PAPER - II PRELIMS MODEL TEST-23 · Directions of the following 3 (three) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these

TEST BOOKLET

TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - II

PRELIMS MODEL TEST-23 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR

MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST

BOOKLET.

2. Encode clearly the test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate

place in the answer sheet.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in

the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on

the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses

(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In

case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you

consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See

directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test

Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to

you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the

examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.

You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which

has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third

(.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if

one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above

to that question, if it has a penalty.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no

penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Date: 09-06-2017

Directions of the following 3 (three) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage -1

One of the most critical environments on earth: “Beast Barracks” at west point, the United States Military Academy. There are several goals for the summer preceding the first academic year at west point, not the least of which is to weed out those who are not strong enough mentally to take four years of rigorous discipline. Therefore, everything is criticized: one’s appearance, attitude, physical abilities, skills and emotional toughness. As a result, as many as five percent of every year’s entering class of plebes packs it in and goes home before the school year begins. The cadets who survive Beast Barracks no doubt do so because they are determined not to be broken by the criticism leveled at them by their upper-class handlers. You can survive your own version of Beast Barracks if you will resolve the same thing.

1. What is the primary intent of the author? (a) To let us know about the Beast Barracks. (b) One can succeed in life in spite of

criticism. (c) To let us know how tough the life in US

military (d) How criticism affect personality

development

2. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements. 1. Majority of the cadets at the Beast

Barrack Academy leave before the beginning of the session.

2. Soldiers coming out of the Academy are mentally strong.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage 2

People make a mistake thinking they have to be happy to be grateful, and that to be happy they have to experience positive “happenings” in their life: Wrong. Happiness doesn’t emanate from good happenings-it springs from something deeper called joy, regardless of what happens. Joy is the deep-rooted sense that the keys to success in life are hung behind the curtain that separates heaven from earth. Joy comes from knowing that “God has a plan and I’m a part of it.” Guess where the author, Paul the apostle, was when he wrote it: in prison! Need I say more? If you can have joy in prison, you can have it when your best friend deserts you, or gets sick.

3. What can be inferred from the statements, “Joy is that deep-rooted sense that the keys to success in life are hung behind the curtain that separates heaven from earth”? (a) By attaining joy we can make earth our heaven. (b) Joy can only be derived from success in life. (c) Joy is achieved when one keeps intimate relationship with God (d) None

4. In a party 70% of the people drank coffee, 65% drank soft drinks, 27% did not drink anything, whereas 248 people drank both, what is the number of people who attended the party? (a) 400 (b) 600 (c) 800 (d) 900

5. Arjun and Bhishma are running on a circular track of length 600m. Speed of Arjun is 30 m/s and that of Bhishma is 20 m/s. They start from the same point at the same time in the same direction. They shall first meet after: (a) 120 seconds (b)180 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 150 seconds

6. A mixture of 20 litres of milk and water contains 20% of water. The new mixture is formed by adding 5 lit of water. What is the percentage of milk in the new mixture? (a) 36% (b) 20% (c) 64% (d) 46%

7. Today is Saturday. After 59 days, it will be: (a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday (d) Saturday

Directions of the following 4 (four) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage 3

Fortunately, it is as yet only through fantasy that we can see what the destruction of the scholarly and scientific disciplines would mean to mankind. From history we can learn what their existence has meant. The sheer power of disciplined thought is revealed in practically all the great intellectual and technological advances which the human race has made. The ability of the man of disciplined mind to direct this power effectively upon problems for which he has not specifically trained is proved by examples without number. The real evidence for the value of liberal education lies in history and in the biographies of men who have met the valid criteria of greatness. These support overwhelmingly the claim of liberal education that it can equip a man with fundamental powers of decision and action, applicable not only to boy-girl relationship, to tinkering hobbies, or to choosing the family dentist, but to all the great and varied concerns of human life not least, those that are unforeseen.

