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REASONING
Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends, Mohan, Manoj, Mukesh, Manish, Manash, Mohsin, Mukul and Manohar are sitting
around a circle and facing towards the centre. Each of them likes different hill stations i.e.,
Nainital, Shimla, Manali, Kullu, Mussoorie, Almora, Chamba and Ranikhet but not necessarily
in the same order.
Manoj is sitting second to the left of Mukul and third to the right of Manash. Mukul likes Shimla
hill station. Mohan is not an immediate neighbour of Mukul and Manoj. Mohan does not like
Nainital and Mussoorie hill stations. Manohar is the immediate neighbour of Manash who likes
Chamba hill station. Mukesh and Mohsin are sitting in front of each other and like Manali and Mussoorie hill stations respectively. Mohsin is sitting second to the right of Manish who likes
Kullu hill station. Manohar is an immediate neighbour of Mukesh and likes Ranikhet hill station.
Q.1. Who is sitting between Mukesh and Manish and which hill station he likes?
(1) Manohar, Shimla (2) Mohsin, Ranikhet (3) Manoj, Nainital
(4) Mukul, Nainital (5) Mohan, Ranikhet
Q.2. Who is sitting third to the right of Mohsin and which hill station he likes?
(1) Manohar, Ranikhet (2) Mukesh, Ranikhet (3)Manash,Almora
(4) Mohan, Chamba (5) Manoj, Kullu
Q.3. If the position of Manash and Manish are interchanged then who is sitting to the immediate right
of Manoj?
(1) Manohar (2) Mukesh (3) Mohan (4) Mukul (5) Manash
Q.4. If all the persons are sitting according to their names as in English alphabet (starting from
Manash's position) in clockwise direction but do not change their hill stations, then who is sitting
between Mukul and Manish?
(1) Mukesh (2) Manohar (3) Manash (4) Manoj (5) Mohsin
Q.5. If all the hill stations should be arranged according to their letters in dictionary order (starting
from Manoj's position) in anticlockwise direction, then who likes Chamba, Manali and Mussoorie
hill stations respectively?
(1) Mohan, Mukul, Mohsin (2) Manohar, Mohsin, Mukul (3) Mohsin, Mukesh, Mohan
(4) Mohan, Mukesh Manash (5) Manish, Mohsin, Mohan
Q.6-10. An arrangement machine, when given a particular Input, rearranges it following a particular rule
in each step. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement :
Input : P S F L G N M D
Step I. D P S F L G N M
Step II. F D P S L G N M
Step III. G F D P S L N M
Step IV. L G F D P S N M
Step V. M L G F D P S N
Step VI. N M L G F D P S
Step VII. P N M L G F D S
Step VIII. S P N M L G F D
Step VIII. is the last step of the above input arrangement.
As per rules followed in above steps, give answer to the following questions.
Q.6. Input: C P B Y W V R G
How many steps are required to complete the arrangement?
(1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Six (4) Five (5) Four
Q.7. If the fourth step of an input is 'P G C B Y W V R' then what was the first step?
(1) C B P Y W V R G
(2) W V R P G C B Y
(3) B C P Y W V R G
(4) G C B P Y W V R
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(5) Can't be determined
Q.8. What will be the third step for the above input?
(1) P G C B Y W V R
(2) G C B P Y W V R
(3) W V R P G C B Y
(4) Y W V R P G C B
(5) Y W V B R P G C
Q.9. If step II of an input is 'C B P Y W V R G', how many more steps will be required to complete
the arrangement?
(1) Six (2) Seven (3) Four (4) Five (5) Three
Q.10. Which step will be the last step for the above input?
(1) W V R P G C B Y
(2) V R P G C B Y W
(3) R P G C B Y W V
(4) Y W V R P G C B
(5) Y P G C B W V R
Q.11-15. In each question given below four statements are followed by two conclusions number I
and II. You have to take the four given statements to be true (even if they seem to be at variance from
the commonly known facts). Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows.
Give answer-
(1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows.
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II follow.
(5) If both conclusions I and II follow.
Q.11-12. Statements : Some soap are red. Some green are lux.
All soap are lux. All green are leaf.
Q.11. Conclusions: I. Some leaf are soap.
II. Some soap being leaf is a possibility.
Q.12. Conclusions : I. Some lux are red. II. Some lux are leaf.
Q.13-14. Statements : Some question are answer. Some question are step.
Some option are answer. Some input are step.
Q.13. Conclusions: I. Some input are answer. II. Some option are step.
Q.14. Conclusions : I. Some answer are step. II. No step is a answer.
Q.15. Statements: Some odd are digit. Some prime are even.
No digit is a number. No odd is a even. Conclusions : I. Some odd are not number. II. Some digit are not even
Q.16-20. Study the following series carefully and answer the questions given below:
X A 1 # 2 C B Z 3 $ M N 4 % Q R I 5 & @ 6 P J K 7 © F G
Q.16. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) None (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (5) One
Q.17. Which of the following is the third to the right of the twelfth from the left end?
(1) 5 (2) R (3) Q (4) I (5) N
Q.18. Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the eighteenth from the right end?
(1) Q (2) & (3) © (4) @ (5) %
Q.19. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four
Q.20. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
M$N, $3M, 3Z$,?
(1) Z3B (2) Z3$ (3) 3$Z (4) ZB3 (5) ZN4
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Q.21-25. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven members A, M, P, Z, X, Y and T are sitting in straight line facing towards north.
Z is sitting in the middle of the row.
A is sitting between X and Z.
M is sitting between Z and Y.
P is not an immediate neighbour of X and T is not an immediate neighbour of Y.
T is sitting second to the left of A and Y is sitting second to the right of Z.
Q.21. Who is/are sitting between M and P?
(1) X (2) Y (3) A (4) T (5) A and T
Q.22. Who is sitting at both the corners of the row?
(1) X, A (2) A, Z (3) M, P (4) T, P (5) T, Y
Q.23. Who is sitting third to the left of Z?
(1) X (2) P (3) T (4) M (5) A
Q.24. Who is sitting third to the right of A?
