work done is

(A) (0.15)q (B) (0.35) q

(C) (2.5)q (D) 5q

23. Magnitude and direction of magnetic field at pointP is

(A)

0I 2 2

4 d (B)

0I 2 2

4 d

(C)

0I 2 2

4 d (D)

0I 2 2

4 d

24. T w o p a r a l l e l , l o n g w i r e s c a r r y c u r r e n t s I 1 and I2

(I1 > I2). When the currents are in the samedirection, the magnetic field at the mid-waybetween the wires is 20 µT. If the direction of I2 isreversed, the field becomes 80 µT. I1/I2 is

(A) 3/5 (B) 5/3

(C) 2/3 (D) 3/2

25. A long cylindrical conductor of radius R carries acurrent I as shown.

The current density j is a function of radiusaccording to j = 2 kr, where k is a constant. Themagnetic field B at a distance r1 (from the axis) < R,is

(A)21 02kr

3(B)

31 02kr3R

(C) 21 03 kr2 (D)

31 0kr32 R

26. A positive point charge is moving in clockwisedirection in a circle with constant speed.Consider the magnetic field produced by acharge at a point P (not centre of the circle) onthe axis of the circle, then(A) It is constant in magnitude only(B) It is constant in direction only(C) It is constant in direction and magnitude both(D) It is not constant in direction and magnitudeboth

27. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius rmakes n rotations per second. The magneticmoment associated with the electron is

(A) Zero (B) r2ne

(C) r2n2e (D) 20

2ner

Dell

Typewriter

Two parallel, long wires carry currents I




28. Figure shows an equilateral triangle ABC of sidel carrying currents placed in uniform magneticfield B normal to its plane as shown. Themagnitude of magnetic force on the triangle is

i

i

i

(A) ilB

(B) 2 ilB

(C) 3 ilB

(D) Zero

29. A long straight wire, carrying current I is bent atits mid-point to form an angle of 90°. Magneticfield at point P, at distance R from point ofbending is equal to

PR

I

90°(A) 0

4IR

(B) 024

IR

(C) 0

4 2IR

(D) 0

2IR

30. In the figure shown, radius of wire ABC is doublethat of ADC and both are of same material.Magnetic field at O is

IA

B

CI

O

D

(A) Normally into the paper

(B) Normally away from the paper

(C) Along OB

(D) Zero

31. A current carrying loop is kept in inwards

magnetic field as shown. The radius of the loop

is 1.0 m. The force on the loop is

1 m

i = 2 A

i = 2 A××××××

××××××

× × × × ×

× × × × ×

× ×B = 1.0 T

××

B

×

(A) Zero (B) 8 N

(C) 4 N (D) (2 + 4) N

32. A long straight wire carrying steady current i

uniformly distributed through the cross-section ofwire. The variation of magnetic field as a

function of distance r from its axis in radially

outward direction is best represented as

(A)B

R r

(B)B

R r

(C)B

R r

(D)B

R r




33. Part AC and CD of conductor are parallel to z-axis and x-axis respectively as shown in figure.The magnetic field at point O has magnitude

a

y I

xO

z

I

DC

A

(A) 02

Ia

(B) 0

2 2I

a

(C) 02 2 Ia

(D) 0

4 2I

a

34. A c o n d u c t o r AB of lengh l, carrying a current i2, isplaced antiparallel to a long straight conductorXY carrying a current i1, as shown. The force onAB has magnitude

(A) 0 1 2i i

(B) 0 1 2i i

(C) 0 1 2

2i i

(D) 0 1 22 i i

35. A proton, a deuteron and an -particle with thesame kinetic energy are moving in circular trajec-

tories in a uniform magnetic field. If rp, rd and rdenote respectively the radii of the trajectories ofthese particles, then

(A) r = rp < rd (B) r > rd > rp

(C) r = rd > rp (D) rp = rd = r

36. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct cur-rent along its length, then the magnetic field as-sociated with the current will be

(A) Only inside the pipe

(B) Only outside the pipe

(C) Both inside and outside the pipe

(D) Zero everywhere

37. Two long straightt conductors with currents I1 andI2 are placed along X and Y axes. The locus ofpoints of zero magnetic induction is

(A) A parabola (B) A rectangular hyperbola(C) A straight line (D) An ellipse

38. Cyclotron frequency does not depend upon

(A) Specific charge(B) Speed of revolving particle(C) Magnetic induction

(D) Charge

39. A particle of mass m and charge q moving withspeed v describ es a circular path of radius r whensubjected to a transverse uniform magnetic fieldof induction B. The work done by the field, whenthe particle completes one full circle is

(A) Zero (B) 2mv2

(C) 2rqBv (D) 2rqB v

Dell

Typewriter

A conductor




40. Tangent galvanometer is used to measure :–

(A) Potential difference

(B) Current

(C) Resistance

(D) Charge

41. Magnetic field at point O will be :-

OR

I

(A)0 I2R

(B)0 I2R

(C)0 I2R

11FHGIKJ (D)

