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GENERAL AWARENESS1. Who is the Chairman of Indian Banks’ Association?

1) K.R. Kamath 2) T.M. Bhasin 3) Dr. M. Narendra4)D. Sarkar 5) T. Narayanswami

2. Which committee recommended for the amalgamation of RRBs?1) Vyas Committee 2) Dr. K.C. Chakravarty Committee3) C.V. Anand Bose Committee 4) Ajay Kumar Beth Committee5) Usha Thorat Committee

3. What is the name of parliament of Pakistan?1) National Assembly and Senate 2) Majilis 3) Majlis Al Shura4) Other than those given as options 5) National Congress and Senate

4. Name the State that on the Feb 2014 passed the Lokayukta Bill 2014 ___1) Delhi 2) Uttarakhand 3) Odisha 4) West Bengal 5) None

5. Which one of the following is observed as World Water Day?1) Other than those given as options 2) 24th March3) 30th January 4) 23rd March 5) 22nd March

6. The Committee on new bank licenses which submitted its report to RBI on 25 Feb2014 was headed by _____1) Nachiket Mor 2) Bimal Jalan 3) Rakesh Mohan4) Subir Gokaran 5) None

7. In case a depositor is a sole proprietor and holds deposits in the name of theproprietory concern as well as in the indivudal capacity the maximum insurancecover is available upto ____1) Rs.5 lakh 2) Rs.1 lakh 3) Rs.2 lakh 4) All of the above 5) None

8. In which of the following field B.C. Roy Award is presented?1) Literature 2) Film Industry 3) Medicine 4) Engineering 5) None

9. To what percent the RBI diluted rules for accelerated provisioning it has proposedfor non-performing accounts in Feb 2014? As per its notification, now lenderswill make-provision for unsecured loans that remain unpaid for six months.1) 30% 2) 25% 3) 20% 4) 15% 5) None

10. Who has been appointed as the new country Director for India of the Asian Devel-opment Bank in Feb 2014?1) S.R. Bansal 2) Hun Kim 3) Teresa Kho 4) Takehiko Nakao 5) None

11. The acronym ECB as used in financial world, stands for _____1) External Collateralised Borrowing 2) External Commercial Borrowing3) External Currency Borrowing 4) External Currency Brokerage5) External Commercial Banking

12. RuPay card payment system is set up by which of the following agencies in India1) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) 2) VISA3) International Chamber of Commerce (ICC)4) Indian Bank’s Association (IBA) 5) Mastero Card

13. What are Zero Coupon Bonds?1) The bonds whose price has wide fluctuations in the market2) Other than those given as options 3) Coupons given in shopping4) They are issued at a discount and redeemed at par5) They are the bonds that yield no income for the creditors

14. The ‘Arsia Mon’ is name of the volcano located on ____ ?1) Jupiter 2) Mars 3) Saturn 4) Earth 5) Sulabh

SBI Clerk s MODEL TEST - 10

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15. The term “Smart Money” refers to _____1) Foreign Currency 2) Internet Banking 3) US Dollars4) Traveler’s cheque 5) Credit Cards

16. At present who is Prime Minister of Nepal?1) Khil Raj Ragmi 2) Baburam Battachary3) Sushil Koirala 4) Thalanath Kanal 5) None

17. The Central Board of Direct Taxes has made e-filing of income tax returns man-datory for all assesses whose annual earnings exceed.1) Rs.5 lakh during the fiscal 2) Rs.10 lakh during the fiscal3) Rs.15 lakh during the fiscal 4) Rs.20 lakh during the fiscal 5) None

18. Who among the following has been appointed as National Security Advisor?1) Ajit Doval 2) Nipendra Misra 3) Anil Agarwal4) Shesh Paul 5) None

19. Which of the following rates is not decided by the RBI?1) CRR 2) Prime Lending Rate 3) Reverse Repo Rate4) Repo Rate 5) Bank Rate

20. ‘Ponzi Schemes’ refers to as a fraudulent investment operation that pay return toits investors fromA) their own moneyB) the money paid by investorsC) profit earned by the individualsD) profit earned by organization running the operation1) A and B 2) A and C 3) C and D 4) B and C 5) None

21. What is CRISIL?1) A multinational Bank 2) A stock exchange3) An insurance company 4) A credit rating agency 5) None

22. Which of the following is not a credit rating agency?1) CARE 2) ICRA 3) Dow Jones 4) CRISIL 5) SMERA

23. Which of the following is NOT a Direct Tax?1) Income Tax 2) Corporation tax 3) Property tax 4) Gift Tax 5) Service Tax

