SPECIMEN QUESTIONNAIRETECHNICAL GENERAL

Fill in the blanks: -

1. For C of G considerations, the influence of weight is directly dependent on its distance from the __________________

2. Lever arm multiplied by the _________________ gives the moment about the fulcrum.

3. Ballast is usually located as far forward or as far backward as possible to bring the __________ within limits using ____________ amount of weight.

4. Jet fuels like Jet A or Jet A1 have very low ________________________ to ensure minimum loss of fuel due to evaporation or boiling off at higher altitudes.

5. In a jet engine, the component required to produce atomised spray of fuel is called a ______________________

6. The acceleration control unit prevents ____________________________ during rapid throttle movements.

7. A starting by-pass is a device to ______________________ the fuel flowing through the throttle valve to give better starting.

8. An after burner___________________ the velocity of the exit gases whereas a By-pass system _________________ the velocity of the exit gases.

9. Variable angle guide/stator vanes are used to match air angles to _________________ and avoid stalling conditions.

10. The sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the amount of current required for ______________________ deflection.

11. The property of a coil to oppose any change in the current flowing through it (cemf) is termed as __________________________

12. The combined effect of resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance (total opposition to current flow) is termed as ________________________

13. The factor which determines whether a transformer is step down or step up type is the ___________________________ ratio.

14. DC generators could be either _______________ wound or ______________ wound.

15. In a two-phase alternator, the voltages produced are at a phase difference of ________ degrees to each other.

16. When resistors are connected in series, their resultant resistance is equal to the ______________ of their separate values.

17. Capacitance (farads) is equal to _______________ divided by __________________

18. A polyphased generator system is said to be _________________________ when phase voltages have the same amplitude and are displaced from one another by the same angles.

19. Amplifiers increase the _______________ of electronic signals.

20. Oscillators generate desired ______________

21. Mixers combine signals of different _____________________

22. Power supply is required to ______________ the entire system.

23. Modulators superimpose ________________________ on radio waves.

24. Detection ie. removing information from radio waves is done by ________________

25. Transducers convert physical quantity (light, force, sound etc) into _______________ and vice versa.

26. The distance between the transmitter and point of reception of the first sky wave is called _____________________

27. The area between the limit of ground wave and the skip distance is called ____________________________

28. Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) is required for reception of _______________ signals.

29. In radar transmission, the PRF is determined by __________________ range at which targets are expected.

30. In a pressure altimeter, pressure error is caused due to the ______________________

31. When flying from an area of low-pressure to an area of high-pressure the pressure altimeter will read ______________________

32. The sum total of static pressure and dynamic pressure is called __________________

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33. In a VSI, a blocked static would give _____________________________ indication.

34. Mach number is True Air Speed divided by _________________________________

35. The transmitter of a tachometer is essentially a _______________________________

36. In a Wheatstone Bridge Circuit, the amount of galvanometer needle deflection is proportional to the change in _______________________________

37. Thermal efficiency is the ratio of useful work to _________________________ from the burnt fuel, expressed in percentage.

38. Swept Volume is the volume of cylinder swept by the piston from _______ to ______

39. Thermal Efficiency is the ratio of useful work to the amount of __________________ from the fuel burnt.

40. Thrust Horse Power is not solely dependent on the engine but is related to ___________________________________

41. In a gas turbine engine the conversion of fuel energy to gas energy is most efficient between ______________% and ____________% Rpm.

42. Two types of compressors used in jet engines are the _______________________ flow and ____________________ flow

43. The vane passages in a diffuser are _____________________ to convert velocity energy into pressure energy.

44. Adverse pressure gradient throughout the compressor in a single spool engine is overcome by designs such as the ___________________ compressor.