8. Liberal education enables a person to (a) read with more discernment than others (b) gain prestige (c) develop a clearer understanding of

history than others (d) apply general principles to resolve issues

9. In this passage, the author stresses the importance of (a) education for living (b) technological advances (c) increased interest in the study of history (d) satisfying the desires of men

Passage 4

The Chief Executive Officer’s succession plans are commonly part of his annual performance review, and most boards now devote several meetings a year to the subject. One crucial decision that boards face is whether to select one of their own or an outsider. Unsurprisingly, firms in trouble are much more likely to look for fresh blood. When the business is running smoothly, directors are more than happy to pick an experienced insider, who will continue along the present path. Whereas promising senior executives will often abandon a struggling company, successful firm stand to have a large pool of talented managers to choose from. Occasionally, even a successful company appoints an outsider who can introduce some particular expertise. Many utility companies seek outside Chief Executive Officers to shepherd them through the complexities of deregulation. Many boards do consider outsiders even when the existing Chief Executive Officer is planning a normal retirement.

10. Successful companies sometimes appoint Chief Executive Officers from outside because (a) their existing executives are complacent (b) distance lends enchantment (c) they wish to utilise their expertise (d) they wish to be better placed then their

competitors

11. What is the main issue in this passage? (a) Leadership traits of Chief Executive

Officers (b) Compensation package of Chief

Executive Officers (c) Discipline to be inculcated by Chief

Executive Officers (d) Planning the succession of Chief

Executive Officers

12. If A x B means A is to the south of B; A + B means A is to the north of B; A % B means A is to the east of B; A - B means A is to the west of B; then in P % Q + R - S, S is in which direction with respect to Q? (a) South-West (b) South-East (c) North-East (d) North-West

13. A ship’s guidance system measures that the ship is 109 m from the top of a lighthouse. The top of the lighthouse is 91 m above sea level. How far is the ship from the lighthouse when the distance measured is from the base of the lighthouse? (a) 46 meter (b) 56 meter (c) 66 meter (d) 60 meter

Direction for the following 2 (two) items: Consider the following information and answer the three

items that follow: A cosmetic company produces 5 different products. The sales of these five products (in lakh number of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are shown in the following bar graph. Answer following questions based on this bar graph.

14. The sales have increased by nearly 55% from 1995 to 2000 in the case of?

(a) Lipsticks (b) Nail Enamels (c) Shampoos (d) Conditioners

15. During the period 1995-2000, the maximum rate of increase in sales is in the case of? (a) Lipsticks (b) Nail Enamels (c) Shampoos (d) Conditioners


Passage 5

A male Jackdaw’s courtship behaviour is astonishingly human. All his movements are consciously strained and his proudly reared head and neck are permanently in a state of self-display. He provokes the other Jackdaws continually if the female Jackdaw is looking on and he purposefully becomes embroiled in conflicts with otherwise deeply respected superiors. Above all, he seeks to impress his loved one with the possession of a potential nesting site, from which he drives all other Jackdaws, irrespective of their rank.

16. It can be inferred from the passage: (a) A part of human male behaviour is pretty

unsophisticated. (b) A part of human male behaviour is

always chauvinistic. (c) A part of human male behaviour is built

around the premise of impressing female.

(d) All of the above

17. A 'courtship behaviour' may best be described as: (a) the behaviour of a Jackdaw who shows

off his attitude (b) the behaviour of a male bird to attract a

female bird (c) the behaviour by which a male bird

displays its beauty to the female bird (d) the behaviour of any male to win a

female of the same species

Passage 6

China lodged a strong diplomatic protest against its long-term strategic ally and neighbour North Korea, after three Chinese were shot and killed by border troops. Foreign Ministry spokesperson Qin Gang said that Beijing had lodged a formal diplomatic complaint with Pyongyang over the incident, in a rare public criticism of North Korea from its only international ally. “On the morning of June 4, some residents of Dandong city of Liaoning province were shot by DPRK [Democratic People’s Republic of Korea, as the

North is officially known] border guards on suspicion of crossing the border for trade activities, leaving three dead and one injured”, said Mr. Qin. After the incident, China attached great importance to it and immediately raised solemn representations to the DPRK. The shooting, which also left one person injured, was first reported over, “the weekend by the North Korea Intellectuals Solidarity, a group of defectors based in Seoul, South Korea. The group said, “the three Chinese were traders who were trying to smuggle copper into China”. Chinese officials did not verify this claim, and said investigations into the incident were still progressing. Recent months have seen some signs of discord between the long-term allies, with China coming under increasing international pressure to take action against North Korea over an attack on a South Korean warship. Following the March 26 sinking of the Cheonan warship, which left 46 sailors dead, South Korea and the West have been calling for strong sanctions against North Korea.

