Hindi PAPER CODE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER …

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

PAPER CODE

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 18 - 03 - 2015

0 1 C M 4 1 4 1 0 1

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

INSTRUCTIONS ()

www.allen.ac.in

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

Hindi

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 1

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

1 4

(Phase - MLH & MAZ)

PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units,

Dimensions and MeasurementKinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a

plane)

Laws of Motion and Friction

Work, Energy & Power and Circular Motion

Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass

Rotational Motion

CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry

Structure of Atom

States of Matter : Gases and Liquids

Thermodynamics

Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium & Ionic Equilibrium)

Solid State

Solutions

BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World :

(i) The living world

(ii) Biological Classification

(iii) Plant Kingdom

(iv) Animal Kingdom

Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :

(i) Morphology of Flowering plants

(ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants

(iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach

Structure and Functions :

(i) Cell : The Unit of Life

(ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm)

(iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 18 - 03 - 2015

SYLLABUS – 1

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLH & MAZ)

Leader & Achiever Course/Phase/MLH & MAZ/18-03-2015

H-1/42Kota/01CM414101

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. Angle between the vectors ˆ ˆ ˆa i 2 j k

and

ˆ ˆ ˆb i x j (x 1)k

is :

(1) 90° (2) 0°

(3) obtuse angle (4) acute angle

2. A player throws a ball that reaches to the another

player in 4s. If the height of each player is 1.5m,

the maximum height attained by the ball from the

ground level is :

(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m

(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m

3. Velocity–time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg

moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.

Work done by all the forces on the particle is :

(1) 400 J

(2) –400 J

2

20

v (m/s)

t (s)(3) –200 J

(4) 200 J

4. Two springs A and B having spring constants

kA = 2k

B, are stretched by applying force of equal

magnitude. If energy stored in spring A is EA, then

energy stored is B will be :-

(1) 2 EA

(2) EA/4

(3) EA/2 (4) 4 E

A

5. A simple pendulum is oscillating without damping

when the displacement of the bob is less than

maximum, its acceleration vector a is correctly

shown in :-

(1)

a

(2)

a

(3) a (4)

a

1. ˆ ˆ ˆa i 2 j k

ˆ ˆ ˆb i x j (x 1)k

(1) 90° (2) 0°

(3) (4)

2.

4

1.5

(1) 19.6 m (2) 21.1 m

(3) 23.6 m (4) 25.1 m

3. (1) 400 J

(2) –400 J

2

20

v (m/s)

t (s)(3) –200 J

(4) 200 J

4. A B kA = 2k

B

A

EA B :-

(1) 2 EA

(2) EA/4

(3) EA/2 (4) 4 E

A

5. ( a

(1)

a

(2)

a

(3) a (4)

a

Kota/01CM414101H-2/42

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/18-03-2015

6. When the following three forces of 50 N, 30 N

and 15 N act on a body, then the body is :

(1) at rest

(2) moving with a uniform velocity

(3) in equilibrium

(4) moving with an acceleration

7. Two balls are projected from the same point

simultaneously. First ball is projected vertically

upwards and the second ball at an angle of

projection 60° to the ground level. Both the balls

reach the ground simultaneously. The ratio of their

velocities are :

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2

(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3

8. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light

spring of force constant k and unstretched length

. The system is rotated about the other end of the

spring with an angular velocity , in gravity free

space. The increase in length of the spring will be–

Km

w

(1) 2m

k

(2)

2

2

m

k m

(3) 2

2

m

k m

(4) None of these

9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top

of a tower at 4.9 ms–1. It strikes the pond near the

base of the tower after 3 seconds. The height of

the tower is :-

(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m

(3) 29.4 m (4) None of these

10. Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) The potential energy is defined for

conservative forces only

(2) The net work done by kinetic friction may be

negative and positive

(3) The work done by pseudo force may be zero,

positive or negative

(4) The work done by a spring force is always

positive

6. 50 , 30 15 (1) (2) (3) (4)

7. 60°

(1) 1 : 2

(2) 3 : 2

(3) 3 : 2

(4) 2 : 3

8. m k

Km

w

(1) 2m

k

(2)

2

2

m

k m

(3) 2

2

m

k m

(4)

9. 4.9 ms–1

3 :-

(1) 73.5 m (2) 44.1 m

(3) 29.4 m (4) None of these

10. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-3/42Kota/01CM414101

11. A bird is flying towards north with a velocity

40 km/hr and a train is moving with velocity

40 km/hr towards east. What is the velocity of the

bird noted by a man in the train ?

