Upload
others
View
0
Download
0
Embed Size (px)
Citation preview
Physics
1. A plane is inclined at an angle 30o = with respect to the horizontal. A particle is projected with
a speed u = 2 ms-1 , from the base of the plane, making an angle 15o = with respect to the plane
as shown in the figure. The distance from the base, at which the particle hits the plane is close to : (Take g = 10 ms-2
A. 26 cm B. 14 cm C. 20 cm D. 18 cm Ans. C Solution-
2 sin
tgcos
=
2 sin15 2 2 sin15
tgcos30 3
102
= =
t = 0.12 s
21s 2cos15 t gsin30 t
2= −
21 1s 2 cos15 0.12 10 (0.12)
2 2= −
s 9.195m 19.5 cm= =
2. Space between two concentric conducting spheres of radii a and b (b>a) is filled with a medium of resistivity p. the resistance between the two spheres will be:
A.
1 1
4 a b
+
B.
1 1
2 a b
+
C.
1 1
4 a b
−
D.
1 1
2 a b
−
Ans. C Solution-
for the resistance
dr
dRArea
=
2
drdR
4 r
=
R b
2
0 a
drdR
4 r
=
b
a
1R
4 r
− =
1 1
R4 a b
= −
−
1 1the resis tance is
4 a b
3. In the formula X = 5YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic field, respectively. What are the dimensions of Y in SI units ? A. [M-2 L0 T-4 A-2] B. [M-2 L-2 T6 A3] C. [M-3 L-2 T8 A4]
D. [M-1 L-2 T4 A2] Ans. C
Solution- X = 5 YZ2
2
XY
5Z=
Now, for dimension
2
[X][Y]
[Z ]=
as [X] is capacitance and [Z] is magnetic field.
− −
− −
− −
= =
2 1 2 4
3 3 8 4
1 2
A M L T[Y] M L T A
MA T
[Y] = [M–3 L–2T8A4]
4. A spaceship orbits around a planet at a height of 20 km from its surface. Assuming that only
gravitational field of the planet acts on the spaceship, what will be the number of complete revolutions made by the spaceship in 24 hours around the planet? [Given : Mass of planet = 8 x 1022 kg, Radius of planet = 2 x 106 m, Gravitational constant G = 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2] A. 17
B. 13 C. 11 D. 9 Ans. C
Solution- For gravitational force
2
g
mvF
r=
for speed of spaceship
11 22
6 3
GM 6.67 10 8 10V
r (2 10 20 10 )
− = =
+
V = 1.625 × 103 m/s
2 r
Tv
=
As nT = 24 × 60 × 60
=
6
3
2 (2 10 )n 24 3600
1.625 10
−
=
3
6
24 3600 1.625 10n
2 (2.0 10 )
n = 11
5. A square loop is carrying is steady current I and the magnitude of its magnetic dipole moment is
m. If this square loop is changed to a circular loop and it carries the same current, the magnitude of the magnetic dipole moment of circular loop will be:
A.
2m
B.
4m
C.
3m
D.
m
Ans. B
Solution- m = NIA (magnetic moment)
m = 1 × I × a2
m = Ia2
Now, 4a = 2πr
2a
r =
for the circular Loop,
= =
2 22a 4Iam I
4m
m =
Hence, the new magnetic moment is 4m
6. A coil of self-inductance 10 mH and resistance 0.1 is connected through a switch to a battery
of internal resistance 0.9 . After the switch is closed, the time taken for the current to attain 80%
of the saturation value is: [take In5 = 1.6] A. 0.016 s B. 0.324 s
C. 0.103 s D. 0.002 s Ans. A
Solution-
eq
L 0.0100.01s
R 0.1 0.9 = = =
+
Now, for the current
I = I0(1 – –t/τ)
0.80I0 = I0 (1 – e–t/τ)
e–t/τ = 0.20
−
= = −t
In(0.20) 1.60.01
t 0.016 s=
7. The graph shows how the magnification m produced by a thin lens varies with image distance v. What is the focal length of the lens used?
A.
2b
ac
B.
a
c
C.
2b c
a
D.
b
c Ans. D Solution- For this lens,
1 1 1
1
1
f v u
v v vm
f v u
vm
f
= +
= + = −
= −
When v = a,
1 1a
mf
= − …. (1)
When v = a + b
( )2 1
a bm
f
+= − ….(2)
Equation (2) – (1)
( )
( )
( )
2 1 1 1
1 1
a b am m
f f
a b ac
f f
a bac
f f
bc
f
bc
f
bf
c
+ − = − − −
+= − − +
+= −
= −
=
=
8. In Li+ +, election in first Bohr orbit is excited to a level by a radiation of wave length . When the
ion gets de excited to the ground state in all possible ways (including intermediate emissions), a
total of six spectral lines are observed. What is the value of ?
(Given: h=6.63 x 10-34 Js; c=3 x 108 ms-1)
A. 10.8 nm B. 11.4 nm C. 9.4 nm
D. 12.3 nm Ans. A
Solution- hc
E
=
( )13.6 9 0.85 9
12.75 9
1240 .nm
12.75 9
10.8 nm
hceV
hc
eV
eV
eV
− =
=
=
=
9. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is divided into two unequal parts. The first part has a mass
of 7
8
M and is converted into a uniform disc of radius 2R. The second part is converted into a
uniform solid sphere. Let I1 be the moment of inertia of the disc about its axis and I2 be the moment of inertia of the new sphere about its axis. The ratio I1/I2 is given by :
A. 65 B. 285 C. 140
D. 185 Ans. C
Solution- for the first part
2 21 1 1
1 1 7MI M R (2R)
2 2 8
= =
2 21
7 7I 4MR MR
16 4= =
2 2 2
2
2 M R 2 M R MRI
5 8 2 5 8 4 80
= = =
2
1
22
7MR
I 74 80 1401I 4MR
80
= = =
1
2
I140
I=
10. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of an equilateral triangular loop of side 1 m
which is carrying a current of 10 A is : [Take 7 24 10o NA − −= ]
A. 3
T
B. 1
T
C. 9
T
D. 18
T Ans. D Solution-
a a
x tan302 2 3
= =
For a single wire
0IB (sin60 sin60 )
4 (x)
= +
74 10 10 3 3
B2 21
42 3
− = +
B = 6 × 10–6T
Net magnetic field = 3 × B
= 18 × 10–6T
= 18μT
11. The correct figure that shows, schematically, the wave pattern produced by superposition of two waves of frequencies 9 Hz and 11 Hz, is:
A.
B.
C.
D. Ans. D
Solution- fbeat = f1 – f2
= 11 – 9
= 2 Hz
Now, for time period
beat
1 1T
f 2Hz= =
T = 0.5 s
12. The elastic limit of brass is 379 MPa. What should be the minimum diameter of a brass rod if it is to support a 400 N load without exceeding its elastic limit ?