45. Atomisers and vaporisers are two types of ________________________

46. ___________________ and _________________ are two types of turbines

47. Jet pipe nozzles could be convergent or _______________________

48. Viscosity of a lubricating oil ___________________ with temperature

49. Thrust reversal is a means of _____________________ the landing run of an aircraft

50. The turbo fan engine is a _____________________ type of engine

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State true or false: -

1. The purpose of aircraft weight and balance is safety and has nothing to do with efficiency.

2. The influence of weight is inversely proportional to its distance from the fulcrum

3. Moment of a force is the product of the force multiplied by its arm

4. Ballast, used to bring the C of G of an aircraft within limits, is usually placed as close to the C of G as possible

5. Detonation is a condition that affects jet engines of the by-pass type.

6. Water, foreign particles or microbial growth are common causes of fuel contamination

7. The term 'Aircraft Hardware' is related to computers fitted on aircraft

8. Electricity could be either static or dynamic

9. Electrostatic field is also termed as dielectric field

10. Potential difference and emf are the same thing

11. The only factor affecting resistance of a conductor is its conductivity

12. A battery composed of cells connected in series provides higher voltage than individual cells but not a greater current capacity

13. Printing of the resistance value on the resistor body is a preferred method over colour coding

14. Field strength of an electromagnet can be increased either by increasing the flow of current or the number of turns of the conductor.

15. By design, fuses and circuit breakers are one and the same thing

16. While capacitance in a circuit is represented by a capacitor, inductance is represented by a coil

17. Rectification is the process of converting DC into AC

18. Compound wound generators are a combination of series and shunt winding

19. Any transverse partition in the fuselage which separates the two parts completely is termed as nacelle

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20. Camber is the curvature of a surface of an aerofoil.

21. Wing spar is the principle spanwise structural wing member

22. Rigging is the relative assembly checking and alignment of the aircraft

23. Balance tabs fixed to the control surfaces are meant for maintaining the CG of an aircraft during turbulence

24. Servo control is a control designed to assist the pilot's effort.

25. Strut is a structural member intended to resist compression in the direction of its length

26. Ultimate strength is the point beyond which if stress is increased, the material will fail

27. The constant pressure type of hydraulic system incorporates a mechanism that causes reduction in the amount of fluid delivered depending on the system pressure.

28. The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid is of no consequence and could vary freely with temperature as long as the quantity of fluid is sufficient.

29. Hydraulic fluid also acts as lubricant for the moving parts inside the system.

30. As opposed to power assisted controls, power operated controls do not give any 'Feel' to the pilot and an artificial feel must be created.

31. Wheel loading is the static load on each wheel at take-off weight

32. The cocking device in a maxaret unit ensures that inadvertent locking of brakes in flight does not allow landing with wheels locked.

33. Fibrous composites are made from fibres of various materials like glass, carbon or boron etc.

34. Use of composite materials significantly increase the strength of a structure without affecting the weight.

35. Stiffness and strength qualities of a fibrous material are exploited by aero-elastic tailoring

36. With the static source in an Altimeter blocked, height changes will be over indicated.

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37. When flying from a warmer region to a colder region, the altimeter reading will not be affected.

38. Density error in an ASI occurs due to the calibration of the ASI

39. Readings on an ASI with blocked pitot tube will vary depending on climb, descent or level flight.

40. In a VSI, compensation given for changes in pressure is called altitude compensation

41. The mach meter incorporates two main elements one responsive to speed and one responsive to humidity.

42. Accelerometers indicate acceleration in the vertical axis of an aircraft.

43. Two main characteristics of a gyro are rigidity and speed

44. Angular momentum is the product of instantaneous linear momentum and radius

45. A rate gyro indicates rate of movement about the plane of rotation

46. Erection and pendulosity errors in an artificial horizon are termed as turning errors

47. The pacitor type of fuel gauge uses the property of relative permittivity and fuel density for measuring the fuel quantity.

48. Knocking in a piston engine can occur either due to incorrect ignition timing or due to incorrect mixture.

49. Fuel injectors differ fundamentally from float type carburettors in that the airflow to the engine is not measured by a venturi

50. The object of oil dilution is to facilitate the starting of piston engines in cold weather.

51. Feathering is a procedure by which propeller blades can be turned until the blade chord lines are almost parallel to the airflow.