24. Sarajevo is the capital of?1) Croatia 2) Kosovo 3) Serbia 4) Bosnias Herzegovina 5) Montenegro

25. Who is the Minister of Human Resource Development?1) Smiriti Zubin Irani 2) Maneka Gandhi3) Sushma Swaraj 4) Uma Bharati 5) None

26. What is the expected agricultural growth rate for 2013-2014, as announced inthe vote-on-account on 17 Feb, 2014?1) 4.2% 2) 4.5% 3) 4.6% 4) 5.5 5) None

27. Which is not a Khariff Crop?1) Jowar 2) Maize 3) Ground Nut 4) Wheat 5) None

28. The headquarters of Bank for International Settlement is situated in which ofthe following cities?1) Frankfurt 2) Other than those give as option 3) Vienna 4) Rome 5) Basel

29. Who is the author of the book “The Socialist: A biography of Mulayam Singh Yadav”?1) Frank Huzur 2) Andrew Knight 3) Charles Ford4) Ray Williams 5) None

30. Which of the following dams is built across Narmada River?1) Tehri Dam 2) Bhakra Dam 3) Hirakud Dam4) Mullaperiyar Dam 5) Sardar Sarovar Dam

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31. Name the bank which has recently announced ‘eKYC’ facility to open savings andloan accounts based on just Aadhar and Finger prints scan for New Customers.1) HDFC Bank 2) SBI 3) Axis Bank4) IDBI Bank 5) Punjab National Bank

32. Who has been won the Jackson Country Spelling Bee after more than 90 rounds?1) Sophia Hoffman 2) Nick Tonas 3) Kush sharma4) Miley Cyrus 5) None

33. The book entitled “Agenda for India’s Growth” is authored by ____1) P. Chidambaram 2) Mansoor Khan3) A.K. Antony4) Kapil Sibal 5) None

34. Aam Admi Bhima Yojana provides social security to ____1) All landless labour living below poverty line in rural area2) All labour in urban area3) All labour in both rural and urban areas4) All labour in rural areas 5) None

35. Which of the following best defines Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)?1) These firms held settle bad loans of the banks by taking them over2) ARCs take the projects left incomplete by other firms3) These firms take over idle assets and develop them to sell on higher process4) ARCs help other companies turn their loss making business into a profitableone5) None

36. Which team won Cricket’s Deodhar Trophy 2014?1) West Zone 2) East Zone 3) North Zone 4) South Zone 5) None

37. “Truth, Love and a little Malice” is autobiography of _______ ?1) Kushwant Singh 2) Arundhati Roy3) Salman Rushdie 4) L.K. Advani 5) None

38. Which of the following is the currency of Australia?1) Pound 2) Cedi 3) Cruzerio 4) Dollar 5) Dinar

39. FEDIA means1) Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India2) It is a self regulating body of all authorized dealers in foreign exchange3) It frames ground rules called “FEDIA Rules” for smooth conduct of all forextransactions among member banks.4) It promotes the interest of authorized dealers and regulates their dealingswith Public / Brokers / RBI and all other bodies. 5) All ofthe above

40. Who is the chairman of the 14th Finance Commission of India?1) Vijay Kelkar2) Y.V. Reddy 3) Urjit Patel 4) D.K. Jain 5) None

GENERAL ENGLISH

Directions (Q.No.41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locatethem while answering some of the questions.

Are you stressed? Are you so busy getting to the future that thepresent is reduced to a means of getting there? Stress is caused by being ‘here’but wanting to be ‘there’, or being in the present but wanting to be in the future.It’s a split that tears you apart inside.

Does the past take up a great deal of your attention? Do youfrequently talk and think about it, either positively or negatively? The great things

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that you have achieved, your adventures or experiences, or your victim story andthe dreadful things that were done to you, or may be what you did to someoneelse? Are your thought processes creating guilt, pride, resentment, anger, regret,or self-pity?

Then you are not only reinforcing a false sense of self but alsohelping to accelerate your body’s aging process by creating an accumulation ofpast in your psyche. Verify this for yourself by observing those around you whohave a strong tendency to hold on to the past.

Die to the past every moment.,You don’t need it. Only refer to itwhen it is absolutely relevant to the present. Feel the power of this moment andthe fullness of Being. Feel your presence.

Are you worried? Do you have many ‘what if thoughts? You areidentified with your mind, which is projecting itself into an imaginary futuresituation and creating fear. There is no way that you can cope with such a situation,because it doesn’t exist. It’s a mental phantom. You can stop this health and life-corroding insanity simply by acknowledging the present moment.

