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BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
1
Practice Test Skeletal System
(These topics will not be on the lecture exam)
Axial Skeleton
1. Which of the following is not a part of the axial division of the skeletal system?
a. Skull b. Auditory ossicles c. Hyoid bone d. Pectoral girdle e. Vertebral column
2. Which of the following is a function
of the axial skeleton? a. Provides an attachment for
muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
b. Provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
c. Provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
d. All of the above e. B and C only
3. The foramen magnum would be
found in the _____ bone. a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Sphenoid d. Occipital e. Temporal
4. The suture that forms the articulation
of the two parietal bones is the _____ suture.
a. Lamboidal b. Rostral c. Coronal d. Squamosal e. Sagittal
5. The calvaria is formed by the _____
bones. a. Frontal, temporal, and parietal b. Frontal, parietal, and occipital c. Temporal, parietal, and
occipital d. Frontal, temporal, and
occipital e. Frontal, temporal, parietal and
occipital
6. Each of the following bones contributes to forming the orbit, except the _____ bone.
a. Lacrimal b. Nasal c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid e. Frontal
7. The zygomatic arch is formed by the
union of processes from which two bones?
a. Temporal and maxilla b. Frontal and temporal c. Sphenoid and temporal d. Zygomatic and maxilla e. Temporal and zygomatic
8. The external auditory meatus is
found in the _____ bone. a. Sphenoid b. Zygomatic c. Temporal d. Parietal e. Occipital
Scoring: 4 points 90-100 3 points 80-89 2 points 70-79
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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9. The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the
a. Mastoid process. b. Styloid process. c. Occipital condyle. d. Condyloid process. e. Temporal process.
10. The bony portion of the nasal septum
is formed by the a. Nasal bones. b. Perpendicular plate of the
ethmoid bone. c. Perpendicular plate of the
ethmoid and vomer bones. d. Vomer and sphenoid bone. e. Perpendicular plate of the
ethmoid and sphenoid bones.
11. Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except the
a. Superficial nuchal lines. b. Jugular foramen. c. Hypoglossal canals. d. Supraorbital foramen. e. Occipital crest.
12. Ligaments that support the hyoid
bone are attached to the a. Styloid process. b. Mastoid process. c. Articular tubercle. d. Posterior clinoid process. e. Middle concha.
13. The structure that separates the
condylar and coronoid processes of the mandible is the
a. Ramus. b. Angle. c. Styloid process. d. Mandibular notch. e. Mandibular canal.
14. The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the
a. Mandibular fossa. b. Mastoid process. c. Superior clinoid process. d. Foramen rotundum. e. Cribriform plate.
15. Each of the following is associated
with the temporal bone, except the a. Mastoid cells. b. Petrous portion. c. Sella turcica. d. Internal acoustic meatus. e. Tympanic cavity.
16. The hypophyseal fossa or sella
turcica contains the _____ gland. a. Lacrimal b. Pituitary c. Olfactory d. Nasal e. Salivary
17. The bony roof of the mouth is
formed by the _____ bone(s). a. Palatine b. Vomer c. Maxillae d. Sphenoid e. Both A and C
18. The hyoid bone
a. Serves as a base of attachment for muscles that move the tongue.
b. Is part of the mandible. c. Is located inferior to the
larynx. d. All of the above e. A and C only
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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19. The bone that serves as a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones is the
a. Ethmoid. b. Sphenoid. c. Frontal. d. Lacrimal. e. Nasal.
20. The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the
a. Zygomatic. b. Ethmoid. c. Sphenoid. d. Frontal. e. Maxillae.
21. The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the
a. Frontal. b. Ethmoid. c. Sphenoid. d. Maxillae. e. Zygomatic.
22. The odontoid process is found on the
a. Atlas. b. Axis. c. Sacrum. d. Coccyx. e. Ribs.
23. Costal processes are located on _____ vertebrae.
a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral e. Coccygeal
24. Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of
a. Transverse processes. b. Transverse foramina. c. Facets for the articulation of
ribs. d. Notched spinous processes. e. Costal cartilages.