18. The people shot dead were (a) trying to smuggle copper out of China (b) trying to smuggle copper to South Korea (c) not trying to smuggle copper into China (d) may be trying to smuggle copper into

China

19. The relations between China and North Korea have traditionally been (a) Antagonistic (b) Complementary (c) Belligerent (d) Apathetic

20. In a certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code, PAROLE will be written as, (a) RYPQJG (b) RCPQJG (c) NCPQJG (d) NCPQJC

21. Two boys starting from the same place walk at a rate of 5kmph and 5.5kmph respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5km apart, if they walk in the same direction? (a) 15 hours (b) 16 hours (c) 17 hours (d) 18 hours

22. A Child has 1200 five rupee coins. He wants to place them in such a way that the number of rows and the number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of coins that he needs more for this purpose? (a) 125 (b) 96 (c) 35 (d) 25

23. If 'x' means '-', '÷' means '+', '-' means '÷' and '+' means 'x', then 24 - 4 ÷ 6 x 3 + 4 =? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

24. What is ‘X’ in the following table?

3 11 9 5

9 2 1 10

5 6 X 4

(a) 15 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 7

Directions of the following 3 (three) items: Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage 7

The contemporary industrial robot, in the eyes of politicians and others, may wear the halo of high technology, but it came into being to meet a rather mundane need. In the booming labour market the early 1960s, it became increasingly difficult to find people willing to do boring, repetitive and unpleasant jobs. What was needed was not a machine which could master elaborate human skills, but one which could provide the mindless lumpen proletariat demanded by mass production. What had to be learnt, and proved well within the robot’s capacity, were sequences of precise movement of the arm and hand. Such sequences were relatively easily programmed into a computer memory, especially after the advent of the microprocessor freed robots from their dependence on the mainframe computers of the 1960s. But however impressive, even uncanny, a robot may appear to the layman as it repeats a series of movements with flawless precision, it is, in fact, operating blindly and by rote. Repetitive manipulation is, of course, a skill common to many machines: what differentiates the robot is that it makes use of an articulated arm analogous to the human limb and that it can be reprogrammed to perform a whole variety of tasks without the need to redesign, or adjust its mechanical components. There are however,

a limited range of applications, in which manipulator arm, operating blindly and without intelligence, is useful. Looking through manufacturers’ catalogues one is struck not by the machine’s versatility but by the monotonous repetition of a sort of litany of robot functions: machine tool loading and unloading, spot welding, paint spraying and parts transfer being the commonest.

Whatever its task, a robot is dependent for its effectiveness upon a whole supporting cast of automated machines. Everything must be presented to it in consistent positions and orientations; it can only operate in a world of guaranteed predictability. Indeed, to consider robots in isolation from automation, in general, is rather like studying an ant which has been removed from an anthill – an ingenious but purposeless curiosity. The need to provide an automated environment has so far restricted robot use to large scale industry businesses such as specialist machine shops, producing small batches of many different items have little incentive to set up the paraphernalia of conveyors, jigs and electronic communication, which a robot requires. 25. The passage makes it clear that, contrary to

popular opinion, robots: (a) were designed to replace human labour (b) work with flawless perfection and

creativity. (c) can only operate in a system where

everything is inconsistent and unpredictable

(d) cannot be classified as high technology

26. The robots have been restricted to a large-scale industry businesses only because: (a) they can operate only in a world of

guaranteed predictability and automated environment

(b) they can provide the mindless lumpen proletariat demanded by mass production.