A. 0.90 mm B. 1.00 mm C. 1.16 mm D. 1.36 mm Ans. C
Solution- Stress = 379 MPa
Force ⇒ F = 400 N
The minimum diameter is d
2
ForceStress
d
2
=
6
2
400379 10
d
2
=
d = 1.15 × 10–3 m
d 1.15 mm=
13. In free space, a particle A of charge 1 C is held fixed at a point P. Another particle B of the
same charge and mass 4 g is kept at a distance of 1 mm from P. If B is released, then is velocity
at a distance of 9 mm from P is :
[Take 9 2 21
9 104 o
NM C
−= ]
A. 3.0 x 104 m/s
B. 1.5 x 102 m/s C. 2.0 x 103 m/s D. 1.0 m/s
Ans. C
Solution- Using conservation of mechanical energy
ΔU + ΔK = 0
–ΔU = ΔK
21mv U
2= −
12 9 12
6 2
3 2
1 9 10 10 9 10 104 10 v
2 10 9 10
− − −−
− −
= −
3v 2 10 m / s=
14. A simple pendulum of length L is placed between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor having
electric field E, as shown in figure. Its bob has mass m and charge q. The time period of the pendulum is given by:
A.
2
2
2L
qEg
m
+
B.
22
L
qEg
m
−
C.
2 22
2
2L
q Eg
m
−
D.
2L
qEg
m
+
Ans. A Solution-
Now, for geff
2 2effmg (mg) (eE)= +
as 2
eff 2
T 2 2g qE
gm
= =
+
15. One mole of an ideal gas passes through a process where pressure and volume obey the relation
21
12
oo
VP P
V
= −
. Here Po and Vo are constants. Calculate the change in the temperature of the
gas if its volume change from Vo to 2Vo.
A.
1
2
o oPV
R
B.
5
4
o oPV
R
C.
1
4
o oPV
R
D.
3
4
o oPV
R Ans. B
Solution- As 2
00
V1P P 1
2 V
= −
at V = V0
01 0
P1P P 1
2 2
= − =
at V = 2V0
2
2 0 0
1 1 7P P 1 P
2 2 8
= − =
02
7PP
8=
For temperature at V0
00
0 02
7P2V
P P78TnR 4 nR
= =
Change in Temp = T2 – T1
0 0P V7 1
4 2 nR
= −
0 0P V5T
4 nR =
16. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of 50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the observer after crossing him? (Take velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s) A. 750 Hz
B. 857 Hz C. 807 Hz D. 1143 Hz Ans. A
Solution-
For apparent frequency
app 0
V 0f f
V 50
− =
−
0
3501000 f
350 50=
−
0
6f 1000 Hz
7=
0
Vf f
V 50
=
+
350 6
f 1000350 50 7
= +
7 6
f 1000 750Hz8 7
= =
17. When heat Q is supplied to a diatomic gas of rigid molecules, at constant volume its
temperature increases by T. The heat required to produce the same change in temperature, at a
constant pressure is :
A.
3
2Q
B.
7
5Q
C.
2
3Q
D.
5
3Q
Ans. B
Solution- for diatomic gas
p
7RC
2=
v
5RC
2=
For constant volume
Qv = nCv ΔT
For constant pressure
Qp = nCpΔT
p p p
v v v
Q nC T C 7R 2
Q nC T C 2 5R
→ = = =
p
v
Q 7
Q 5=
p v
7Q Q
5=
18. In an experiment, brass and steel wires of length 1 m each with areas of cross section 1 mm2
are used. The wires are connected in series and one end of the combined wire is connected to a rigid support and other end is subjected to elongation. The stress required to produce a net elongation of 0.2 mm is, [Given, the Young’s Modulus for steel and brass are, respectively, 120x109 N/m2 and 60x109 N/m2]
A. 1.2X106 N/m2 B. 0.2X106 N/m2 C. 8.0X106 N/m2 D. 4.0X106 N/m2
Ans. C
Solution- A = 1 mm2
X = 0.2 mm = 2 × 10–4 m
1m=
Now, for spring constant
9
1 11
1
Y AYA 120 10 AK K
L L 1
= → = =
9
2 22
2
Y A 60 10 AK
L 1
= =
91 2eq
1 2
K K 120 60K 10 A
K K 120 60
= =
+ +
Keq = 40 × 109A
Now, for force
F = (40 × 109)A × (0.2 × 10–3)
6
2
F N8 10
A m=
19. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 1.0 ms-1. The cross-sectional area of the tap is 10-4 m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water and that the flow is streamlined. The cross-sectional area of the stream, 0.15 m below the tap would be : (Take g=10 ms-2)
A. 1x10-5 m2 B. 2x10-5 m2
C. 5x10-4 m2 D. 5x10-5 m2
Ans. D
Solution- u = 1 m/s
A = 10–4 m2
h = 0.15 m
using equation of continuity
A1V1 = A2V2
10—4 × 1 = A2V2 ….(1)
Using Bernoulli’s equation
( )2 21 2
1P V V gh P
2+ − + =
2 22 1V V 2gh→ = +
2 22V 1 2 9.8 0.15= +
V2 = 2 m/s
as A2 × 2 = 10—4
5 22A 5 10 m−=
20. A metal coin of mass 5 g and radius 1 cm is fixed to a thin stick AB of negligible mass as shown in the figure. The system is initially at rest. The constant torque, that will make the system rotate about AB at 25 rotations per second in 5s, is close to :
A. 4.0 x 10-6 Nm B. 1.6 x 10-5 Nm C. 2.0 x 10-5 Nm
D. 7.9 x 10-6 Nm Ans. C
Solution- m = 5 gm = 0.005 kg
r = 1 cm = 0.01 m
f
25 225rpm rod / s
1
= =
−
= = =
f 0 25 210 rad / s
t (1) 5
25MR I
4
= =
3 255 10 (10 ) 10
4− − =
51.963 10 N.m− =
τ = 2 × 10–5 N.m
21. The figure represents a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode. The breakdown voltage of
the Zener diode is 6 V and the load resistance is, 4LR k= . The series resistance of the circuit is
1iR k= . If the battery voltage VB varies from 8 V to 16 V, what are the minimum and maximum
values of the current through Zener diode?
A. 0.5 mA; 8.5 mA
B. 1.5 mA; 8.5 mA
C. 0.5 mA; 6 mA D. 1 mA; 8.5 mA Ans. B
Solution- In breakdown, for zener
VB = Vz = 8V
3L 3
6i 1.5 10 A
4 10
−= =
3R 3
(8 6)i 2 10 A
1 10
−
−
−= =
IZenr = iR – iL = (2 – 1.5) × 10–3 = 0.5 × 10–3A
For VB = 16V
IL = 1.5 × 10–3A
3 3R
(16 6)i 10 A 10 10 A
1− −−
= =
IZ = (10 – 1.5) mA = 8.5mA
22. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5 and respectively. At t = 0, a
sample has the same number of the two nuclei. The time taken for the ratio of the number of nuclei
to become
21
e
will be :
A. 2/
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. 1/ Ans. B
Solution- for A
5 tA 0N N e− =
for B, tB 0N N e−=
5 t
0At
B 0
N eN
N N e
−
−→ =
4 tA2
B
N 1e
N e
− = =
2 4 te e− − =
2 4 t− =−
1
t2
=
23. A bullet of mass 20 g has an initial speed of 1 ms-1, just before it starts penetrating a mud wall of thickness 20 cm. IF the wall offers a mean resistance of 2.5 x 10-2 N, the speed of the bullet after emerging from the other side of the wall is close to :
A. 0.7 ms-1 B. 0.3 ms-1 C. 0.1 ms-1 D. 0.4 ms-1
Ans. A
Solution- mass, m = 20g = 0.020 kg
u = 1 m/s
V = ?
for 2
22.5 10a 1.25 m / s
0.020
−− = = −
using third equation
V2 – u2 = 2 as
V2 – 12 = 2 (–1.25) (0.20)
1
V 0.707 m / s2
= =
24. A cubical block of side 0.5 m floats on water with 30% of its volume under water. What is the maximum weight that can be put on the block without fully submerging it under water ?