0 I2R

11FHGIKJ

42. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placedin a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forceson segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3

respectively and are in the plane of the paper and alongthe directions shown, the force on the segment QPis :-

Q

P

F1F3

RS

F2

(A) 2 23 1 2(F F ) F (B) F3 – F1 – F2

(C) F3 – F1 – F2 (D) 2 23 1 2(F F ) F

43. Two wires carrying :-

(A) Parellel current repel each other

(B) Antiparellel current attract each other

(C) Antiparellel current repel each other

(D) Equal magnitudes of antiparellel current attracteach other

44. Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the samematerials and same length form a square in the

three different ways P, Q and R as shown in figure

with current connection shown. The magnetic fieldat the centre of the square is zero in cases :-

P Q R

(A) in P only (B) in P and Q only

(C) in Q and R only (D) P and R only

45. A wire PQRST carrying current I = 5A is placed

in uniform magnetic field B = 2T as shown in figureIf the length of part QR = 4 cm and SR = 6 cm

then the magnetic force on SR edge of the wire

is:-

B=2TR

T PS Q I=5A

(A) 0.4 N (B) 0.6 N

(C) zero (D) 6 N




46 Which alcohol does not give a ketone on oxidation-

(A) Isopropyl alcohol

(B) Allyl alcohol

(C) Ethylmethylcarbinol

(D) Methylphenylcarbinol

47 Ethanol on heating with acetic acid in thepresence of a few drops of sulphuric acid givesthe smell of :

(A) Oil of wintergreen (B) Oil of mustard

(C) An ester (D) Oil of bitter almonds

48 The hydroboration of 2-methyl propene yields-

(A) 1º alcohol (B) 2º alcohol

(C) 3º alcohol (D) None

49 A tertiary alcohol is obtained when CH3MgI reactswith-

(A) CH3CHO (B) CH3CH2CHO

(C) CH3–CH–CHO|CH3

(D) CH3COCH3

50 In the following hydration

CH3–CH–CH=CH2H3O+

CH3

the major alcohol product formed is -

(A) (CH3)2CHCH2CH2OH

(B) (CH3)2CHCHOHCH3

(C) (CH3)2–CCH2–CH3

OH

(D) HOCH2CHCH2–CH3

CH3

51 In the given reaction

[X] will be -

(A) LiAlD4/D2O (B) NaBD4/H2O

(C) LiAlD4/HOH (D) NaBH4/D2O

52CH2OH|

CH2OH

PBr3 (A) KCN(B)

H3O+

(C)

In the above sequence of reactions the endproduct (C) is

(A)CH2CH2CN|CH2CH2CN

(B)CH2CN|CH2CN

(C)CH2COOH|CH2COOH

(D)CH2CH2–NH2|CH2CH2–NH2

53 Idenfity the end product (B) of the followingsequence of reaqction.

OH

Cº100SOH.conc 42 A OH/Br 22 B

(A)

OH

SO3H

BrBr

(B)

OHBrBr

(C)

OHSO3H

(D)

OH

OH




54 Propene is allowed to react with HI.The product( A ) i s t h e n t r e a t e d w i t h C H 3ONa to give a newproduct (B).

CH3CH=CH2 HI (A) ONaCH3 (B)

The structure of the product (B) is -

(A) CH3CH2CH2OCH3 (B)CH3–CH–OCH3

CH3

(C) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 (D) CH3CH2OCH=CH2

55Hg(OAc)2

CH3OHNaBH4

product is:

(A) OH (B)OH

(C) OCH3(D)

OCH3

56 The compound X in the reaction

ONa+ CO2 K390 X HCl

OH

COOHis –

(A)COONa

(B)OH

COONa

(C)ONa

COOH(D)

OCOONa

57 In the reaction

CH3CH3

Ph–C– C–PhOH OH

H2SO4

conc. ?

the major product formed is –

(A)CH2CH2

Ph–C– C–Ph(B)

CH3CH2

Ph–C– C–PhOH

(C)

CH3

CH3–C–C–PhO Ph

(D)

CH3

Ph–C–C–CH3

O Ph

58 CH3CH2Cl NaCN X 2H/Ni Y AnhydrideAcetic Z

in the above reaction sequence Z is :

(A) CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3

(B) CH3CH2CH2NH2

(C) CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3

(D) CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3

59 The major product obtained on the monobromination

(with Br2/FeBr3) of

OCH3

CH3

will be -

(A)

OCH3

CH3

Br (B)

OCH3

CH3

Br

(C)

OCH3

CH3Br(D)

OCH3

CH3

Br

60 H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acidgives :

(A) 2H

HC=O (B) 2CO2

(C) 2HCOOH (D)CHO

CHO

Dell

Typewriter

(A) is then treated with CH




61 Consider the following reaction :

Phenol dustZn XClCH

AlClAnhydrous3

3 Y 4KMnOAlkaline Z

the product Z is :