52. Barking propellers incorporate reversible pitch

53. Aperiodicity in a magnetic compass indicates no recurring oscillations

54. While conducting a compass swing, the correcting swing can be repeated several times to achieve the required accuracy

55. During a spin, the turn indicator always indicates the correct rate and direction of yaw.

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56. The term 'gyro drift' describes any movement of the gyro spin axis away from its datum direction.

57. Sky waves denote wave propagation received after reflection from the ionosphere.

58. Space waves travel after multiple reflections between the earth and the ionosphere

59. The effect of the ionosphere on wave propagation does not depend on the frequency

60. One of the main uses of the oscillator is to generate RF for transmission

61. Modulation implies superimposition of intelligence signal on the RF

62. Detection is another name used to denote modulation

63. Communications in the band of frequencies between 3to 30 MHz employs ground wave propagation

64. Though not intermittent like in the piston engine, the gas turbine engine too goes through the processes of induction, compression, ignition, expansion and exhaust cycles

65. The impulse turbine transfers energy of the gas flow to the turbine wheel by an impulse or impact

66. A high velocity gas flow ensures smaller turbine diameter, hence lower weight and engine size

67. The term 'Creep' denotes elongation of turbine blades under tensile loads due to continued exposure to thermal stresses over a considerable period of time

68. The main function of a combustion chamber is to burn a mixture of air and fuel, without any regard to pressure and temperature

69. Flame extinction can occur due to weak mixture but never due to rich mixture.

70. HP cocks cut off fuel to the burners ie after the HP fuel pump whereas the LP cocks cut off the fuel to the fuel pump itself

71. Stress is the force that tends to compress a structure

72. When stress exceeds the elastic limit, without exceeding the ultimate strength, the material will return to its original state on release of the load

73. Shear load is one that tends to break away a material by pulling action along its longitudinal axis

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74. 'Spring Bias' and 'Variable incidence Tail' are methods of trimming

75. A high wheel loading would require a low LCN runway

Tick the correct answer(s)

1. While designing aircraft, working drawings must contain data regarding

(a) Size and shape(b) Material to be used(c) How the parts are to be assembled

2. Improper loading of an aircraft with regards to C of G reduces the efficiency with respect to

(a) Fuel consumption(b) Manoeuvrability(c) Ceiling

3. Aircraft need periodic re-weighing as they tend to accumulate dirt, grease etc. The weight gained will depend on

(a) Hours of flight(b) Atmospheric conditions(c) Food consumed aboard

4. Mean aerodynamic chord is the

(a) Mean average chord of the wing(b) Line joining leading edge to trailing edge(c) Line joining tip to root of wing

5. The weight and balance extreme position of an aircraft denotes

(a) Max forward and rearward CG position(b) Max number of passengers that can be carried (c) Position of baggage hold in the aircraft

6. Octane and performance number rating of fuels designate

(a) Antiknock values of the fuel mixture in an engine cylinder(b) Energy content of the fuel(c) Means of identifying the fuel

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7. Aromatic hydrocarbons are added to fuels to

(a) To improve its appeal amongst consumers(b) To improve the rich mixture performance rating of the fuel(c) To dilute the fuel for reducing viscosity in cold temperature

8. Fuel jettison system is required for transport category of aircraft

(a) If max take-off weight exceeds max landing weight(b) If max landing weight exceeds max take-off weight(c) For negotiating bad weather in flight

9. Bolts are preferred to screws for fastening when

(a) When fastening strength required is more(b) When there is no access for placing a nut(c) When the body, of the material being fitted, cannot accept the screw

10. A turnbuckle assembly is used in conjunction with

(a) Cables(b) Seat belts(c) Torque meters

11. The single factor for determining the class of lever is

(a) The location of the fulcrum in relation to the resistance and the effort(b) The material used to make the lever(c) The machine in which it is used

