Sweeper.pdf

8/10/2019 Sweeper.pdf

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4thClass Power EngineeringUnit 8 PLANT FIRE PROTECTION

Chapter 38 Portable Fire Extinguishers

1. Foam extinguishers are recommended for:

a. Class A and Class B firesb. Class A and Class C firesc. Class B and Class C firesd. All classes of firese. All but burning liquids.

2. A red square on a fire extinguisher indicates that this extinguisher issuitable for a Class _____ fire.a. Ab. Bc. Cd. De. E.

3. An extinguisher with a 4 rating is:a. Good for ClassC fires onlyb. Twice as effective as a unit with a 1 ratingc. Not to be used on a Class A fired. Four times as effective as a unit with a 1 ratinge. Good for 4 minutes of use.

4. The fire extinguisher to be used on an electrical equipment ismarked with a C on a background consisting of a:a. Blue circleb. Green trianglec. Yellow stard. Green circlee. Red square.

5. Halon agent extinguishers are operated and applied in the same

manner as a:a. Carbon dioxide extinguisherb. Water extinguisherc. Dry chemical extinguisherd. Foam extinguishere. Dry powder extinguisher.

6. Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used tocombat a Class C fire:


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1. Carbon dioxide2. Foam3. Dry chemical4. Water

a. 1, 2

b. 1, 3c. 2, 3d. 2, 4e. 1, 4.

7. One type of extinguisher suitable for extinguishing all four classes offires is the:a. Halonb. Foamc. Dry chemicald. Carbon dioxidee. None of the above.

8. All maintenance work done on portable fire extinguishers is requiredto be:a. Completed in all extinguishers in the plant at the same timeb. Performed at the work site in case they are required for

emergency servicec. Contracted out to a certified service companyd. Supervised by a National Fire Protection Association employeee. Performed on an as need be basis.

9. Rating numerals to indicate the effectiveness of an extinguisher areused in reference to:a. Class A firesb. Class B firesc. Class C firesd. Class A and B firese. Class A, B and C fires.

10. Burning metals may be extinguished using:a. Dry chemical extinguishersb. Carbon dioxide extinguishersc. AFFF extinguishersd. Dry powder extinguisherse. Foam extinguishers.

11. Carbon dioxide fire extinguishers:a. Are self expelling


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b. Are the best for Class A firesc. Are the quietest in operationd. Present no hazards during usee. Are the most difficult to use.

12. Foam type fire extinguishers should only be installed or stored inareas where the temperature remains above:a. 15C

b. 12C

c. 10C

d. 7C

e. 5C.

13. What type of fire should be put out with water?a. Class Ab. Class Bc. Class Cd. Class A, B, and Ce. Class D.

14. Foam type fire extinguishers achieve best results by:a. Lobbing the foam over top of the fireb. Bouncing the foam off the floor just in front of the

burning areac. Discharging the agent with a sweeping motiond. Discharging the agent at the base of the flame

e. Splashing the agent into the burning liquid.

15. A loaded stream extinguisher is one which:a. Can be used on Class B firesb. Has an antifreeze agentc. Is always under stored pressured. Is meant for Class C firese. Produces foam.

16. Halon extinguishers are mostly intended for use on:a. Class A firesb. Class B firesc. Class C firesd. Class A and Class B firese. Class B and Class C fires.

17. A major disadvantage of a floor standing pump extinguisher over abackpack unit is:


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a. The floor unit has only half the capacityb. The backpack unit has twice the rangec. Pumping must stop for relocationd. The floor unit pump is single actinge. The floor unit is too difficult to move.

18. The maximum storage temperature for a carbon dioxideextinguisher is:a. 31C

b. 25C

c. 40C

d. 45C

e. 55

C.

19. The background symbol used on a fire extinguisher for a Class Dfire is a:a. Green triangleb. Green circlec. Red squared. Blue circlee. Yellow star.

20. Halon agents are:a. Safe until they make contact with the combustion processb. Themselves toxicc. The most highly recommended for Class B and C use

d. Able to maintain cylinder pressure themselves regardless oftemperature

e. Gradually replacing dry powder units.