(A) Benzene (B) Toluene

(C) Benzaldehyde (D) Benzoic acid

62. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgIfollowed by hydrolysis gives:

(A) n-Propyl alcohol (B) Ethanal

(C) Propanal (D) Isopropyl alcohol

63. Arrange the following hydrides in the decreasingorder of their basicities NH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3,PH3

(A) NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 > PH3

(B) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3

(C) BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3

(D) PH3 > BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > NH3

64. N does not form pentahalide due to

(A) availability of d-orbitals in its valence shell

(B) availability of p-orbitals in its valence shell

(C) non-availability of p-orbitals in its valence shell

(D) non-availability of d-orbitals in its valence shell

65. Complete the following equation

NH4Cl(aq) + ........ ........ + 2H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)

Here, and are

(A) NaNO3(aq) – , N2(g) –

(B) NaNO2(aq) – , H2(g) –

(C) NaNO2(aq) – , N2(g) –

(D) None of these

66. The correct statement(s) related to ammonia is/areI. NH3 gives black precipitate with calomel.II. NH3 gives white fumes with HCl.III. NH3 is oxidised with oxygen at 700°C in thepresence of platinum.IV. NH3 can be dried by P2O5, H2SO4 and CaCl2.Choose the correct option:(A) I, II and IV (B) II, III and IV(C) I, II and III (D) I, II, and IV

67. N2O4 molecule is completely changed into twoNO2 molecules at(A) –10°C (B) –40°C(C) 140–150°C (D) 420°

68. Assertion (A) : Conc. HNO3 attacks all metalsincluding noble metals like gold and platinum.Reason (R) : Conc. HNO3 is a strong oxidisingagent.(A) Both A and R are correct, R is the correctexplanation of A(B) Both A and R are correct, R is not the correctexplanation of A

(C) A is correct, R is incorrect

(D) R is correct, A is incorrect

69. NO3– + 3Fe2+ + 4H+ NO + ........ + 2H2O

[Fe(H2O)6]2+ + NO ........ + H2O

Here, and refer to

(A) I – 3Fe3+ ; II – [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+

(brown)

(B) I – Fe3+ ; II – [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+

(brown)




(C) I – 2Fe3+ ; II – [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+

(white)

(D) I – 2Fe2+ ; II – [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+

(white)

70. Assertion (A) : White P is less stable and hence,more reactive than other solid phases under normalconditions.

Reason (R) : There is an angular strain in the P4

molecule.

(A) Both A and R are correct: R is the correctexplanation of A

(B) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correctexplanation of A

(C) A is correct; R is incorrect

(D) R is correct; A is incorrect

71. Phosphine is obtained when

I. red P is heated with NaOH

II. white P is heated with NaOH

III. Ca3P2 reacts with water

IV. phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water

The above mentioned correct statements are

(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV

(C) I, III and IV (D) I, II and IV

72. Gas used in Holme’s signals and smoke screensis

(A) phosphine

(B) ammonia

(C) either (A) or (B)

(D) phosphine in Holme’s signals while ammoniain smoke screens

73. Match the Column I with Column II and choosethe correct option from the codes given below:

Codes:A B C D

(A) 2 1 4 3(B) 4 2 3 1(C) 3 4 1 2(D) 1 3 2 4

74. Phosphorous acid is syrupy because of(A) van der Waal’s forces(B) strong covalent bond(C) hydrogen bonding

(D) None of the above




75. In trimetaphosphate ion, the number of O atoms,P—O—P bonds and unit negative charges are

respectively

(A) 3, 6, 3 (B) 9, 6, 3

(C) 6, 6, 3 (D) 9, 3, 3

76. The electrode potential will be more for hydrogen

electrode at pH (at the same temperature)

(A) 4 (B) 3

(C) 2 (D) 5

77. The standard potentials of MnO4– | Mn2+ and MnO2

| Mn2+ electrodes in acid solution are 1.51 and

1.23 V, respectively. Standard electrode potential

for the electode, MnO4– | MnO2 in acid solution is

(A) +1.697 V (B) +5.09 V

(C) +0.28 V (D) +1.37 V

78. Some standard electrode potentials are given:

Fe2+ + 2e– Fe; Eº = –0.440 V

Fe3+ + 3e– Fe; Eº = –0.036 V

The standard electrode potential for :Fe3+ + e– Fe2+, is

(A) –0.476 V (B) –0.404 V

(C) +0.988 V (D) +0.772 V

79. The cell reaction for the given cell is spontaneousif Pt, Cl2 (P1 atm) | Cl– | Cl2 (P2 atm), Pt

(A) P1 > P2

(B) P1 < P2

(C) P1 = P2

(D) P1 = 1 atm

80. When a lead storage battery is charged(A) PbO2 dissolves(B) the lead electrode becomes coated with leadsulphate(C) sulphuric acid is regenerated(D) the amount of acid decreases

81. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change,the standard EMF of the cell is found to be 0.295V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reactionat 25°C will be(A) 1 × 1010 (B) 1 × 10–10