12. The inclined plane is a simple machine that operates

(a) By application of a small force over a relatively long distance(b) For deriving mechanical advantage for lifting heavy objects(c) Just like the wedge, ie the wedge is an application of the inclined plane

13. All machines transfer

(a) Input energy to the machine to output energy by the machine(b) Work done on the machine to work done by the machine(c) Mechanical advantage to the work

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14. Ohm's law may be expressed as an equation as following: -

(a) I = E/R (b) E = R/E(c) R = E/I where I is the current E is the Potential Difference and R is the resistance

15. Requirements for a parallel circuit are

(a) Power source(b) Resistance or load for each current path(c) Two or more paths for current flow(d) All of the above

16. In an electrical circuit, a low resistance path across the power source or between the sides of a circuit is termed as

(a) Short circuit(b) Open circuit(c) Continuity(d) Discontinuity

17. The value of an induced emf depends on

(a) The number of wires moving through the magnetic field (b) The strength of the magnetic field(c) The speed of rotation

18. The unit for the measurement of impedance is

(a) Volt(b) Ohm(c) Watt

19. A transformer changes

(a) Power(b) Voltage(c) Inductance

20. A transistor performs the functions of a

(a) Diode(b) Vacuum tube(c) Cathode Ray Tube

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21. A converter is

(a) DC generator and AC motor combined(b) DC motor(c) An equipment to convert DC to AC

22. A solid state diode is manufactured from

(a) Semiconductors(b) Lead plates(c) Selenium

23. Examples of compressor less jets are

(a) Intermittent pulse duct(b) Ram jet or ATHODYD(c) By-pass duct engine

24. Basic requirements of a turbine engine are that it should have

(a) Light weight & small frontal area(b) High efficiency, reliability and serviceability(c) Ability to operate at high temperature/ power for sustained periods

25. Types of combustion chambers used in jet engines are

(a) Multiple chambers arranged around the circumference of the engine body(b) Single annular chamber(c) Twin spool type

26. Lubbock, simplex, duplex and spill are types of

(a) Torch ignitors(b) Burners(c) Atomisers

27. The minimum burner pressure valve in the fuel system prevents flame extinction

(a) At high altitude, idling rpm(b) At low altitude, idling rpm(c) At any altitude, full rpm

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28. The use of reheat results in

(a) Shorter take-off roll(b) Improved rate of climb(c) Lower specific fuel consumption

29. A ducted fan engine, as compared to turbo jet engine, has

(a) Increased propulsive efficiency(b) Reduced mean speed of the exhaust gases(c) Increased total mass flow

30. Some advantages of the turbo prop over the turbo jet are

(a) Power available is independent of the forward speed of the aircraft, more power is available during the initial stages of the take-off run(b) The engine is more efficient at high altitudes(c) Power response to throttle movement is more rapid

31. Engine anti-icing equipment may be switched on if the following is encountered in icing conditions

(a) Suspected icing(b) Rise in jpt or drop in rpm(c) Smoke from engine

32. Flame extinction may be caused by

(a) Over/ under fuelling(b) Interruption of fuel flow(c) Excessive/Insufficient idling speed

33. Wing design for supersonic speeds are difficult because of the requirement of

(a) Small thickness/chord ratio of 6% or less(b) The heating effect of supersonic flights(c) Excessive sweep back

34. Basic requirements of an airframe are

(a) Sufficient strength(b) Smooth skin of the required aerodynamic form(c) Easy to dismantle for servicing

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35. For a given transmission power, as compared to distance over land, radio waves will travel over sea for a

(a) Longer distance(b) Shorter distance(c) Same distance

36. Higher the frequency, the attenuation is

(a) Greater (b) Lesser(c) No change

37. At lower frequencies, static is

(a) Severe(b) Negligible(c) Nil

38. Range available from sky waves is dependent on

(a) Transmission power(b) Depth of penetration(c) Critical angle

39. Frequencies above 30 MHz (VHF & above)

(a) Return as sky waves(b) Escape into space(c) Travel by multi-hop propagation

40. The following rules apply for the use of SELCAL

(a) The appropriate ATC must be informed(b) The ATC should not object(c) Other aircraft should not object