[Take, density of water = 103 kg/m3] A. 30.1 kg B. 65.4 kg C. 87.5 kg D. 46.3 kg Ans. C
Solution-
For the maximum weight
Mg = ρL (extra volume of liquid displaced) g
M = 103 (0.502 × 0.7 × 0.5)
M = 87.5 kg
maximum weight is 87.5 kg
25. A submarine experiences a pressure of 5.05 x 106 Pa at a depth of d1 in a sea. When it goes further to a depth of d2, it experiences a pressure of 8.08 x 106 Pa. Then d2 –d1 is approximately
(density of water = 103 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms-2): A. 400 m B. 500 m C. 300 m D. 600 m
Ans. C
Solution- as for the pressure
P1 = P0 + ρgd1
5.05 × 106 = P0 + 103 × 10 × d1 ….(1)
For the depth d2
8.08 × 106 = P0 + 103 × 10 × d2 ….(2)
→ (d2 – d1)
(8.08 – 5.05) × 106 = 103 × 10 × (d2 – d1)
2 1d d 300 m− =
26. Light is incident normally on a completely absorbing surface with an energy flux of 25 Wcm-2. If
the surface has an area of 25 cm2, the momentum transferred to the surface in 40 min time
duration will be : A. 5.0 x 10-3 Ns B. 3.5 x 10-6 Ns C. 6.3 x 10-4 Ns D. 1.4 x 10-6 Ns
Ans.
Solution- Intensity, 2
WI 25
cm=
2 2
WI 25
(10 m)−=
4
2
WI 25 10
m=
For momentum transferred
Force = Pressure × Area
Δ momentum = force × time
I
A timeC
=
4
4
8
25 1025 10 40 60
3 10
−=
− = 3momentum 5.0 10 N.s
27. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of the slit’s width is 4 : 1. The ratio of the intensity of maxima to minima, close to the central fringe on the screen, will be:
A. 25 : 9
B. ( )
4
3 1 :16+
C. 9 : 1 D. 4 : 1
Ans. C
Solution- for the ration of width
1
2
W 4
W 1=
01 1
2 2 0
4II W 4
I W 1 I→ = = =
( ) ( )2 2
max 1 2 0 0I I I 2 I I= + = + = 9 I0
For Imin
( )2
min 1 2I I I= −
( )2
0 02 I I= − = I0
max 0
min 0
I 9I 9
I I 1= =
28. The time dependence of the position of a particle of mass m = 2 is given by ( ) 2ˆ ˆ2 3r t ti t j− . Its
angular momentum, with respect to the origin, at time t = 1 is :
A. ( )ˆ ˆ34 k i− −
B. ( )ˆ ˆ48 i j+
C. 36 k̂
D. -48 k̂ Ans. D
Solution- m = 2 kg
2ˆ ˆr 2 i 3t j= + −
For the angular momentum
dr ˆ ˆV 2i 6tjdt
= = −
at t = 2s
ˆ ˆV 2i 12j= −
L m(r V)=
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ2(2i 12j) (2i 12j)= − −
ˆ24k 2= −
2ˆ48k kg.m / s=−
29. Two blocks A and B of masses mA = 1 kg and mB = 3 kg are kept on the table as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and between B and the surface of the table is also 0.2. The maximum force F that can be applied on B horizontally, so that the block A does not slide over the block B is : [Take g = 10 m/s2]
A. 16 N B. 40 N
C. 8 N D. 12 N Ans. A
Solution- For the upper block
Using second law of motion
m × a = μmg
a = 0.2 × 10 = 2 m/s2
Now, F – 8 = 2 × 4 (f = 4 × 0.2 × 10 f = 8 N)
F = 16 N
The force is 16 N.
30. A 2 mW laser operates at a wavelength of 500 nm. The number of photons that will be emitted per second is : [Given Planck’s constant h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, speed of light c = 3.0 x 108 m/s]
A. 5 x 1015
B. 1 x 1016 C. 1.5 x 1016 D. 2 x 1016
Ans. C
Solution- For energy of each photon
34 8
9
nc 6.62 10 3 10E
500 10
−
−
= =
E = 3.972 × 10–19 J
no. of photons 3
19
2 10
3.972 10
−
−
=
= 1.5 × 1016
Chemistry
1. 1 g of a non-volatile non – electrolyte solute is dissolved in 100 g of two different solvents A and B whose ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of the elevation in their boiling
points, ( )
( )
b
b
T A
T B, is :
A. 5 : 1 B. 1 : 5 C. 10 : 1 D. 1 : 0.2
Ans. B
Solution- Elevation in boiling point has the formula (represented by ΔT)
ΔT = Kb m, where Kb is the molal boiling point elevation constant and m is the concentration
of the solute in the solution.
Molality of solution A, mA = =
110
100
1000
[ divide by 1000 to convert in kg)
Similarly, molality of solution B, B
1m 10
100
1000
= =
= =
b A b A b A
B A b B b B
( T ) (K m) (K ) mA
( T ) (K m) (K ) mB
1 10
5 10=
1
5=
∴ 1 : 5
2. The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 and K2[NiCl4],respectively, are:
A. 0.4 0.8o tand− −
B. 0.4 1.2o tand− −
C. 0.6 0.8o tand− −
D. 2.4 1.2o tand− −
Ans. A
Solution- CFSE energy depends on the kind of ligand strong or weak. In case of weak ligand, pairing
does not take place. In case of strong ligand, pairing happens.
22 6 2 2 6[Fe(H O) ]Cl [Fe(H O) ] 2Cl+ −+
+ +2 22 6ln[Fe(H O) ] , Fe oxidation state
Fe : [Ar] 3d6 4s2
Fe+2 : [Ar] 3d6 ⇒ t2g will have (2,1,1)
and eg will have (1,1)
∴ CFSE = –0.4 × 4Δ0 + 0.6 × 2Δ0
0 0 01.6 1.2 0.4= − + = −
K2 [NiCl4] 2 K+ + [NiCl4]2–
Ni is in +2 oxidation state in [Ni Cl4]2–
Ni+2 → [Ar] 3d8 and Cl– is a weak ligand ⇒ no pairing
∴ t2g → (2,1,1) and eg (2,2)
∴ CFSE = –0.6 × 4 Δt + 0.4 × Δt (as it has tetrahedral geometry)
t0.8= −
3. The correct match between Item – I and Item – II is :
Item – I Item – II
(a) High density
polythene
(I) Peroxide
catalyst
(b) Polyacrylonitrile (II) Condensation
at high
temperature
& pressure
(c) Novolac (III) Ziegler –
Natta Catalyst
(d) Nylon 6 (IV) Acid or base
catalyst
A. (a) → (III), (b) → (I), (c) → (IV), (d) → (II)
B. (a) → (IV), (b) → (II), (c) → (I), (d) → (III)
C. (a) → (III), (b) → (I), (c) → (II), (d) → (IV)
D. (a) → (II), (b) → (IV), (c) → (I), (d) → (III)
Ans. A
Solution- High density polythene (HDPE) is manufactured by Ziegler – natta catalyst
Polyacrylonitrile is an example of addition polymer.
