PAPER CODE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER CLASSROOM …

MAJOR TEST # 01

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)

PAPER CODE 0 1 C M 3 1 3 2 2 3

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003

E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

LEADER COURSE

INSTRUCTIONS ()

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014

1 3

(Phase - MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD, MLE & MLV)

SYLLABUS – 01

AIPMT DATE : 23 - 03 - 2014

PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units,

Dimensions and MeasurementKinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a

plane)

Laws of Motion and Friction

Work, Energy & Power and Circular Motion

Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass

Rotational Motion

CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry

Structure of Atom

States of Matter : Gases and Liquids

Thermodynamics

Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium & Ionic Equilibrium)

Solid State

Solutions

BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World :

(i) The living world

(ii) Biological Classification

(iii) Plant Kingdom

(iv) Animal Kingdom

Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :

(i) Morphology of Flowering plants

(ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants

(iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach

Structure and Functions :

(i) Cell : The Unit of Life

(ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm)

(iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division

MAJOR TEST # 01 DATE : 23 - 03 - 2014

AIPMT : SYLLABUS – 01

LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD, MLE & MLV)

23–03–2014PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (MLA,MLB,MLC,MLD,MLE & MLV)

H - 1/37Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM313223

MAJOR TEST

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. ˆ ˆA iA cos jAsin

A

B :-

(1) i Bcos + jBsin (2) i Bsin + j Bcos

(3) i Bsin – jBcos (4) i Bcos – j Bsin

2. [ ] :-

(1)1

tan tan4

(2) tan tan

(3) 1

tan tan2

(4) tan 2tan

3. E = , G = , I =

M = 2

2

GIM

E

(1) (2) (3) (4)

4. m v0 7 mg :-

(1) (2) mg

(3) 3 mg (4) 4 mg

5. A B A h B B :-(1) 2h

(2) h

2

A B(3) h

(4) Remains at rest.

1. Let ˆ ˆA iA cos jAsin

be any vector.

Another vector B

which is normal to A

is :-

(1) i Bcos + jBsin (2) i Bsin + j Bcos

(3) i Bsin – jBcos (4) i Bcos – j Bsin

2. A projectile is fired from level ground at an

angle above the horizontal the elevation angle

of the highest point as seen from the launch point

is releated to by the relation :-

(1)1

tan tan4

(2) tan tan

(3) 1

tan tan2

(4) tan 2tan

3. If E = energy, G = gravitational constant,

I = impulse and M = mass, the dimensions of

2

2

GIM

E are same as that of

(1) Time (2) Mass

(3) Length (4) Force

4. A ball of mass m is hanged by a light string of

length . It is given a horizontal velocity v0 at the

lowest point so that it will not slag at the top most

point of circular path. If tension in the string at

lowest point is 7 mg then tension in the string at

heighest point will be :-

(1) zero (2) mg

(3) 3 mg (4) 4 mg

5. Two pendulum bobs A and B of same mass are

initially placed at rest as shown. Bob A is pulled

to a height h and the released. If it collids

elastically with B then height acquired by it is :-

(1) 2h

(2) h

2

A B(3) h

(4) Remains at rest.

23–03–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

H - 2/37 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM313223

MAJOR TEST

6. A force ˆ ˆ ˆF 5i 6 j 4k

acting on a body,

produces a displacement ˆ ˆS 6i – 5k

. Work done

by the force is :-

(1) 10 units (2) 18 units

(3) 11 units (4) 5 units

7. A particle moves with uniform speed in circular

path the angle between instantaneous velocity and

acceleration is :-

(1) 0º (2) 180º (3) 90º (4) 45º

8. According to Joule's law of heating, heat produced

H = I2 Rt, where I is current, R is resistance and t

is time. If the errors in the measurement of I, R

and t are 3%, 4% and 6% respectively then error

in the measurement of H is

(1) ±17% (2) ±16%

(3) ±19% (4) ±25%

9. Minimum power required to pull 373 kg block

against friction force of 250 N with constant

velocity of 2 m/s is : (In hp)

(1) 1

2(2)

2

3

(3) 5 (4) 10

10. A ball is dropped on the ground from a height of

1m. The coefficient of restitution is 0.6. The height

to which to which the ball will rebound is :-

(1) 0.6m (2) 0.4m

(3) 0.36 m (4) 0.16m

11. A body travels uniformly a distance of (12 ± 0.3)m

in a time (4 ± 0.1) s. The velocity of the body

within error limits is :-

(1) (3 ± 0.3) ms–1 (2) (3 ± 0.15)ms–1

(3) (3 ± 0.45) ms–1 (4) (3 ± 0.6) ms–1

12. A coin placed on a gramophone record rotating

at 33 rpm flies off the record. If it is placed at a

distance of more than 16 cm from the axis of

rotation. If the record is revolving at 66 rpm. the

coin will fly off it is placed at a distance not less

than :-

(1) 1cm (2) 2cm (3) 3cm (4) 4cm

13. The mass and volume of a body are found to be

5.00 ± 0.05 kg and 1.00 ± 0.05m3 respectively.

Then the maximum possible percentage error in

its density is

(1) 6% (2) 3% (3) 10% (4) 5%

6. ˆ ˆ ˆF 5i 6 j 4k

ˆ ˆS 6i – 5k

:-(1) 10 (2) 18 (3) 11 (4) 5

7. :-(1) 0º (2) 180º

(3) 90º (4) 45º

8. H = I2 Rt

I R t I, R t

3%, 4% 6%H

(1) ±17% (2) ±16%

(3) ±19% (4) ±25%

9. 373 kg 250 N 2 m/s :()

(1) 1

2(2)

2

3(3) 5 (4) 10

10. 1 0.6 :-(1) 0.6m (2) 0.4m

(3) 0.36 m (4) 0.16m

11. (4 ± 0.1) sec (12 ± 0.3)m :-(1) (3 ± 0.3) ms–1 (2) (3 ± 0.15)ms–1

(3) (3 ± 0.45) ms–1 (4) (3 ± 0.6) ms–1

12. 33 rpm

16 cm

66 rpm

:-

(1) 1cm (2) 2cm

(3) 3cm (4) 4cm

13. 5.00 ± 0.05 kg

1.00 ± 0.05m3 (1) 6% (2) 3%

(3) 10% (4) 5%



MAJOR TEST

14. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough surface

for which coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.5. If a force

of 100 N is applied on the block then work done by

force of friction in 2 seconds is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

10 kg F

(1) 1000 J (2) 500 J

(3) –500 J (4) –1000 J

15. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about

a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis

perpendicular to its plane and passing through a

point on its rim will be:-

(1) 5 I (2) 3 I

(3) 6 I (4) 4 I

16. If P represents radiation pressure , c represents

speed of light and Q represents radiation energy

striking a unit area per second, then non zero

integers x, y and z such that PxQ ycz is

dimensionless are :

(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1

(3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1 (4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1

17. A conical pendulum of length L makes an angle with the vertical, the time period will be

R

(1)

L cos

2g

(2)

L2

gcos

(3)

Ltan

2y

(4)

L2

gtan

14. 10 0.5 100 N 2 :-

10 kg F

(1) 1000 J (2) 500 J

(3) –500 J (4) –1000 J

15. I (Rim)

(1) 5 I (2) 3 I

(3) 6 I (4) 4 I

16. P, c Q

x, y z PxQycz

:

(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1

(3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1 (4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1

17. L :-

R

(1)

L cos

2g

(2)

L2

gcos

(3)

Ltan

2y

(4)

L2

gtan

Key Filling



MAJOR TEST

18. Bob of pendulum is released from horizontal

point. If length of pendulum is 2m then speed of

the bob at bottom most points ? Given that it looses

10% of its initial energy against air resistance :-

(Acceleration due to gravity g = 10m/s2)

(1) 6 m/s (2) 2 10 m / s

(3) 3 m/s (4) None

19. A Force of magnitude 20 N is applied on a body

in the direction of ˆ ˆ(3i 4 j) and displaces it from

(1, 4, 5) to (3, 7, 10) then work done by the applied

force is :-

(1) 72 J (2) 24 J (3) 48 J (4) 18 J

20. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity

v making an angle of 45º with the horizontal. The

magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile

about an axis of projection when the particle is at

maximum height h is:-

(1) zero (2)

3mv

4 2g

(3)

2mv

2g(4)