Become aware of your breathing. Feel the air flowing in and out ofyour body. Feel your inner energy field. All that you ever have to deal with, copewith in real life - as opposed to imaginary mind projections - is this moment. Askyourself what ‘problem’ you have right now, not next year, tomorrow, or five minutesfrom now. What is wrong with this moment? You can always cope with the Now,but you can never cope with the future - nor do you have to. The answer, thestrength, the right action, or the resource will be there when you need it, notbefore, not after.

Gratitude for the present moment and the fullness of life now istrue prosperity. It cannot come in the future. Then, in time, that prosperitymanifests for you in various ways. If you are dissatisfied with what you have got,or even frustrated or angry about your present lack, that may motivate you tobecome rich, but even if you do make millions, you will continue to experiencethe inner condition of lack, and deep down you will continue to feel unfulfilled.You may have many exciting experiences that money can buy, but they will comeand go and always leave you with an empty feeling and the need for furtherphysical or psychological gratification. You won’t abide in being and so feel thefullness of life now that alone is true prosperity.

41. According to the passage, past is important only in that1) it is a store-house of memories2) different sorts of feelings emanate from it 3) it has a referential value4) it withdraws our attention 5) none of the above

42. The real richness, according to the passage, lies in1) awareness of the self 2) relieving the stress3) psychological gratification4) grateful awareness of the present 5) none of the above

43. An obsession with the past makes us1) older faster 2) mentally instable3) worried 4) feel dissatisfied 5) all of these

44. Which one of the conditions is not created when there is prosperity withoutsatisfaction?1) feeling of emptinessy 2) a false sense of insecurity3) wish to get richer 4) a sense of lack 5) None

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45. That apprehension about the future is misleading is best expressed by1) “imaginary future” 2) “what if thoughts”3) “false sense of self’ 4) “life corroding insanity”5) “mental phantom”

46. “..abide in Being” as used in the passage most probably stands for1) self confidence 2) self respect3) self fulfillment 4) self perseverance 5) All of these

47. Which one of the following statem ents is not true according to the passage?1) we generally live in the past and future2) thinking obsessively of the future makes us oblivious of the present3) feeling emanating from past events are revealing4) the present holds the key 5) none of the above

48. Which one of the following is the most appropriate title of the passage?1) Peace and Prosperity 2) Probe the Present3) Wishful Thinking 4) Be Here and Now 5) Never Say Die

49. “...a false sense of self’ as given in the passage means1) mistaken belief in self 2) mistaken outlook to life3) false pride and prejudice 4) obsession with the past 5) None

50. Which of the following word is most appropriate opposite to ‘gratitude’ as used inthe passage?1) oblivion 2) animosity 3) callousness 4) intensity 5) indifferenceDirections(Q.No.51-60): Read each sentence to find out whether there is anygrammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Thenumber of that part is the answer. If there is no error. The answer is 5, i.e. Noerror. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

51. The inquiry officer asked (1) / that whether all the allegations (2) / made by themanager (3) / were true. (4) / No Error. (5)

52. They left (1) / the house much earlier than (2) / I had (3) / expected. (4) / NoError. (5)

53. While obtaining an account (1) / a customer has to (2) / affix his passport sizephotograph (3) / over the form. (4) / No Error. (5)

54. Being courteous to other (1) / is considered to be a virtue (2) / which everyone ofus (3) / should by to inculcate. (4) / No Error. (5)

55. The newly- form groups (1) / are based on (2) / the marks obtained by theindividuals (3) / in the past examinations. (4) / No Error. (5)

56. The speaker mentioned in his talk (1) / that his next lecture (2) / will be held (3)/ on the last saturday of the next month. (4) / No Error. (5)

57. What one needs (1) / are a pair of blankets (2) / rather than (3) / a boxful of warmclothes. (4) / No Error. (5)

58. Had you informed me (1) / through your last letter (2) / I shall come (3) / toreceive you at the station. (4) / No Error. (5)

59. All of you (1) / are requested read this book collectively (2) / to know the content(3) / for yourself. (4) / No Error. (5)

60. The housewife enquires of the maid servant (1) / if she had (2) / completed thework (3) / and if she was free then. (4) / No Error. (5)

Directions (Q.No.61-65): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E andF in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer thequestions given below them.A) Industries also are not behind in this raceB) Afforestation on a large scale will be a significant measure.C) Air and water pollution has created a lot of hurdles for us.

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D) Measures like checking of emission and planting of trees may slightly helpreduce the menance.E) Motor vehicle contribute the maximum to air pollution.F) But, this help would be only marginal.

61. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

62. Which of the following should be the SIXTH statement after rearrangement?1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

63 Which of the following should be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement?1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

64. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

65. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement?1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) EDirections (Q.No.66-70): Which of the phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below eachsentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make itgrammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correctionis required mark 5 as the answer.