The addition polymerization of acrylonitrile in presence of a peroxide catalyst leads to the
formation of polyacrylonitrile
Novolac is formed with the reaction of phenol or substituted phenol with formaldehyde.
Nylon 6 is a polymer developed from caprolactum at very high temperature and pressure,
when condensation happens Nylon 6 is formed.
4. The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following nucleophiles is:
(a) 3 2CH CO
(b) H2O
(c) 3 2CH SO
(d) O H
A. (a) < (d) < (c) < (b) B. (d) < (a) < (c) < (b)
C. (b) < (c) < (a) < (d) D. (b) < (c) < (d) < (a)
Ans. C
Solution-
OH is highly nucleophilic as the electron density is on oxygen atom and no resonance
Next would be 3CH COO because in 3 3CH SO negative charge is dispersed on 3 oxygen atoms
as a result of resonance, where as in 3CH COO , electron is dispersed on only two oxygen
atoms. Hence, the electron density would be more on 3CH COO and hence more
nucleophilicity
The least would be of H2O as there is no negative charge. Hence the order is
2 3 3 3H O CH SO CH COO OH
5. The correct option among the following is:
A. Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis. B. Colloidal medicines are more effective because they have small surface area.
C. Brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster if the viscosity of the solution is very high. D. Addition of alum to water makes it unfit for drinking.
Ans. A
Solution- Alum is added in muddy water to purify it.
Alum (aluminium sulphate), when added to raw water reacts with bicarbonate alkalinities
present in water and forms a gelatinous precipitate. This floe attracts other fine particles and
suspended raw material in raw water and settles down at the bottom of the container and
water is purified.
Colloidal medicines are more effective because of large surface area .Large surface area
makes adsorption rate more.
Coagulation of lyophoboic sols con be done by different methods
— electrophoresis
— mixing two oppositely charged sols
— By boiling
— Dialysis
— addition of electrolyte
6. The noble gas that does NOT occur in the atmosphere is :
A. He B. Kr C. Ra
D. Ne
Ans. C
Solution- The radio active decay of radium (226) results in formation of Radon, hence Radon is not
naturally occurring. All other noble gas occur in atmosphere.
7. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plutonium, respectively, are: A. 6 and 7 B. 4 and 6 C. 6 and 4 D. 7 and 6
Ans. A
Solution- Uranium and plutonium have multiple oxidation states.
Uranium exists in aqueous solution in the +3, +4, +5, +6 oxidation states, +6 is the most stable
oxidation state of Uranium.
Plutonium has +3, +4, +5, +6, +7 oxidation states.
∴ maximum for Uranium → +6 and plutonium → +7
8. Compound A (C9H10O) shows positive iodoform test. Oxidation of A with KMnO4/KOH gives acid B(C8H6O4). Anhydride of B is used for the preparation of phenolphthalein. Compound A is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. A
Solution- The iodoform test is a test for the presence of carbonyl compounds with the structure of R
COCH3 and alcohols with the structure RCH(OH) CH3.
Hence (B) cannot be answer
9. The major product ‘Y’ in the following reaction is:
A.
B.
C.
D. Ans. B
Solution- NaOCl
3 H
O||
ph—C—CH ⎯⎯⎯→
PH CH3
O
X is
10. The number of pentagons in C60 and trigons (triangles) in white phosphorus, respectively, are:
A. 20 and 4 B. 12 and 4 C. 12 and 3 D. 20 and 3
Ans. B
Solution- White phosphorous → P4
C60 is Buckminster fullerene
It has 20 hexagons & 12 pentagons with a carbon atom which has one π-bond and two single
bonds at each vertex of each polygon and a bond along each polygon edge.
11. For the reaction of H2 with I2, the rate constant is 2.5 x 10-4dm3 mol-1 S-1 at 327o C and 1.0 dm3 mol-1 S-1at 527oC. The activation energy for the reaction, in kJ mol-1 is:
(R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
A. 166 B. 150 C. 59 D. 72
Ans. A
Solution- Let’s assume the rate constant as K1 and K2
K1 = 2.5 × 10–4 dm3 mol–1 s–1
K2 = 1 dm3 mol–1 s–1
= −
2
1 1 2
K Ea 1 1log
K 2.303K T T
−
= −
4
1 Ea 1 1log
2.3 8.314 600 8002.5 10
=
10.4 Ea 1log
2.5 2.3 8.314 2400
=
310
Ea 1log 4 10
2.3 8.3 2400
⇒ Ea = 164.93 kg/mol
12. The correct statement is : A. Sodium cyanide cannot be used in the metallurgy of silver. B. Zincite is a carbonate ore. C. Zone refining process is used for the refining of titanium. D. Aniline is a froth stabilizer.
Ans. D
Solution- Zincite : ZnO is the mineral form of Zinc oxide. It is not a carbonate ore.
→ Sodium cyanide is used in metallurgy of silver. The process of extraction of silver is called
as cyanide process. The ore is crushed, concentrated and then treated with sodium cyanide
solution.
→ Aniline is a froth stabilizer, stabilizes the froth and enhance the non-wettability of the
mineral particles. Mineral particles become wet by oils while gangue particles by water.
Zone refining is a method employed for Ge, Si, B, Ga, it is not used for titanium.
13. The minimum amount of O2 (g) consumed per gram of reactant is for the reaction:
[Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
A. 3 8 2 2 2( ) 5O ( ) 3 ( ) 4 ( )C H g g CO g H O I+ → +
B. 2 2 34 ( ) 3 ( ) 2 ( )Fe s O g Fe O s+ →
C. 22 ( ) ( ) 2 ( )Mg s O g MgO s+ →
D. 4 2 4 10( ) 5 ( ) ( )P s O g PO s+ →
Ans. B
Solution- 2 2 34Fe(s) 3O (g) 2Fe O (s)+ →
4 × 56 = 3 × 32
2
3 321gm of Fe react with gm of O
4 56
=
= 0.42 gm
Similarly
4 2 4 10P 5O P O+ →
1 gm of P4 react with 5 32
a 131 5
=
3 8 2 3 2C H 5O 3CO 4H O+ → +
1 gm of C3H8 react with 5 32
b 1(12 3 8 1)
=
+
22Mg O MgO+ →
1 gm of Mg react with324
0.672 24
= =
0.42 is least
14. The major product obtained in the given reaction is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. D
Solution- AlCl3 is used in friedel craft alkylation.