41. 180o ambiguity in NDB is resolved by the use of

(a) Sense aerial(b) Loop aerial(c) Combination of sense and loop aerial

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42. NDB operates in the

(a) LF/ MF band(b) HF/VHF band(c) UHF band

43. To protect two NDBs operating at close frequencies from interfering with each other, it is required to limit their range. This requirement is called

(a) Range Limit(b) Frequency protection(c) Protection range

44. Range produced by an A2 transmission, as compared to that produced by an A1 transmission is

(a) Lesser(b) More(c) No change

45. The principle of operation of the VOR

(a) Bearing by range comparison(b) Bearing by phase comparison(c) Bearing by frequency comparison

46. A VOR aerial accepts

(a) VOR signals alone(b) VOR, ILS and VHF signals(c) VOR and ILS-localiser signals

47. The OBS knob on the VOR is used to select

(a) True track required(b) Magnetic track required (c) Magnetic track required or reciprocal of it

48. In the event of a main system failure of the VOR ground equipment, when it is switched off, the standby transmitter then takes over. Ident signals onthe standby system are transmitted

(a) Immediately(b) After 5 minutes(c) After radiation stabilises

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49. In theory, the VOR gives

(a) Infinite number of tracks(b) 360 tracks numbered in degrees(c) Tracks on cardinal headings

50. Left/ Right indications in a VOR

(a) Points towards the beacon(b) Points towards the ATC(c) Gives relative position information

51. RMI

(a) Is a useful independent navigation aid(b) Is only an indicator(c) Indicates QDM in conjunction with ADF receiver/ VOR

52. Bearings are classified according to accuracy, hence a class A bearing would mean an accuracy of

(a) + 20 (b) + 50

(c) +100

53. Fan markers operate on

(a) Multiple frequencies(b) Any one frequency depending on the station selection(c) Fixed frequency of 75 MHz

54. Consol is a

(a) Long range navigation aid operating in the MF band(b) Communication equipment(c) Mounting panel for nav equipment in the cockpit

55. ILS indicator is

(a) VOR left/ right deviation indicator, with an additional horizontal needle(b) Two separate indicators indicating glide path/ localiser information(c) A blue sector indicator and a yellow sector indicator

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56. Cat III ILS is capable of providing accurate guidance

(a) To a height of 200 ft above the reference point(b) To a height of 50 ft above the reference point(c) To the surface of the runway

57. An Aircraft certificated to Cat IIIB ILS equipment on board can operate

(a) Down to surface of the runway with RVR 200 metres(b) Down to the surface of the runway and taxiways with RVR 50 metres(c) Down to the surface of the runway and taxiways without visual reference

58. Primary Radar is

(a) Self contained and needs no external assistance(b) Needs an interrogator(c) Is the same as secondary radar except for its utilisation

59. The DME works on the principle of the

(a) Secondary Radar(b) Primary Radar(c) Non of the above

60. Some advantages of the CW Radar are

(a) The system is less complex than pulse Radar system(b) It has no minimum range limitations in azimuth or in elevation(c) Because it operates in the same frequency as the transmission it is free of clutter

61. A DME incorporates

(a) A loop antenna(b) A sense antenna and a loop antenna(c) An omni-directional blade antenna

62. Ranges indicated by DME are

(a) Accurate horizontal distances(b) Slant ranges requiring computation for conversion to horizontal range(c) Slant ranges converted by the use of pythagoras

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63. The ASR is a primary Radar wherein

(a) Range is found by echo principle(b) Range is found by searchlight principle(c) Direction is found by searchlight principle

64. Range in VHF transmission is dependent on

(a) Height of transmitter and receiver(b) Transmission power(c) Both of the above

65. VOT is a transmitter for testing the airborne equipment of the VOR. When using this, the dial indications obtained for a serviceable equipment should be