2m 2gh

21. The quantities A and B related by the relation,

m = A/B , where m is the linear density and A is

the force. The dimensions of B are of :-

(1) Pressure (2) Work

(3) Latent heat (4) None of the above

22. A Stone is allowed to fall freely from rest. The

ratio of the times taken to fall through the first

meter and the second meter distance is :-

(1) 2 1– (2) 2 1(3) 2 (4) None of these

23. The bob A of a pendulum having length 10 cm is

released from 60° to the vertical hits another bob

B of the same mass at rest on a table as shown in

fig. then what is the velocity of bob B after

collision (Neglect the size of the bobs and assume

the collision to be elastic) :-

(acceleration due to gravity= 10 m/s2)

60º A

m

B

m

(1) 1 m/s (2) 10 m/s

(3) 10 m /s (4) zero

18. 2m ? 10% gks tkrk gSA ((g) = 10m/s2)

(1) 6 m/s (2) 2 10 m / s

(3) 3 m/s (4) 19. 20 N ˆ ˆ(3i 4 j)

(1, 4, 5) (3, 7, 10) :-(1) 72 J (2) 24 J (3) 48 J (4) 18 J

20. m 45º v (h) :-

(1) (2)

3mv

4 2g

(3)

2mv

2g(4)

2m 2gh

21. A B m = A/B m = AB :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

22. :-(1) 2 1– (2) 2 1(3) 2 (4)

23. A 60º 10 cm B B (= 10 m/s2)

60º A

m

B

m

(1) 1 m/s (2) 10 m/s

(3) 10 m /s (4)



MAJOR TEST

24. A particle of mass M is projected vertically

upwards from ground so that it can reach to a

maximum height H, then ratio of potential energy

and kinetic energy of particle at a height of H/4

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

25. A flywheel of mass 50 kg and radius of gyration

about its axis of rotation of 0.5 m is acted upon

by a constant torque of 12.5 N-m. Its angular

velocity at t = 5 sec is :-

(1) 2.5 rad/sec (2) 5 rad/sec

(3) 7.5 rad/sec (4) 10 rad/sec

26. The displacement of an object along the three axes

are given by x = 2t2 , y = 2t2 – 4t and z = 3 t – 5. The

initial velocity of the particle is :-

(1) 10 Unit (2) 12 Unit

(3) 5 Unit (4) 2 Unit

27. With respect to a rectangular cartesian coordinate

system, three vectors are expressed as

a

= ˆ4i – j , b

= –3 i + 2 j and c

= – k

where i , j , k are unit vectors, along the X, Y

and Z-axis respectively. The unit vectors r along

the direction of sum of these vector is

(1) r = 1

3 ( i + j – k )

(2) r = 1

2 ( i + j – k )

(3) r = 1

3 ( i – j + k )

(4) r = 1

2 ( i + j + k )

28. A particle is moving along x-axis with velocity

v = Ax3/2 where A is a constant then at any instant

the rate of work done is proportional to :-

(1) x2 (2) x5/2

(3) x7/2 (4) x9/2

24. M H H/4

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

25. 50 0.5 12.5 t = 5 :-

(1) 2.5 / (2) 5 /

(3) 7.5 / (4) 10 /

26. x = 2t2 , y = 2t2 – 4t z = 3 t – 5 :-

(1) 10 Unit (2) 12 Unit

(3) 5 Unit (4) 2 Unit

27.

a

= ˆ4i – j , b

= –3 i + 2 j and c

= – k

i , j , k X, Y Z-

r

(1) r = 1

3 ( i + j – k )

(2) r = 1

2 ( i + j – k )

(3) r = 1

3 ( i – j + k )

(4) r = 1

2 ( i + j + k )

28. v = Ax3/2 x-A :-

(1) x2 (2) x5/2

(3) x7/2 (4) x9/2

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question



MAJOR TEST

29. A man M1 of mass 80 kg runs up a staircase in 15

sec. Another man M2 also of mass 80 kg runs up

the same staircase in 20 sec. The ratio of the power

developed by them will be :-

(1) 1 (2) 4

3

(3) 16

9(4) None

30. A body of mass m slides down an incline and

reaches the botoom with a velocity v. If the same

mass was in the form of a ring which rolls down

this incline, the velocity of the ring at the bottom

would have been :-

(1) v (2) 2v

(3) v 2 (4) 2 / 5 v

31. The (x-t) equation is given as x=(2t+1). The

corresponding (v–t) graph is :-

(1) A straight line passing through origin.

(2) A straight line not passing through origin.

(3) A parabola

(4) None of them

32. Two vectors A

and B

have equal magnitudes. If

magnitude of A

+ B

is equal to n times the

magnitude of A

– B

, then the angle between

A

and B

is

(1) cos–1 n – 1

n 1

(2) cos–1

2

2

n –1

n 1

(3) sin–1 n – 1

n 1

(4) sin–1

2

2

n –1

n 1

33. A bolt of mass 0.1 kg falls from the ceiling of an

elevator moving down with an uniform speed of

10 m/s. It hits the floor of the elevator (length of

the elevator = 3 m) and does not rebound. What

is the heat produced by the impact ?

(g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 3 J

(2) 5 J

(3) 8 J

(4) No energy loss

29. 80 15 80 20 :-

(1) 1 (2) 4

3

(3) 16

9(4) None

30. m v (Ring)

(1) v (2) 2v

(3) v 2 (4) 2 / 5 v

31. x=(2t+1)(v–t) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

32. A B

A

+ B

A

– B

n

AB

(1) cos–1 n –1

n 1

(2) cos–1

2

2

n –1

n 1

(3) sin–1 n –1

n 1

(4) sin–1

2

2

n –1

n 1

33. 0.1 kg 10 m/s ( 3 m) ?

(g = 10 m/s2):-

(1) 3 J

(2) 5 J

(3) 8 J

(4)



MAJOR TEST

34. A block of mass m is moving with a constant

acceleration a on a rough plane. If the coefficient

of friction between the block and the ground is µ,

the power delivered by the external agent after a

time t from the begining is :-

(1) ma2t (2) µmg at

(3) m(a + µg)gt (4) m(a + µg)at

35. A wheel is rotating about an axis through its

centre at 720 rpm. It is acted on by a constant

torque opposing its motion for 8 seconds to

bring it to rest finally. The value of torque

(in N-m) is:-

224Given I kg m

(1) 48 (2) 72

(3) 96 (4) 120

36. Four bodies P,Q,R and S are projected with equal

velocities having angles of projection 15º, 30º, 45º

and 60º with the horizontal respectievly. The body

having shortest range is :-

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

37. A vector a

is turned without a change in its length

through a small angle d. The value of | a |

and

a are respectively.

(1) 0, ad (2) ad, 0

(3) 0, 0 (4) None of these

38. A lady pulls a suitcase on a rough railway

platform. She applies 100 N force initially but

this force regularly decreases linearly to 50 N at

the end. If distance travelled by lady is 10m

then :-

(1) 1000 J

(2) 750 J

(3) 500 J

(4) Calculation is not possible

39. A particle of mass 2kg is moving with velocity

3m/s towards east and another particle of mass 4kg

is moving with velocity of 2m/sec towards north

then velocity of centre of mass of the system is :-

(1) 7m/sec (2) 10

3m/sec

(3) 10 m/sec (4) 1

3m/sec

34. m a µ t :-

(1) ma2t (2) µmg at

(3) m(a + µg)gt (4) m(a + µg)at

35. 720 8 ()

224I

(1) 48 (2) 72

(3) 96 (4) 120

36. P, Q, R S 15º, 30º, 45º 60º :-

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

37. a

d | a |

a

(1) 0, ad (2) ad, 0

(3) 0, 0 (4) 38.