(1) T (2) Z (3) M (4) X (5) Y
Q.25. If the positions of the corner members are interchanged then who is on the immediate left of X
and to the immediate right of Y ?
(1) A,Y (2) P,T (3) M,P (4) T,X (5) T, A
Q.26-30. The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide
whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question ? Mark
answer
(1) If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.
(2) If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.
(3) If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient.
(4) If statement I and II together are not sufficient.
(5) If both statement together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Q.26. In which month of the year was Deepali born?
I. Her mother correctly remembers that Deepali was born after July and before October.
II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after April and before September.
Q.27. What is the code for 'some' in a certain language if 'some beautiful red flower' is written as
'pe so la ti?
I. 'flash on red light' is written as 'ni jo ke pe'.
II. 'flower are very lovely' is written as 'ba di ti go' and 'beautiful day outside' is written as
'fo hi la'.
Q.28. What is Sumitra's rank from the top in a class of 50 students?
I. Vijay is 6 ranks below Sumitra and he is twenty-ninth from the bottom.
II. Anshul is 4 ranks above Sumitra and he is thirty fifth from the bottom.
Q.29. How many sisters does Lakhan have?
I. The only brother of Lakhan' s father has only one niece.
II. The son of the husband of Lakhan's mother has two siblings.
Q.30. Who among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A, if all the four are sitting in a straight line facing
South?
I. A does not sit next to D, who does not sit on the extreme right.
II. No one sit to the right of A and on the left of B, while only one person sits between C and B.
Q.31-35. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:-
In a certain code ,"all are best movies "is coded as " ab bc cd ef ", "best movies goes for
award " is coded as " bc cd fg gh hi ", "all award is Hollywood " is coded as "ef fg ij jk "
and "movies are Hollywood "is coded as " bc ab jk ".
Q.31. What is the code for "goes"?
(1) gh (2) hi (3) bc (4) Either 'gh'or 'hi' (5) ef
Q.32. What is the code for "movies"?
(1) cd (2) fg (3) bc (4) ij (5) jk
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Q.33. Which of the following represents ''all goes for award''?
(1) ef fg gh cd (2) ef hi gh fg (3) fg gh ef bc
(4) ab ef hi gh (5) Cannot be determined
Q.34. What does code ''ij'' stand for ?
(1) is (2) all (3) award (4) for (5) best
Q.35. Which of the following represents "jk fg hi bc gh"?
(1) movies for award Hollywood best (2) best movies award for are
(3) are best goes all Hollywood (4) movies best Hollywood goes all (5) award goes Hollywood for movies
Q.36-40. Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: playing a game of basketball. Each of them has a different favourite colour’s - Red, Blue, Black, Pink, Yellow, Green and White. Each of the players has secured different scores in the game. Golu has secured second highest scores and neither Red nor Blue is his favourite colour. Kaliya secured the least scores and neither Green nor Blue is his favorite colour. The favourite colour of Bholu is Black and he has secured more scores than Raju and Jaggu but less than Bheem. The favourite colour of Raju is Yellow and his scores are more than the scores of Kaliya but less than the scores of Jaggu. The favourite colour of Bheem is White. The player, whose favourite colour is Pink, got the highest scores. Q.36. Who got the second least scores? (1) Golu (2) Bholu (3) Jaggu (4) Kaliya (5) Raju Q.37. When all the seven players are arranged according to their scores in descending order, what is the position of Bholu from the top? (1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Data inadequate (5) Fifth Q.38. Which is the favourite colour of Jaggu? (1) Blue (2) Green (3) Either Blue or Green (4) Data inadequate (5) Pink Q.39. Pink is the favourite colour of which player? (1) Bheem (2) Golu (3) Chetan (4) Jaggu (5) Bholu Q.40. Which of the following is the favourite colour of Kaliya? (1) Red (2) Blue (3) Yellow (4) Data inadequate (5) Green
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Q.41-50.In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The radio is an integral part of people’s lives. In the days before the (41) of television, the radio brought the family together to (42) to news, music and drama. The radio is still a low cost medium and a source of information and (43) that reaches out to a large number of people
around the world. February 13 is celebrated as World Radio Day .World Radio Day seeks to raise (44) about the importance of radio, facilitate access to information through the radio and
enhance networking among broadcasters. World Radio Day is a day to celebrate radio as a medium; to improve international cooperation between broadcasters; and to encourage major networks and community radio alike to (45) access to information and freedom of expression over the airwaves.
Radio has a great role in emergency communication and (46) relief. Radio was primarily used to (47) telegraphic messages through Morse code between ships and land. The armed
forces used it extensively to pass orders, diplomatic messages and communication.
After the commercialisation of radio, it became a strong (48) for passing information and even entertainment with more and more radio stations (49) to provide the masses with a range of programmes including news, music, dramas, comedies, variety shows and various other forms of entertainment. It has became a powerful tool of (50) in the modern era.
Q.41. (1) appearance (2) reception (3) foundation
(4) approach (5) advent
Q.42. (1) relate (2) make (3) access
(4) listen (5) hear
Q.43. (1) cultural (2) entertainment (3) solidarity
(4) heritage (5) sharing
Q.44. (1) funds (2) people (3) awareness
(4) anger (5) limit
Q.45. (1) promote (2) instigate (3) obstruct
(4) collect (5) flaunt
Q.46. (1) trauma (2) earthquake (3) emotional
(4) disaster (5) tragedy
Q.47. (1) form (2) chase (3) code
(4) receipt (5) send
Q.48. (1) medium (2) sources (3) word
(4) movement (5) vibe
Q.49. (1) exploding (2) living (3) mushrooming
(4) tuning (5) expanding
Q.50. (1) youth (2) communication (3) modernity .
(4) talent (5) freedom
Q.51-55.Read each part of the sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your
answer as (5).