(c) they can replace human beings in any type of work

(d) they are expensive and high technology machines

27. Robots differ from other machines in that: (a) they react like human beings (b) they need little maintenance (c) they have a limited number of

applications (d) they are easy to switch from task to task

28. A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is: (a) 32 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 8

29. Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two married couples are in a group. Both the women are shorter than their respective husbands. A the is tallest among the four. C is taller than B. D is B’s brother. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) All four have family ties (b) B is the shortest among the four (c) C is taller than D (d) A is B’s husband

30. Take a look at the following 3 shapes. Note the letters on the side of each shape:

You need to join all of the 3 shapes together with the corresponding letters and then choose from the following options which one is the correctly obtained figure after joining.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

31. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:

Mr. A wants to apply texture paint on his wall in a triangular shape, such that the least possible amount of paint is utilized. Which triangular shape should he choose to be painted? (a) Triangle APB (b) Triangle AQB (c) Triangle ARB (d) Any of the above

32. At an academic dinner, 1

5 of the people attending were French men. If the number of French women

at the dinner was 2

3 greater than the number of French men and there were no other French people

at the dinner, then what fraction of the people at the dinner were not French?

(a) 1

5 (b)

7

15 (c)

2

3 (d)

2

5


Passage 8

What the poverty line should be is dictated partly by the values pertaining to redistribution and partly by the ‘surplus’ income in society. This is fair. What is questionable are the policies derived from this goal, policies that are generally a license for state inefficiency and state corruption. For example, there is an elaborate machinery to procure food grains from farmers, store them, move them across states, and sell them in ration shops at ‘subsidised’ prices. This elaborate procedure ensures considerable leakage and corruption, and leads to the absurd reality that at present there are about 20 million tons of grains rotting in government godowns.

The ideology behind these polices is one of individuals articulating them knowing ‘better’, which gets translated into the state knowing better. The ideology is one of ‘loco parentis’, e.g., a parent is needed to guide the itinerant peasant. It is this same logic that leads some to proclaim that we should preserve the adivasis lifestyle, even if it means keeping them permanently in poverty. Have the adivasis even been asked whether they want their children to go through the same lifestyle as themselves—or do they desire ever increasing opportunities and incomes, as the rest of us on this plant?

There is little logic to the plethora of policies—ration shops, food for work, fertilizer subsidies-that masquerade as policies meant for the poor. This is where ideology is present in large ‘in the name of the poor’ quantities. Given that the goal of poverty reduction and equal opportunity is universally accepted, and politically correct, it should follow that only those policies should be adopted which maximize redistribution to the poor at minimum cost.

33. The author mentions the rotting of 20 million tones of grains in godowns to talk about: (a) the ideology of ‘loco-parentis’. (b) the excessive number of policies creating loopholes in the system. (c) the policies that fail to address state corruption. (d) the situation where adivasis are not asked about their food requirements.

34. Which of the following would be the most appropriate summary for the passage? (a) How policies guided by ideologies work against poverty reduction? (b) The plight of the adivasis and the poor are worsened by the policies guided by ideologies. (c) The role of ideologies and policies in any government system is questionable. (d) Too many policies and elaborate procedure ensure corruption and inefficiency.

Passage 9

Connecting Readyville and Woodbury was a good, hard turnpike nine or ten miles long. Readyville was an outpost of the Federal army at Murfreesboro; Woodbury had the same relation to the Confederate army at Tullahoma. For months after the big battle at Stone River these outposts were in constant quarrel, most of the trouble occurring, naturally, on the turnpike mentioned, between detachments of cavalry. Sometimes the infantry and artillery took a hand in the game by way of showing their goodwill. One night a squadron of Federal horse commanded by Major Seidel, a gallant and skilful officer, moved out from Readyville on an uncommonly hazardous enterprise requiring secrecy, caution and silence.

35. Readyville and Woodbury were (a) Closely connected (b) In the same state. (c) Both army outposts. (d) Army logistics facility.