15. The correct statements among (a) to (d) are:
(a) saline hydrides produce H2 gas when reacted with H2O. (b) reaction of LiAlH4 with BF3 leads to B2H6 (c) PH3 and CH4 are electron – rich and electron – precise hydrides, respectively.
(d) HF and CH4 are called as molecular hydrides. A. (c) and (d) only B. (a), (b), (c) and (d). C. (a), (c) and (d) only. D. (a), (b) and (c) only
Ans. B
Solution-→ Saline hydrides such as NaH, LiH etc. react with water to form a base and hydrogen gas.
2 2MH H O MOH H (g)+ → +
The reaction is violent and produce fire
4 3 3 2 63Li AlH 4BF 3LiF 4AlF 2B H .→ + → + +
→ hydrides is an anion of hydrogen (H–) H is formed when one atom is hydrogen bonded to
another electropositive element.
∴ HF and CH4 are called as molecular hydrides
a,b and d correct
(C) is also correct as PH3 and CH4 are electron rich and electron precise hydrides.
Note that PH3 has no hybridization and CH4 has perfectly filled octet
16. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral series of hydrogen spectrum is found to be
about 9. The spectral series are:
A. Balmer and Brackett B. Paschen and Pfund
C. Brackett and Pfund
D. Lyman and Paschen
Ans. D
Solution- Lyman is when n1 = 2
Paschen is when n1 = 3
For shortest wavelength, →2n
−
=
−
2
2
1 113.6 2
( E lyman)max 2
1 1( E paschen)max13.6 2
4
9
1=
17. Points I, II and III in the following plot respectively correspond to
(Vmp : most probable velocity)
A. Vmp of N2 (300 K); Vmp of O2 (400K); Vmp of H2 (300 K)
B. Vmp of O2 (400 K); Vmp of N2 (300K); Vmp of H2 (300 K) C. Vmp of N2 (300 K); Vmp of H2 (300K); Vmp of O2 (400 K) D. Vmp of H2 (300 K); Vmp of N2 (300K); Vmp of O2 (400 K)
Ans. A
Solution- We know that
Most probable velocity
mp
2RTV
M=
R and T is constant
mp
1V
M , where M is the molar mass
Now,
( )
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
H ,N ,O2 2 22 14 13
M increases
V decreasesmp
M:
when R & T is constant
Here T is different consider T
Vmp of O2, Vmp of N2, Vmp of H2
2R 400 2R 300 2R 300
32 28 2
Vmp of N2 < Vmp of O2 < Vmp of H2
18. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies is :
A. Mn < Ti < Zn < Ni B. Zn < Ni < Mn < Ti C. Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn D. Ti < Mn < Zn < Ni
Ans. C
Solution- First ionization enthalpy is the energy required to remove an electron from the outer most
orbit.
As we go from left to right across a period, internuclear force increases, hence the attraction
between outer most electron and nucleus increases. As a result, more energy is required to
remove an electron from the atom which lies on right side of periodic table.
That is, ionization enthalpy increases as we go from left to right.
Position of Mn, Ti, Zn and Ni in periodic table is
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn
IE1 order Zn > Ni > Mn > Ti
19. For the reaction,
2 2 3
1
16
2 ( ) ( ) 2 ( ),
57.2 mol and
K 1.7 10c
SO g O g SO g
H kJ −
+
= −
=
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? A. The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as the pressure increases. B. The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of reaction going to completion and so no
catalyst is required. C. The equilibrium constant decreases as the temperature increases.
D. The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant
Ans. B
Solution- 2So2(g) + O2(g) 2SO2(g)
All the statements can be explained by le chatelier’s principle.
It state that if constrain (P,T, or concentration) is applied to a system in equilibrium, the
equilibrium will shift and as to tend to counteract the effect of the constraint.
A) When pressure is volume
Hence, the number of moles per unit volume of various reactants and product will increase
Hence, the equilibrium will shift in the direction where there is decrease in number of mole
of gases
B) Incorrect as catalyst is required in the reaction.
V O2 5
2 2 22SO O 2SO (g)+
Here V2O5 acts as a catalyst.
D) The equilibrium constant remains unchanged with addition of inert gas
C) The equilibrium constant will decrease with increase in temperature because high
temperature will help in achieving equilibrium easily.
20. Number of stereo centres present in linear and cyclic structures of glucose are respectively:
A. 5 & 4 B. 5 & 5 C. 4 & 4
D. 4 & 5
Ans. D
Solution- Glucose: C6H12O6
Stereo center 4 different atoms or group of atoms present and sp3 carbon C1,2,3 and 4 are
stereocentre.
Cyclic
In cyclic, there are 5 stereocentre as marked above
21. Which of the following is NOT a correct method of the preparation of benzylamine from
cyanobenzene ? A. H2 /Ni B. (i) SnCl2 + HCl(gas) (ii) NaBH4 C. (i) HCl/H2O (ii) NaBH4 D. (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+
Ans. B
Solution-
Sn/HCl + cyanide is Stephen’s reduction
R—CN SnCl /HCl23NaBH4
O||
R—CHR—C—H⎯⎯⎯→⎯⎯⎯⎯→
In this case Ph—CH2—NH2 won’t form
22. In chromatography, which of the following statements is INCORRECT for Rf ? A. The value of Rf can not be more than one.
B. Higher Rf value means higher adsorption. C. Higher Rf value depends on the type of chromatography D. Rf value is dependent on the mobile phase.
Ans. B
Solution- Rf in chromatography is retardation factor.
Rf values are strongly dependent on the nature of the adsorbent and solvent system.
Low polarity compounds have higher Rf values than high polarity compounds, because low
polarity means low adsorption and hence more mobility.
23. The major product ‘Y’ in the following reaction is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. B
Solution-
Major product is the result of stable carbocation.
24. Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is :
A. Frog B. Reducing smog C. Acid rain
D. Oxidising smog
Ans. D
Solution- Sunlight will oxidise. Oxidizing smog will form when the primary pollutants are transformed
through photochemical reaction into secondary pollutants (oxidant gases, ozone and
peroxyacetal nitrate)
Acid rain is the result of rain
Fog happens in winter
Smog → winter.
25. Which of the following graphs between molar conductivity ( m ) versus C is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. D
Solution- m
1
c
Both NaCl and KCl are strong electrolytes.
Less the size more hydration
hydration of Na+ > hydration of K+
conductance of Na+ < conductance of K+
26. The difference between Δ H and Δ U (Δ H - Δ U), when the combustion of one mole of heptanes
(1) is carried out at a temperature T, is equal to :
A. -3 RT B. 4 RT C. 3 RT D. -4 RT
Ans. D
Solution- Heptane → C7H16
C7H16(l) + 11 O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 8H2O(l)
Δng is calculated only for gas
Δng = 7 – 11 = – 4
ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT
− = −H U (7 11)RT
= – 4RT
27. Which of these factors does not govern the stability of a conformation in acyclic compounds ?
A. Torsional strain
B. Angle strain C. Steric interactions D. Electrostatic forces of interaction
Ans. B
Solution- In acyclic, there is no angle strain.