Q.51. A major tragedy averted (1)/ as the school kids were brought out (2)/of the van in time due to
the efforts (3)/of the van driver after the fire broke out (4)/ No error (5)
Q.52. Organisms such as bacteria (1)/ thrive due to sudden change of weather (2)/ fluctuation in
temperature (3)/and the highly humid air (4)/ No error (5)
Q.53. Investigators are still unsure (1)/ and not armed with many evidences (2)/ to establish the motive
(3)/ behind the murderers (4)/ No error (5)
Q.54. Lata had been gone (1)/ to the groom’s house (2)/ to persuade his family (3)/ to solemnize their
marriage without dowry (4)/ No error (5)
Q.55. If children don’t have (1)/ any place to play outside (2)/ then allowing to play at home (3)/is the
best option (4)/ No error (5)
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Q.56-60.In each of the following sentences there is a blank space given. Below each five words have
been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which word can be filled up in the
blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Q.56. When the cops arrived at the accident spot they found the car engulfed in————.
(1) Air (2) Humid (3) Flames
(4) Criticism (5) Intensity
Q.57. Neither drivers nor the pedestrians ————-the rules related to zebra crossing
(1) Violates (2) Respect (3) Observes
(4) Correlates (5) Rear
Q.58. The mini-drones are —————by eco-friendly electric motors and can cover areas within a 16-
km radius of fulfillment centers.
(1) Attacked (2) Facilitate (3) Carries
(4) Powered (5) Finesse
Q.59. Long-distance buses can continue to travel at high speeds without any —————by the
government
(1) Checks (2) Investigate (3) Offer
(4) Analyze (5) Assist
Q.60. Thousands of residents are forced to drink and cook with ground water contaminated by ——
—————waste (1) Peril (2) Uncertainty (3) Secure (4) Healthy (5) Hazardous
Q.61-70.Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some questions.
One of the main reasons for the thriving illegal organ trade in India is an acute mismatch
in the demand and supply of organs. While nearly two lakh patients in India require kidney
transplants and over a lakh need liver transplants every year, the actual supply is less than 3
per cent. This calls for measures to make voluntary donation of organs in India easier. The draft
of the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Rules, 2013, put up on the website of the
health ministry, however, indicates that instead of simplifying the process for organ donation,
the government is putting more bureaucratic hurdles and adding to the trauma of donor’s family
members. The latest draft rules, for instance, say that forensic doctors of government hospitals
need to be present during organ retrieval operations to check whether organs are suitable for
retrieval. Next, the body will be taken to a government-designated centre for post-mortem. This
means grieving relatives may have to wait longer first for busy, overworked forensic experts
from understaffed departments to turn up for the donor operation at the transplant centre and,
second, for the donor’s post-mortem to be completed at a different centre.
The Centre’s plan is to introduce an all-India transplant programme, along the lines of the
American one. Unlike the US, however, India has an acute shortage of forensic doctors who
can be present during organ retrieval. As more peripheral centres get recognised as non-
transplant organ retrieval centres, it may become difficult for limited number of forensic doctors
to attend organ retrieval operation. Further, more time will be lost coordinating to get forensic
doctor to the organ retrieval centre. The result will be that the Deceased Donor Transplant (DDT)
programme, which has not picked up after so many years, will further suffer. If the Centre wants
to follow the American system, it should follow in all respects. The US has several non-
transplant organ retrieval centres and several forensic doctors who can be present.
The Transplantation of Human Organs Act is supposed to help in meeting the demand for
kidneys, liver and other organs and curb commercial organ trade by accepting the concept of
brain death. It has, however, done precious little to decrease the illegal organ sale and at the
same time created unnecessary delays and hurdles in cases of genuine donation.
The majority of the deceased donors the world over are victims of road accidents. Given that over (1) 5 lakh persons die in road accidents every year India, there is tremendous potential for cadaver transplantation. A brain-dead person’s body can yield nearly 37 organs and various
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tissues that can help a number of patients. Yet, people are not aware of the DDT programme. And even if they were, many states do not have organ retrieval facilities.
The government must realize that for organ donation and transplantation to be a success, a number of motivated government agencies, voluntary health organizations and aware families must work in tandem. In addition, the infrastructure to facilitate organ donation must be put in
place. Only then can the thriving racket in the sale of organs be curbed. The Centre should take a leaf from TamilNadu’s successful donor organ retrieval
programme, which is based on a strong partnership between NGOs and backed by consistent efforts to popularize the significance of such donation. It also includes training of transplant counselors and allied medical staff so that they can effectively convince grieving family members to agree to the donation within a limited time period after brain death. The state government too has been proactive in ironing out unnecessary bureaucratic obstacles.
Q.61. Why do forensic doctors of government hospitals need to be present during organ
retrieval operations? (1) They need to make sure that the organ is apt for retrieval. (2) They need to give report on each retrieval operation performed (3) Their consent is required to conduct the retrieval operations. (4) They need to supervise the process to bring in efficiency. (5) Not mentioned in the passage
Q.62. In which of the following ways, is the proposed all-India transplant programme different from the
programme of the U.S? (A) It is time taking to have forensic doctor to be present during organ retrieval. (B) There are not adequate forensic doctors required for smooth organ retrieval process in
India (C) The forensic doctors are not qualified enough to supervise the retrieval process
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Only A and B(5) Only A and C
Q.63. Which of the following is FALSE in the context of the passage?
(1) The US has several non-transplant organ retrieval centres and several forensic doctors who
can be present. (2) People are fully aware of the DDT programme (3) Over a lakh patients in India need liver transplants every year (4) The majority of the deceased donors the world over are victims of road accidents. (5) All of the above are true
Q.64. What is the aim of the Transplantation of Human Organs Act?
(1) To ease the process of transplantation (2) To allow people to donate organs for commercial reasons (3) Meeting the demand of organs and check organ trade for commercial reasons (4) To maintain the quality of organs being donated (5) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
Q.65. Why do grieving relatives have to wait for long to get the donor’s postmortem done?