100 N 50 N 10m :-(1) 1000 J

(2) 750 J

(3) 500 J

(4) 39. 2 3m/sec

4 2m/sec :-

(1) 7m/sec (2) 10

3m/sec

(3) 10 m/sec (4) 1

3m/sec



MAJOR TEST

40. A uniform solid sphere rolls on a horizontal

surface at 20 ms–1 . It then rolls up an incline

having an angle of inclination at 30º with the

horizontal. If the friction losses are negligible, the

value of height h above the ground where the ball

stops is:-

(1) 14.3 m (2) 28.6 m

(3) 57.2 m (4) 9.8 m

41. A body is projected at an angle of 30º with the

horizontal with momentum P. At its highest point

the magnitude of the momentum is :-

(1)3

P2

(2) 2

P3

(3) P (4) P

2

42. S = A (1–e–Bxt), where S is speed and x is

displacement. The unit of B is

(1) m–1s–1 (2) m–2s

(3) s–2 (4) s–1

43. A stone tied at the end of 200 cm long thread in

horizontal circle with constant speed. If it

completes 14 revolution in 22 s then its linear

speed is :-

(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 8 m/s (4) 1 m/s

44. A ball of mass m moving with speed u undergoes

a head on elastic collision with a ball of mass nm

initially at rest. The fraction of the incident energy

transferred to the second ball is :-

(1) n

1 n (2) 2

n

(1 n)

(3) 2

2n

(1 n)(4) 2

4n

(1 n)

45. If the earth were to suddenly contact to l/nth of its

present radius without any change in its mass, the

duration (in hrs.) of the new day will be nearly:-

(1) 24/n (2) 24n

(3) 24/n2 (4) 24n2

40. 20 30º h

(1) 14.3 m (2) 28.6 m

(3) 57.2 m (4) 9.8 m

41. 30º P :-

(1)3

P2

(2) 2

P3

(3) P (4) P

2

42. S = A (1–e–Bxt), S x B

(1) m–1s–1 (2) m–2s

(3) s–2 (4) s–1

43. 200 cm 22 s 14 :-

(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 8 m/s (4) 1 m/s

44. m u nm :-

(1) n

1 n (2) 2

n

(1 n)

(3) 2

2n

(1 n)(4) 2

4n

(1 n)

45. l/n :-

(1) 24/n (2) 24 n

(3) 24/n2 (4) 24n2



MAJOR TEST

46. One litre N2, 7

8litre O2 and 1 litre CO are taken

in a mixture under indentical conditions of P and

T. The amount of gases present in mixture is given

by :

(1) 2NW =

2OW > W

CO

(2) 2NW = W

CO >

2OW

(3) 2NW =

2OW = WCO

(4) WCO

> 2NW

>

2OW

47. If 1.2 g of a metal displace 1.12 litre hydrogen at

normal temperature and pressure, equivalent

weight of metal would be :

(1) 12 (2) 24

(3) 1.2 × 11.2 (4) 1.211.2

48. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of

molecule of H2, N

2, O

2 and HBr is?

(1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr (2) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2

(3) HBr > H2 > O

2 > N

2(4) N

2 > O

2 > H

2 > HBr

49. A certain radiostation broadcasts at a frequency

of 900 kHz. The wavelength of electromagnetic

radiations broadcast by radiostation is :-

(1) 900 m (2) 270 m

(3) 2.70 km (4) 330 m

50. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass M)

in water is Wg per 100 ml at 25°C. Its Ksp is

(approx.) :-

(1) 109

5W

M

(2) 107

5W

M

(3) 105

5W

M

(4) 103

5W

M

51. The equivalent weight of H3PO4 in the following

reaction is,

H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaHPO4 + 2H2O :

(1) 98 (2) 49

(3) 32.66 (4) 40

52. The total molarity of all the ions containing 0.1 M

of CuSO4 and 0.1 of Al2(SO4)3 is :

(1) 0.2 M (2) 0.7 M

(3) 0.8 M (4) 1.2 M

46. P, T 1 N2, 7

8 O2

1 CO

?

(1) 2NW =

2OW > W

CO

(2) 2NW = W

CO >

2OW

(3) 2NW =

2OW = WCO

(4) WCO

> 2NW

>

2OW

47. N.T.P 1.2g 1.12

(1) 12 (2) 24

(3) 1.2 × 11.2 (4) 1.2/11.2

48. STP H2, N

2, O

2 HBr

(1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr (2) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2

(3) HBr > H2 > O

2 > N

2(4) N

2 > O

2 > H

2 > HBr

49. 900 kHz. (1) 900 m (2) 270 m

(3) 2.70 km (4) 330 m

50. ( M) Wg /100 ml 25°C Ksp :-

(1) 109

5W

M

(2) 107

5W

M

(3) 105

5W

M

(4) 103

5W

M

51. H3PO4 ?

H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaHPO4 + 2H2O :

(1) 98 (2) 49

(3) 32.66 (4) 40

52. 0.1 M, CuSO4 0.1 Al2(SO4)3 (1) 0.2 M (2) 0.7 M

(3) 0.8 M (4) 1.2 M

Take it Easy and Make it Easy



MAJOR TEST

53. The approximate quantum number of a circular

orbit of diameter, 20.6 nm of the hydrogen atom

according to Bohr's theory is?

(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 16

54. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the

reaction:

PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

(g) (g) (g)

at 400K if Hº = 69418.86 J/mol and

Sº = 154.4 JK–1mol–1

(1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000

55. Silver ions are added to the solution with

(Br–) = (Cl–) = 23(CO ) = ( 3

4AsO ) = 0.1 M.

Which compound will precipitate at the lowest

(Ag+) :-

(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5 × 10–13)

(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10)

(3) Ag2CO

3 (K

sp = 8.1 × 10–12)

(4) None

56. The atomic weight of a metal (M) is 27 and its

equivalent weight is 9, the formula of its chloride

will be :

(1) MC (2) MC9(3) M3C4 (4) MC3

57. Equivalent weight of bivalent metal is 32.7.

Molecular weight of its chloride is :

(1) 68.2 (2) 103.7

(3) 136.4 (4) 166.3

58. If h is planck's constant the momentum of a

photon of wavelength 0.01 Å is ?

(1) 10–2 h (2) h

(3) 102 h (4) 1012 h

59. Bond energy of H-H, F-F and H-F bonds are 434,

158 and 565 kJ/mol respectively, than calculate

H for the reaction H2 + F2 2H-F

(1) 538 kJ (2) –538 kJ

(3) 27 kJ (4) –27 kJ

60. If you have saturated solution of CaF2 then :-

(1) (Ca+2) = spK (2) (Ca+2) = 2 (F –)

(3) (Ca+2) = (Ksp/4)1/3 (4) None

61. A metal M forms a compound M2HPO4. The

formula of the metal sulphate is :

(1) M2SO4 (2) MSO4

(3) M(SO4)2 (4) M2(SO4)3

53. 20.6 nm ?(1) 10 (2) 14

(3) 12 (4) 16

54. 400 K PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

(g) (g) (g)

Hº = 69418.86 J/mol Sº=154.4 JK–1mol–1 (1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000

55. Ag+

(Br–) = (Cl–) = 23(CO ) ( 3

4AsO ) = 0.1 M.

Ag+ :-

(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5 × 10–13)

(2) AgCl (Ksp

= 1.8 × 10–10)

(3) Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 8.1 × 10–12)

(4) None

56. 27 9

(1) MC (2) MC9

(3) M3C4 (4) MC3

57. 32.7 (1) 68.2 (2) 103.7

(3) 136.4 (4) 166.3

58. h 0.01 Å ?(1) 10–2 h (2) h

(3) 102 h (4) 1012 h

59. H-H, F-F H-F 434,

158 565 kJ/mol H2 + F2 2H-F

H (1) 538 kJ (2) –538 kJ

(3) 27 kJ (4) –27 kJ

60. CaF2 :-

(1) (Ca+2) = spK (2) (Ca+2) = 2 (F –)

(3) (Ca+2) = (Ksp/4)1/3 (4) None

61. M M2HPO4 (1) M2SO4 (2) MSO4

(3) M(SO4)2 (4) M2(SO4)3



MAJOR TEST

62. Volume of 2 M HCl needed to neutralise the

solution containing one litre of 1 M solution of

NaOH is :

(1) 1 litre (2) 2 litre

(3) 3 litre (4) 1

2 litre

63. For the process, NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH

4 Cl (s)

(1) H = +ve, S = +ve (2) H = –ve, S = +ve

(3) H = +ve, U = –ve (4) H = –ve, S = –ve

64. The enthalpy of neuteralisation of the given

reaction.

H2SO

4 + 2NaOH Na

2SO

4 + 2H

2O + yKcal

(1) y Kcal/equivalent

(2) –yKcal/equivalent

(3)y

2 Kcal/equivalent

(4)y

2 Kcal/equivalent

65. What will be the pH of a solution formed by

mixing 40 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl with 10 cm3 of

0.45M NaOH :-

(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 12

66. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% S. What will

be its empirical formula ?