(C) 29.5 × 10–2 (D) 2 × 1010

82. The EMF of the cell: Zn | Zn2+ (0.01 M) || Fe2+

(0.001 M) | Fe at 298 K is 0.2905 V, then thevalue of equilibrium constant for the cell reactionis

(A)0.32

0.0295e (B)0.32

0.029510

(C)0.26

0.029510 (D)0.32

0.059110

83. For a reaction A(s) + 2B+ A2+ + B(s); KC hasbeen found to be 1012. The EMF of the cell is(A) 0.354 V (B) 0.708 V(C) 0.534 V (D) 0.453 V

84. An electrochemical cell is set up as follows:Pt | H2(g) (1 atm) | 0.001 M HCl || 0.1 M HA | H2(g) (1 atm) | Pt

EMF of this cell is zero because (pKa of HA = 5)(A) molar concentrations of acids are different(B) temperature is constant(C) pH of two solutions are same

(D) both are standard hydrogen electrodes




85. On passing electricity through dilute H2SO4

solution, the mass of substances liberated at thecathode and anode are in the ratio of

(A) 1 : 8 (B) 8 : 1

(C) 1 : 32 (D) 1 : 16

86. Three faradays of electricity is passed throughmolten Al2O3, aqueous solutions of CuSO4 andmolten NaCl. The amounts of Al, Cu and Nadeposited at the cathodes will be in the molarratio of

(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 1

(C) 1 : 1 : 5 : 3 (D) 6 : 3 : 2

87. The molar conductance of a 0.01 M solution ofacetic acid was found to be 16.30 –1 cm–1 mol–1

at 25°C. The ionic conductances of hydrogen andacetate ions at infinite dilution are 349.8 and 40.9–1 cm–1 mol–1, respectively, at the sametemperature. What percentage of acetic acid isdissociated at this concentration?

(A) 0.04172% (B) 4.172%

(C) 41.72% (D) 0.4172%

88. Calculate the ionic product of water at 25°C fromthe following data:

Conductivity of water = 5.5 × 10–6 mho m–1

°H+ = 0.035 mho m2 mol–1

°OH– = 0.020 mho m2 mol–1

(A) 2 × 10–14 M2 (B) 1 × 10–7 M

(C) 1 × 10–8 M2 (D) 1 × 10–14 M2

89. Four colourless salt solutions are placed inseparate test tubes and a strip of copper is placedin each. Which solution finally turns blue?

(A) AgNO3 (B) Pb(NO3)2

(C) Zn(NO3)2 (D) Cd(NO3)2

90. Calculate Ka of acetic acid if its 0.05 M solutionhas molar conductivity of 7.814 × 10–4–1 m2 mol–1

at 25°C Given : mº for CH3COOH = 3.907 × 10–2

–1 m2 mol–1.

(A) 2 × 10–5 (B) 1.8 × 10–5

(C) 4 × 10–4 (D) 0.02

91. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

(A) 5' end (B) 3' end

(C) Anti codon site (D) DHU loop

92. Homo erectus had brain with

(A) 500 cc (B) 900 cc

(C) 1400 cc (D) 1600 cc

93. Which of the following is the smallest RNA?

(A) mRNA (B) tRNA

(C) Chromosomal RNA (D) Ribosomal RNA

94. Varieties of beaks of Darwin finches illustrates

(A) Atavison (B) Homology

(C) Analogy (D) None of these

95. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is

(A) Both positive

(B) Both negative

(C) Negative and positive, respectively

(D) Zero

96. Which practices select of resistant varieties in amuch lesser time scale?

(A) Mutation (B) Crossing over

(C) Use of pesticides (D) All of these




97. Genes that are involved in turning off or on thetranscription of a set of structural genes are called(A) Polymorphic gene (B) Operator gene(C) Reductant genes (D) Regulatory genes

98. Convergency does not occur in(A) Flying squirrel and flying phalanger(B) Anteater and numbat(C) Wolf and Tasmanian wolf(D) Banded anteater and tiger cat

99. In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by usingRNA as template. Such a DNA is called(A) A-DNA (B) B-DNA(C) cDNA (D) rDNA

100. Select the odd one(A) Triceratops (B) Tyrannosaurus

(C) Stagosaurus (D) Koala

101. How many nucleotides are present in one spiralof DNA?(A) 5 (B) 10(C) 20 (D) 25

102. Select the incorrect statement(A) Clusters of galaxies comprise the universe(B) Galaxies contain the clouds of gas and dustonly(C) Bougainvillea and cucurbita represent homology(D) None of these

103. Because most of the amino acids are representedby more than one codons, the genetic code issaid to be(A) Deaminated (B) Commaless(C) Degenerate (D) Overlapping

104. ____ a naturalist who worked in Malay Archipelagohad also come to similar conclusion like Darwin