(1) They find themselves emotionally weak to send the donor’s body for postmortem (2) The forensic departments lack adequate staff and the forensic doctors remain too busy (3) They need to arrange for huge sum of money to get the postmortem done (4) They need to go through a long process to get the forensic doctor conduct the post
mortem. (5) They do not have to wait and the postmortem is done without delay
Q.66. Which of the following agencies need to work in close association to make organ donation and
transplantation successful? (1) Voluntary health organizations (2) People who need organ transplant (3) All except 2 (4) Motivated government agencies (5) Families which are aware
Q.67-68.Choose the word most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the
passage.
Q.67. In tandem
(1) In harmony (2) In time (3) In advance (4) In circle (5) In chaos
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Q.68. Coordinating
(1) Relating (2) Managing (3) Regulating (4) Complying (5) Allocating
Q.69-70.Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
Q.69. Curb
(1) Encourage (2) Refuse (3) Control (4) Delay (5) Shun
Q.70. Genuine
(1) Exact (2) Unadulterated (3) Illegal (4) Official (5) Valid
Q.71-75.Rearrange the following sentences (A),(B),(C), (D),(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form
a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(A) In a bid to encourage more climbers to Everest and other Himalaya peaks in the country,
(B) Everest dreams of individual mountaineers just got a lot cheaper with Nepal government
(C) Will be a milestone for promotion of Nepalese mountaineering sector.
(D) Nepal government has brought down in the new royalty structure for both foreigners and
Nepalis
(E) Deciding to reduce royalty to climb the much sought after peak by more than half.
(F) It is expected that the timely amendment of royalty for mountaineering in Nepal
Q.71. Which of the following would be the LAST statement after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) A
Q.72. Which of the following would be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?
(1) E (2) B (3) C (4) F (5) D
Q.73. Which of the following would be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement?
(1) A (2) D (3) E (4) C (5) B
Q.74. Which of the following would be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?
(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) F (5) B
Q.75. Which of the following would be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?
(1) C (2) B (3) A (4) D (5) E
Q.76-80.In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are
numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4) . One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are
correctly spelt & also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) "All correct" as your
answer.
Q.76. People who try to stay away from smoking often take to e-cigarettes as the battery-power
(1) (2)
devices contain nicotine instead of tobacco and are therefore meant to simulate the feeling of
(3) (4)
smoking a regular cigarette All correct
(5)
Q.77. The police and district administration should choke out measures to curb mishaps and
(1) (2)
ensure that the road safety council is active in monitoring work related to road
(3) (4)
safety All correct
(5)
Q.78. Indians consider knee pain as a normal part of the ageing process and it is this mindset that
(1) (2)
aggravates the problem to the extent of making them physically inactive and vulnerability to
(3) (4)
other lifestyle diseases All correct
(5)
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Q.79. Due to the absence of drinking water taps and provision for clean water distribution, people
end up
(1) (2)
buying water sachets and bottles, many of which may be either contaminated, spurious or
(3) (4)
not properly packaged All correct
(5)
Q.80. With the launch of living classes, the teacher crisis problem in polytechnic and engineering
(1)
colleges has also been lessened as students can directly interact with the teacher at the
(2) (3)
studio even if they are not present in their respective classrooms All correct (4) (5)
myshop.mahendras.org
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QUANTITAVTIVE APTITUDE
Q.81-85. What value will come in the place of (?) in the following questions?
Q.81. 2 2
15876 7921 35 ? 36
(1) 12165 (2) 11425 (3) 13250 (4) 11285 (5) 11325
Q.82. 8954 × 762 – 18420 = ? + 75420
(1) 6729108 (2) 6818205 (3) 6850206 (4) 6628208 (5) 6522808
Q.83. 2 2 2
29.2 72.4 58.4 ? 624.50
(1) 2032.32 (2) 2059.34 (3) 2119.14 (4) 2349.72 (5) 2449.27
Q.84. 7 5 2 3 5 2 6 3 ? 42 15
(1) 35 6 10 10 36
(2) 35 10 10 6 36
(3) 35 6 36 (4) 35 10 10 6 36 (5) 34 10 10 8 32
Q.85. 2 1 1 2
4 5 6 7 ?3 4 2 3
(1) 2
753
(2) 1
723
(3) 1
743
(4) 3
704
(5) 3
764
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Q.86-90. What approximate value will come in the place of (?) in the following questions?
Q.86. 7.89% of 798.98 × 13.79% of 840.79 =?
(1) 7000 (2) 6800 (3) 8200 (4) 7550 (5) 8500
Q.87. 2 2
107.98 29.12 ? 8424.15
(1) 5400 (2) 4800 (3) 4180 (4) 5500 (5) 4080
Q.88. 3 32768 34.899 4.987 ? 86.14
(1) 140 (2) 128 (3) 138 (4) 135 (5) 145
Q.89. 864.799 × 39.012 - 72.899 × 14.02 =?
(1) 35000 (2) 34200 (3) 32700 (4) 34000 (5) 36500
Q.90. 7400 7750 ? 13450
(1) 6800 (2) 7200 (3) 7700 (4) 8100 (5) 8210
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Q.91-95. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
Q.91 23 112 637 3155 12604
(1) 23 (2) 112 (3) 637 (4) 3155 (5) 12604
Q.92. 1 2 6 21 86
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 21 (5) 86
Q.93. 8956 10287 12015 14213 16956
(1) 8956 (2) 10287 (3) 12015 (4) 14213 (5) 16956
Q.94. 236 1534 8437.5 37966.5 132882.75
(1) 236 (2) 1534 (3) 8437.5 (4) 37966.5 (5) 132882.75
Q.95 8962 9040 9144 9274 9431
(1) 8962 (2) 9040 (3) 9144 (4) 9274 (5) 9431
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Q.96-100.Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follows-
Number of people (in thousands, staying in 6 different villages & the number of men, women & children.
Q.96. Total number of people from village C & D form approximately what % of
the total number of people from all the cities together? (1) 40% (2) 24% (3) 32% (4) 42% (5) 50%
Q.97. What is the respective ratio of number of women in village D and those of village E?