(1) SO (2) SO2

(3) SO3 (4) S2O3

67. An element forms an oxide, in which the oxygen

is 20% of the oxide by weight, the equivalent

weight of the given element will be:

(1) 32 (2) 40

(3) 60 (4) 128

68. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure

such that

1T

V

The value of i.e. (CP/CV) of the gas will be ?

(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50

(3) 1.70 (4) 2

62. 1 M, NaOH 1 Lt

2 M HCl

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 1

2

63. NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH

4 Cl (s)

(1) H = +ve, S = +ve (2) H = –ve, S = +ve

(3) H = +ve, U = –ve (4) H = –ve, S = –ve

64.

H2SO

4 + 2NaOH Na

2SO

4 + 2H

2O + yKcal

(1) y Kcal/equivalent

(2) –yKcal/equivalent

(3)y

2 Kcal/equivalent

(4)y

2 Kcal/equivalent

65. 40 cm3 0.1 M HCl 10 cm3 0.45M NaOH

pH :-

(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 12

66. 50% S (1) SO (2) SO2

(3) SO3 (4) S2O3

67. 20% w/w

(1) 32 (2) 40

(3) 60 (4) 128

68.

1T

V

?(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50

(3) 1.70 (4) 2



MAJOR TEST

69. If x and y are extensive properties then, which

one is incorrect ?

(1) (x + y) is an extensive variable

(2) (x/y) is an intensive variable

(3) (dx/dy) is an intensive variable

(4) (x – y) is an intensive variable

70. Autoprotolysis constant of NH3 is :-

(1)4 3(NH )(NH ) (2)

2 3(NH )(NH )

(3)4 2(NH )(NH ) (4)

4

2

(NH )

(NH )

71. The normality of 10% (weight/volume) acetic acid

is :

(1) 1N (2) 10 N

(3) 1.7 N (4) 0.83 N

72. The number of Cl– and Ca2+ ions in 222g CaCl2are :

(1) 4NA, 2NA (2) 2NA, 4NA

(3) 1NA, 2NA (4) 2NA, 1NA

73. The orbital diagram in which both the pauli's

exclusion principle and hund's rule are violated

is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

74. For the following reaction

CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO

2(g)

if at 0K, S of this reaction is x cal K–1mol–1 then

entropy of CO2(g) of 0K is :-

(1) 0 cal K–1mol–1 (2) –x cal K–1 mol–1

(3) +x cal K–1 mol–1 (4) –2x cal K–1 mol–1

75. For this reaction 62(g) cI 2I K 10 then

what is correct :-

(1) (I2) > (I –) (2) (I2) < (I

–)

(3) (I2) = (I ) (4) (I2) = 1

2(I –)

69. x y

(1) (x + y)

(2) (x/y) is

(3) (dx/dy)

(4) (x – y)

70. NH3 :-

(1)4 3(NH )(NH ) (2)

2 3(NH )(NH )

(3)4 2(NH )(NH ) (4)

4

2

(NH )

(NH )

71. 10% (w/v) CH3COOH

(1) 1N (2) 10 N

(3) 1.7 N (4) 0.83 N

72. 222g CaCl2 Cl– Ca2+

(1) 4NA, 2NA (2) 2NA, 4NA

(3) 1NA, 2NA (4) 2NA, 1NA

73.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

74.

CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)

0K, S, x cal K–1mol–1

CO2(g) 0K

(1) 0 cal K–1mol–1 (2) –x cal K–1 mol–1

(3) +x cal K–1 mol–1 (4) –2x cal K–1 mol–1

75.

62(g) cI 2I K 10

(1) (I2) > (I –) (2) (I

2) < (I –)

(3) (I2) = (I ) (4) (I

2) =

1

2(I –)



MAJOR TEST

76. 1 M, NaCl (1.0585 g/mL) (1) 1.0585 (2) 1.0

(3) 0.10 (4) 0.0585

77.

(1) O2

(2) 1 × 10–23 O2

(3) O2–

(4) 1 O2

78.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

79. 250 ml H+ pH = 3 :-

(1) 1.5 × 1022 (2) 1.5 × 1023

(3) 1.5 × 1020 (4) 3 × 1021

80. NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)

3 atm Kp

:-(1) 4 (2) 27 (3) 4/27 (4) 1/27

81. 0.8 M 0.1 ?(1) 100 mL (2) 125 mL

(3) 500 mL (4) 0.125 mL

82. 0.1N HCl, 100 ml

(1) 4.0 g (2) 0.04 g (3) 0.4 g (4) 2.0 g

83. H e

–3.02 eV

(1) 4.761 Aº (2) 8.464 Å

(3) 2.116 Aº (4)

76. The molality of 1 M solution of NaCl (specific

gravity 1.0585 g/mL) is :

(1) 1.0585 (2) 1.0

(3) 0.10 (4) 0.0585

77. The highest mass corresponds to which of the

following ?

(1) 1 molecule of O2

(2) 1 × 10–23 g mole of O2

(3) An O2– ion

(4) 1 mole of O2

78. Which is not the characteristic property of plank's

quantum theory ?

(1) Energy is neither absorbed nor emitted in

simple multiples of quanta

(2) Radiation is related to energy

(3) Energy is not radiated continuously but in

small packages of enegy called quantum

(4) The energy of a quantum is proportional to

its frequency

79. Number of H+ ions present in 250 ml of lemon

juice of pH = 3 is :-

(1) 1.5 × 1022 (2) 1.5 × 1023

(3) 1.5 × 1020 (4) 3 × 1021

80. NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g). If

equilibrium pressure is 3 atm for the above

reaction Kp will be :-

(1) 4 (2) 27 (3) 4/27 (4) 1/27

81. What volume of 0.8 M solution contains 0.1 milli

mole of solute ?

(1) 100 mL (2) 125 mL

(3) 500 mL (4) 0.125 mL

82. What weight of sodium hydroxide is required to

neutralise 100 ml of 0.1N HCl?

(1) 4.0 g (2) 0.04 g (3) 0.4 g (4) 2.0 g

83. The P.E. of an e– in a particular shell of H atom

is –3.02 eV then calculate the radius of that

particular shell :-

(1) 4.761 Aº (2) 8.464 Å

(3) 2.116 Aº (4) Cannot predict



MAJOR TEST

84. AxB

y C

:-

(1) = eqk / C(x y) (2) = eqk C

xy

(3) =

1/ x y

eq

x y 1 x y

k

C x y

(4) None

85. CH3COOH CH

3COONa

:-

(1) CH3COO–

(2) [H+]

(3) OH–

(4) H+

86. 2 4

(1) 88 (2) 44 (3) 132 (4) 72

87. X X ?

(1) 64 (2) 32

(3) 4.0 (4) 8.0

88. Cr (z = 24) = 1 2

(1) 16 4 (2) 12 5

(3) 12 4 (4) 16 5

89. NH4Cl

1M, 0.1 M, 0.01 M 0.001 M

h1, h

2, h

3, h

4 :-

(1) h1 > h2 > h3 > h4 (2) h1 = h2 = h3 = h4

(3) h4 > h3 > h2 > h1 (4) None

90. 0.1M 5 ml 0.1 M HCl

100 ml

(1) CH3COONa + CH3COOH

(2) CH3COONa + HCl

(3) CH3COOH + HCl

(4) CH3COOH

84. For a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte

AxB

y of concentration 'C' the degree of

dissociation is given as :-

(1) = eqk / C(x y) (2) = eqk C

xy

(3) =

1/ x y

eq

x y 1 x y

k

C x y

(4) None

85. When a buffer solution of CH3COOH and

CH3COONa is diluted with water :-

(1) CH3COO– ion concentration increases

(2) [H+] ion concentration increases

(3) OH– ion concentration increases

(4) H+ ion concentration does not change

86. If a compound contains two oxygen atoms, fourcarbon atoms and number of hydrogen atoms is

double of carbon atoms, the vapour density of itis :

(1) 88 (2) 44 (3) 132 (4) 72

87. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given

temperature is twice that of a gas X. The

molecular weight of X is?

(1) 64 (2) 32 (3) 4.0 (4) 8.0

88. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (z = 24).

The number of electrons with azimuthal numbers

= 1 and 2 are respectively :-

(1) 16 and 4 (2) 12 and 5

(3) 12 and 4 (4) 16 and 5

89. Four solutions of NH4Cl are taken with

concentrations 1M, 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001 M.