There can definitely be torsional strain which is caused because of repulsion of electrons,
steric interactions and electrostatic force of attraction will be present.
28. A hydrated solid X on heating initially gives a monohydrated compound Y. Y upon heating above
373 K leads to an anhydrous white powder Z. X and Z, respectively, are :
A. Washing soda and soda ash B. Baking soda and dead burnt plaster. C. Washing soda and dead burnt plaster. D. Baking soda and soda ash.
Ans. A
Solution-
Soda ash is Na2CO3
Both are white in colour
Now, based on Z, X can be either
It is given that Y is monohydrated
Na2CO3.H2O is Y
X = NaCO3.10H2O (washing soda)
Z = Na2CO3 (soda ash)
29. The INCORRECT statement is:- A. The spin –only magnetic moment of [Ni (NH3)4 (H2O)2]2 is 283 BM. B. The spin –only magnetic moments of [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]2+ are nearly similar.
C. The color of [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ is violet as it absorbs the yellow light. D. The gemstone, ruby, has Cr3+ ions occupying the octahedral sites of beryl.
Ans. D
Solution- 2
2 6Fe(H O)+
Fe+2
Fe : [Ar] 3d6 4s2
Fe+2: [Ar] 3d6 (H2O is a weak ligand no pairing)
Hybridization: sp3d2
n = 4
4(4 2)= +
24 2 6 B.M.= =
[Cr(H2O)6]2+
Cr+2 : [Ar] 3d4
n = 4
correct statement
For [Ni(NH3)4 (H2O)2]2+
n = 2 2(2 2) 2.83 BM= + =
In gemstone, ruby has Cr+3 ion occupying the octahedral sites of Aluminium oxide (Al2O3)
normally occupied by Al+3 ion and not Cr+3ions
This is incorrect.
30. The pH of a 0.02M (NH4OH)=10-5 and log 2 = 0.301
A. 2.65 B. 4.65 C. 4.35 D. 5.35
Ans. D
Solution- NH4Cl → strong acid
NH4OH → weak base
For strong acid and weak base salt
K C
Hkb
+ =
14 2
5
10 2 10[H ]
10
− −+
−
=
( )1/2
1110 2−=
111log[H ] log2 10
2+ − =
2log[H ] log2 11+ = −
= 0.3 – 11 = –10.7
log[H ] 3.35+ =−
pH = – log [H+] =5.35
Mathematics
1. The smallest naturel number n, such that the coefficient of x in the expansion of n
2
2
1x
x
+
9x
is nC23, is:
A. 38 B. 23 C. 58 D. 35
Ans. A
Sol. Given that
The coefficient of x in the expansion of n
2
3
1x
x
+
is nC23. Find the smallest hadural number n =
?
General term
Tr+1 = nCr X2n–2r X–3r
2n – 5r = 1 2n = 5t + 1
2n 1
r5
− =
n n232n 1
5
coeff of x C C−
= =
2n 1 2n 1
23 or n 235 5
− − = − =
2n – 1 = 115 n = 38
n = 58 n = 38 is smallest
2. If 5x + 9 = 0 is the directrix of the hyperbola 162 – 9y2 = 144, then the corresponding focus is
A. 5
,03
B. (–5, 0) C. 5
,03
−
D. (5, 0)
Ans. B
Sol. The given eq- of hyperbola
2 2x y
19 16− =
Compare the origin eq- of hyperbola and find out a,b and e
a = 3, b = 4
2
2
2
be 1
a= +
2 16e 1
9= +
5
e3
=
Focus is (–3e, 0) = (–5 , 0)
3. The angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC are in A.P and a : b = 1 : 3. If c = 4 cm, then the area C
in eq. of this triangle is
A. 4 3 B. 4 / 3 C. 2 / 3 D. 2 3
Ans. D
Sol. 2B = A + C
and A + B + C = π
3B = π
B3
=
2
A C3
+ =
a 1
b 3=
2RsinA 1
2RsinB 3=
sinA 1
sinB 3=
1
sinA2
=
A = 30
a 2,b 2 3,c 4 = = =
1
2 3 2 2 32
= =
4. If the tangent to the curve = −2
xy ; x R;
x 3 (x 3), at a point (α, β) (0, 0) on it is parallel
to the line 2x + 6y – 11 = 0, then:
A. |6α + 2β| = 19 B. |2α + 6β| = 19 C. |2α + 6β| = 11 D. |6α + 2β| =
9
Ans. A
Sol. 2
xy
x 3=
−
Differentiable with respected to X in the pint (α, β) 2
2 2( , )
dy 3
dx ( 3)
− −= −
Given
2
2 2
3 1
3( 3)
− − −=
−
0, 3( 0)=
α = 3 and β = 1
2
Hence |6α + 2β| =19
5. Minimum number of times a fair coin be tossed so that the probability of getting at least one
head is more than 90% is:
A. 8 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7
Ans. D
Sol. Pr (at least on head in n tosses)
= 1 – Pr (no head in n tosses)
n
11
2
= −
So, Just we solved
n
1 991
2 100
−
n
1 1
2 100
n 7 =
6. The negation of the Boolean expression ~SV(~r s) is equivalent to:
A. ~ s ^ ~ r B. r C. s ^ r D. s v r
Ans. C
Sol. ~ (~ S (~r s))
S (r ~ s)
(S r) (s ~ s)
(S r) (s)
(s r)
7. The number of real roots of the equation 5 + |2x - 1| = 2x (2x – 2) is:
A. 3 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4
Ans. B
Sol. 5 + 2x – 1 = 2x (2x – 2)
If x2 1
5 + 2x – 1 = 2x (2x – 2)
Let 2x = t
5 + t – 1 = t (t – 2)
t = 4, – 1
2x = 4
x = 2
only solution
If 2x < 1
5 + 1 – 2x = 2x (2x – 2)
Let 2x = t
5 + 1 – t = t (t – 2)
6 – t = t2 – 2t
t2 – 3t – 6 = 0
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0
t = 2, 3
2x = 3, 2x = – 2
Rejected
8. The tangent and normal to the ellipse 3x2 + 5y2 = 32 at the point P(2, 2) meet the x-axis at Q and
R, respectively. Then the area (in sq. units) of the triangle PQR is:
A.
68
15
B.
34
15
C.
16
3
D.