25. The coccyx is composed of _____
vertebra(e). a. A single b. 3 to 5 fused c. 2 or 3 fused d. 6 fused e. 8 fused
26. All of the following are true of the
sacrum, except that it a. Provides protection for
reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.
b. Provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.
c. Articulates with the pelvic bones.
d. Articulates with the first pair of ribs.
e. Articulates with the coccyx.
27. The ribs articulate with the _____ of the vertebrae.
a. Spinous process b. Transverse process c. Lamina d. Pedicles e. Neural arch
28. The costal groove would be found on a. Cervical vertebrae. b. Thoracic vertebrae. c. Lumbar vertebrae. d. The sternum. e. Ribs.
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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29. The portion of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the
a. Manubrium. b. Body. c. Xiphoid process. d. Angle. e. Tuberculum.
30. Sutures can be found at all of the
joints of an adult skull except between
a. The mandible and the cranium. b. The zygomatic bone and the
maxillary bone. c. The occipital bone and the
parietal bone. d. The vomer and the zygomatic
bone. e. None of the above, as they are
all sutures.
31. You witness two of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the local emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken
a. Temporal bone. b. Zygomatic bone. c. Mandible. d. External auditory meatus. e. Clavicle.
32. While visiting your friend who
recently gave birth, she comments on her new child’s soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the “soft spot” is
a. Sphenoidal fontanel. b. Anterior fontanel. c. Occipital fontanel. d. Mastoid fontanel. e. Cushion spot.
33. A notched spinous process is said to be
a. Mifid. b. Bifid. c. Trifid. d. Difid. e. Notchy.
34. All of the following are true of
lumbar vertebrae except that a. The superior articular
processes face medially. b. They do not have costal facets. c. The transverse process is
slender and projects dorsolaterally.
d. The vertebral foramen is triangular.
e. They bear little weight.
35. The sternum contains a. The manubrium. b. The jugular notch. c. The body. d. The xiphoid process. e. All of the above
36. While performing cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the
a. Ribs. b. Scapula. c. Xiphoid process. d. Sacrum. e. Both A and C
37. Of the following bones, which is
unpaired? a. Vomer b. Maxillary c. Palatine d. Nasal e. None of these
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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38. The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the
a. Parietal bone. b. Occipital bone. c. Sphenoid. d. Temporal bone. e. Ulna.
39. The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are
a. Fontanels. b. Sutures. c. Wormian bones. d. Foramina. e. Fibrocartilaginous discs.
40. The function of the hyoid is to a. Support the larynx. b. Support the clavicle. c. Support the sternum. d. Support the skull. e. Provide leverage for joint
movement.
41. Vertebrae of the a. Thoracic region are fused. b. Cervical region are fused. c. Coccyx are not fused. d. Coccyx are fused. e. Lumbar region are fused.
42. Lumbar vertebrae are _____ massive
and _____ mobile. a. Least; most b. Most; most c. Least; least d. Not; excessively e. Most; least
43. Ridges that intersect the occipital crest are termed
a. Anterior and posterior nuchal lines.
b. Anterior and superior nuchal lines.
c. Inferior and superior nuchal lines.
d. Superior and posterior nuchal lines.
e. Dorsal and ventral nuchal lines.
44. As you proceed from the head down
the vertebral column a. The vertebrae become larger
and heavier. b. The size of the neural arch
decreases. c. The spinous process becomes
longer. d. All of the above e. A and B only
45. Mick gets into a fight and sustains a
blow to the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured by this blow?
a. Ethmoid bone b. Sphenoid bone c. Temporal bone d. Mandible e. Parietal bone
46. In a car accident, Tom suffers a
fracture of the alveolar process of his maxillae. As a consequence of this injury he loses
a. Sight. b. His sense of smell. c. Some teeth. d. The ability to form tears. e. Feeling in his lower jaw.
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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The Appendicular Skeleton
47. The appendicular skeleton consists of all of the following, except the
a. Bones of the arms. b. Bones of the legs. c. Hyoid bone. d. Bones that connect the limbs to the
axial skeleton. e. Bones at the hands and feet.