(1) 67 : 84 (2) 63 : 84 (3) 1876 : 2145 (4) 42 : 67 (5) 1876 : 2415
Q.98. Number of men from village B is what % of total number of people of all villages? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 4.28% (2) 6.23% (3) 4.73% (4) 3.25% (5) 4.83%
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Q.99. What is the average number of females from all the villages together?
(1) 3
184244
(2) 118626
3
(3) 218030
3
(4) 2
188363
(5) 1
187217
Q.100. In which village, number of women are minimum? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q.101. Some amount out of Rs. 12000 was lent at 8 % per annum and the remaining at 5% per annum. If the total simple interest from both the fractions in 4 years was Rs. 3000, what was the sum lent at 8% per annum?
(1) Rs. 4100 (2) Rs. 4850 (3) Rs. 4000 (4) Rs. 4400 (5) Rs. 4820
Q.102. In a class there are 7 boys and 4 girls. In how many ways can they sit in one row so that no two girls sit together?
(1) 8!6!
5!
(2) 8!
7!4!
(3) 7!6!
4!
(4) 7!3!
5!
(5) 7!5!
3!
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Q.103. A rectangular plot is 32m by 24m. The owner of that plot wants to divide the plot into equal parts and for that purpose he builds a fence of wire on one diagonal. If wire costs Rs. 15.50 per metre, how much amount will be spent on fencing?
(1) Rs. 615 (2) Rs. 640 (3) Rs. 620 (4) Rs. 680 (5) Rs. 710
Q.104. A mixture contains milk & water in the ratio of 5 : 2. If 12 litres of water is added to the mixture the ratio of milk and water will become 4 : 3. Then what will be the quantity of milk in the mixture?
(1) 1
293
lit.
(2) 2
347
lit.
(3) 1
327
lit.
(4) 3
274
lit.
(5) 3
234
lit
Q.105. What would be the compound interest accured on an amount of Rs. 14000 @ 10 p.c.p.a at the end of 3 years?
(1) Rs. 3890
(2) Rs. 4224
(3) Rs. 4814
(4) Rs. 4634
(5) Rs. 4720
Q.106. Due to 20% hike in price a person purchased 3 kg less of wheat in Rs. 120. Find the original price of wheat?
(1) Rs. 6.84/kg. (2) Rs. 7.20/kg. (3) Rs. 6.66/ kg. (4) Rs. 6.92/kg. (5) Rs. 7.50/kg.
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Q.107. A works twice as compared to B. If together they can do a job in 24 days, in how many days will B finish the work?
(1) 76 days
(2) 64 days
(3) 72 days
(4) 75 days
(5) 79 days
Q.108. If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Randheer and remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anoop is obtained. If Anoop is 2 years younger to Mahesh whose age is 5 years, what is the age of Randheer?
(1) 60 years (2) 48 years (3) 84 years (4) 92 years (5) 98 years
Q.109. The area of a rectangle is thrice that of square. The length of the
rectangle is 40 cm and breadth is 3
2times the side of the square. What is the side
of the square? (1) 60 cm. (2) 20 cm. (3) 30 cm. (4) 15 cm. (5) 12 cm.
Q.110. Pipe A can fill a tank in 8 hours and pipe B can empty the tank in 5
hours. If 3
4th part of the tank is filled with water and both the pipes are opened
simultaneously in what time will the tank be emptied?
(1) 1
133
hrs.
(2) 10 hrs. (3) 6 hrs.
(4) 1
33
hrs.
(5) 5 hrs.
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Q.111-115. In each of the following questions, two equations are given. You have to solve them and
Give answer (1) If x>y Give answer (2) If x>y Give answer (3) If x<y Give answer (4) If x<y Give answer (5) If x=y or relationship cannot be established Q.111. (I) 4x + 6y = 56 (II) 6x + 4y = 72
Q.112. (I) 2401x2 = x – 2 (II) x + y = 2
9
Q.113. (I) 10x2 + 19x + 9 = 0 (II) 13y2 – 2y – 11 = 0
Q.114. (I) 2x2 + 22x + 56 = 0 (II) y2 + 12y + 35 = 0
Q.115. (I) 6x2 – 7x + 2 = 0 (II) y2 – 8y + 15 = 0
Q.116-120. Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given
below:-
Marks obtained by four students in five different subjects in class
VIII, IX and X
Q.116. If maximum marks in each subject is 800, what is the percentage
marks obtained by Neha in class IX?
(1) 62
(2) 68
(3) 57
(4) 52
(5) 65
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Q.117. What is the average marks obtained by Ankit in class VIII in all the
subjects together?
(1) 622
(2) 630
(3) 635
(4) 628
(5) 632
Q.118. The marks obtained by Ekta in English in class VIII is
approximately what percent of the total marks obtained by Swati in Hindi,
English and Sanskrit in class X?
(1) 15
(2) 38
(3) 19
(4) 24
(5) 11
Q.119. What is the difference between the total marks obtained by Neha
in Sanskrit in all the three classes and that by Swati in Maths in class X?
(1) 992
(2) 990
(3) 998
(4) 994
(5) 995
Q.120. In which subject is the total marks obtained by Ankit in all the
three classes together the second highest?
(1) Sanskrit
(2) Hindi
(3) English
(4) Maths
(5) Science
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GENERAL AWARENESS
Q.121. Who took oath as Chief Minister of Bihar?
(1) Virendra Nath
(2) Nitish Kumar
(3) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(4) Suraj Sinha
(5) Rajvansh Kumar
Q.122. Which of the following has been renamed Sydney Stock Exchange Limited?
(1) MSE
(2) NASDAQ
(3) JSE Limited
(4) Asia Pacific Stock Exchange
(5) BSE
Q.123. Who has been chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and
Development for 2015?
(1) UNGA
(2) UNSC
(3) UNESC
(4) UNHCR
(5) UNESCO
Q.124. Recently the union cabinet gave its approval for signing of a Memorandum of
Understanding between India and Vietnam for cooperation in the field of ________.
(1) Tourism
(2) Infrastructure
(3) Animal Health
(4) Information Technology
(5) Telecom
Q.125. Who headed the 7th Pay Commission?