21. The pressure range in a carbon dioxide extinguisher is:a. 31 to 55 kPab. 5.6 to 6.3 MPac. 5600 to 6300 MPad. 31 to 55 MPae. 56 to 63 kPa.


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4thClass Power EngineeringUnit 8 PLANT FIRE PROTECTION

Chapter 39 Electrical Fires

1. During annual turnaround of a facility, it is highly recommended

that:a. All fuses in the electrical system be replacedb. A Megger be used on all electrical motor windingsc. All electrical connections be checked for tightness and

corrosiond. All circuit breakers be disassembled and cleanede. Aluminum wiring is replaced.

2. Temporary electrical hook ups should:a. Be in place for a maximum duration of 72 hours onlyb. Be made with BX electrical cablec. Be designed to the original specificationsd. Comply with ASME codese. Have CSA pre-approval.

3. Electrical circuit insulation:a. Will never break down or deteriorateb. Requires replacement after 10 yearsc. Is not affected by temperatured. Will not burne. Will deteriorate due to high temperatures.

4. Overheating of electrical equipment is:a. The most common cause of electrical fires in buildingsb. Usually the result of inadequate wiringc. Often due to over sized fuses being installedd. The result of blocked cooling fin passagese. Illegal in most provinces.

5. The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live electrical fire is a_____ extinguisher:a. Pressurized waterb. Dry chemicalc. Purple Kd. AFFFe. Carbon dioxide.


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6. You discover that a small fire has been started in a high voltageswitch box. In your immediate area there are four different types offire extinguishers. The one that you put the fire out with should be:a. A soda acid extinguisherb. A dry chemical extinguisher

c. A chemical foam extinguisherd. A cold water extinguishere. The one closest to you.

7. An example of a Class C fire would be:a. A fire in an electrical panelb. A fire in a trash binc. A fire in a fuel tankd. An exotic metals firee. A fire in a coal storage pile.

8. Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardousconcentrations of flammable gases or vapors under normaloperating conditions, electrical equipment must be designed safe foruse in an area classification of:a. Class 1, Division 1b. Class 1, Division 2c. Class 2, Division 1d. Class 2, Division 2e. Class 3, Division 1.

9. A common cause of an electrical fire is:a. Allowing motors or conductors to get wet if not designed for

that purpose.b. Waiting a specific amount of time between attempts to start

large motors.c. Following too closely the Electrical Code when installing

electrical equipment.d. Replacing burned fuses with ones of the same rating.e. Prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring.

10. The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the extinguisher horncan be as low as:a. 0C

b. -5Cc. -30C

d. -60C

e. -80

C.


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e. Is corrosive.

4thClass Power EngineeringUnit 9 ENVIRONMENT

Chapter 40 Environmental Introduction

1. The earths water cycle is referred to as:a. A hydrostatic cycleb. A meteorological cyclec. A hydrographic cycled. A hydrological cyclee. An elementary cycle.

2. The environment consists of:a. Natural and man made elements

b. Organic and natural elementsc. Soil and waterd. Plant and animal lifee. Air and water cycles.

3. The land area where water shares the spaces between soil particleswith air is known as the:a. Infiltration zone

b. Water table zonec. Zone of aerationd. Zone of dischargee. Saturation zone.

4. Herbivores and/or carnivores as they are seen in the ecosystem areconsidered:a. Inactive matterb. Decomposersc. Consumersd. Producerse. Inorganic matter.

5. The process whereby plants consume carbon dioxide, water, and thesuns energy to make food is known as the:a. Hydrological cycleb. Meteorological cyclec. Photoelectric cycled. Hydrostatic cyclee. Photosynthetic cycle.


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6. Places where ground water leaves the system to become surfacewater are called:a. Discharge pointsb. Runoff areasc. Recharge points

d. Springse. Saturated zones.

7. Parent material for soil formation:a. Is only mineral material deposited by glaciers, wind and waterb. Has been mostly deposited by glaciers in North Americac. Is the same throughout the worldd. Is not necessarye. Is only organic material.