36. Major Seidel (a) Was the head of the army. (b) Was a brave officer. (c) Fought dangerous battles. (d) Was a secretive personality.

37. Five friends A, B, C, D and E distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A gets 1 rupee less than B, C gets 5 rupee more than D, D gets 3 rupee more than B and E gets an amount neither greater than D nor lesser than B. what we can conclude about the amount received by E? (a) difference between amount received by E and D is 1 rupee (b) difference between amount received by E and D is 2 rupee (c) amount received by E and D is equal. (d) any of the above is possible.

38. A person goes to his office at 1/3rd of the speed at which he returns from his office. If the average speed during the whole trip is 12 km/h. what is the speed of the person while he was going to his office? (a) 8m/h (b) 12 km/h (c) 16 km/h (d) 24 km/h

39. In 1930, a person’s age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the father’s age become ten times that of his son’s age in 1930. The ages of the son and father in 1940 were, respectively (a) 16yr, 58yr (b) 15yr, 50yr (c) 14yr, 42yr (d) 13yr, 34yr

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following information carefully and answer the

questions given below.

(i) There are five types of cards viz. A, B, C, D and E. There are three cards of each type. These are to be inserted in envelopes of three colours – Red, Yellow and Brown. There are five envelopes of each colour.

(ii) B, D and E type cards are inserted in red envelopes. A, B and C type cards are to be inserted in yellow envelopes and C, D and E type cards are to be inserted in brown envelopes.

(iii) Two cards each of B and D type are inserted in red envelopes.

40. Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of envelope is definitely correct? (a) A-2, B-2, C-1 : Yellow (b) C-2, D-1, E-2 : Brown (c) C-1, D-2, E-2 : Brown (d) B-2, D-2, A-1 : Red

41. Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of E-type cards? (a) Red - 1, Yellow -2 (b) Yellow – 1, Brown - 2 (c) Red - 2, Brown – 1 (d) None of these

42. Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of yellow coloured envelopes? (a) A - 2, E - 1, D - 2 (b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 2 (c) A - 3, B - 1, C - 1 (d) B - 1, C - 2, D – 2


Passage 10

For years now, climate activists from Al Gore to Leonardo DiCaprio have argued that individual actions like driving more economical cars and using more efficient light bulbs are a crucial element in the effort to address global warming. ‘The United Nations’ climate panel and the International Energy Agency both echo this sentiment, insisting that higher consumption by upto 30%--making improved efficiency an effective remedy for climate change. But is this really true?

Here’s something to think about. Back in the early 1970s, the average American expended roughly 70 million British thermal units per year to heat, cool, and power his or her home. Since then, of course, we have made great strides in energy efficiency. As The Washington Post recently reported, dishwashers now use 45% less power than they did two decades ago, and refrigerators 51% less. So how much energy do Americans use in their homes today? On a per-capita basis, the figure is roughly what it was 40 years ago, 70 million BTUs.

This surprising lack of change is the result of something economists call the ‘rebound effect’. It’s a phenomenon familiar to urban planners, who long ago discovered that building more roads doesn’t ease traffic jams—it merely encourages more people to get in their cars and drive.

43. What, according to the author, is ‘really true’ of energy consumption? (a) Energy consumption decreases with

increased efficiency of household appliances.

(b) Energy consumption does not decrease even when machines become more energy efficient.

(c) The energy consumption has remained stable despite increase in population.

(d) Energy consumption can be reduced more by individual effort than by state policies.

44. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements: 1. It can be inferred from the passage that

though increasing energy efficiency is a good thing it is not a remedy for global warming.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that individual consumption does not decreases even when the efficiency of the machines improve.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage 11

Television might be abused and then it may wrap the minds of its viewers, especially those young ones who are suggestible and sensitive to every kind of impression. But if it is properly used, it may lead to the enhancement of human life itself. We should try, by means of this great mode of communication, which has such an instant impact on the minds of people who view it, to enable them to cast off superstition, to emancipate their minds from any kind of narrowness and combat every kid of false idea which has taken lodgement in the minds of the people. It is, therefore, a great means of education. We should use it for that purpose and it is my earnest hope that the television will be employed for the good purpose of improving the quality of our men and women and not for making them shoddy and couch-potatoes. We should use documentaries, short plays, films, abridgments of classics, so that what the students do not get in schools and colleges might be provided for them when they view the television. That is what is necessary. I think, under proper management, it may be regarded as one of the most efficacious modes of mass communication. You have there sight, hearing pictures, music all these things mixed together.