66. He has been chosen to represent our college cricket team.1) has chosen 2) was been chosen 3) had been choosing4) had chosen 5) No correction required

67. The more he speaks, the more he exposed himself.1) expose himself 2) is exposing himself 3) himself exposed4) exposes himself 5) No correction required

68. His humanity does not permit him to look down for the poor.1) look after for 2) look for 3) look down upon4) look after at 5) No correction required

69. The time required for completion of the task depending largely upon the amountof efforts put in by the employees.1) depending largely on 2) depends largely upon3) depends largely at 4) largely depending upon5) No correction required

70. The coolies were carefully in handling in the glass articles.1) careful in handling 2) carefully handled in3) carefully handled 4) handling in careful 5) No correction requiredDirections (Q.No.71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach. Five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Findout the appropriate word in each case.About sixty percent of the human body is water. If you could (71) out a humanbeing like a (72) you would obtain about fifty liters of (73) this water which is notlike (74) water because of the substance it (75) is necessary to the life of the(76). About a gallon of it is (77) the blood vessels and is (78) circulating by theheat. This (79) bathes all the cells of the body in a (80) steam. The water alsoacts as a conductor of heat through the body.

71. 1) work 2) wrench 3) press 4) squeeze 5) None72. 1) lemon 2) mango 3) fruit 4) banana 5) None73. 1) juice 2) pulp 3) water 4) liquid 5) None74. 1) usual 2) ordinary 3) common 4) normal 5) None75. 1) dissolves 2) carries 3) includes 4) contains 5) None76. 1) body 2) physique 3) fruit 4) banana 5) None77. 1) on 2) up 3) in 4) through 5) None78. 1) continued 2) made 3) got 4) kept 5) None79. 1) liquid 2) water 3) juice 4) water 5) None80. 1) constant 2) regular 3) normal 4) steady 5) None

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions(Q.No81–100):What will come in place of the question mark (?) in thefollowing questions ?

81.325

of 1430 + ? = 200% of 1900

1) 62 2) 82 3) 182 4) 162 5) 9282. 5636 + 3018 + 1105 + 22% of 540= ____

1) 9,977.8 2) 10,877.8 3) 9,877.8 4) 9,987.8 5) 9,887.8

83.414 ? 905

of 375

1) 15 2) 16 3) 256 4) 225 5) None

84.1 1 14 3 6 ?5 2 3

1) 11430

2) 11330

3) 311230

4) 11530

5) None

85.3 4 17 3 2 ?5 5 5

1) 3455

2) 145

3) 245

3) 345

5) 445

86. 45% of 180 + 35% of 240 = ?% of 825.1) 30 2) 40 3) 50 4) 20 5) 15

87.47295

of 95 = 15% of 880 - ?

1) 18 2) 28 3) 39 4) 19 5) 2988. 848.24 + 25.9 + 315.724 = ?

1) 1188.757 2) 1190.864 3) 1189.864 4) 1199.864 5) 1289.864

89.245.63

of 79.8 + ? = 120.4

1) 22.6 2) 48.2 3) 69.6 4) 23.6 5) 21.6

90.57

of 49 + 20% of 130 = ? + 49 + 10% of 210

1) 0 2) -10 3) -2 4) 11 5) -991. ? 196 15% of 200-0.4% of 500.

1) 14 2) 13 3) 12 4) 15 5) 196

92. 18 ? 30% of 1805

of 1200 + 360% of 10

1) 14 2) 16 3) 18 4) 13 5) 196

93.3 1 27 6 4 _____5 2 3

1) 23430

2) 11515

3) 455

4) 23530

5) 3531

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94.146.74 85.38 0.5 _______

30.68

1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1.5 5) None

95. 2 234 26 16 8%x of 200, then find x .1) 30 2) 15 3) 14 4) 29 5) None

96. The sum of the two digits of two digit number is 15 and the difference betweenthe two digit is 3. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number?1) 48 2) 54 3) 45 5) 5 5) None

97. A, B, C, D and E are consecutive numbers respectively. The average of the abovenumbers is 82. What is the value of C X E divided by A?1) 43.05 2) 0.6888 3) 68.88 4) 86.1 5) 84.1

98. 12 women can complete a work in 5 days, where as 3 women and 9 childrentogether can complete the same piece of work in 10 days. In how many days can36 children can complete the same piece of work?1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7 5) 8

99. The sum of 35% of a number and 2.5% of the same number is 1280. Then 15% ofsame number is _____1) 548 2) 572 3) 524 4) 600 5) 512

100. If the fractions 4 7 3 13 1, , , ,5 12 7 17 2

are arranged in the desending order. Which one

will come third place?