8. Organic matter is primarily deposited on the landscape by:a. Windb. Waterc. Glaciersd. Vegetatione. Gravity.

9. Energy in the food web:a. Originates from the sunb. Travels from the top of the web to the bottomc. Does not leave the web

d. Is passed through the food web by heat radiatione. Is self sustaining within the food web.

10. Organisms within the ecosystem can be divided into which groups?a. Producers, inactive matter, and consumersb. Organic matter, inorganic matter, and decomposersc. Consumers, producers, and inorganic matterd. Decomposers, consumers, and producerse. Nutrients, consumers, and decomposers.

11. Contributions to the ecosystem by the environment are in the formof:a. N2, CO2and H2Ob. CO2, H2O and O2c. Ar, H2O and O2d. H2O and O2e. CO2and O2.


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12. Subsurface water can be divided from top to bottom as:a. A zone of aeration, ground water, water tableb. Water table, ground water, surface waterc. Surface water, ground water, water tabled. A zone of aeration, water table, a zone of saturation

e. Surface water, ground water, under ground water.

13. In the ecosystem, green plants are considered to be:a. Consumersb. Inactive matterc. Decomposersd. Producerse. Inorganic matter.

14. The three major components in an ecosystem are:a. Animals, plants and airb. Animals, plants and decomposersc. Producers, consumers and inactive organic matterd. Producers, consumers and aire. Producers, consumers and suns energy.

15. Components of an ecosystem are:a. Independent of each otherb. Interconnected and interdependentc. Vertically orderedd. Unchangeable

e. Ranked from top to bottom.

16. Ground water and surface water originates from:a. Aerationb. Precipitationc. Vegetationd. Evaporatione. Filtration.

17. Air is predominantly composed of:a. O2, CO2and CH4b. O2, N2and CH4c. O2and N2d. O2, CO2and H2e. O2and CO2.


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18. A typical soil profile includes, from top to bottom a zone of:a. Parent material, a zone of intensely weathered material, a

zone of un-weathered materialb. Parent material, a zone of weathered material, a zone of bed

rock

c. Weathered material, a zone of un-weathered material, a zoneof bed rock

d. Weathered material, a zone of partially weathered material, azone of bed rock

e. Weathered material, a zone of partially weatheredmaterial, a zone of parent material.

4thClass Power EngineeringUNIT 9 ENVIRONMENT

Chapter 41 Gaseous and Noise Pollutants

1. Personal protective devices designed to protect power plantoperators from environmental pollutants, include the followingequipment:1. Hard hats2. Ear muffs3. Soft toed shoes or boots4. Safety boots5. Dust masks6. Breathing air packs

a. 1, 2, 4, 5

b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6c. 1, 2, 5, 6d. 2, 5, 6e. 3, 4, 6.

2. When ground level sulphur dioxide concentrations are increasingabove the allowable limits, the operators choice of action to reducethe sulphur dioxide emissions includes:1. Reducing boiler load

2. Increase the voltage level on the electrostatic precipitators toremove more sulphur dioxide

3. Increase the boiler load to disperse the sulphur dioxide over awider area

4. Switch to a low sulphur fuel5. Shut down the boilers

a. 1, 3, 4b. 2, 3, 5c. 1, 4, 5


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e. 3, 4, 5.

7. Damaging sound pressure levels affecting plant personnel could notbe reduced by:a. Enclosing the noise source

b. Modifying the equipment operating conditionsc. Building a barrierd. Wearing protective equipmente. Changing the frequency of the sound.

8. A method proven to reduce emissions of sulphur oxides in the fluegas is to:a. Lower the furnace temperatureb. Scrub the flue gas with lime or limestonec. Reduce the amount of excess aird. Use dilute sulphuric acid to scrub the flue gase. Increase the size of the furnace.

9. Converting carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide in the furnace maybe accomplished by:1. Increasing the amount of combustion air2. Decreasing the time the fuel spends in the furnace3. Burning lime with the fuel4. Not overloading the boiler5. Ensuring a good fuel/air mixture

a. 1, 4, 5

b. 2, 3, 4c. 3, 4, 5d. 1. 2, 4e. 2, 4, 5.