45. According to the passage, the abuse of television might: (a) Change the eating habits of people (b) Disturb the minds of the viewers (c) Not make a vital impact on the minds of

the viewers (d) Have a detrimental effect on national

pride

46. According to the passage, the proper use of television enables the viewers (a) To entertain themselves (b) To make themselves busy (c) To rise above archaic prejudices (d) To believe in superstitions, narrowness,

etc.

47. 30% of the men are more than 25 years old and 80% of the men are less than or equal to 50 years old. 20% of all men play football. If 20% of the men above the age of 50 play football, what percentage of the football players are less than or equal to 50 years? (a) 60% (b) 70% (c) 80% (d) 90%

48. Which of the Answer Figures best fits the missing space in the Question Figure?

Answer figures

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

49. Examine the following statements: Statements Some benches are walls. All walls are houses. Some houses are jungles. All jungles are roads. Conclusions 1. Some roads are benches 2. No walls are roads 3. Some houses are benches 4. Some roads are houses. Which of the conclusions follow the above statements? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

50. “Soft drinks have been shown by scientists to be bad for the teeth. Therefore, the government would be justified in banning all soft drinks from the Indian market.” Assuming that the factual claim in the above argument is true, what else needs to be assumed for the conclusion to follow? (a) The government is justified in banning anything that is bad for health. (b) Soft drinks are also bad for gastric health. (c) Dental hygiene is a matter of great concern. (d) No further assumptions are necessary.

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the following statements and answer the

questions on the basis of these statements.

(i) A guesthouse has six rooms A, B, C, D, E and F. Among these A and C can accommodate two persons each, the rest can accommodate only one each.

(ii) Eight guests P, Q, R, S, T, U, W and X are to be kept in these rooms. Q, T and X are females while the rest are males. The two sexes can’t be put together in the same room. No man is willing to stay in room C or F.

(iii) P wants to be alone but does not want to stay in rooms B or D. S needs a partner but is not ready to stay with U or W. X does not want to share her room.

51. Who among the following will stay in room E? (a) U (b) W (c) P (d) Data inadequate

52. In which of the following rooms will U stay? (a) B (b) C (c) A (d) Data inadequate

53. X will stay in which of the following rooms? (a) C (b) E (c) B (d) F


Passage 12

Men and women should be treated primarily as people, and not primarily as members of opposite sexes. Their shared humanity and common attributes should be stressed not their gender difference. Neither sex should be stereotyped or arbitrarily assigned to a leading or secondary role. Women and men should be treated with the same respect, dignity and seriousness. Women should not be described by physical attributes when men are being described by mental attributes or professional position. Instead, both sexes should be dealt with in the same terms. References to a man’s or woman’s appearance, charm or intuition should be avoided when irrelevant.

54. Men and women should be treated first (a) as human beings (b) as belonging to opposite sexes (c) in terms of their physical attributes (d) as stereotypes

55. All the suggestions in the passage are meant (a) to make women more powerful (b) to reduce the power of men (c) to minimize the possibility of conflict

between men and women (d) to remove gender discrimination

Passage 13

People start smoking for various reasons. Sometimes they get into this habit because they feel it makes them look sophisticated. People may get hooked to this habit. Then smoking becomes a part of their lifestyle. They become addicted to the nicotine in the cigarettes. However, there is a definite link between smoking and lung cancer, heart disease and chronic bronchitis. Besides heavy smokers wrinkle faster. Passive smoking is equally harmful. Non-smokers are cautioned not to stay around smokers. The inhalation of smoke by non-smokers is dangerous. Wives of smokers are more at risk of lung cancer than the wives of non-smokers.