1) 37

2) 7

123)

45

4) 1317

5) 12

101. In what ratio, Assami Tea costing Rs.320 per kg be mixed with Kerala Tea costingRs.250 per kg, So that gain of 20% is obtained by seling the mixture at Rs.324 perkg?1) 2 : 5 2) 3 : 5 3) 4 : 5 4) 5 : 3 5) 5 : 2

102. A is twice as fast runner as B, and B is thrice as fast runner at C. If C travelleda distance in 1 hr. 54 min., the time taken by B to cover the same distance is __1) 38 min 2) 36 min 3) 40 min 4) 48 min 5) 28 min

103. The cost price of 20 articles is equal to the selling price of 15 articles. The profitper cent is

1) 20 2) 1333

3) 2663

4) 30 5) 2163

104. A reduction of 20% of price of oranges enables a man to buy 16 kg more orangesfor Rs.4000. What is the reduced price per kg of oranges?1) 60 2) 64 3) 40 4) 50 5) 54

105. The L.C.M. of two positive integers is twice the larger number. The difference ofthe smaller number and the G.C.D of the two numbers is 4. The smaller numberis1) 12 2) 6 3) 8 4) 10 5) 4

106. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at46 km/h and 36 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds.The length of each train is ___1) 100 2) 50 3) 25 4) 36 5) 30

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107. The sum of the numerator and the denominator of a positive fraction is 11. If 2 is

added to both numerator and denominator, the fraction is increased by 124

. The

difference of numerator and denominator of the fraction is ____1) 5 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2 5) 6

108. A man rows 40 km upstream in 8 hours and a distance of 36 km downstream in6 hours, then the distance travelled by boat in still water for 2 hrs?1) 9 km 2) 18 km 3) 4.5 km 4) 13.5 km 5) 11 km

109. Find the approximate value of

2 1624.99 4.98 ?4.998

1) 6 2) 15 3) 10 4) 50 5) 125110. Two pipes P and Q can fill a cistern in 12 min. and 15 min. respectively. Both are

opened together, but at the end of 3 min. the first is turned off. How much timedoes the 2nd pipe opened to fill remaining cistern ?

1) 194

2) 184

3) 174

4) 182

5) 1114

111. Aryan borrowed Rs.15,000/- from Bhargav at compound interest of rate of 12p.c.p.a. How much should Aryan pay at the end of 2 years to settle the loan?1) 19,618 2) 18,816 3) 19,816 4) 18,818 5) 18,618

112. Even after allowing 10% discount on the market price of an article, a shopkeepergains 10%. If marked price is 77 rupees, then the C.P. is?1) 70 2) 65 3) 63 4) 40 5) 71

113. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast asB and B is twice as fast as A. how much time will pipe A alone take to fill thetank?1) 25 2) 30 3) 35 4) 40 5) Can’t be determined

114. A batsmen scored 110 runs which includes 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. Whatpercent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

1) 544 %

112)

546 %11

3) 545 %11

4) 644 %

115)

645 %11

115. Walking at 67

th of his usual speed, a man is 12 minutes too late. Find the usual

time taken by him to cover the distance?

1) 112

hrs 2) 115

hrs. 3) 113

hrs. 4) 213

hrs. 5) 122

hrs.

Directions (Q.No.116 - 120): Study the following table and chart and answer thequestions?

Rh +ve Rh -ve

A+ B+ O+ AB+ A- B- O- AB- Asia 22.30 24.30 15.40 1.30 9.40 12.30 13.80 1.20 Europe 25.70 20.10 16.80 1.10 12.50 9.20 13.80 0.80 America 13.80 25.70 20.40 3.50 9.20 16.90 10.00 0.50 Africa 15.70 24.70 18.30 5.00 6.50 12.80 15.70 1.50 Australia 20.70 18.50 21.70 2.90 15.70 9.20 10.30 1.00

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Aus

tral

ia, 1

1%Africa, 10%

Asia, 18%

Europe, 32%

America, 29%

116. Which continent has the least portion of Rh +ve people?1) Europe 2) Africa 3) Asia 4) America 5) Australia

117. If a person donates blood any where in the world, what is the probability of hisblood group being AB -ve?1) 0.17 2) 0.877 3)0.947 4) 0.527 5) Data inadequate

118. What percent of Australia people are more than Africa people?1) 15% 2) 20% 3) 10% 4) 25% 5) 5%

119. What % of world’s female population having A +ve blood group?1) 18.34 2) 20.62 3)26.62 4) Can’t be determined 5) None