10. Noise monitors (sound meters) measure the decibel rating andcontain:a. Sound dampersb. Sound amplifiers

c. Acoustic eliminatorsd. Weighting networkse. Acoustic amplifiers.

11. Sound pressure level is expressed in:a. psi (pounds per square inch)b. kPa (kilopascals)c. Decibelsd. Watts


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e. Amps.

12. Systems designed to reduce SO2are also effective in reducing theconcentration of:a. NOx

b. H2Oc. SO3d. COe. CO2.

13. Carbon monoxide is produced as a result of:a. A shortage of oxygen in the furnaceb. Too high a combustion temperaturec. Too large a furnaced. Excess air in the combustion processe. Slow movement of fuel through the furnace.

14. Choose all of the following statements that are true:1. Sound travels through vibrations in air pressure2. Sound waves are reflected, deflected and absorbed3. Sound is a form of energy4. Sound travels through a vacuum5. Sound always travels at a constant wave length

a. 1, 3, 5b. 1, 2, 3, 4c. 2, 3, 4, 5

d. 2, 3, 4e. 1, 2, 3.

15. Nitrogen oxides in flue gas may be reduced by:a. Employing a dilute sulphuric acid scrubbing systemb. Decreasing the size of the furnacec. Scrubbing the flue gas with limed. Reducing the percentage of excess aire. Raising the furnace temperature.

16. A device for measuring flue gas emissions is called:a. A dead weight testerb. An Calorimeterc. A stack analyzerd. A level metere. A gas tester.

17. Decibels are represented by a/an:


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d. 1, 2, 3e. 2, 3, 5.

2. The voltage supplied to an electrostatic precipitator is between:a. 10,000 volts AC and 1,000,000 volts AC

b. 10,000 volts DC and 100,000 volts DCc. 1,000,000 volts AC and 1,000,000,000 volts ACd. 100,000 volts DC and 1,000,000,000 volts ACe. 100,000 volts AC and 10,000 volts DC.

3. Solid pollutants such as flyash are produced when burning:1. Natural gas2. Heavy fuel oil3. Wood4. Coal

a. 1, 4b. 2, 3, 4c. 1, 2, 3d. 3, 4e. 1, 2, 3, 4.

4. Mechanical centrifugal collectors are not suitable for the collectionof:a. Very coarse particlesb. Coarse particlesc. Fine particles

d. Rough particlese. Heavy particles.

5. Some areas of a power plant are difficult or not economicallysuitable to provide a pollution free area in which employees canwork in. These types of areas are:1. Control rooms2. Coal conveyor galleries3. Cleaning ash hoppers or precipitators internally during a boiler

repair4. Lunch rooms5. Coal crushing and grinding equipment6. Steam turbine bays

a. 2, 3, 5, 6b. 1, 2, 3, 5c. 2, 3, 4, 5d. 1, 3, 6e. 3, 4, 6.


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6. Dry cooling towers:a. Pass the cooling water through a closed circuit of finned

tubesb. Have the cooling water flow from bottom to top

c. Have an induced draft fan located at the topd. Have a forced draft fan located at the bottome. Operate by natural draft.

7. Mechanical centrifugal collectors remove particulates by means of:a. Centrifugal forceb. Inertiac. Gravitational forced. All of the abovee. None of the above.

8. Cooling towers:a. Remove sensible heat only from condensateb. Prevent thermal pollution of rivers and lakesc. Cannot be used during winter periodsd. All have fanse. Are mandatory for all power plants.

9. Wet scrubbers remove:a. Gases onlyb. Gases and dust only

c. Particulates onlyd. Acidic gases onlye. Dust only.

10. When ground level sulphur dioxide concentrations are increasingabove the allowable limits, the operators choice of action to reducethe sulphur dioxide emissions includes:1. Reducing boiler load2. Increase the voltage level on the electrostatic precipitators to

remove more sulphur dioxide3. Increase the boiler load to disperse the sulphur dioxide over a

wider area4. Switch to a low sulphur fuel5. Shut down the boilers

a. 1, 3, 4b. 2, 3, 5c. 1, 4, 5d. 1, 4


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e. 3, 4, 5.