(A) A.R. Wallace (B) T.R. Malthus

(C) August Weismann (D) Lamarck

105. Which enzyme/product or process is occurringin the given figure?

(A) A-Replication, B-Transcription, C-Protein

(B) A-Transcription, B-cDNA, C-Protein

(C) A-Replication, B-cDNA, C-Protein

(D) A-Transcription, B-Replication, C-Protein

106. Single step large mutation is

(A) Saltiation (B) Natural selection

(C) Branching descent (D) lnbreeding

107. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referredto as

(A) Positive regulation

(B) Negative regulation

(C) Feedback regulation

(D) None of these

108. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. stabilizingselection

(A) Either of extrem value is selected

(B) It increases the mean value of the trait

(C) It increases or decreases the mean value of trait

(D) Extremes are selected and intermediates areeliminated




109. Segments of mRNA removed during splicing are

(A) Introns (B) Exons

(C) Promoter regions (D) Integrator regions

110. Isolation is the prevention of mating amongst interbreeding groups. It can be prezygotic or postzygotic.Which of the following is/are pre zygotic barrier?

(A) Mechanical isolation(B) Seasonal isolation

(C) Geographical isolation(D) All of these

111. Special unwiding enzyme that breaks hydrogenbonds between the two strands of DNA is

(A) Primase (B) Topoisomerase

(C) DNA polymerase (D)Helicase

112. Find out the character which is not applied forhomologous organs

(A) Usually differ in function

(B) Usually differ in origin

(C) They have similar developmental pattern

(D) They may have similar functions

113. Length of mRNA that carries information forcomplete polypeptide synthesis is

(A) muton (B) codon

(C) operon (D) cistron

114. Mouse : marsupial mouse : : Lemur : ___ ?___

(A) Spotted cuscus (B) Tasmanian wolf

(C) Numbat (D) Tasmanian tiger cat

115. Glycosidic bonds forms between

(A) 1'C of sugar and position 1-N in pyrimidine

(B) 1'C of sugar and position 1-N in purine

(C) 1'C of sugar and position 9-N in pyrimidine(D) Both (B) and (C)

116. Which of the following are Lamark's postulates?

(A) Pre adpative changes

(B) Presence of vestigial organs

(C) Doctrine of desire

(D) Both (B) and (C)

117. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the codingstrand of DNA in a transcription unit is

5'-A T G A A T G-3'

the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript wouldbe

(A) 5'-A U G A A U G-3'

(B) 5'-U A C U U A C-3'

(C) 5'-C A U U C A U-3'

(D) 5'-G U A A G U A-3'

118. Hugo de Varies on his work on _____ broughtforth the idea of mutation

(A) Mirabilis jalapa

(B) Japanese 4 'O' clock plant

(C) Evening primerqse

(D) Both (B) and (C)

119. When the amino acids are activated in thepresence of ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA,the process is called

(A) Activation of tRNA

(B) Aminoacylation of tRNA

(C) Initiation of tRNA

(D) None of these




120. Collection of moth carried out in 1850 in Englandshowed that

(A) More dark winged moths were present

(B) More light winged moths were present

(C) Both were in equal proportion

(D) Moths were absent

121. The fact that a purine base always paired throughhydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to,in the DNA double helix

(A) The antiparallel nature

(B) The semiconservative nature

(C) Uniform width throughout DNA

(D) Uniform length in all DNA

122. Which of the following got extinct around 65 mya?

(A) Tasmanian wolf

(B) Therapsida

(C) Dinosaurs

(D) Pelycosaurs

123. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continuedfor four generations in bacteria, the ratio of

15N/15N : 15N/14N : 14N/14N containing DNA inthe fourth generation would be

(A) 1 : 1 : 0 (B) 1 : 4 : 0

(C) 0 : 1 : 3 (D) 0 : 1 : 7

124. Selection of heterozygous form having allele ofsickle cell in Afria is an example of

(A) Directional Natural selection

(B) Progressive Natural selection

(C) Stabilizing Natural selection

(D) Disruptive Natural selection

125. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when(A) Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor(B) Repressor binds to operator(C) RNA polymerase binds to the operator(D) Lactose is present and it binds to RNApolymerase

126. When selection acts to eliminate both extremesfrom array of phenotypes, the frequency ofintermediate type get increased. This is called as(A) Disruptive selection(B) Directional selection(C) Stabilising selection(D) Non-directional selection

127. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes(A) Exons and introns do not appear in the matureRNA(B) Exons appear but introns do not appear in themature RNA(C) Introns appear, but exons do not appear in themature RNA(D) Both exons and introns appear in the matureRNA

128. Darwin's theory of pangenesis proposes(A) Development of useful organs and degenerationof useless organs(B) Development of an organ due to will power(C) Increase in organ size with age(D) Every organ of the body produces minutehereditary particles called as gemmules, carriedthrough the blood from every organ and collectedtogether into gametes




129. RNA polymerase

(A) Is the protein reponsible for the production ofribonucleotides

(B) Is the enzyme that creates hydrogen bondsbetween nucleotides on the DnA template strandand their complementary RNA nucleotides

(C) Is the enzyme that transcribes exons, but doesnot transcribe introns

(D) Begins transcription at a promoter sequenceand moves along the template strand of DNA,

elongating the RNA molecule in a 5 3 direction

130. Evolutionary process, giving rise to new speciesadapted to new habitats and ways of life, is calledas adaptive radiation, for example

(A) Darwin's Finches in Galapagos Islands

(B) Australian marsupials that radiated to form newspecies

(C) Wolf and Tasmanian Wolf

(D) Both (A) and (B)

131. In protein synthesis, a polypeptide of five aminoacids is synthesised. Which one of the followingcan be the correct polypeptide?