120. What is the percent of AB -ve to the AB+ blood group?1) 30.62 2) 34.12 3) 36.23 4) 39.42 5) None

TEST OF REASONING121. In a certain code ‘SPORADIC’ is written as ‘QNORDJEB’, How is ‘TROUBLES’

written in that code?1) SQTNTFMC 2) TNQSRDKA 3) TNQSTFMC 4) TFQSCMFT 5) None

122. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the third, thefifth and the eight letters of the word ‘SHAREHOLDING’, which of the followingwill be the second letter of that word ? If not such word can be made given ‘X’ asthe ansewr and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.1) L 2) E 3) S 4) X 5) Y

123. If ‘x’ means ‘added to’, ‘ ’ means ‘multiplied by’, ‘+’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘-’ means ‘divided by’ then 24 + 36 - 12 + 8 4 = ?1) 36 2) 53 3) 5 4) -20 5) None

124. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DISTINGUISH’, each ofwhich have as many letters between them in the word as they have betweenthem in the English alphabet?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

125. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?CEA IKG OQM ?1) STW 2) WUS 3) SWU 4) UWS 5) None

126. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI usingeach letter only once in each word?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

127. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having different weights. D is heavier than only Aand C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest?1) B 2) E 3) C 4) Data Inadequate 5) None

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128. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit andeach even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtainedare rearranged in ascending order. Which of the following will be the third digitfrom the left end ofter the rearrangement?1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6 5) None

129. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before twenty thirdApril and after nineteenth April, where as his sister correctly remembers thattheir mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day inApril is definitely their mother’s birthday?1) Twentieth 2) Twenty first 3) Twentieth or twenty first4) Can’t be determined 5) None

130. In a certain code ‘DOWN’ is written a 5@9# and ‘NAME’ is written as ‘#6%3’. Howis ‘MODE’ written in that code?1) %653 2) %@63 3) %5@3 4) %@53 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.131-135): In each of the questions below are given four statementsfollowed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly knownfacts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

131. Statements: Some bags are trunksAll trunks are shirtsSome shirts are booksAll books are shops

Conclusions: I. Some shops are bagsII. Some books are bagsIII. Some shops are shirtsIV. Some shirts are bags

1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I and III follow3) Only III and IV follow 4) Only II and IV follow 5) None

132. Statements: All pens are chairsAll flowers are chairsAll chairs are trucksAll trees are trucks

Conclusions: I. Some trucks are pensII. Some trucks are chairsIII. Some trees are pensIV. Some trees are chairs

1) Only I and III follow 2) Only I and II follow3) Only III and IV follow 4) Only II and IV follow 5) None

133. Statements: All desks are pillarsSome pillars are townsAll towns are benchesSome benches are cars

Conclusions: I. Some cars are townsII. Some benches are desksIII. Some benches are pillarsIV. Some cars are pillars

1) None follows 2) Only I follows3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) Only IV follows

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134. Statements: All stations are housesNo house is gardenSome gardens are riversAll rivers are ponds

Conclusions: I. Some ponds are gardensII. Some ponds are stationsIII. Some ponds are housesIV. No pond is station

1) Only I follow 2) Only either II or IV follows3) Only I and II follows 4) Only I and IV follow 5) None

135. Statements: Some towers are lanesSome lanes are roadsSome roads are riversSome rivers are jungles

Conclusions: I. Some jungles are roadsII. Some roads are lanesIII. Some jungles are towersIV. No jungle is road

1) Only I follow 2) Only II folow 3) Only either I or IV follow4) Only IV follow 5) Only either I or IV and II followDirections (Q.No.136-140): In the following questions symbols ,%, ,$ and ©are used with the following meaning as follows.‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than B’.‘P Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.‘P Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than to Q’.‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, findout which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.Given answer (1) if only conclusion I is trueGiven answer (2) if only conclusion II is trueGiven answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is trueGiven answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is trueGiven answer (5) if both conclusions I and II true

136. Statements: D$T, T%M, M JConclusions: I. J D II. M©D

137. Statements: BK, K$N, N%RConclusions: I. R$K II. RK

138. Statements: H%F, FW, W$EConclusions: I. E F II. H W

139. Statements: Z D, D©K, K MConclusions: I. MD II. Z K

140. Statements: W©B, N B, N©FConclusions: I. F B II. WN

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Directions: (Q.No.141-145): Study the following to answer the given questions.Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people

each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. Inrow-1 P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 A,B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in thegiven seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another memberof the other row.

P sits third to the left of T. Neither P nor T sits at an extreme endof the line. A sits second to the right of E. Neither A nor E faces T or P. A doesnot sit an extreme end. R does not face A and R does not sit at the extreme endof the line. Only one person sits between F and C. Neither F nor C faces T. Cdoesnot sit at the extreme end. Only one person sits between V and Q. F is notan immediate neighbour of B and A does not face V.