11. The most common type of mechanical draft cooling tower is:a. A forced draft typeb. An induced draft type

c. A wet typed. A dry typee. A combination wet dry type.

12. Flyash is removed from bag filters by a system of:a. Rollersb. Hammersc. Electrostatic precipitatorsd. Shakerse. Rappers.

13. Air flow in a natural draft cooling tower is dependent upon the:a. Speed of the cooling fanb. Volume of water flowing throughc. Partial pressure exerted above the surface of the reservoird. Differences in densities of the air leaving and enteringe. Wind direction.

14. Flyash collected by pollution control devices can be used in the:a. Petroleum industryb. Electrical industry

c. Tire industryd. Construction industrye. Landscaping industry.

15. Solid pollutants emitted from power plants are:1. Dust2. Soot3. Flyash4. Carbon monoxide

5. Sulphur dioxide6. Sulphuric acid

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6b. 2, 3, 6c. 1, 2, 3, 6d. 2, 4, 5e. 1, 2, 3.

16. Natural draft cooling towers are divided into:


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a. Dry and wet typesb. Closed and semi closed typesc. Open and closed typesd. Filled and unfilled typese. Open and filled types.

17. Flyash is normally less than:a. 1 mm in diameterb. 0.3 mm in diameterc. 1,000 microns in diameterd. 300 microns in diametere. 30 microns in diameter.

18. Cooling towers:a. Need only be operated in the summer monthsb. May contribute to the pollution problemc. Remove heat from the condensated. Require fanse. Do not require any maintenance.

19. The amount of any gas that water can dissolve depends on thepartial pressure the gas exerts on the free surface of the water,was stated by:a. Henrys Lawb. Boyless Lawc. Charles Law

d. Daltons Lawe. The General Gas Law.

20. Liquid pollutants emitted from power plants include:1. Water at elevated temperatures2. Waste water from flue gas scrubbing3. Waste water from water treatment processes4. Waste water from ash handling operations

a. 1, 4b. 1, 3, 4c. 1, 2, 3, 4d. 2, 3, 4e. 2, 4.

21. In an electrostatic precipitator the:a. Discharge electrode is negatively chargedb. Collector electrode is negatively charged


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c. Discharge electrode is positively chargedd. Discharge electrode and the particles are positively chargede. Particles are positively charged.

4thClass Power Engineering

UNIT 9 ENVIRONMENT

Chapter45PotentialEnvironmentalImpactofOperatingFacilities

1. Which of the following created by operating facilities may have anadverse affect on the environment:a. Noise generationb. Incomplete combustionc. Planned vapor released. Solid non-toxic wastes

e. All of the above.

2. As a plant ages, changes in operating conditions that affect theenvironment are the responsibility of:a. The Energy Resources Conservation Boardb. The company operating the plantc. Occupational Health and Safetyd. The Environmental Review Board

e. Plant operating personnel.

3. Soil contaminated by a hazardous material should be:

a. Flushed with plenty of waterb. Neutralized by an acidic or alkaline solutionc. Removed, placed in sealed containers and disposed ofd. Heated to above 500C to drive off the contaminante. Contained within the defined boundary.

4. New facilities such as compressor stations require a:a. Soil impact study

b. Air quality impact studyc. Gas conservation study

d. Noise impact statemente. Wildlife impact statement.

5. Who provides the most effective means of problem recognition in aplant:a. Occupational Health and Safetyb. Operating and maintenance personnelc. Plant superintendent


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d. The problems that an upset in a process may cause to theenvironment

e. All of the above.

11. When decommissioning and abandoning a processing site:

a. A site restoration proposal must be doneb. An environmental impact study and a remedial plan

must be madec. An ERCB approved plan must be implementedd. An OH&S study must be donee. A company liability study must be done.

12. The first action of plant personnel upon finding a minor unplannedenvironmental excursion is to:a. Report the incident to OH&Sb. Report the incident to Provincial Environmental Authoritiesc. Report the incident to ERCBd. Minimize and control the releasee. Alert the rest of the plant personnel.