56. In this passage, the expression “get hooked to” means to become (a) dull-witted (b) habituated and addicted (c) emotionally unpleasant (d) completely committed.

57. “Passive smoking” refers to (a) people who smoke occasionally (b) wives of smokers who inhale smoke (c) non-smokers who inhale smoke (d) people who like to inhale smoke

58. Read the following statement and courses of action and decide which course(s) of action is/are logical? Statement: The migration from villages to cities is detrimental to both. Courses of action 1. Rural postings should be mandatory 2. Employment opportunities be created in villages. 3. There should be trains lining villages to cities. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) Both 1 and 3

59. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows: A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square?

(note : the figure is not in scale) (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 15 (d) Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient

60. Given diagram shows the road networks and road segment. The government has decided to erect a lamppost at two points, so that all the roads are lighted at the same time. Which two points the government should select?

(a) 1, 3 (b) 5, 3 (c) 2, 4 (d) 6, 1

61. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then find the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects. (a) 40% (b) 42% (c) 44% (d) 46%

62. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is taller than D but not as fat as D. C is taller than A but shorter than B. A is fatter than D but not as fat as B. E is thinner than C who is thinner than D. E is shorter than A. Which person is taller than two but thinner than the remaining two? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Directions of the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage 14

The second important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only five per cent literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle-class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue, if it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue. A very powerful battle was fought and won by Anglophiles like K.M. Munshi and Nehru against cultural icons like Tagore and Gandhi, who wanted mother tongues to be medium of education. The arguments on both sides were sound, but the pragmatists won on the evidence of modernity. This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. India’s elite occupy a liminal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that India’s middle class does not own any language properly. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrases because the quality of teaching is poor. And on the mother-tongue side, as Tagore and Gandhi feared, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of India’s high culture, its classical inheritance.

63. According to the passage, K.M. Munshi and Nehru (a) Were opposed to the opinions of Tagore

and Gandhi. (b) Knew that Tagore and Gandhi would lose

their arguments on practical grounds. (c) Were in favour of using English as a

medium of education. (d) Could envision English as the language

of contemporary India.

64. What does the author mean when he says that “India’s elite occupy a liminal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English”? (a) India’s elite do not have an adequate

grasp on language. (b) India’s elite are outstanding in their ability

to use language to their advantage. (c) India’s elite are proficient in both Hindi

and English. (d) India’s elite are in a transitional phase

where they haven’t internalized English as a language.

65. In an examination, every candidate took physics or mathematics or both, 65.8% took physics, 59.2% took mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000. How many candidates took both physics and mathematics? (a) 780 (b) 500 (c) 250 (d) 125

66. A district level sports competition is planned. The ratio of the number of students in two schools i.e. Delhi Public School and Central School, participating in the competition is 7:5. On the day of competition, because of some unforeseen circumstances, two students of Delhi Public School could not turn up. Which of the following could be the possible ratio of the number of students of Central School and Delhi Public School, who actually participated in the competition? (a) 1:1 (b) 5:7 (c) 9:4 (d) Cannot be determined.

67. A father said his son, " I was as old as you are at present at the time of your birth. " If the father age is 38 now, the son age 5 years back was : (a) 38 (b) 33 (c) 19 (d) 14

68. A is thrice efficient as B and C is twice as efficient as B. what is the ratio of number of days taken by A, B and C, when they work individually? (a) 2:6:3 (b) 2:3:6 (c) 1:2:3 (d) 3:1:2

69. A rectangular courtyard 3.78 meters long 5.25 meters wide is to be paved exactly with square tiles, all of the same size. what is the largest size of the tile which could be used for the purpose? (a) 14cm (b) 21cm (c) 42cm (d) 56cm

70. Priti scored more than Rahul. Yamuna scored as much as Divya. Lokita scored less than Manju. Rahul scored more than Yamuna. Manju scored less than Divya. Who scored the lowest? (a) Manju (b) Yamuna (c) Lokita (d) Rahul

71. X paid Rs. 47 for certain cups of tea and coffee. If tea costs Rs. 5 per cup and coffee costs Rs. 8 per cup, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) He drank 8 cups of tea and coffee. (b) He drank the same number of cups of tea and coffee. (c) He drank more tea than coffee. (d) He drank more coffee than tea.