141. How many persons are seated between B and D?1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None

142. V is related to B in the some way as Q is related to C. To which of the following isP related to, following the same pattern?1) F 2) A 3) D 4) E 5) None

143. Which of the following is true regarding V?1) V faces A 2) T is not an immediate neighbour of V3) C faces the one who is second to left of V4) V sits at one of the extreme ends of the line5) R sits third to the right of V

144. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?1) D, F 2) V, S 3) Q, S 4) B, D 5) None

145. Who amongst the following faces B?1) V 2) S 3) Q 4) R 5) TDirections (Q.No.146-148): Study the following information to answer the givenquestions.P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight live facing north. Each one of themlives on a different floor in the same building which is numbered from one toseven.Q sits fourth to the left of the person living on the 6th floor, either Q or the personliving on the 6th floor sits at the extreme ends of the line.Only one person sits between Q and W. W lives on the 3rd floor. The personliving on 1st floor sits third to right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour of W.Only one person lives between T and the person who lives on the 2nd floor.P and R are immediate neighbours of each other, P does not live on the 6th floor.One who lives on 5th floor sits third to right of the one who lives on the 7th floor.

146. Who amongst the following lives on the 4th floor?1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S 5) V

147. On which of the following floors does T live?1) 1st 2) 2nd 3) 5th 4) 6th 5) 7th

148. How many floors are there between the floors on which V and P live?1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) NoneDirections(Q.No.149-150): Four of the following five are alike in a certain waybased on the given above arrangement and they form a group. Which is the onethat doesnot belong to this group?

149. 1) W 2) F 3) S 4) P 5) Q150. 1) T-2nd floor 2) R-7th floor 3) V-3rd floor 4) S-5th floor 5) Q-6th floor

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Directions (Q.No.151-155):Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numberedI and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in thestatements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements andGive answer (1) if the data in statements I alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer thequestion.Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer thequestion.Give answer (3) if the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone aresufficient to answer the question.Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient toanswer the question.Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessaryto answer the question.

151. How many marbles does Sanjay have?I. Sanjay has 3 times more marbles than Ahmed.II. Ahmed has one-third the number of marbles which Suresh has, who has asmany marbles as Sanjay.

152. How is Ramesh related to Lata?I. Yogendra is Lata’s fatherII. The only sibling of Ramesh’s maternal aunt is married to Yogendra

153. If ‘World peace is important’ is written as ‘ni pe la so’ in a code language, what isthe code for peace?I. ‘an important call’ is written as ‘ka so ba’II. ‘this is world map’ is written as ‘de la ni ru’

154. In which direction is Neha walking?I. Neha walked 15 kms from the starting point and took a left turn.II. She was walking towards north before taking a left turn.

155. What was the day of the week on fifteenth of the month?I. The first Sunday of the month was sixth.II. The last day of the month was thirty first.Directions(Q.No.156-160): Study the following information to answer the givenquestions.In a certain code ‘colours of the sky’ is written as ‘ki la fa so’, ‘rainbow colours’ iswritten as ‘ro ki’ and ‘sky high rocket’ is written as ‘la pe jo’ and ‘the rocket world’is written as ‘pe so ne’.

156. Which of the following is the code for ‘colours sky high’?1) ro jo la 2) fa la jo 3) la ki so 4) ki jo la 5) fa ki jo

157. Which of the following will/may represent ‘the’?1) Only ‘fa’ 2) Either ‘fa’ or ‘la’ 3) Only ‘so’4) Only ‘la’ 5) Either ‘so or ‘fa’

158. What does ‘pe’ represent in the code?1) colours 2) sky 3) high 4) rainbow 5) rocketDirections(Q.No.159-160): Study the following information carefully and answerthe questions given below.(i) ‘PQ’ means ‘P is mother of Q’(ii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’(iii) ‘P Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’(iv) ‘P - Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’

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159. Which of the following means paternal grand father of W?1) W TJ 2) J TW 3) JTW 4) JTW 5) None

160. Which of the following means ‘M is niece of R’ ?1) M -T J - R 2) TM - K 3) R TM K 4) R+TM+K 5) None

MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE161. Which of the following is/are function of marketing?