(1) Suhasini Sharma
(2) Narendra Pathak
(3) U.S. Nair
(4) Kartik Narain
(5) Ashok Kumar Mathur
Q.126. At which of the following places the 27th Summit of APEC was held?
(1) Shanghai, China
(2) Tokyo, Japan
(3) Lima, Peru
(4) Manila, Philippines
(5) Beijing, China
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Q.127. Who has been named as India’s new Ambassador to China?
(1) Anand Nath
(2) Vijay Keshav Gokhale
(3) Ashok Kantha
(4) Subir Shah
(5) Rashid Khan
Q.128. Which country issued a postage stamp featuring Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
(1) Australia
(2) U.K.
(3) Turkey
(4) Russia
(5) Germany
Q.129. Recently Ram Krishna Trivedi passed away. He was the former Governor of which
state?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Sikkim
(4) Gujarat
(5) West Bengal
Q.130. Chess player Srishti Pandey belongs to which state?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Sikkim
(4) Gujarat
(5) West Bengal
Q.131. Who has taken charge as Chairman of Steel Authority of India (SAIL)?
(1) Prakash Kumar Singh
(2) Vinay Pathak
(3) Surendra Nath Sharma
(4) Iqbal Nassir
(5) K.D. Sinha
Q.132. Which Indian-origin writer has been declared as the winner of this year's prestigious
South East Asia Write Award?
(1) Salman Rushdie
(2) Arundhati Roy
(3) Jamaludeen Mohamed Sali
(4) Harpreet Kaur
(5) Marry Klog
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Q.133. Who has been appointed as India's next Ambassador to Saudi Arabia?
(1) Nirupma Sehgal
(2) Ahmad Javed
(3) Nitin Sahai
(4) Atiq Shah
(5) Seema Chauhan
Q.134. What is the rank of Indian cyclist Deborah Herold in the UCI individual world
rankings?
(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Fourth
(5) Fifth
Q.135. Recently Kruger van Wyk announced his retirement from all forms of cricket. He uesd
to play for which country?
(1) England
(2) South Africa
(3) West Indies
(4) Australia
(5) New Zealand
Q.136. Recently the Competition Appellate Tribunal (CAT) quashed the Rs. 6,316.59 crore
penalty imposed on ________ cement firms.
(1) 5
(2) 11
(3) 15
(4) 20
(5) 8
Q.137. Recently the _________Administration updated its technology transfer policy
associated with Gas-turbine engine technology transfer agreement, a major defence
cooperation agreement with India.
(1) German
(2) American
(3) Russian
(4) Italian
(5) Chinese
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Q.138. Recently released “On My Terms: From the Grassroots to the Corridors of Power”, is
the autobiography of which of the following?
(1) Naseeruddin Shah
(2) Amitabh Bachchan
(3) Sharad Pawar
(4) Sonia Gandhi
(5) Arvind Kejriwal
Q.139. Recently Pakistan successfully test-fired the Shaheen-III. It is a _________ missile.
(1) surface-to-air
(2) air-to-surface
(3) surface-to-surface
(4) air-to-air
(5) It is not a missile
Q.140. Who topped the 2015 Forbes India Celebrity 100 list?
(1) Salman khan
(2) Amitabh Bachchan
(3) M.S. Dhoni
(4) Shahrukh Khan
(5) Virat Kohli
Q.141. Under Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan by which year atleast 50% of all the government
buildings of National Capital and all the State capitals will be made fully accessible for
persons with disabilities?
(1) 2017
(2) 2018
(3) 2019
(4) 2020
(5) 2021
Q.142. Which of the following has become the first state to launch Rotavirus vaccination
project?
(1) Himachal Pradesh
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Sikkim
(5) Nagaland
Q.143. Which of the following signed a MoU with Transparency International India (TII) for
adopting Integrity Pact?
(1) National Research Development Corporation
(2) The New India Assurance Co. Ltd.
(3) National Green Tribunal
(4) National Textile Corporation Limited
(5) Indian Oil Corporation
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Q.144. Who has been appointed as chairperson of the prestigious Radiological Society of
North America?
(1) Dr. Vijay M. Rao
(2) Dr. Surendra Sinha
(3) Dr. R. kumar
(4) Dr. Imran Khan
(5) Dr. Suman Patel
Q.145. Recently Aricent, a ________-based product engineering firm, tied-up with Nasscom
Foundation to launch Aricent Employability Programme.
(1) Russia
(2) Japan
(3) USA
(4) Germany
(5) Italy
Q.146. Who is the Ministry of Mines and Steel?
(1) Thawar Chand Gehlot
(2) Radha Mohan Singh
(3) Narendra Singh Tomar
(4) Bandaru Dattatreya
(5) Ram Vilas Paswan
Q.147. What is the capital of Tajikistan?
(1) Moscow
(2) Ulan Bator
(3) Ottawa
(4) Ashgabat
(5) Dushanbe
Q.148. What is the currency of Bangladesh?
(1) Bangladeshi rand
(2) Bangladeshi shilling
(3) Bangladeshi dinar
(4) Bangladeshi rupee
(5) Bangladeshi taka
Q.149. Who is the author of the book 'Indian Parliamentary Diplomacy- Speaker’s
Perspective'?
(1) Javier Moro
(2) Meira Kumar
(3) Vinod Mehta
(4) Bipin Chandra
(5) Chetan Bhagat
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Q.150. When is International Day for the Abolition of Slavery is celebrated?
(1) 1st December
(2) 2nd December
(3) 10th December
(4) 14th December
(5) 20th December
Q.151. Where is the Headquarters of Bankers Institute of Rural Development located?
(1) Pune
(2) Lucknow
(3) Allahabad
(4) Hyderabad
(5) Kolkata
Q.152. The 14 major banks in the country were nationalized in the year-
(1) 1955
(2) 1947
(3) 1967
(4) 1970
(5) 1969
Q.153. What is the minimum capital requirement for payment banks?