Directions of the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage 15

It is not just Indian agencies and officials who regularly warn the Centre of outlandish terror threats. Foreign agencies, too, have a gala time doing it. Especially adept at issuing stupendous terror threats are the American agencies. They regularly pass on information to various Indian agencies about al-Qaida, LeT and even Taliban. Sometimes they are landing by the sea along the Gujarat coast and at other times sneaking in through the Bangladesh border. Till date, other than issuing alerts, Indian agencies have never been able to crosscheck any of these threats. The question then is how reliable are the American agencies. Intelligence is not just about cutting-edge information, it is also about highly polished 360-degree analysis of situations. Indian agencies, unfortunately, do not seem to enjoy a very good reputation on this front. In fact, when Nepal was trudging through the rough ride of Maoist violence and anti-king sentiments, Indian agencies were often accused of misreading the situation, especially because of their jaundiced anti-Maoist perceptions. But don’t blame all the ills on the agencies, especially nurturing the art of diary writing, collecting chocolate wrappers and bus tickets from Pakistan. Every time a Pakistan-based terrorist is arrested, investigators recover such items and establish his Pakistani links mostly through these. Officials point out that dated criminal laws and a creaking justice system demand that such evidence be available to establish the credibility of claims about terrorists. Similarly, most terrorists are arrested from crowded places such as bus stops and railway stations. This is not due to a great investigation climaxing in a filmi chase. It is just convenient to have proper-and a large number of-witnesses around.

72. With reference to the passage consider the following statements 1. Intelligence is about comprehensive

understanding on information systems. 2. Good intelligence requires information

and accurate analysis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? (a) Indian agencies are to be blamed for

misreading situations. (b) Indian agencies are not to be blamed for

misreading situations. (c) Indian agencies are blamed for

misinterpreting the situation in Nepal. (d) Indian agencies are prone to blame for

misreading the situation in Nepal.

74. Which of the following statements best describes the author’s thoughts in the last paragraph? 1. Indian agencies should not be solely

blamed for all the problems in intelligence.

2. Out-of-date criminal laws and a weak justice system can also be blamed for problems in intelligence.

3. Intelligence inputs come from sources that can never be verified and cross-referenced.

4. Intelligence agencies place undue emphasis on maintaining eyewitnesses for any arrest made.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

75. Why does the author question the reliability of American agencies in the first paragraph? (a) To highlight the unreliable nature of the

warnings they issue. (b) To highlight the need to ensure that valid

terror threats exist. (c) To highlight the need for valid terror

threats. (d) To highlight the need to question the

reliability of terror threats issued by agencies.

76. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

77. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A’s being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D’s house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C’s house. In this context, which one of the following statement is true? (a) C and D live on the same street (b) C’s house face south (c) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart (d) D’s house is facing south.

78. Eight people are planning to share equally the cost of a rental car. If one person withdraws from the arrangement and the others share equally the entire cost of the car, then the share of each of the remaining persons increased by:

(a) 1

7 (b)

1

8 (c)

1

9 (d)

7

8

79. A school has four sections A, B, C and D of class IX students. The results of half-yearly and annual examinations are shown in the table given below.

RESULTS NUMBER OF STUDENTS

Section A Section B Section C Section D

Students failed in both exams 30 25 20 27

Students failed in half-yearly but passed in annual exams

5 15 25 13

Students passed in half-yearly but failed in annual exams.

20 15 17 5

Students passed in both exams. 70 65 43 60

Which section has the minimum failure rate in half-yearly examination? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

80. A batsman in his 17th innings makes a score of 85 and their by increasing his average by 3. What is his average after the 17thinnings? (a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37

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PAPER - II PRELIMS MODEL TEST-23 · Directions of the following 3 (three) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these