Their degree of hydrolysis are h1, h2, h3, h4 . What

is the order of degree of hydrolysis :-

(1) h1 > h2 > h3 > h4 (2) h1 = h2 = h3 = h4

(3) h4 > h

3 > h

2 > h

1(4) None

90. To a 5 ml of 0.1 M sodium acetate solution,

100 ml of 0.1 M HCl has been added the

species present in the system would be :–

(1) CH3COONa + CH3COOH

(2) CH3COONa + HCl

(3) CH3COOH + HCl

(4) Only CH3COOH



MAJOR TEST

91. How many plants in the list given below have

marginal placentation and lomentum fruit.

Mustard, Acacia, Cassia fistula, Pisum sativum,

Tulip, Glycine max, Cicer arietinum

(1) Three (2) Six

(3) One (4) Two

92. Select incorrect statement

(1) In most algal genera life cycle pattern is

haplonitc.

(2) Diplontic life cycle pattern is found in all seed

bearing plants

(3) In all pteridophytes, prothallus is

photosynthetic

(4) Protonema stage is found in the life cycle of

mosses

93. Examine the figures (A to E) given below and

select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the

structures a,b,c and d are identified correctly:-

a

(A)

b

(B)

(C)

c

d

(d)

Phloem(1) Tunica Periblem Lumen

parenchyma

Companion(2) Tunica Plerome Lumen

cell

Companion(3) Corpus Periblem Lumen Lumen

cell

Sievetube Simplepit(4) Tunica Dermatogen

element cavity

a b c d e

91. (1) (2) (3) (4)

92. (1)

(2)

(3) (4)

93. (A E) a,b,c d :-

a

(A)

b

(B)

(C)

c

d

(d)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

a b c d e



MAJOR TEST

94. A cladogram showing evolution of plants given

below :-

Liverworts

5

4

3 2

1

Embryo

BGA Naked DNA

Chlorophyll 'C'

Chlorophyll-'a'

Chlorophyll-'b'

Phycobillins

Silicated cell wall

Leaf gametophyte

Number '2' & '3' representing the which group of

plants, respectively :-

(1) Dinoflagellates & Moss

(2) Moss & Diatoms

(3) Diatom & Red algae

(4) Pteriodophyta & Red algae

95. Match the given figures of aestivation with related

plants?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(i) Cassia (ii) Pea

(iii) Calotropis (iv) Gossypium

(1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)

(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)

(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)

94.

Liverworts

5

4

3 2

1

Embryo

BGA Naked DNA

Chlorophyll 'C'

Chlorophyll-'a'

Chlorophyll-'b'

Phycobillins

Silicated cell wall

Leaf gametophyte

'' & '3'

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

95. ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)

(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)

(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)



MAJOR TEST

96. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true

and false with regards to epithelium :-

(A) The structure of the cells different, according

to their function

(B) Epitheliul tissue faces either the body fluid

or the outside environment

(C) Simple epithelium has protective function as

it does in our skin

(1) A, B and C are correct

(2) A, and B are correct but C is incorrect

(3) A is correct while B and C are incorrect

(4) A and C are correct while B is incorrect

97. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct

with respect to erythrocytes :-

(A) Most aboundent corpuscles which have no

nucleus

(B) Blood normally contains 5 to 5.5 milion/mm3

(C) It contains haemoglobin which is iron

containing simple proteins

(D) It plays important role in transportation of

gases during respiration

(1) A and C

(2) A, B and D

(3) B, C and D

(4) All are correct

98. Read the following four statements (A-D) -

(A) On an average, female Cockroach produce

9-10 Oothecae, each Containing 14-16 eggs.

(B) The development of P. americana is

Ametabolous.

(C) The Nymph grows by moulting about 20

times to reach the adult form.

(D) In male Cockroach mushroom shaped gland

is present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments.

How many of the above statements are wrong :-

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

96.

:-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(1) A, B C

(2) A, B C

(3) A B C

(4) A C B

97. :-

(A)

(B) 5 5.5 3

(C)

(D)

(1) A C

(2) A, B D

(3) B, C D

(4) 98. (A-D) -

(A)9-10

14-16

(B)

(C) (Nymph)

(20)

(D)

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

99. The cells in the folllowing figure were all taken

from the same individual (a mammal). Identify

the cell division events happening in each cell:-

××××××

(a)

(b)

(c)

(1) (a) Meiotic metaphase I, (b) Mitotic

Anaphase, (c) Meiotic Anaphase II

(2) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase,

(c) Meiotic Anaphase II

(3) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase

(c) Meiotic Anaphase I

(4) (a) Meiotic Metaphase II (b) Meiotic Anaphase

I (c) Meotic Anaphase II

100. Which type of glycosidic linkage is found in mal-

tose ?

(1) 1' ––1" (2) 1' –– 4"

(3) 1' ––2" (4) 1' –– 6"

101. How many organisms in the list given below are

autotrophs

Spirulina, Chlorella, Nostoc, Streptomyces,

Nitrosomonas, Polytrichum, Lactobacillus

Cedrus, Chromatium, Chlorobium, Utricularia,

Cuscuta.

(1) Ten (2) Nine

(3) Five (4) Eight

102. In how many plants, sporophyte is differentiated

into foot, seta & capsule :-

Riccia, Marchantia, Porella, Anthoceros,

Polytrichuon, Funaria

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Two (4) Five

103. The living differentiated cell which have lost the

capacity to divide, can regain capacity of division

under certain condition. This phenomenon is

called :–

(1) Dedifferentiation

(2) Differentiation

(3) Redifferentiation

(4) None of these

99. :-

××××××

(a)

(b)

(c)

(1) (a) Meiotic metaphase I, (b) Mitotic

Anaphase, (c) Meiotic Anaphase II

(2) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase,

(c) Meiotic Anaphase II

(3) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase

(c) Meiotic Anaphase I

(4) (a) Meiotic Metaphase II (b) Meiotic Anaphase

I (c) Meotic Anaphase II

100. ?(1) 1' ––1" (2) 1' –– 4"

(3) 1' ––2" (4) 1' –– 6"

101.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

102.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

103.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

104. Which of the following pair is not correctly

matched :-

(1) (Colony)Volvox

(2) Nostoc

(3) Zygnema (4) Ulothrix

105. Name of the plants are given below :-

Anthoceros, Ulothrix, Laminaria, Fucus,

Polytrichum, Gelidium, Pinus, Pisum, Pteris,

Dryopteris and Ipomea

How many are vascular embryophytes :

(1) Three (2) Six (3) Two (4) Five

106. Which of the following pair is correctly matched:-

(1) Ciliated epithelium PCT of nephron in the

kidney

(2) Columner epithelium Blood vessels and

fallopian tubes

(3) Squamous epithelium function :secretion

& absorption

(4) Simple squamous epithelium forming a

diffusion

boundaries

107. Identify the given below figure of animal tissue

along with its correct location :-

Tissue Location

(1)Dense regularconnective tissue

Pericardium

(2)Dense irregularconnective tissue

All bone joints

(3) Adipose tissue Beneath the skin

(4)Areolar connectivetissue

Beneath the skin

104. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

105. :- (1) (2) (3) (4)

106. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) :

(4)

107. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

108. The Cockroach compound eyes are situated at the

dorsal surface of head, each eyes consits of

ommatidia about :-

(1) 1000 (2) 2000

(3) 3000 (4) 4000

109. A few major discoveries in cell biology are listed:-

(a) Schleiden and Schwann proposed the cell

theory

(b) Leewenhoek discovered bacteria

(c) Golgi stained cells with silver nitrate

discovered golgi apparatus

The correct chronological order of these events

starting with the earliest event is :-

(1) a,b,c (2) b,a,c

(3) b,c,a (4) c,b,a

110. In prokaryotes at the time of protein synthesis

“S. D. Sequence” helps mRNA in recognition of:-

(1) Smaller sub unit of ribosome

(2) Larger sub unit of ribosome

(3) Initiation factors

(4) Elongation factors

111. Which of the following combination is incorrect:-

(1) Rhizophore - Selaginella

(2) Pnumatophore-Rhizophora

(3) Carpophore-Coriander

(4) Pappus-Clematis

112. Select incorrectly matched pair :-

(1) Fucus-Air bladder

(2) Marchantia-Gemma cup

(3) Phylogenetic classification-Cladistic

(4) Puccinia-Smut

113. Which of the following statement is/are true about

parenchyma?

(1) The cells are generally isodiametric.