(1) Rs.500 crore
(2) Rs.400 crore
(3) Rs.300 crore
(4) Rs.200 crore
(5) Rs.100 crore
Q. 154. Expand FDR.
(1) Forward Demand Receipt
(2) Fixed Demand Receipt
(3) Fixed Deposit Receipt
(4) Forward Deposit Receipt
(5) Fixed Depot Receipt
Q.155. Which of the following statements is/are correct about IPO?
(1) It is the first sale of stocks by a company to the public.
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(2) It is often issued by smaller, younger companies seeking the capital to expand but can also be brought by large companies looking to become publicly traded.
(3) It is a risky investment for investors as most IPOs are of companies going through a transitory growth period and their future values are uncertain.
(4) IPO stands for Initial Public Offering.
(5) All of the above
Q.156. Which act has replaced the Companies Act 1956?
(1) The Companies Act 2000
(2) The Companies Act 2004
(3) The Companies Act 2010
(4) The Companies Act 2013
(5) The Companies Act 2014
Q.157. When, for the first time, did the Prime Minister of India announced the 20-point
Economic Programme?
(1) 1973
(2) 1975
(3) 1980
(4) 1976
(5) 1987
Q.158. Who introduced the concept of Five Year Plans in India?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(5) Subhash Chandra Bose
Q.159. Under Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna how much accident insurance is provided?
(1) 1 lakh rupees
(2) 50, 000 rupees
(3) 30,000 rupees
(4) 40,000 rupees
(5) 2 lakh rupees
Q.160. _________ is a small device installed at almost all Business Centres to facilitate
cashless purchases to their customers.
(1) PoS Machine
(2) Kiosk Machine
(3) ATM
(4) ISC Machine
(5) e-banking Machine
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COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
Q.161. A pointer is --------.
(1) The address of a variable
(2) An indication of the variable to be accessed next
(3) A variable for storing address
(4) The data type of an address variable
(5) None of these
Q.162. Inheritance is way to --------.
(1) make gereral classes into more specific classes.
(2) pass arguments to object of classes.
(3) improve data hiding and encapsulation.
(4) to combine member function and data member
(5) None of these
Q.163. Program developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form
is known as -----------.
(1) Canned program (2) Beta program
(3) Alpha Program (4) Gamma program
(5) None of these
Q.164. Which of the following is not true for magnetic tape?
(1) Low cost
(2) Direct access storage medium
(3) Compact and portable
(4) Highly reliable
(5) None of these
Q.165. Speech synthesis is ----------.
(1) The ability to input data directly into a computer system by speaking to it
(2) The ability to output data directly from a computer system in spoken words
(3) Processing of voice in computer systems
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
Q.166. What is the default file extension for all word documents?
(1) WRD (2) TXT (3) DOC
(4) FIL (5) WD
Q.167. Usually, in MS-DOS, the primary hard disk drives has the drive letter --------.
(1) A (2) C (3) E
(4) B (5) D
Q.168. Which is not the function of the operating system?
(1) Memory management (2) Disk management
(3) Application management (4) Virus protection
(5) None of these
Q.169. The process of copying files to a CD is known as :
(1) Storing (2) Copying (3) Burning
(4) Pasting (5) Imaging
Q.170. MIDI stands for
(1) Musical Instruction Digitized Instruments
(2) Musical Instrument Digital Interface
(3) Music Instruments Digitized Instantly
(4) Musical Interface Digitally Integrated
(5) None of these
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Q.171. You can activate a cell by ------------.
(1) Pressing an arrow key (2) Pressing the tab key
(3) Clicking the cell (4) All of the above
(5) None of these
Q.172. What is meant by back up?
(1) Adding more component to your network
(2) Protecting data from copying it from original source to different destination
(3) Filtering old data from the new data
(4) Accessing data on tape
(5) None of these
Q.173. The copy command saves to -----------.
(1) Desktop (2) Clipboard
(3) Microsoft word (4) Paste
(5) None of these
Q.174. An example of non-numeric data is ----------.
(1) Bank balance (2) Examination marks
(3) Real numbers (4) Employee Address
(5) Account Number
Q.175. Which of the following display the buttons for changing text style, alignment and size?
(1) Standard toolbar (2) Status bar
(3) Drawing toolbar (4) Formatting toolbar
(5) None of these
Q.176. The programming language can be divided into two major categories --
(1) Machine level and assembly level
(2) High level and low level
(3) Ist level and IInd level
(4) Primary level and secondary level
(5) None of these
Q.177. COBOL language is specially meant for ---------.
(1) Business people (2) Organisation's people
(3) Common people (4) Beginner's people
(5) Scientist
Q.178. Which of the following is basic data type?
(1) Array (2) Character (3)Structure
(4) Union (5) All of the above
Q.179. The fastest memory is --------.
(1) Hard Disk (2) Virtual memory (3) Cache memory
(4) Magnetic tape (5) RAM
Q.180. Which of the following is text formating?
(1) Formating character and words within a document
(2) Saving the word document
(3) Changing the font and style of document
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
Q.181. A set of related programs are known as——————-
(1) File (2) Arrays (3) Package
(4) Subscripts (5) None of these
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Q.182. The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called binary digits or ....
(1) bytes (2) kilobytes (3) decimal bytes
(4) bits (5) nibbles
Q.183. The 7-bit ASCII cod e widely used-----
(1) For data communication work
(2) In IBM mainframe models
(3) For coding external memory
(4) In large machines produced by non-IBM vendors
(5) None of these
Q.184. A hard copy would be prepared on a-------
(1) Line printer (2) Dot matrix printer
(3) Type writer terminal (4) Plotter
(5) All of the above
Q.185. Which of the following animations cannot be done in PowerPoint?
(1) bullet list, revealed one bullet point at a time
(2) clip art - Fly in from the bottom
(3) table, revealed row by row
(4) chart, revealed by series
(5) None of these
Q.186. A function inside another function is called a ….. Function.
(1) Nested (2) Round (3) Sum
(4) Text (5) None of these
Q.187. Selects the entire row press———-
(1) Shift + Space (2) Shift + Ctrl (3) Shift + Alt
(4) Space + Enter (5) None of these
Q.188. In Assembly language....