48. Which of the following is not a
component of the appendicular skeleton? a. Scapula b. Sacrum c. Femur d. Humerus e. Os coxae
49. The pectoral girdle contains the
a. Humerus. b. Manubrium. c. Sternum. d. Scapula. e. Both A and B
50. Which end of the clavicle is the larger
end? a. Sternal b. Acromial c. Medial d. Superior e. Inferior
51. The small, anterior projection of the
scapula that extends over the superior margin of the glenoid fossa is the
a. Scapular spine. b. Coracoid process. c. Acromion. d. Supraspinous fossa. e. Median process.
52. The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the
a. Acromion process. b. Coracoid process. c. Glenoid tuberosity. d. Scapular spine. e. Subscapular fossa.
53. A landmark found near the proximal end of the humerus would be the
a. Medial epicondyle. b. Lateral epicondyle. c. Greater tubercle. d. Olecranon fossa. e. Capitulum.
54. The depression on the anterior medial surface at the distal end of the humerus is the
a. Olecranon fossa. b. Coronoid fossa. c. Radial fossa. d. Intertubercular groove. e. Radial groove.
55. The bones of the forearm include the a. Humerus. b. Femur. c. Tibia. d. Fibula. e. Radius.
56. The olecranon process is found on the a. Humerus. b. Radius. c. Ulna. d. Femur. e. Tibia.
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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57. The process that extends along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the
a. Radial groove. b. Medial epicondyle. c. Lateral epicondyle. d. Deltoid tuberosity. e. Coronoid process.
58. The radius articulates with the
a. Humerus. b. Ulna. c. Scapula. d. Carpals. e. Both B and D
59. The _____ of the radius assists in the
stabilization of the wrist joint. a. Olecranon process b. Coronoid process c. Styloid process d. Radial tuberosity e. Capitulum
60. The bones that form the wrist are the
a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.
61. The bones that form the palms of the hands are the
a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.
62. The bones that form the fingers are the a. Carpals. b. Tarsals. c. Metacarpals. d. Metatarsals. e. Phalanges.
63. Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the
a. Ilium. b. Ischium. c. Pubis. d. Os coxae. e. Femur.
64. Which of the following is not a part of
the pelvis? a. Sacrum b. Coccyx c. Coxae d. Lumbar vertebrae e. Both B and D
65. What bone articulates with the coxa at
the acetabulum? a. Sacrum b. Femur c. Humerus d. Tibia e. Fibula
66. The superior border of the ilium that acts
as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the
a. Anterior iliac spine. b. Acetabulum. c. Posterior superior iliac spine. d. Iliac crest. e. Iliac notch.
67. The greater sciatic notch would be found
on the a. Ilium. b. Ischium. c. Pubis. d. Femur. e. Patella.
68. The ischial spine projects above the
a. Ischial notch. b. Ischial tuberosity. c. Ischial ramus. d. Lesser sciatic notch. e. Pubic symphysis.
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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69. When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the
a. Ischial tuberosities. b. Posterior inferior iliac spines. c. Iliac crests. d. Obturator foramina. e. Inferior rami of the pubis.
70. The pubic and ischial rami encircle the a. Pubic symphysis. b. Lesser sciatic notch. c. Greater sciatic notch. d. Obturator foramen. e. Acetabulum.
71. The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
a. Talus. b. Fibula. c. Patella. d. Calcaneus. e. Coxa.
72. The medial bulge at your ankle is a
projection from the a. Fibula. b. Femur. c. Tibia. d. Calcaneus. e. Talus.
73. The lateral malleolus is found on the
a. Femur. b. Tibia. c. Fibula. d. Patella. e. Calcaneus.
74. The fibula articulates with the
a. Femur. b. Tibia. c. Patella. d. Navicular. e. Both A and B
75. Which of the following is the heel bone?
a. Talus b. Navicular c. Calcaneus d. Cuboid e. Patella
76. Another name for the first toe is
a. Hallux. b. Pollex. c. Tarsal. d. First cuneiform. e. Phalanx.
77. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of the male pelvis? a. Heavy, rough textured bone b. Heart-shaped pelvic inlet c. Angle of pubic arch greater than
100 degrees d. Relatively deep iliac fossa e. Ilia extend farther above sacrum
78. Compared to the male skeleton, the
female skeleton a. Is larger. b. Is heavier. c. Has a greater angle inferior to the
pubic symphysis. d. Has a smaller average cranium. e. Both C and D
79. The only direct connection between the
pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the
a. Clavicle articulates with the humerus.
b. Clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
c. Os coxae articulates with the femur.
d. Vertebral column articulates with the skull.
e. Clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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80. Each os coxae of the pelvic girdle consists of the following three fused bones:
a. Ulna, radius, and humerus b. Ilium, ischium, and pubis c. Femur, tibia, and fibula d. Hamate, capitate, and trapezium e. Femur, patella, and tibia
81. The largest bone of the leg is the a. Tibia. b. Femur. c. Fibula. d. Humerus. e. Calcaneus.
82. What markings found on bones are indicative of nerve pathways?
a. Ridges b. Sulci c. Flanges d. Foramina e. Both B and D
83. The three sides of this bone form a broad
triangle. a. Radius b. Clavicle c. Vertebra d. Sternum e. Scapula
84. The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which two bones?
a. Humerus and ulna b. Scapula and humerus c. Clavicle and scapula d. Clavicle and humerus e. None of the above
85. The fusion of the ilium, ischium, and
ileus form each os coxae. a. True b. False
86. The prominent portion of the humerus
that is a rounded projection on the lateral surface of the epiphysis, near the margin of the humeral head, is known as the
a. Neck. b. Greater tubercle. c. Lesser trochanter. d. Greater trochanter. e. Lesser tubercle.
87. In the anatomical position, the ulna is
located _____ to the radius. a. Distal b. Proximal c. Medial d. Superior e. None of these
88. Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial
_____ holds the head of the radius in the joint.
a. Notch b. Tendon c. Ligament d. Groove e. Muscle
89. The “pinky finger” is known as metacarpal number I.
a. True b. False
90. Each hand has _____ finger bones.
a. 15 b. 20 c. 14 d. 18 e. 10
91. Which bone is not a composite structure
of the pelvis? a. Coccyx b. Ossa coxae c. Sacrum d. Femur e. None of the above
BI 231 Skeleton Pamela VanZanten, MD Practice Test
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92. A male has a _____ pelvic outlet when
compared to the woman’s pelvic outlet. a. Larger b. Longer c. Smaller d. Wider e. Same size
93. The Achilles tendon attaches to which
anatomical structure? a. Cuboid bone b. Calcaneus c. Talus d. Lesser trochanter e. Navicular bone
94. Bone markings are more prominent on a
male skeleton. a. True b. False
95. The only fixed support for the pectoral
girdle is the a. Scapula. b. Clavicle. c. Humerus. d. Sternum. e. Shoulder musculature.
96. Tina falls and fractures her pisiform
bone. What part of her body was injured? a. Upper arm b. Forearm c. Wrist d. Hand e. Shoulder
97. When standing normally, most of your
weight is transmitted to the ground by the a. Talus and calcaneus. b. Talus and cuneiforms. c. Calcaneus and cuneiforms. d. Cuboid and cuneiforms. e. Calacaneus and cuboid.
98. Compared to the hand, the foot a. Has more phalanges. b. Has fewer metatarsals than the
hand has metacarpals. c. Has a more restricted range of
movement. d. Contains ellipsoidal arches that
help distribute body weight. e. Has the same number of tarsals as
the hand has carpals.
99. Because of a developmental defect, Joe is born without clavicles. As a result of this condition, you would expect
a. Him to have less mobility at the shoulder joint.
b. Him to have little use of his arms. c. Him to have an increased range of
motion at the shoulder joint. d. The humerus to not attach at the
scapula. e. A complete lack of mobility of the
shoulder joint.
100. On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and they show definite signs of epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from
a. A young male. b. A young female. c. An elderly male. d. An elderly female. e. Cannot tell on the basis of this
information