(1) 40 2 km/hr north-east

(2) 40 2 km/hr south-east

(3) 40 2 km/hr north-west

(4) 40 2 km/hr south-west

12. An enemy plane is flying horizontally at an

altitude of 2 km with a speed of 300 m/s. An army

person with an anti-aircraft gun on the ground

sights the enemy plane when it is directly overhead

and fires a shell with a muzzle speed of

600 m/s. At what angle with the vertical should

the gun be fired so as to hit the plane ?

(1) 30° (2) 45°

(3) 60° (4) none of these

13. A small block slides with velocity 0.5 gr on the

horizontal frictionless surface as shown in the

figure. The block leaves the surface at point C.

The angle in the figure is :

(1) 1 4

cos9

(2) 1 3

cos4

r

AB

v0

C

O

r mgvC

D

(3) 1 1

cos2

(4) 1 4

cos2r

14. If block is sliding down on a smooth fixed inclined

plane as shown in the figure then net force acting

on the wedge due to block is :-

(1)mg

cos(2) mg

(3) mgcos (4) None of these

11. 40 /40 /

(1) 40 2 /

(2) 40 2 /

(3) 40 2 /

(4) 40 2 /

12. 2 300 /

600 /

(1) 30° (2) 45°

(3) 60° (4)

13.

0.5 gr C

(1) 1 4

cos9

(2) 1 3

cos4

r

AB

v0

C

O

r mgvC

D

(3) 1 1

cos2

(4) 1 4

cos2r

14.

m

(1)mg

cos(2) mg

(3) mgcos (4)

Kota/01CM414101H-4/42


15. A uniform rod AB of length 7m is undergoing

combined rotational and translational motion such

that at some instant of time, velocities of its end

points A and centre C are both perpendicular to

the rod and opposite in direction, having

magnitudes 11m/s and 3 m/s respectively as

shown in the figure

3m/sC

A

B

11m/s

Velocity of center C and angular velocity of the

rod remain constant then which statement is

incorrect

(1) acceleration of point A is 56 m/s2

(2) acceleration of point B is 56 m/s2

(3) at the instant shown in the figure acceleration

of point B is more than that of point A

(4) angular velocity of the rod is 4 rad/s

16. A particle is moving from rest with constant

acceleration 4m/s2 for some time and then retards

with 2m/s2 for some time and finally comes to rest.

The total time during the motion is 12s. The

maximum velocity of the particle is:

(1) 16 m/s (2) 12 m/s

(3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s

17. The position of a particle moving along a straight

line is given by x(t) = A

B(1–e–At) where B is

constant and A > 0. The dimensions of 3A

B is

same as

(1) linear momentum

(2) moment of inertia

(3) relative velocity

(4) acceleration

18. A ball of mass m falls from a height h on a floor

for which the coefficient of restitution is 1

2. The

height attained by the ball after two rebounds is :-

(1) h

4(2)

h

2(3)

h

16(4)

h

8

15. AB 7m A C 11m/s–1

3 m/s–1

3m/sC

A

B

11m/s

c

(1) A 56 m/s2

(2) B 56 m/s2

(3)B A

(4) 4 rad/s

16. 4 /2 2 /2

12

(1) 16 m/s (2) 12 m/s

(3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s

17.

x(t)=A

B(1–e–At) B

A > 0 3A

B

(1) (2) (3) (4)

18. m h

1

2

:-

(1) h

4(2)

h

2(3)

h

16(4)

h

8


H-5/42Kota/01CM414101

19. A variable force (24t2 – 8t) Newton is acting on

a particle. The impulse imparted to it in first two

seconds will be :

(1) 12 kg-m/s (2) 24 kg-m/s

(3) 36 kg-m/s (4) 48 kg-m/s

20. Two uniform rods of equal length but different

masses are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped

body, which is then pivoted as shown in figure.