(A) Glycine-Valine-0Methionine-Histidine-Lysine

(B) Methionine-Lysine-Glycine-Valine-Histidine

(C) Lysine-methionine-Valine-Glycine-Histidine

(D) Valine-Methionine-Glycine-Histidine-Lysine

132. Which one of the following is process offossilization?

(A) Atavism (B) Paedogenesis

(C) Palaeogenesis (D) Petrifaction

133. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?(A) Ribosomal RNA Carries amino acids to the

site of protein synthesis

(B) Transcription Process by which protein issynthesised

(C) Translation Process by which mRNAcarries the information fromthe nucleus to ribosomes

(D) Anticodon Site of a tRNA molecule that

binds to the mRNA molecule

134. Which of the following statement is not correctregarding mutations?

(A) Mutations are random with respect to theadaptive needs of organisms

(B) Mutations could be narmful or with no effecton their bearer

(C) Mutations are main factor for creating variation

(D) Natural Mutation rates are very fast

135. The strand of DNA acting as template for mRNAtranscription is

I. coding strand II. non-coding strand

III. sense strand IV. anti-sense strand

Choose the correct option.

(A) I and III (B) I and IV

(C) II and IV (D) II and III

136. Coprolites are

(A) Fossils of undgiested waste/exreta

(B) Fossils of microscopic organisms

(C) Fossil like wooly mammoth

(D) All of these




137. Which of the following statements are related tothe structure of double helical DNA?I. The helix makes one complete spiral turn every34 ÅII. The diameter of the helix is 20 ÅIII. The distance between adjacent nucleotide is3.4 ÅIV. Each strand of helix has a backbone made upof alternating ribose sugar and phosphateV. The two adjacent sugar molecules joined withphosphate by phosphodiester bondCodes(A) I and II (B) I, II, III and V(C) II and IV (D) III, IV and V

138. Liyed in east and central asia, clothing, burriedthe dead, said points are applicable for(A) Cro-magnon (B) Neanderthal man

(C) Homo habilis (D) Australopithecus

139. Match the following columns.Column I Column II

a. Chargaff 1. Wilkins and Franklin

b. Replicon 2. Uptake of lactose

c. Permease 3. hnRNA

d. Split gene 4. Length of DNA

e. X-ray diffraction studies 5. (A + G) = (C + T)

Codesa b c d e

(A) 5 4 2 3 1(B) 5 4 1 3 2(C) 5 4 2 1 3(D) 5 1 2 3 4

140. F2-sterility also called

(A) Hybrid inviability (B) Hybrid sterility

(C) Hybrid breakdown (D) Incompatibility

141. Taylor conducted the experiments to provesemiconservative mode of chromosome replicationin

(A) Vinca rosea

(B) Vicia faba

(C) Drosophila melanogaster

(D) E. coli

142. Essay on population was proposed by

(A) Herbert Spencer (B) David lack

(C) A.R. Wallace (D) Malthus

143. A molecule that can act as a genetic materialmust fulfill the traits given below, except

(A) It should be able to express itself in the formof ‘Mendelian characters’