13. Permanent action:a. Deals with and eliminates the root problemb. Allows you to live with the problem indefinitelyc. Is unattainabled. Requires a plan to address the problem at the earliest

opportunity

e. Suggests a time frame for follow up.

14. The three types of actions that can result when a problem area isidentified are:a. Immediate, medium range and long term actionsb. Permanent, intermediate and long term actionsc. Permanent, intermediate and adoptive actionsd. Permanent, interim and adaptive actionse. Short term, adaptive and long term actions.

15. An operating facility may adversely impact the environment as aresult of:1. Incomplete combustion2. Vapor releases3. Noise generation4. Unsightly process vessels and buildings5. Unpleasant odors

a. 1, 2, 3


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d. A heart attacke. Trauma shock.

6. When performing abdominal thrusts on a choking victim and thecasualty becomes unconscious, your initial reaction should be to:

a. Increase the rate of abdominal thrusts.b. Place the victim on his or her back and perform a finger

sweep of the mouth.c. Give two quick breaths.d. Place the victim on his or her stomach and press into the

casualtys back.e. Begin CPR at the rate of 15 compressions to 2 breaths.

7. Angina is a condition that occurs when:a. The pathway through which air moves to the lungs is blockedb. All parts of the body do not obtain an adequate supply of

oxygenated bloodc. There is an inadequate blood supply to the braind. The heart stops completelye. The heart is not getting enough oxygen.

8. Symptoms of shock may include the following:1. Squeezing pain2. Clammy skin3. Weak and rapid pulse4. Denial

5. Confusiona. 3, 4, 5b. 1, 4, 5c. 2, 3, 4d. 2, 3, 5e. 1, 2, 5.

9. If a casualty is unconscious:a. You should not perform any type of first aid

b. Notify EMS before doing anythingc. Consent may be assumedd. Do not bother to survey the area until after notifying EMSe. Notify them of who you are.

10. The terms pop or drop refers to:a. Chokingb. Angina attacksc. Broken bone alignments


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d. Stroke symptomse. Artificial resuscitation.

11. A co-worker is experiencing shortness of breath, nausea, sweating,and is strongly denying that he/she is in need of attention. The

worker is likely experiencing:a. A heart attackb. An angina attackc. Shockd. Cardiac arreste. A stroke.

12. You notice that one of the men you are working with is lying on theground. If you find that his breathing has stopped, you would:a. Give him something to drink and then send for helpb. Send for a doctorc. Phone the shift supervisord. Start artificial respiration immediately and send for helpe. Cover him with a blanket and run for help.

13. The acronym RICE stands for Rest, Immobilize, Cold and Elevate.This would be the response used for:a. A strokeb. Severe bleedingc. A broken boned. A heart attack

e. Trauma shock.

14. When the pulse is checked at the neck of the victim, it should bedone on the side nearest you:a. So that it will not appear that you are choking the

victimb. To prevent obstruction of the airwayc. So that you can see the artery pulsed. So that you can simultaneously check for breathing

e. In order to maintain visibility of your fingers.

15. The one who starts care for a casualty and may be one of the mostimportant people in the Emergency Medical Service System is the:a. Paramedicb. Co-workerc. Bystanderd. Doctore. Dispatcher.


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16. The artificial respiration rate for an adult is:

a. 1 breath every 5 secondsb. 1 breath every 10 secondsc. 2 breaths every 15 secondsd. 1 breath every 2 secondse. 1 breath every 3 seconds.

17. A substance that makes the blood clot easier in certain areas is:a. Cigarette tarb. Hemoglobinc. Carbon monoxided. Nicotinee. CVD.

18. The artificial respiration rate for an infant is:a. 1:5b. 1:10c. 1:7d. 1:2e. 1:3.

19. The xiphoid process is:

a. A method of aligning broken bonesb. An area of the chest on which CPR is performedc. To be avoided during CPRd. A method of locating bones in the bodye. A method for finding pulse.

20. A stroke is a condition that occurs when:a. There is an inadequate supply of blood to the brainb. The heart is not getting enough oxygen

c. Body parts do not receive enough oxygenated bloodd. Air is restricted to the lungse. The heart stops beating completely.

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Sweeper.pdf