If in equilibrium the body is in the shown

configuration, ratio M/m will be :-

90°

30°

m M

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

21. For a particle having initial velocity and

acceleration in different directions :

(1) its path is straight line

(2) its path is always a curve

(3) its speed goes an increasing irrespective of

direction of acceleration

(4) its speed goes on decreasing if direction of

acceleration is reversed

22. Measure of two quantities along with the precision

of respective measuring instrument is:

A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s

The value of AB will be

(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m (2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m

(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m (4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

23. The coordinate of centre of mass of shown body :-

y

(0,0)

a

a/2

aX

a/2

(1) 13

a,020

(2) a

,02

(3) a

0,2

(4) 3a

,04

19. (24t2 – 8t) :(1) 12 -/ (2) 24 -/(3) 36 -/ (4) 48 -/

20. L- M/m :-

90°

30°

m M

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

21. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

22. :

A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s

AB :-(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m (2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m

(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m (4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

23. :-y

(0,0)

a

a/2

aX

a/2

(1) 13

a,020

(2) a

,02

(3) a

0,2

(4) 3a

,04

Kota/01CM414101H-6/42


24. A monkey is descending from the branch of a tree

with constant acceleration. If the breaking strength

of branch is 75% of the weight of the monkey,

the minimum acceleration with which the monkey

can slide down without breaking the branch is

(1) g (2) 3g

4(3)

g

4(4)

g

2

25. A square is made by joining four rods each of mass

M and length L. Its moment of inertia about an

axis PQ, in its plane and passing through one of

its corner is :-

P

Q

45°

L

(1) 6ML2 (2) 4

3ML2

(3) 28

ML3

(4) 210

ML3

26. A car starts from rest with an acceleration of

1 m/s2. A man who is 48 m behind the car starts with

a uniform velocity of 10 m/s. Then the minimum

time after which the man will reach the car,

(1) 4 s (2) 8 s

(3) 12 s (4) 16 s

27. A test tube of mass 2m closed with a cork of mass

m contains a drop of liquid of negligible. When

the test tube is heated, the liquid evaporates and

the cork files off under the pressure of the gas.

What must be the minimum velocity with which

the cork must be ejected such that the test tube

describes a full circle of radius R about the pivot?

(Assuming test tube as a point object) :-

(1) 5Rg

(2) 2 5Rg

2m

string

m

R

(3) 2 3Rg

(4) 2 4Rg

24. 75%

(1) g (2) 3g

4(3)

g

4(4)

g

2

25. M L PQ :-

P

Q

45°

L

(1) 6ML2 (2) 4

3ML2

(3) 28

ML3

(4) 210

ML3

26. 1 /2 48 10 /(1) 4 s (2) 8 s

(3) 12 s (4) 16 s

27. 2m m

R (

) :-

(1) 5Rg

(2) 2 5Rg

2m

string

m

R

(3) 2 3Rg

(4) 2 4Rg


H-7/42Kota/01CM414101

28. Pulling force making an angle to the horizontal

is applied on a block of weight W placed on a

horizontal table. If the angle of friction is , the

magnitude of force required to move the body is

equal to :-

(1) Wcos

cos( )

(2)

Wsin

cos( )

(3) W tan

sin( )

(4)

Wsin

tan( )

29. A block is placed on a rough horizontal plane. A

time dependent horizontal force F = kt acts on the

block. Here k is a positive constant. Acceleration–

time graph of the block is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

30. A spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping.

The fraction of its total energy associated with

rotation is :-

(1)3

5(2)

2

7

(3) 2

5(4)

3

7

31. One particle is dropped while another particle is

thrown downwards with an initial velocity of

2m/s, simultaneously. Both these particles are at

a separation of 18 m after time :

(1) 4.5 s (2) 9 s

(3) 9.8 s (4) 18 s

32. The v-t graph of the motion of a wooden block

of mass 1kg is shown in figure. It is given an initial

push at t = 0, along a horizontal table. The

coefficient of friction between the block and table

is (g = 10 ms-2) :-

(1) 0.2

(2) 0.1

14

0 14

v(ms )–1

t(s)(3) 0.4

(4) Can't be determined

28. W :-

(1) Wcos

cos( )

(2)

Wsin

cos( )

(3) W tan

sin( )

(4)

Wsin

tan( )

29. F = kt k

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

30. :-

(1)3

5(2)

2

7

(3) 2

5(4)

3

7

31. 2 /18 (1) 4.5 (2) 9 (3) 9.8 (4) 18

32. 1kg v-t t = 0 :-(g = 10 ms-2)

(1) 0.2

(2) 0.1

14

0 14

v(ms )–1

t(s)(3) 0.4

(4)

Kota/01CM414101H-8/42


33. Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line

varies with the velocity of the particle as F = K

V.