(a) 000 From and 180 To(b) 180 To and 000 From(c) None of the above

66. High-energy ignition units in jet engines, as compared to torch ignitors, supply

(a) Hotter spark(b) Cooler spark(c) Has no bearing on spark temperature

67. The Air-Fuel Ratio Control unit is designed to

(a) Keep fuel delivery to the burners proportional to the compressor pressure(b) Prevent surge during acceleration(c) Prevent rich mixture flame extinction

68. Jet pipe lagging is used to

(a) Cool the engine(b) Prevent heat leak(c) Safeguard against fire

69. When an aircraft is stationary it propulsive efficiency is

(a) Zero(b) 100%(c) Depends on throttle settings

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70. When water methanol is used for thrust augmentation, the ratio of water to methanol used is

(a) 40% : 60%(b) 60% : 40%(c) 50% : 50%

71. Tachometers are devices used to measure

(a) TAS(b) RPM(c) Pressure

72. In a JPT indicator employing principle of thermocouple, the cold junction is usually

(a) At the base of the thermocouple(b) In the Jet Pipe(c) In the instrument indicator

73. JPT indicators would essentially need an amplifier as

(a) The temperature range to be read is very large(b) The temperature pick-up and indicator are placed far apart(c) Thermocouples generate microvolts of electrical energy

74. Machmeters indicate

(a) Ratio of TAS to local speed of sound(b) Local speed of sound(c) Ratio of IAS to local speed of sound

75. In an ASI, the magnitude of pressure error depends on

(a) Aircraft speed & position of static vent(b) Type of manoeuvre & angle of attack(c) both of the above

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TECHNICAL:GENERAL - ANSWERS

Fill in the blanks

1. Fulcrum2. Weight3. CG, minimum4. Vapour pressure5. Burner6. Excessive overfuelling7. Supplement8. Increases, decreases9. Rotor speed10. Full scale11. Inductance12. Impedance13. Turns14. Series, shunt15. 900

16. Sum17. Charge (coulomb)18. Symmetrical19. Amplitude20. Wave form/ Signal frequencies21. Frequencies22. Energise23. Information24. Demodulators25. Electrical signals

26. Skip distance27. Dead space28. CW29. Maximum30. Position of static source31. Less32. Pitot pressure33. zero34. Local speed of sound35. 3-phase AC generator36. Resistance37. TDC38. TDC to BDC39. Heat supplied40. Propeller efficiency41. 90% to 100%42. Centrifugal and axial43. Divergent44. Multi-Spool45. Burners46. Reaction and impulse47. Convergent, divergent48. Reduces49. Reducing50. By-pass

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State True or False

1. False2. False3. True4. False5. False6. True7. False8. True9. True10. True11. False12. True13. False14. True15. False16. True17. True18. True19. False20. True21. True22. True23. False24. True25. True26. True27. True28. False29. True30. True31. True32. True33. True34. False35. True36. False37. False

38. True39. True40. True41. False42. True43. False44. True45. False46. True47. True48. True49. True50. True51. True52. True53. True54. True55. False56. True57. True58. False59. False60. True61. True62. False63. False64. True65. True66. True67. True68. False69. False70. True71. False72. False73. False74. True75. False

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Tick the correct answers

1. a,b2. ,c3. a,b,c4. a,b5. a6. a7. a8. b9. a10. a11. a12. a13. a,b,c14. a,b15. a16. d17. a18. a,b,c19. b20. b21. b22. a23. a24. a,b25. a,b,c26. a,b27. b28. a29. a,b30. a,b,c31. a,c32. a,b33. a,b34. a,b35. a,b36. a37. a38. a,b,c39. b

40. a,b41. a42. a43. c44. a45. b46. c47. c48. c49. a50. c51. b,c52. a53. c54. a55. a56. c57. b58. a59. a60. a,b61. c62. b,c63. a,c64. a65. a66. a67. a,b,c68. b,c69. a70. b71. b72. c73. c74. a75. c

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