(2) The cells may either be closely packed or have

intercellular spaces.

(3) It performs various functions like storage,

secretion and photosynthesis.

(4) All the above

108. :-

(1) 1000 (2) 2000

(3) 3000 (4) 4000

109.

:

(a)

(b) Leewenhoek

(c) silver nitrate

:-

(1) a,b,c (2) b,a,c

(3) b,c,a (4) c,b,a

110. “S. D. ” m–RNA :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

111.

(1) -

(2) -(3) -

(4) -

112.

(1)

(2) (3)

(4) 113.

(1)

(2)

(Intercellular)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

114. Arrange the following events in a correct

sequence with respect to life cycle of fern :-

(I) Fertilization

(II) Liberation of spores

(III) Prothallus

(IV) Embryo

(1) II, III, I, IV (2) IV, III, II, I

(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, IV, III, II

115.A

B

C

D

Identify the A, B, C and D are, respectively :-

(1) Seta, Leaves, Capsule, Rhizoids

(2) Leaves, Capsule, Seta, Rhizoids

(3) Capsule, Seta, leaves, Rhizome

(4) Capsule, Seta, leaves, Rhizoids

116. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(a) Tight function helps connecting the cytoplasm

and adjoining cells

(b) Adhering junction helps to stop substances

from leaking across a tissue

(c) Gap function keeps neighbouring cells

together

(d) Ions & small molecules and rarely large

molecules quickly transports through gap

junction

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) All of these

114. (I) (II) (III) (IV) (1) II, III, I, IV (2) IV, III, II, I(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, IV, III, II

115.A

B

C

D

A, B, C D :-

(1) , , ,

(2) , , ,

(3)

(4) , , , 116. (A-D) :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4)



MAJOR TEST

117. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a

certain type of epithelial tissue. Identify it and

choose the correct option in which type of

epithelium, its location and their function is

correctly identified ?

Name ofepithelium

Location Function

(1)SquamousEpithelium

Blood vesselsand Air sacs

Diffusion

(2)ColumnarEpithelium

Stomach andIntestine

Secretion &absorption

(3)CuboidalEpithelium

Tubuler partof Nephron

Secretion &Absorption

(4)Ciliatedcolumnarepithelium

Broncheoles

To movemucous in aspecificdirection

118. In nerve - cord of cockroach, how many ganglia

present in the thorax and abdomen ?

(1) 3, 7 (2) 3, 5

(3) 3, 6 (4) 3, 9

119. The cytoskeletal elements are involved in :

(i) Amoeboid movement

(ii) Separation of chromosomes

(iii) Ciliary movement

(iv) Formation of cell plate

(1) i,ii and iv (2) i, ii and iii

(3) ii, iii and iv (4) i, ii iii and iv

120. In prokaryotes, which factor helps RNA

polymerase enzyme to recognise the terminator

site ?

(1) –factor (2) –factor

(3) –factor (4) None of them

121. How many plants in the list given below are

ornamentals

Indigofera, Glycine, Lupin, Petunia, Withania,

Colchichum, Tulip, Gloriosa

(1) Three (2) Five (3) Four (4) Six

117.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

118. (1) 3, 7 (2) 3, 5

(3) 3, 6 (4) 3, 9

119. :(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) i,ii and iv (2) i, ii and iii

(3) ii, iii and iv (4) i, ii iii and iv

120. ‘Terminator site’ () RNA– ?

(1) –factor (2) –factor

(3) –factor (4) 121.

(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

122. Select incorrect statement :-

(1) The members of basidiomycetes are

commonly known as imperfect fungi

(2) Bacteriophages are generally double stranded

DNA viruses

(3) Plant viruses are generally single stranded

RNA Viruses.

(4) Free infectious RNA was discovered by T.O.

Diener

123. In a transverse section of a Sunflower root:-

(1) Both protoxylem and metaxylem vessels are

present towards the periphery.

(2) Both protoxylem and metaxylem vessels are

present towards the centre.

(3) The protoxylem vessels are present towards

the centre and metaxylem vessels are present

towards the periphery.

(4) The protoxylem vessels are present towards

the periphery and metaxylem vessels are

present towards the centre.

124. If the number of chromosomes in a megaspore

mother cell of Pinus is 36, then what will be the

chromosome number of the cells of endosperm:-

(1) 72 (2) 36

(3) 48 (4) 18

125. If the aerial parts of a typical pteridophyte are

destroyed by fire, then which plant part helps to

regenerate :-

(1) Root (2) Rhizome

(3) Leaf - tip (4) Pinnule

126. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) The fibers of connective tissue provide

strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.

(B) In all connective tissues, cells secrete fibres

made up of structural protein with out any

exception.

(C) Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective

tissue located mainly beneath the skin.

(D) Mast cells produce and secrete fibres in

connective tissue.

Out of these which are true statements ?

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) A and C

122.

(1)

(2) DNA

(3) RNA

(4) RNA T.O.

123. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

124. 36 :-(1) 72 (2) 36

(3) 48 (4) 18

125. :-(1) (2) (3) - (4)

126. (A-D) :-(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

?(1) A B (2) B C(3) C D (4) A C

Time Management is Life Management



MAJOR TEST

127. Given below a diagramme of a type of WBC.

Identify and select the correct option :-

Nucleus

Cytoplasm

(1) It is basophill and its (i) No. = 0.5 – 1%

(ii) function –To secrete histamine, Hiparin

and seratonin

(2) It is Neutrophills and its (i) No. = 60 – 65%

(ii) function :- To destruct microbes

(3) It is Eosinophills and its (i) No. = 2-3%

(ii) Function – Protection against infection

(4) It is nutrophills and its (i) No. = 6-8%

(ii) function – Phagocytosis

128. Which type of metamorphosis present in

cockroach ?

(1) Holometabolous (2) Paurometabolous

(3) Catadromous (4) Anadromous

129. Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) Microtubules are made up of tubulin

monomers

(2) The golgi apparatus is made up of cisternae

(3) The nucleus is enclosed by 2 phospholipid

bilayers

(4) Peroxisomes generate hydrogen peroxide as

a waste product

130. In prokaryote, which part of m–RNA helpful in

the recognition of smaller subunit of ribosome ?

(1) Cap–region

(2) Tail–region

(3) Shine–dalgarno region

(4) All the above

131. Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) In Ginkgo, male and female gametophyte do

not have an independent free living existance.

(B) Calotropis and Petunia have corolla with

valvate aestivation

(C) Opposite phyllotaxy is found in Oscimum,

Calotropis and Psidium

(D) Sexual reproduction in-Fucus is isogamous

How many of the above statements are right?

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) One (4) Four

127. WBC :-

Nucleus

Cytoplasm

(1) (i) = 0.5 – 1%

(ii) –

(2) (i) = 60 – 65%

(ii) (3) (i) = 2-3%

(ii) – (4) (i) = 6-8%

(ii) – 128.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

129. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) H2O

2

130. m–RNA ?(1) Cap–region

(2) Tail–region

(3) Shine–dalgarno region

(4) All the above

131. (A-D) (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

132. How many plants in the list given below are

homosporous :-

Pteridium, Azolla, Salvinia, Dryopteris, Cycas,

Pinus, Lycopodium, Adiantum, Equisetum

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) Five

133. Which is/are correct statment/s:-

(1) P-protein helps in wound sealing

(2) In gymnosperms, tracheids are the chief water

transporting elemetns

(3) The companion cells play an important role

in the maintenance of a pressure gradient in

the sieve tubes

(4) All of these

134. Dry mosses are useful for translocation of new

seedling plants, because :–

(1) They have water absorption capacity and

water holding capacity

(2) They have capacity to incerase the acidity

of soil

(3) They are used as manure

(4) They have antiseptic properties

135. Read the following statement :-

(A) Possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and

xanthophylls

(B) Cellulosic Cell wall usually covered by

gelatinous coating of algin

(C) Gametes are pyriform and bear two laterally

attached flagella

(D) Members are found primarily in marine

habitats.

All these information are related to which class

(1) Phaeophyceae (2) Chlorophyceae

(3) Rhodophyceae (4) Cyanophyceae

136. How many bones in the list given below are

cartilagenous bones :-

Femur, Ribs, Pubis, Sternum, Clevical, Humerus,

Scapula, Tibiofibula, Radioulna, Mandible

(1) six (2) five

(3) four (4) seven

137. The tissue which allows the body to interact with

both its internal and external environments is :-

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Nervous tissue

(3) Epithelial tissue

(4) Connective tissue

132.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 133.