14
3
Ans. A
Sol. The equation
3x2 + 5y2 = 32
d.w.r. to x
6x + 5y y = 0
3x
y5y
− =
at the point P(3, 2)
3
y (2,2)5
− =
Tangent (y –2) = 3 16
(x 2) Q ,05 3
− −
Normal 5 4
(y 2) (x 2) R ,03 5
− = −
Area 21 68(QR)x QR
2 15= = =
9. Let λ be a real number for which the system of linear equations
6x y z+ + =
4 2x y z + − = −
3 2 4 5x y z+ − = −
has infinitely many solutions. Then λ is a root of the quadratic equation :
A. 2 6 0 + − =
B. 2 6 0 − − =
C. 2 3 4 0 − − =
D. 2 3 4 0 + − =
Ans. B
Sol. Δ = 0
1 1 1
4 0
3 2 4
= − =
−
1[ 4 ) 1[ 16 3 ) 1[8 3 ) 0− + − − + + + =
on solving we get 3 =
go by the option
Only α option will be satisfy by 3.=
Hence, Answer will be 2 6 0. −− =
10. A perpendicular is drawn from a point on the line 1 1
2 1 1
x y z− += =
− to the plane 3x y z+ + =
such that the foot of the perpendicular Q also lies on the plane 3x y z− + = . Then the co-
ordinates of Q are : A. (2,0,1) B. (4,o,-1) C. (1,0,2) D. (-1,0,4)
Ans. A
Sol. x 1 y 1 z
2 1 1
− += = =
−
Let a point P on the line is
( 1, 1, )+ −− +
Foot of ⊥ Q is given by
x 2 1 y 1 z ( 3)
1 1 1 3
− − ++ − − −= = =
Q lies on x + y + z = 3 and x – y + z = 3
x + z = 3 and y = 0
2 3
y 0 1 03
− + = + = =
Q is (2,0,1)
11. Let a, b and c be in G.P. with common ratio r, where 0a and 1
02
r . If 3a,7b and 15c are
the first three terms of an A.P., then the 4th term of this A.P. is :
A.
2
3a
B.
7
3a
C. a
D. 5a
Ans. C
Sol. Let’s Find GP’s terms of common ration r.
a = 0, b = ar, c = ar2
where a 0 and 1
a0 r .2
Given
3a, 7b, 15c → in A.P
14b = 3a + 15c
Put the value of a,b,c in above equation
14(ar) = 3a + 15(ar2)
15r2 – 14r + 3 = 0
1 3
r , (rejected)2 5
=
Common difference = 7b – 3a
= 7ar – 3a
7a
3a3
= −
2
a3
−=
4th terms is 2 15 2
15C a a a3 a 3
− = −
= a
12. The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the curves 2xy = and 1y x= + , in the first
quadrant is :
A.
3log 2
2e +
B.
3 1
2 log 2e
−
C.
1
2
D.
3
2
Ans. B
Sol. y = 2x and y = |x + 1|
Required Area 1 1 1x x
0 0 0((x 1) 2 )dx (x 1) x 2 dx+ − = + + −
12 x
2e 0
x 2x
2 log
− + −
2e
3 1
2 log= −
13. A spherical iron ball of radius 10 cm is coated with a layer of ice of uniform thickness that melts
at a rate of 50 cm3/min. When the thickness of the ice is 5 cm, then the rate at which the thickness (in cm/min) of the ice decreases, is :
A.
5
6
B.
1
18
C.
1
9
D.
1
36
Ans. B
Sol.
Volume of spherical iron ball
3 34V ((10 h) 10 )
3= + −
Volume differentiate with respect to time
2 3dv dh dv4 (10 5) Give 50 cm /m
dt dt dt
= + =
dv 1 cm
dt 18 min
− =
14. If 2 25 ( ) ,x xx e dx g x e c− −= + where c is a constant of integration, then g (-1) is equal to :
A. 1
B.
5
2−
C.
1
2−
D. -1
Ans. B
Sol. If 2 25 x xx e dx g(x)e c− −= + , c- integration constant
Let x2 = t
2x dx = dt
2 t1t e dt
2−
2 t t1[ t e 2e dt]
2− − +
4
22 xxx 1 e c
2−
= − − − +
4
2xg(x) x 1
2= − − −
= − − −
= −
1g(x) 1 1
25
2
15. Suppose that 20 pillars of the same height have been erected along the boundary of a circular
stadium. If the top of each pillar has been connected by beams with the top of all its non-adjacent pillars, then the total number of beams is: A. 180 B. 210 C. 170
D. 190
Ans. C
Sol. Any two non-adjacent pillars are joined by beam
no. of beams = no. of diagonals
C220 20= −
= 20 × 19 – 20
= 190 – 20
= 170
16. If 2lim
5,1 1
x ax b
x x
− +=
→ −then a+b is equal to :
A. -7 B. 1 C. 5
D. -4
Ans. A
Sol. If 2
x 1
x ax blim 5
x 1→
− +=
−
(1) 2 – a (1) + b = 0
1 – a + b = 0
a – b = 1 …..(1)
Now,
‘L’ hospital rule
2x – a = 5
2 – a = 5 ( x = 1)
a = – 3 …..(2)
Put in (1)
b = – 4
a + b = – 7
17. Let 1 2 3,a ,.....a a be an A.P. when a6=2. Then the common difference of this A.P., which
maximises the product a1a4a5, is :
A.
8
5
B.
2
3
C.
6
5
D.
3
2
Ans. A
Sol. Let a1, a2, a3……….be an A.P
With a6 = 2.
First term = 9
Common difference = d
a + 5d = 2
a1, a4.a5 = a(a + 3d) (a + 4d)
f(d) = (2 – 5d) (2 – 2d) (2 – d)
2 8
f (d) 0 d ,3 5
= =
8
f (d) 0 at d5
=
8
d5
=
18. Let (x)y y= be the solution of the differential equation,
2tan 2 tan , ,2 2
dyy x x x x xe
dx
+ = + −
, such that y(0)=1. Then :
A.
2
24 4 2
y y
+ − = +
B.
24 4
y y
− − =
C.
24 4
y y
+ − = −
D.
24 4
y y
− − = −
Ans. D
Sol. Differential equation,
dy
dx + y tan x = 2x + x2 tan
I.F = tanx dx n secxe e secx = =
y sec x = 2(2x x tanx)secx dx+ +
y sec x = x2 sec x + sec x [y] = 2x secxsecx
+
2y x cosx = +
y(0) 0 1 1= + = =
y = x2 + cos x
y 2x sinx = −
1
y4 2 2
= −
−
− = +
1y
4 2 2
Correct Answer is
− − = −
y y 24 4
19. The integral 2 4
3 3 3
6
sec cosx ec xdx
is equal to:
A.
5 13 33 3−
B.
7 56 63 3−
C.
4 13 33 3−
D.
5 26 33 3−
Ans. B
Sol. Integral 2
/3
4/3/6
sec xdx
tan x
2
/3
4/3/6
sec xdx
tan x
=
Let 2
4/3
sec xI dx
tan x=
Let tan x = t
Sec2x dx = dt
4/3
dt
t=
I = –3 e–1/3
( )/3
1/3
/63(tanx)
−
= −
1/3
1/6
13 3
3
= −
= 37/6 – 35/6
20. The distance of the point having position vector 2 6i j k− + + from the straight line passing
through the point (2, 3, -4) and parallel to the vector, 6 3 4i j k+ − is :
A. 7 B. 6
C. 2 13
D. 4 3
Ans. A
Sol.
AP
AD 61|n|
= =
2 2 2AP PD AP AD = − [By Pythagoras theorem]
2 2PD AP AD= −
110 61= −
= 7
21. Line are drawn parallel to the line 4 3 2 0,x y− + = at a distance3
5 from the origin. Then which
one of the following points lies on any of these lines?
A.
1 1,
4 3
B.
1 1,
4 3
−
C.
1 2,
4 3
−
D.