(1) Mnemonics are used to code operations
(2) Alphanumeric symbols are used for addresses
(3) Language lies between high-level language and machine language
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
Q.189. CPU capacity can be measured in-------
(1) BPS (2) MIPS (3) MHz
(4) MPI (5) KHz
Q.190. “Zipping” a file means-------
(1) Encrypting the message (2) Compressing the message
(3) Transfer the message (4) All of the above
(5) None of these
Q.191. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
(1) Scanner (2) Printer (3) Monitor
(4) Mouse (5) Interpreter
Q.192. In Excel, this is a prerecorded formula that provides a shortcut for complex calculations.........
(1) Value (2) Data Series (3) Function
(4) Field (5) None of these
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Q.193. The process of trading goods over the Internet is known as ..............
(1) e-selling and buying (2) e-trading (3) e-finance
(4) e-salesmanship (5) e-commerce
Q.194. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be–
(1) distributed (2) free (3) centralized
(4) open source (5) None of these
Q.195. Which of the following is a circuit that issue signals at regular intervals ?
(1) Circuit board (2) Clock (3) Circuit card
(4) Gates (5) None of these
Q.196. Aligns the selected text or line to justify the screen press———-
(1) Ctrl + C (2) Ctrl + I (3) Ctrl + J
(4) Ctrl + K (5) None of these
Q.197. Which of the following is different from other ?
(1) Internet (2) Windows (3) Unix
(4) Linux (5) None of these
Q.198. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes---
(1) data redundancy
(2) information overload
(3) duplicate data
(4) data inconsistency
(5) None of these
Q.199. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a(n)-
(1) extranet (2) intranet (3) internet
(4) hacker (5) None of these
Q.200. Loading Operating System onto RAM is called-
(1) Printing (2) Saving (3) Booting (4) Starting (5) None of these
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ANSWERS
Q.1.(3)Q.2.(1)Q.3.(5)Q.4.(3)Q.5.(5)Q.6.(1) Q.7.(5) Q.8.(2) Q.9.(1)
Q.10.(4)Q.11.(2)Q.12.(5) Q.13.(4) Q.14.(3) Q.15.(5) Q.16.(4) Q.17.(3)
Q.18.(2)Q.19.(1) Q.20.(4)Q.21.(2) Q.22.(4) Q.23.(3) Q.24.(5) Q.25.(2)
Q.26.(5) Q.27.(4) Q.28.(3) Q.29.(3) Q.30.(1)Q.31.(4)
Q.32.(3)Q.33.(2)Q.34.(1)Q.35.(5) Q.36.(5) Q.37.(3) Q.38.(1) Q.39.(3)
Q.40.(1) Q.41.(5) Q.42.(4) Q.43.(2) Q.44.(3) Q.45.(1) Q.46.(4)Q.47.(5)Q.48.(1)
Q.49.(3) Q.50.(2) Q.51.(1) Q.52.(5) Q.53.(4)Q.54.(1)Q.55.(5) Q.56.(3) Q.57.(2)
Q.58.(4) Q.59.(1) Q.60.(5) Q.61.(1) Q.62.(4) Q.63.(2) Q.64.(3) Q.65.(2) Q.66.(3)
Q.67.(1) Q.68.(2) Q.69.(1) Q.70.(3) Q.71.(4) Q.72.(1) Q.73.(2) Q.74.(5)Q.75.(3)
Q.76. (2) Q.77. (1) Q.78. (4) Q.79. (5) Q.80. (1) Q.81.(4) Q.82.(1)Q.83.(2) Q.84. (4)
Q.85. (3 )Q.86.(4)Q.87.(5)Q.88. (3)Q.89. (3) Q.90. (3) Q.91. (3)Q.92. (5)
Q.93. (4)Q.94. (3) Q.95. (5)Q.96.(3)Q.97. (5)Q.98. (5) Q.99. (4) Q.100. (4)
Q.101. (5) Q.102. (2)Q.103. (3) Q.104. (2) Q.105. (4) Q.106. (3) Q.107. (3)
Q.108.(1)Q.109.(2) Q.110.(4)Q.111.(1)Q.112.(5)Q.113.(3)Q.114.(2)Q.115.(3)
Q.116.(5)Q.117.(5) Q.118.(3)Q.119.(4)Q.120.(3) Q.121.(2)Q.122. (4)
Q.123. (4) Q.124. (3)Q.125. (5) Q.126. (4) Q.127. (2)Q.128. (3)
Q.129. (4)Q.130. (2) Q.131. (1) Q.132. (3)Q.133. (2) Q.134. (4) Q.135. (5)
Q.136. (2) Q.137. (2)Q.138. (3) Q.139. (3) Q.140. (4)Q.141 (1) Q.142. (1)
Q.143. (4)Q.144. (1) Q.145. (3)Q.146. (3) Q.147. (5)Q.148. (5) Q.149. (2)
Q.150. (2) Q.151. (2)Q.152. (5) Q.153. (5)Q.154. (3) Q.155. (5)Q.156. (4)
Q.157. (2)Q.158. (2) Q.159. (1) Q.160. (1) Q.161. (3) Q.162. (1) Q.163. (1)
Q.164.(2)Q.165.(2)Q.166.(3)Q.167.(2)Q.168.(4)Q.169.(3)Q.170.(2) Q.171.(4)
Q.172.(2) Q.173.(2) Q.174.(4) Q.175.(4) Q.176.(2) Q.177.(1) Q.178.(2)
Q.179.(3) Q.180.(1) Q.181.(3)Q.182.(4) Q.183.(1) Q.184.(5)Q.185.(3)
Q.186.(1)Q.187.(1) Q.188.(4)Q.189.(3)Q.190.(2)Q.191.(5) Q.192.(3)Q.193.(5)
Q.194.(2)Q.195.(2)Q.196.(3)Q.197.(1)Q.198.(4)Q.199.(1) Q.200.(3)