(B) It should be able to generate its replica

(C) It should be unstable structurally and chemically

(D) It should provide the scope for slow changesthat are required for evolution

144. If the number of heterozygous plants are 500 outof 1000, calculate allelic frequency of recessiveallele

(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5

(C) 0.6 (D) 0.7

145. Survival due to geographic isolation is bestexplained by mammalian fauna of

(A) Oriental region (B) Ethiopean region

(C) Palaearctic region (D) Australian region




146. Study the following columns:Column I Column II

a. RNA Polymerase-I 1. tRNA, 5 stRNA, snRNA

b. RNA Polymerase-II 2. Transcribes all types ofRNAs

c. RNA Polymerase-III 3. 28 S, 18S and 5.8S RNAs

d. Bacterial RNA 4. Precursor of mRNA

polymerase

5. Synthesis of DNA

Codes

a b c d

(A) 3 1 5 4

(B) 2 5 3 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 1 3 5 2

147. In recent years, DNA sequences of mitochondrial

DNA and Y-chromosomes were considered for thestudy of human evolution because

(A) They can be studied from the sample of fossilremains

(B) They are small and therefore, easy to study

(C) They are uniparental in origin and do not take

part in recombination

(D) Their structure is known in greater detail

148. Which of the following option is incorrect

(A) A bacteriophage x 174 has 5386 bp

(B) Bacteriophage lambda has 48502 bp

(C) E.coli has 4.6 x 109 bp

(D) Haploid content of human DNA has 3.3 x 109 bp

149. Match the following columns:Column I (Scientist) Column II (Concept)

a. Taylor and Colleagues 1. lac operon

b. Hershey and Chase 2. DNA replicatessemiconservatively

c. Griffith 3. Transforming principle

d. Jacob and Monod 4. DNA is the genetic material

5. Transcription

Codesa b c d

(A) 2 5 1 3

(B) 3 4 2 1

(C) 2 4 3 1

(D) 1 5 4 2

150. When a hybrid produces sterile or infertiie offspring,it is known as

(A) Hybrid sterility (B) Hybrid breakdown

(C) Hybrid inviability (D) Gametic isolation

151. Two nucleotides in a chain are linked through

(A) 5’ to 3’ phosphodiester linkage

(B) 3’ to 5’ Phosphoester linkage

(C) 5’ to 3’ Phosphoester linkage

(D) 3’ to 5’ phosphodiester linkage

152. A Scientist kept 72 generations of Drosophila indarkness even after that the flies had normareyes,this disproves the law of

(A) Synthetic theory

(B) Natural selection

(C) Use and disuse theory .

(D) Aquired characters are inherited




153. How many features given below are shown by DNA:

Backbone made of Phosphate only, Nitrogenbases are present parallel to central axis,Deoxyribose sugar, Presence of Uracil, 0.2 nm inwidth, Nitrogen bases are joined throughphosphodiester bond, A helical turn has presenceof 10 bases, Presence of two minor groves in asingle helical turn, Single chain structure,Presence of 2’ OH group in pentose sugar

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) Five (D) Six

154. Darwin's theory of natural selection was partlybased on observation of finches on the GalapagosIslands. These birds provide an example of

(A) Adaptive radiation

(B) Ecological succession

(C) Hybridisation

(D) Convergent evolution

155. 5-methyl Uracil is the other name of

(A) Uracil (B) Adenine

(C) Guanine (D) Thymine

156. Which of the following statement is correct

(A) Homoerectus is the direct ancestor of homosapians

(B) Cro-magnon man's fossils has been found inEthopia

(C) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of Modernman

(D) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor ofHomoerectus

157. Read the following statements carefully and selectthe correct option

a. VNTR belongs to class of satellite DNA,referred as microsatellite

b. The copy number of VNTR remain same fromchromosome to chromosome in an individual

c. The size of VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20 Mb

d. DNA from a single cell is not enough to performDNA fingerprinting

e. It works on the principle of polymorphism inDNA sequence

(A) All are correct

(B) All are correct except e

(C) Only a and e are incorrect

(D) All are incorrect except e

158. In the following pair which is not correctly matched(A) Protopterus – Connecting link between

fishes and reptiles

(B) Neopilinia – Connecting link between

Annelida and Mollusca

(C) Platypus – Connecting link between

reptiles and mammals

(D) Archaeopterys – Connecting link between

reptiles and birds

159. Which of the following do not confers stability tostructure of DNA

(A) H bonding

(B) Base stacking

(C) Hydrophobic interactions

(D) None of these




160. In which type of natural selection more individualsacquire peripheral character value at both ends ofdistribution curve?

(A) Stabilising selection

(B) Direction selection

(C) Disruptive selection

(D) Balancing selection

161. How many statements given below are correct?

a) Human genome sequence project waslaunched in year 1990

b) Two commonly used vectors were BAC(Bacteriophage artificial chromosome) and YAC(Yeast artificial chromosome)

c) The DNA fragments were sequenced on themethod developed by F. Sanger

d) The sequence of chromosome 1 was completedin May 2002

e) Chromosome Y has fewest genes i.e., 321

f) The largest human gene being dystrophin has2.4 million bases

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four

162. Key concept of Darwin's theory of Evolution are:

(A) Branching descent

(B) Natural seleption

(C) Use and disuse of organs

(D) Both (A) and (B)

163. The first genetic material could be

(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrates

(C) RNA (D) DNA

164. Which of the following statement is incorrect forRepetitive DNA sequences

(A) A small stretch of DNA is repeated many times(B) Separated from bulk genomic DNA as largepeaks during density gradient centrifugation

(C) Show high degree of polymorphism

(D) Normally do not code for any proteins

165. Which one of the following options gives onecorrect example each of convergent evolution anddivergent evolution?

Divergent evolution Convergent evolution(A) Bones of forelimbs of

whale and cheetahEyes of octopus andmammals

(B) Wings of butterfly andsparrow

Brain and heart ofvertebrates

(C) Potato and sweetpotato

Thorn of bougainvileatendrils of curcubita

(D) Flippers of penguinsand Dophins

Wings of butterfly andbirds

166. In eukaryotes, genes can be regulated at manylevels except

(A) Transcription level

(B) Translation level

(C) Transport of proteins from cytoplasm to nucleus

(D) RNA Processing level

167. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in onestrand because

(A) DNA molecules being synthesized is very long

(B) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyzespolymerization only in one direction 5’ to 3’

(C) It is a more efficient process

(D) DNA ligase joins the short stretches of DNA




168. Which one of these is correctly identified in theoptions given along with its cranial capacity andfeature belong to him?