(1) P-

(2)

(3)

(4) 134.

:–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 135. :-

(A) a, c,

(B)

(C)

(D)

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

136. :-, , , , , ,

, , , (1) (2) (3) (4)

137. :-(1)

(2)

(3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

138. Mushroom gland is a part of :-

(1) Male reproductive system of cockroach

(2) Female reproductive system of cockroach

(3) Male reproductive system of rabbit

(4) Female reproductive system of rabbit

139. Refer to the list of organelles (parts) of cell :-

Ribosome,Nucleolus,Centrosome,Microbodies,Cytoskeleton,Cilia,Flagella,Nucleus,Plastid,Mitochondria

How many of above organelles/parts contains

nucleotide polymer :-

(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 3

140. In prokaryote the sigma factor recognize start

signal on DNA molecule for transcription, but in

the absence of factor, What will happen ?

(1) Synthesis of RNA will be stopped

(2) In the absence of -factor core enzyme

initiates RNA synthesis in a random manner

(3) Rate of transcription of DNA is increases

(4) Transcription of DNA does not occur

141. Select incorrect statement ?

(1) Families are characterized on the basis of both

vegetative and reproductive features of plant

species.

(2) Plant families like convolvulaceae & solanaceae

are included in the order polymoniales mainly

based on floral characters.

(3) The word systematic is derived from latin

word systema

(4) The taxonomic categories are morphological

aggregates.

142. Select incorrect statement

(1) In bacterium slime layer protects the cells from

loss of water and nutrients.

(2) Teichoic acid is found in Gram +ve bacteria

(3) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists

(4) All single celled eukaryotes are placed in

monera.

143. Which of the following statement is/are true about

sieve cells ?

(1)They have less conspicuous sieve areas located

on their lateral wall.

(2)They are narrow elongated cells.

(3)They taper at the end or have inclined walls.

(4)All the above

138. (1) (2) (3) (4)

139. :-

Nucleotide :-(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 3

140. ?(1) (2) –

(3) (4)

141.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 142.

(1)

(2) (3) (4)

143. (1) (2) (3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

144. Given diagrams A to D are, respectively :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) Agaricus, TMV, Laminaria, Selaginella

(2) Euglena, TMV, Fucus, Equisetum

(3) Chlamydomonas, Bacteriophage, Dictyota,

Adiantum

(4) Polytrichum, TMV, Agaricus, Equisetum

145. Consider the following four statement (A–D)

related to the animal tissue and select the correct

option stating ones are true (T) and which ones

are false (F).

Statements :-

(A) Compound epithelium has a limited role in

secretion and absorption

(B) Main function of compound epithelium is to

provide protection against chemical and

mechanical stresses

(C) Compound epithelium cover the dry surface

of the skin and moist surface of buccal cavity.

(D) The inner linning of ducts of salivary glands

and of pancreatic duct is made up of

compound epithelium

(1) A T; B F; C T; D F

(2) A T; B T; C T; D T

(3) A F; B F; C T; D F

(4) A T; B T; C F; D F

144. A D :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) ,

(2)

(3) , , ,

(4) , , , 145. (A–D)

(T) (F)

:-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A T; B F; C T; D F

(2) A T; B T; C T; D T

(3) A F; B F; C T; D F

(4) A T; B T; C F; D F



MAJOR TEST

146. Read the following features of various types of

muscles :-

(i) Present in walls of heart.

(ii) Muscle fibres are spindle in shape.

(iii) Multinucleated fibres.

(iv) Uninucleated fibres.

(v) Controlled by CNS + ANS.

(vi) Richly blood supplies in muscles.

(vii) Oblique bridges are present.

(viii) Fibres are always branchest.

Out of these how many features are shown by the

cardiac muscles ?

(1) Five (2) Six

(3) Seven (4) All of these

147. Cells of epithelial tissue that line the stomach and

intestine have following junction :-

(1) Interdigitation

(2) Tight junction

(3) Adherens junction

(4) Desmosomes

148. Arrows A,B and C in the diagram below represent

the processes necessary to make the energy stored

in food available for muscle activity :

Food A

Simpler moleculesB

Mitochondria

C

ATP in muscle cells

The correct sequence of processes represented by

A, B and C is :-

(1) Diffusion Synthesis Active transport

(2) DigestionExcretionCellular respiration

(3) Synthesis Active transport Excretion

(4) DigestionDiffusionCellular respiration

149. To study the ability to secrete a specific protein,

cells were homogenised mechanically and

organelles were separated by centrifugation.

Which organelle should be used for further

investigation ?

(1) Microsome

(2) Peroxisome

(3) Lysosome

(4) Ribosome

150. In process of protein synthesis how many

Releasing factors have been identified in

prokaryotes ?

(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 10

146. :-(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) CNS + ANS (vi) (vii) (viii) ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

147. (lining) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

148. :

ATP

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

149. ?

(1) Microsome

(2) Peroxisome

(3) Lysosome

(4) Ribosome

150. ?(1) 7 (2) 3

(3) 9 (4) 10



MAJOR TEST

151. According to five kingdom system

Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium and

Amoeba are placed in which kingdom.

(1) Monera (2) Plantae

(3) Fungi (4) Protista

152. Which of the following is wrongly matched

(1) Spirogyra-Motile gametes

(2) Sargassum-Chlorophyll a & c

(3) Basidiomycetes-Puff balls

(4) Anabaena - Water bloom

153. Meristematic tissue are characterised by all

except:-

(1)The nucleus is bigger in size

(2)Colourful plastids are present

(3) Having cell division capacity

(4) Cellulosic primary cell wall

154. A transverse section of a plant material shows the

following anatomical features under microscope:-

thick cuticle, Sunken stomata, discontinuous

sclerenchymatous hypodermis, Armed

parenchyma, 'T' shaped sclerenchymatous girdle,

Two-conjoint, collateral and open vascular

bundle.

The plant material should be

(1) Cycas rachis

(2) Cycas leaflet

(3) Pinus needle

(4) Nerium leaf

155. Consider the following four statement (A–D)

related to the animal tissue and select the correct

option which includes all the correct ones only.

(A) The intercellular matrix of cartilage is solid

and pliable and resists compression.

(B) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground

substance

(C) Cartilage is the main tissue that provides

structural frame of the body

(D) Bones support and protect softer tissues and

organs

(1) Statement 'C' and 'D'

(2) Statement 'A', 'B' and 'D'

(3) Statement 'B' and 'D'

(4) Statement only 'A'

151. (1) (2) (3) (4)

152. (1) -(2) -a & c

(3) -(4) -

153. (1) (2) (3) (4)

154.

'T' shaped

2-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

155. (A–D)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) 'C' 'D'

(2) 'A', 'B' 'D'

(3) 'B' 'D'

(4) 'A'



MAJOR TEST

156. Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) Both B and T-lymphocyte are responsible for

immunity

(B) ABO-system depends on absence and presence

of two antigen present in blood plasma

(C) Rh-antibodies from the mother can leak into

the blood of foetus and destroy foetus RBCes

(D) Persons with AB and O blood group are called

universal recepient and universal donors

respectively

From above statements which one is incorrect ?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

157. Consider the following four statement (a-d) and

select the option which includes all the correct

ones only.

(a) Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres

loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground

substance.

(b) Haversian system is unique feature of spongy

bones. This system is present in mammalian

bone.

(c) Fibroblasts cells are large present in all the

general connective tissues. They secretes

fibres and components of the matrix.

(d) An epithelial tissue has no blood vessels,

whereas most connective tissue have

significant networks of blood vessels.

Option :-

(1) Statements (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statements (a), (b)

(3) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

158. The diagram below shows a cell cycle :-

Z Y

X

W

V

Interphase

What is the process occur during V ?

(1) Replication of DNA

(2) Replication of centrioles

(3) Chromosomes condense and become shorter

and thicker

(4) High metabolic rate and synthesis of proteins

and cellular organelles

156. (A-D) :-(A) B T-

(B) ABO-

(C) Rh-RBCes

(D) AB O

?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

157. (a-d) (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

:-

(1) (a), (b) (c)

(2) (a), (b)

(3) (b), (c) (d)

(4) (a), (c) (d)

158. :-

Z Y

X

W

V

Interphase

V ?(1) DNA (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

159. Isomer which are formed as a result of interchange

of the –OH and H on carbon atoms 2nd, 3rd and

4th of glucose are known as –

(1) D and L isomer (2) d and isomer

(3) Anomer (4) Epimer

160. In t–RNA, activated amino acids attach at which

end ?