1) Buying and assembling 2) Product planning3) Marketing research 4) Branding and packaging 5) All of the above

162. Which of the following is a focused and targetable portion of a market?1) Target Market 2) Consumer Market3) Mass Market 4) Niche Market 5) None

163. The structure of distribution channel vary with the production of ___?1) size 2) place 3) price 4) product 5) None

164. Data mining means1) market survey 2) Same as data warehouse3) Analysing the data on customers 4) same as database 5) None

165. The business model related to internet marketing is/are ____1) Publishing 2) Lead based websites 3) TV4) e-commerce 5) 1, 2, 4

166. The right of consumer includes _____1) Right to be Heard 2) Rights to be informed3) Right ot safety 4) All of these 5) None

167. Which is activity of International Marketing?1) Distribution channels 2) Pricing 3) Marketing Communication4) All of these 5) None

168. Customer Analysis involves _____1) Departmental Store 2) Super Bazaar 3) Government Department4) All of these 5) None

169. Physical distribution includes ____1) Materials Handling 2) Transportation3) Size of inventory 4) Warehousing 5) All of these

170. Which is the latest distribution system?1) e-mail 2) Telephonic distribution 3) e-commerce4) Mobile 5) All of these

171. Seller’s market is ______1) Monopoly market 2) Production and style market3) Modern market 4) All of these 5) None

172. Why sales control is required?1) Divident 2) To minimise the selling cost3) To maximise the profit 5) To maximise the production 5) Price

173. Adhoc planning is suitable for ______1) Capital budgeting 2) Renewal of a patent3) Setup of a new firm 4)Market and plant development 5)Issuing shares

174. Selling is ____ activity1) Wealth producing activity 2) Management3) Research 4) Money or time wastage 5) Production

175. Basis for control of salesmen includes _____1) Wage policy 2)Commission 3) Sales Planning and Production4) Advertisement 5) Sales Quota

176. SEM stands for ______1) Save Europe and Money 2) Save Energy Money3) Search Economy and Management 4) Search Engine Marketing 5) None

177. Qualities needed by a good marketing staff are _____1) Politeness 2) Preservance 3) Pushy4) Aggressiveness 5) Only 1 and 2

178. Which marketing is suitable for fertilizer industry?1) Online marketing 2) Digital marketing3) Green Marketing 4) Rural marketing 5) All of these

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179. Which is the drawback of advertising?1) Wastage of money 2) Mis-statement presentation3) Reduction of ethics 4) All of these 5) None

180. Marginal Cost’s advantages is/are ____1) Preparing tenders 2) Helpful in budgetary control3) Make or buy decision 4) All of these 5) None

181. RAM is also called1) Volatile memory 2) Static memory3) Both 1 and 2 4) Phosphorus 5) None

182. A set of standards for exchanging informations.1) Protocol 2) Topology 3) Hypertext 4) Program 5) None

183. Micro computers were introduced in1) I generation 2) II generation 3) III generation 4) IV generation 5) None

184. A high quality output for both text and graphics is given by1) Dot Matrix Printer 2) Desk Jet Printer3) Inkjet Printer 4) Laser Printer 5) None

185. In a computer _____ is directed, or controlled by _____1) input, output 2) hardware, software3) software, programs 4) primary storage, secondary storage 5) None

186. Magnetic tape is a ____ access drive.1) Random 2) Sequential 3) Parallel 4) Serially 5) None

187. The device which converts digital signals to analog signal and vice versa is1) e-mail 2) CPU 3) ALU 4) Modem 5) None

188. ____ is a circuit with many inputs but only one output.1) ENCODER 2) DECODER 3) Multiplexer 4) All 5) None

189. Which of the following is the fastest?1)Video terminal 2) CPU 3) Sectors, mechanical controllers4) Magnetic tape and disks 5) None

190. The base for the octal number system is1) B 2) 8 3) 2 4) F 5) None

191. FAT stands for1) Fixed Access Table 2) Floating Point Addition Table3) File Allocation Table 4) File Access Table 5) None

192. E-mail is1) Electricity mail 2) Electronic mail3) Electronical mail 4) Efficient mail 5) None

193. The function of the compiler is to translate ___ code into ____ code.1) Source, object 2) Object, source3) Both 1 and 2 4) Unity, source 5) None

194. A file of a structured data is1) Database 2) Data bank 3) Record 4) Data Processing 5) None

195. A user entered programme is known as1) source programme 2) object programme3) machine language programme 4) All of these 5) None

196. The principle of colours is based on1) G.W. 2) R.G.B. 3) R.B.Y 4) Y.B.V. 5) None

197. The fastest computers are _______1) micro computers 2) main frame computers3) super computers 4) mini computers 5) None

198. One spot on a screen is called as a1) pixel 2) dot 3) character 4) point 5) None

199. Physical components of a computer constitutes1) software 2) firmware 3) hardware 4) All of these 5) None

200. The language ot insert, delete, modify records of a database is?1) DML 2) DDL 3) JCl 4) TCL 5) None