Here K is a constant. The work done by this force

in time t is :-

(1) 2

Kt

V(2) 2Kt

(3) Kt (4) 2

2Kt

V

34. A machine which is 75 per cent efficient, uses

12 joules of energy in lifting up a 1 kg mass

through a certain distance. The mass is then

allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity

at the end of its fall is (in m s–1) :-

(1) 24 (2) 32

(3) 18 (4) 9

35. The least coefficient of friction for an inclined

plane inclined at an angle with horizontal, in

order that a solid cyclinder will roll down without

slipping is :-

(1) 2

tan3

(2) 2

tan7

(3) 1

tan3

(4) 4

tan3

36. An aeroplane is flying at a uniform speed

v m/s at a height h from the ground. If the angle

subtended at an observation point on the ground

by two positions (symmetrial about observation

point) of the aeroplane t second apart is , the

height h will be :

(1) v t

tan2 2

(2) 2v t

tan

(3) v t

tan2

(4) v t

2 tan2

33.

F = K

VK

t :-

(1) 2

Kt

V(2) 2Kt

(3) Kt (4) 2

2Kt

V

34. 75 % 1 12

:-

(1) 24 (2) 32

(3) 18 (4) 9

35.

:-

(1) 2

tan3

(2) 2

tan7

(3) 1

tan3

(4) 4

tan3

36. h v t h

(1) v t

tan2 2

(2) 2v t

tan

(3) v t

tan2

(4) v t

2 tan2


H-9/42Kota/01CM414101

37. Sixteen beads in a string are placed on a smooth

inclined plane of inclination sin–1(1/3) such that

some of them lie along the incline whereas the rest

hang over the top of the plane. If acceleration of

first bead is g/2, the arrangement of beads is that:-

(1) 12 hang vertically

(2) 10 lie along inclined plane

(3) 8 lie along inclined plane

(4) 10 hang vertically

38. A body of mass M is dropped from a height h on

a sand floor. If the body penetrates x cm into the

sand, the average resistance offered by the sand

to the body is :-

(1) Mgh

x

FHGIKJ (2) Mg

h

x1FHGIKJ

(3) Mgh + Mgx (4) Mgh

x1FHGIKJ

39. The K.E of a body varies directly as the time(t)

elapsed. The force acting varies directly as :-

(1) t–t (2) t–1/2 (3) t1/2 (4) t

40. A rod of uniform mass and of length L can freely

rotate in a vertical plane about an axis passing

through O. The angular velocity of the rod when

it falls from position P to P´ through an angle is:-

PP´

O

(1) 6g

sin5L

(2) 6g

sinL 2

(3)6g

cosL 2

(4)

6gsin

L

37. sin–1(1/3) 16 g/2 :-

(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 10

38. M h x :-

(1) Mgh

x

FHGIKJ (2) Mg

h

x1FHGIKJ

(3) Mgh + Mgx (4) Mgh

x1FHGIKJ

39. K.E (t) :-(1) t–t (2) t–1/2 (3) t1/2 (4) t

40. L O P P´ :-

PP´

O

(1) 6g

sin5L

(2) 6g

sinL 2

(3)6g

cosL 2

(4)

6gsin

L

Kota/01CM414101H-10/42


41. A particle moves along a straight line and its

velocity depends on time as v = 4t – t2. In the first

five seconds :

(1) average velocity of the particle is 25/3 m/s

(2) average velocity of the particle is 5/3 m/s

(3) acceleration is 5/3 m/s2 at t = 0

(4) acceleration is 2 m/s2 at t = 0

42. Object A strikes the stationary object B with a

certain given speed u head-on in an elastic

collision. The mass of A is fixed, you may only

choose the mass of B appropriately for following

cases. Then after the collision :-

(1) For B to have the greaters speed, choose

mB = mA

(2) For B to have the greaters momentum, choose

mB >> mA

(3) For B to have the greaters speed, choose

mB << mA

(4) For the maximum fraction of kinetic energy

transfer, choose mB >> mA

43. The potential energy of a system is represented in the

first figure, the force acting on the system will be

represented by :-

(1)

F(x)

ax (2)

F(x)

ax

(3)

F(x)

ax (4)

F(x)

a x

41. v

t v = 4t – t2

(1) 25/3

(2) 5/3

(3) t = 0 5/3 2

(4) t = 0 2 2

42. A, B u

A

B

:-

(1) B mB = mA

(2) B mB >> mA

(3) B mB << mA

(4)

mB >> mA

43.