(1) 5' end, which contains free – OH group of

ribose sugar.

(2) 3' end, which contains free –COOH group

(3) 5' end, which contains free – COOH group

(4) 3' end of t–RNA, which contains free –OH

group of ribose sugar.

161. Select correctly matched pair/s

(A) Bacillus anthrasis-Endospore

(B) Diatoms-Auxospore

(C) Lichens-Soredia

(D) Agaricus-gills

(E) Salvinia-sporocarps

(1) Only A, B & E

(2) Only C, D & E

(3) Only A, B, C & D

(4) All A to E

162. Kuru disease, little leaf disease of brinjal & potato

spindle tuber disease, are respectively caused by:-

(1) Mycoplasma, viroid, prions

(2) Prions, Mycoplasma, viroid

(3) Prions, Mycoplasma, viriod

(4) Viroid, Mycoplasma, virus

163. Which of the following type of thickenings are

most common among the protoxylem vessels ?

(1) Only scalariform

(2) Annular & spiral

(3) Spiral, pitted and reticulate

(4) Annular, spiral & pitted

164. The cross section of a plant material 'X' shows the

following anatomical features under microscope:-

Sclerenchymatous hypodermis, Scattered

vascular bundles in ground tissue, each vascular

bundle is surround by sclerenchymatous bundle

sheath, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral

and closed, endarch xylem, phloem parenchyma

is absent, lack of well demarcated pith.

Plant material should be :-

(1) Maize stem (2) Maize root

(3) Sunflower stem (4) Cucurbita stem

159. 2nd, 3rd 4th OH H–(1) D L (2) d (3) (4)

160. t–RNA (1) 5 – OH

(2) 3' –COOH

(3) 5 – COOH

(4) t–RNA 3'

–OH 161.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) A, B E

(2) C, D E

(3) A, B, C D(4) A E

162. (1) (2) (3) (4)

163. (1) (2) (3) (4)

164. –

(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

165. (1) (2) (3) (4)

166. (A) (B) :-"

.......(A).........

.......(B).......

?

-A -B

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

167. :-

(i)

(a)

(ii) (b)

(iii)

(c)

(iv)

(d)

PCT

(1) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(a) iv-(b)

(2) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(b) iv-(a)

(3) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(a) iv-(b)

(4) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(b) iv-(a)

165. A student scrapped thin layer from inner surface

of cheeks by blunt end of a scalpal and observed

it in microscope which type of cell can be seen

in microscopic observation :-

(1) Columnar cell (2) Squamous cell

(3) Cuboidal cell (4) Pigmental cell

166. Read the following statements having two blanks

(A) and (B) : "Function of.......(A)......... is to move

particles in a specific direction over the

epithelium. They are present in the inner surface

of hollow organs like.......(B).......

To select the one option which is correct for the

two blanks ?

Blank-A Blank-B

(1) Cilia Fallopian tube

(2) Microvilli Pharynx

(3) Steriocilia Epididymis

(4) Microvilli PCT

167. Match the following :-

(i)

Column-I Column-II

Glandular columnarepithelium

(a)

Blood capillary

(ii) Urothelium (b)

(iii) Simple squamousepithelium

(c)Renalpelvis

(iv) Brush borderedcubaidal epithelium

(d)

Stomach

PCT

(1) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(a) iv-(b)

(2) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(b) iv-(a)

(3) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(a) iv-(b)

(4) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(b) iv-(a)



MAJOR TEST

168. The following information refers to organelle P

• Produces lipid

• Transport of proteins to be used in the cell

membrane

Identify organelle P :-

(1) Mitochondria

(2) Nucleus

(3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(4) Golgi apparatus

169. Which disaccharide generally is not found in

plants ?

(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose

(3) Lactose (4) Cellulose

170. On translation, m–RNA produces a polypeptide

chain, which contains 50 amino acids. If 26th

codon of m. RNA UUU mutated and changed to

UUC, then polypeptide chain

(1) Completely changed

(2) Partially changed

(3) Not changed

(4) Only one amino acid changed

171. List some of the plants are given below:-

Sphagnum, Marchanita, Cucumber, Cycas, Pinus,

Chara

How many are monoecious :-

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Five (4) Two

172. Which is incorrect statement ?

(1) The spring wood is lighter in colour and

exhibits low density wereas the autumn wood

is darker and has higher density

(2) The heart wood is more durable and resistant

to the attack of the microorganisms and insects

as compared to the sap wood

(3) Complementary cells are parenchymatous

(4) Enucleated condition is found in phloem

parenchyma

168. P

•

•

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

169.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

170. m–RNA 50

m–RNA 26 UUU UUC

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

171.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

172. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

173. A graph is given below exhibiting evolution of

gametophyte of different plant groups at

No.1 to 6. Identifiy the number '4' representing

which group of plant :-

Geneology of plant kingdom

Com

ple

xit

y o

f gam

etophyte

5

6

1

2

3

4

(1) Moss (2) Pteriodphyta

(3) Angiosperm (4) Liver worts

174. Labelled structures P, Q, R and S are respectively

in the given figures A to D :-

(A)

(P)

(Q)

(B)

(C)

(R)

(D)

(S)

P Q R S

(1) Contractile Conidium Rhizoids Sporocarps

vacuole

(2) Eye spot Sterigmata Gemma Floating

cup leaves

(3) Pyrenoid Sterigmata Gemma Sub-merged

cup leaves

(4) Chloroplast Conidio– Antheridia Submerged

phore leaves

173. 1 6 '4'

:-

Geneology

5

6

1

2

3

4

(1) (2) (3) (4)

174. A D P, Q, R S :-

(A)

(P)

(Q)

(B)

(C)

(R)

(D)

(S)

P Q R S

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

175. (i) Buccal cavity

(ii) Pharynx

(iii) Pancreas

(iv) Pancreatic duct

(v) Fallopian tube

(vi) Oesophagus

(vii) Gall bladder

(viii) Anal canal

Out of above location where you can not found

compound epithelium ?

(1) (iii), (v) and (vi)

(2) (iii), (v) and (viii)

(3) (iii), (v) and (vii)

(4) (iii), (iv) and (viii)

176. Given below the example of few chemicals like:-

Sodium oxalate, sodium chloride, sodium citrate,

EDTA, sodium hydroxide etc.

Out of these how many chemicals having

capability to prevent the blood clotting ?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Five (4) Four

177. In given figure, choose the correct match :-

A

B

CD

Structure Function

(1) (A) Testes Sperm formation

(2) (B) Oviduct Egg formation

(3) (C) Colleterialgland

Secretion help information of Ootheca

(4) (D) Oothecalchamber

Site of fertilization

175. (i) (ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

(vii)

(viii)

?

(1) (iii), (v) (vi) (2) (iii), (v) (viii) (3) (iii), (v) (vii) (4) (iii), (iv) (viii)

176. :-,

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 177. :-

A

B

CD

(1) (A)

(2) (B)

(3) (C)

(4) (D)



MAJOR TEST

178. The plasma membrane is the boundary between

a cell's internal and eternal environments. Both

environment are aqueous:-

X

Y

To allow this separation of aqueous environments

the regions of the plasma membrane indicated in

the diagram have the following properties :-

(1) (X) hydrophilic layers on the outside and (Y)

hydrophobic layers on the inside of the

membrane

(2) X and Y are both hydrophobic layers

(3) (X) hydrophobic layers on the outside and (Y)

hydrophilic layers on the inside of the

membrane

(4) X and Y are both hydrophilic layers.

179. Sweetest sugar in nature is :-

(1) Fructose (2) Sucrose

(3) Maltose (4) Galactose

180. Which statement is true about wobbling

concept ?

(1) Wobbling takes place at 5' position of codon

(2) Wobbling reduces the number of t–RNAs

required for polypeptide synthesis

(3) Wobbling increases the number of t–RNA

required for polypeptide synthesis

(4) Wobbling takes place at second position of

codon

178.

:-

X

Y

(1) (X) (Y)

(2) X Y

(3) (X) (Y)

(4) X Y 179. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

180. :-

(1) 5'

(2)

t–RNAs

(3)

t–RNA

(4)

Your moral duty

is to prove that is



MAJOR TEST

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