1 2,
4 3
− −
Ans. C
Sol. Line parallel to 4x – 3y + 2 = 0
Is given as 4x – 3y + = 0
Distance given from origin
3
5 5
=
3 =
Required lines are 4x – 3y + 3 = 0 and 4x – 3y – 3 = 0
By check option
Option C 1 2
,4 3
−
4x = 3y + 3 = 0 , 4x – 3y – 3 = 0
1 2
4 3 3 04 3
− − + =
1 24 3 3
4 3
− − −
0 = 0 –1 – 2 –3 0
Option is satisfy the equation.
Hence, option (C) is correct.
Option (D) 1 2
,4 3
− −
1 2
4 3 3 02 3
− − + =
1 24 3 3 0
4 3
− − − − =
1 2 3 0− + + 1 2 3 0− + −
Option D is wrong
Option (A) 1 1
,4 3
1 1
4 3 3 04 3
− + 1 1
4 3 3 04 3
− −
Option A is wrong
Option B 1 1
,4 3
−
1 1
4 3 34 3
− − + ,
1 14 3 3
4 3
+ − − −
1 1 3 0+ + 1 3 3 0+ −
22. Let ( ) log (sin ),(0 )ef x x x = and 1( ) sin ( ),( 0)xg x e x− −= . If α is a positive real number
such that a = (fog)’ (α) and b = (fog) (α), then:
A. 2 0a b a + + =
B. 2 22a b a + − = −
C. 2 1a b a − − =
D. 2 0a b a − − =
Ans. C
Sol. Let f(x) = loge(sin x), (0 < x < π)
g(x) = sin–1 (e–x), (x 0)
f(g(x)) = –x (f(g(x))1 = –1
f(g(x)) = –α = b (f(g(x)))1 = –1 = a
b = –α
a = –1
Now check from option.
Option (1) aα2 + bα – a = – 2α2
b = –α
a = –1
LHS. –α2 – (–α)α – (1) = –1
Option (2)
aα2 + bα + a = 0
b = –α, a = –1
L.H.S = –1α2 + (–α) (+α) – 1
= –2α2–1
Option (3)
aα2 – bα – a = + 1
b = –α, a = –1
L.H.S = –α2 – (α) α –
= + 1
Option (3) is correct.
Option (4) aα2 – bα – a = 0
L.H.S = –α2 – (α) α –(1) = 1
23. If the line ax + y =c, touches both the curves x2 +y2 =1 and y2 =4 2x , then |c| is equal to :
A.
1
2
B.
1
2
C. 2 D. 2
Ans. C
Sol. Tangent to the curve 2y 4 2x= is 2
y mxm
= +
It is tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 1
2
2 / m1 m 1
1 m = =
+
tangent are y x 2 and y x 2= + =− −
Compare with y = ax + c
a 1 and c 2 = =
24. The sum
3 3 3 3 31 2 1 2 31 ...
1 2 1 2 3
+ + ++ + +
+ + +
3 3 3 31 2 3 ... 15 1(1 2 3 ... 15)
1 2 3 ... 15 2
+ + + ++ − + + + +
+ + + + is equal to
:
A. 1240 B. 620 C. 660 D. 1860
Ans. B
Sol. 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 21 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 .... 15
1 .....1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 .... 15
+ + + + + + ++ + + +
+ + + + + + +
1
(1 2 3 ..... 15)2
−+ + + +
Sum 3 3 315
n 1
1 2 ....n 1 15 16
1 2 ..... n 2 2=
+ + = −
+ + +
15
n 1
n(n 1)60
2=
+= −
15 15
2
n 1 n 1
1 1n n 60
2 2= =
= + −
1 15 16 31 1 15 16
602 6 2 2
= + −
= 620
25. The sum of the real roots of the equation
6 1
2 3 3 0
3 2 2
x
x x
x x
− −
− − =
− +
, is equal to:
Ans. B
Sol. The equation
x 6 1
3x x 3 0
3 2x x 2
− −
− − =
− +
Expand x(–3x × (x+ 2) – 2x(x – 3)) + (–6) [(x + 2) 2 – 2(x – 3) (–3) + (–1) [4x + 9x]
25x 30x 30 5x 0 + − + =
x3 – 7x + 6 = 0
Sum of roots = 0
26. If both the mean and the standard deviation of 50 observations x1, x2, …., x50 are equal to 16,
then the mean of (x1 – 4)2, (x2 – 4)2, ….., (x50 – 4)2, is : A. 525
B. 480 C. 400 D. 380
Ans. C
Sol. Given mean and standard deviation of 50 observation x1, x2,….x50 are equal to 16.
Mean ix( ) 16
50 = =
ix 16 50 =
S.D. 2
ix ( )( ) 16
50
− = =
2i
x256 2
50 =
Required mean 2
i(x 4)
50
−=
2 ii
x 16 50 8 x
50
+ −=
= 256x2 + 16 – 8 × 16
= 400
27. If 1 1cos cos ,2
yx − −− = where 1 1,x− 2 2,
2
yy x− , then for all
2 2, ,4 4 cosx y x xy y− + is equal to :
A. 2 2 24sin 2x y −
B. 2 2 24cos 2x y +
C. 22sin
D. 24sin
Ans. C
Sol. If 1 1 ycos x cos ,
2− −− = where
y1 x 1, y 2, x
2− −
1 1 ycos x cos
2− − − =
1 1 ycos cos x cos cos
2− −
− =
2
2y yx 1 x 1 cos
2 4+ − − =
2
2xy ycos 1 x 1
2 4
− = − −
Squaring of both sides
2
2 2 2yx xycos 1 cos sin
4+ − = − =
4x2 + y2 – 4xy cos α = 4sin2α
28. If z and w are two complex numbers such that |zw| = 1 and arg(z)-arg(w)=2
, then :
A.
1
2
izw
− +=
B.
1
2
izw
−=
C. zw i= −
D. zw i=
Ans. C
Sol. |Zω| = 1
|Z| |ω| = 1
Let i1e
r=
Then i
2Z re
+
=
i
i i( /2)2Z e .e e i
− + = = = −
And i
i i /22z e .e e i
+ = = =
29. If the plane 2x – y + 2z +3 = 0 has the distances 1
3and
2
3units from the planes
4 2 4 0x y z − + + = and 2 2 0x y z − + + = respectively, then the maximum value of λ + μ
is equal to :
A. 13 B. 9 C. 5 D. 15
Ans. A
Sol. Distance formula
(i) | 6| 6 1
6 316 4 16
− −= =
+ +
| 6| 2− =
8, 4 =
(ii) | 3| 2
34 4 1
−=
+ +
|μ – 3| = 2
μ = 5, 1
max( ) 13 + =
30. The locus of the centers of the circles, which touch the circle, x2 + y2 = 1 externally, also touch
the y – axis and lie in the first quadrant, is:
A. 1 4 , 0x y y= +
B. 1 4 , 0y x x= +
C. 1 2 , 0x y y= +
D. 1 2 , 0y x x= +
Ans. D
Sol.
2 2k 1 | | + = +
2 2 2h k 1 h |h|+ = + +
2k 1 |h|= +
2y 1 x= +
y 1 x, x 0= +