Name Cranialcapacity

Feature

(A) Homo habilis 900 cc Hunted w ith stonew eapons

(B) Australopithecus 650-800 cc They w ere hairy andw alked like gorillas andchimpanzee

(C) Neanderthal man 1400 cc They used hides toprotect their body andburied their dead

(D) Homo-erecuts 650-800 cc Arose before 1.5 millionyears, probably ate meat

169. Which of the following regarding evolution of manis true?

(A) Dryopithecus was more man like whileRamapithecus was more ape like

(B) The brain capacity of Homohabilis was about650-800 cc

(C) Homo-erectus probably did not ate meat

(D) Fossils of Homo-erectus have been discoveredin Ethiopia and Tanzania

170. Man has bred selected ptants and animals foragriculature, horticulture, sport and security. Manhas domesticated many improved race of animalsand plants. This intensive breeding programme isknown as

· (A) Natural selection

(B) Artificial selection

(C) Sexual selection

(D) Reproductive isolation

171. The promoter site and the terminator site fortranscription are located at

(A) 3’ downstream end and 5’ upstream endrespectively of the transcription unit

(B) 5’ upstream end and 3’ downstream endrespectively of the transcription unit

(C) 3’ downstream end

(D) 5’ upstream end

172. Which of the following is an example of adaptiveradiation?

(A) Different varieties of marsupial in Australia

(B) Different variety of finches that Darwin foundin Galapagos Island

(C) Different variety of eutherian mammals

(D) All of these

173. Which of the following represents nucleotide

(A) Guanosine

(B) Adenosine

(C) Uridine

(D) Cytidylic acid

174. Which of the following is an example of analogy?

(A) Eyes of octopus and mammals

(B) Potato and sweet potato

(C) Wings of butterfly and birds

(D) All of these

175. The length of ds-DNA having 13.2 x 109 basescomes out to be

(A) 1.1 meters (B) 2.2 meters

(C) 3.6 meters (D) 4.4 meters




176. The thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbitarepresent

(A) Homology

(B) Divergent evolution

(C) Convergent evolution

(D) (A) and (B) both

177. Histones are rich in basic amino acids

(A) Leucine and Arginine

(B) Leucine and Histidine

(C) Arginine and Histidine

(D) Lysine and Arginine

178. Find the correct statements

a. Invertebrates were formed about 500 mya

b. Jawless fish probably evolved around 350 mya

c. Reptiles evolved about 100 mya

(A) Only a (B) Only b

(C) b & c (D) a & b

179. After transformation, R strain is transformed intokiller S strain due to synthesis of

(A) Smooth protein coat

(B) Smooth lipid coat

(C) Smooth polysaccharide coat

(D) All of the above

180. ______ hunted with stone weapons but essentiallyate fruits

(A) Cro magnon

(B) Homo habilis

(C) Australopithecus

(D) Homo erectus

1 B 46 B 91 B 136 A2 C 47 C 92 B 137 B3 A 48 A 93 B 138 B4 A 49 D 94 B 139 A5 D 50 C 95 C 140 C6 D 51 C 96 C 141 B7 D 52 C 97 D 142 D8 B 53 A 98 D 143 C9 D 54 B 99 C 144 B10 A 55 D 100 D 145 D11 C 56 B 101 C 146 C12 D 57 C 102 B 147 C13 C 58 A 103 C 148 A14 A 59 B 104 A 149 C15 D 60 A 105 A 150 B16 C 61 D 106 A 151 D17 C 62 D 107 B 152 C18 D 63 B 108 B 153 A19 A 64 D 109 A 154 A20 D 65 C 110 D 155 D21 D 66 C 111 D 156 A22 D 67 C 112 B 157 D23 C 68 A 113 D 158 A24 B 69 A 114 A 159 D25 A 70 A 115 A 160 C26 A 71 B 116 D 161 C27 B 72 A 117 A 162 D28 A 73 A 118 C 163 C29 A 74 C 119 B 164 B30 A 75 D 120 B 165 A31 B 76 C 121 C 166 C32 D 77 A 122 C 167 B33 B 78 D 123 D 168 C34 B 79 B 124 C 169 B35 A 80 C 125 A 170 B36 B 81 A 126 C 171 B37 C 82 B 127 B 172 D38 B 83 A 128 D 173 D39 A 84 C 129 D 174 D40 B 85 A 130 D 175 B41 C 86 C 131 B 176 D42 D 87 B 132 D 177 D43 C 88 D 133 D 178 D44 D 89 A 134 D 179 C45 A 90 A 135 C 180 C

ANSWERS DROPPER (NEET) TEST-9 (21-03-2020)PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY

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