(1)

F(x)

ax (2)

F(x)

ax

(3)

F(x)

ax (4)

F(x)

a x

Key Filling


H-11/42Kota/01CM414101

44. A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries

a mass M at the other end. The string values

2/ revolution per second around the vertical axis

through the fixed end as shown in the figure,then

tension in the string is :-

S

LT

M

R

(1) ML (2) 2ML

(3) 4 ML (4) 16 ML

45. A pulley is connected to the ceiling of an elevator

by a massless rod. Two masses are connected as

shown in figure. There is sufficient friction in the

pulley axis. The acceleration of block w.r.t. earth is:-

(1) 4g

7(upward) (2)

3g

7(upward)

(3) 2g

7(upward) (4)

g

7(upward)

44. L

M

2/

S

LT

M

R

(1) ML (2) 2ML

(3) 4 ML (4) 16 ML

45.

B

:-

(1) 4g

7() (2)

3g

7()

(3) 2g

7() (4)

g

7()

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

Kota/01CM414101H-12/42


46. Find the average weight of molecule of ethyl

alchohol (approximately) :-

(1) 0.8 × 10–23 (2) 0.08 × 10–23

(3) 8 × 10–23 (4) 88 × 10–23

47. The energy of the electrom in the firsa Bohr's orbit

of hydrogen is –13.6 eV. The Possible value of

the energy of the electron in the excited state is:-

(1) –3.4eV (2) –4.2 eV

(3) –6.8 eV (4) +6.8 eV

48. When an aqueous solution of H2O

2 undergoes

electrolysis using platinium electrodes, 96.6 kJ

heat is emitted. What would be the heat of

formation of 1 mol H2O

2?

(1) 96.6 kJ (2) 94.2 kJ

(3) 285 kJ (4) 376.8 kJ

49. A cylinder provided with piston contains PCl5,

PCl3 and Cl2 at equilibrium. If the system is

compressed with the help of piston. Then choose

the correct statement.

(1) Some more PCl5 will be decomposed.

(2) System remains unaffected

(3) PCl3 and Cl2 react to form PCl5

(4) Explosion takes place

50. X+Y– ionic compound keeps bcc structure. The

distance between two nearest ions is 1.73 Å. What

would be the edge length of the unit cell?

(1) 200 pm (2) 3

pm2

(3) 142.2 pm (4) 2 pm

51. The solubility of pottassium sulphate at 50°C is

16. What is the weight of water required to

dissolved 4 gm. of the salt at this temperature?

(1) 250 gm. (2) 100 gm.

(3) 25 gm. (4) 10 gm.

52. The uncertainty in position for the electron and

He particle is the same. Tha uncertainty in

momentum for the electron is 32 × 105. What

would be the uncertainty in momentum for the

He particle :-

(1) 32 × 105 (2) 16 × 105

(3) 8 × 105 (4) None

46. ():-

(1) 0.8 × 10–23 (2) 0.08 × 10–23

(3) 8 × 10–23 (4) 88 × 10–23

47. –13.6 eV :-(1) –3.4eV (2) –4.2 eV

(3) –6.8 eV (4) +6.8 eV

48. H2O2

96.6 kJ 1

H2O2 :-

(1) 96.6 kJ (2) 94.2 kJ

(3) 285 kJ (4) 376.8 kJ

49. PCl5, PCl

3 Cl

2

(Compressed)

:-

(1) PCl5

(2)

(3) PCl3 Cl2 PCl5(4)

50. X+Y– bcc

1.73 Å

:-

(1) 200 pm (2) 3

pm2

(3) 142.2 pm (4) 2 pm

51. 50°C 16, 4 :-(1) 250 (2) 100 (3) 25 (4) 10

52. He

e– 32 × 105 He

:-

(1) 32 × 105 (2) 16 × 105

(3) 8 × 105 (4)

Take it Easy and Make it Easy


H-13/42Kota/01CM414101

53. For the A B process :

Given : H = +ve, S = –ve, TS > H

which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) Process A B is spontaneous

(2) Process B A is non–spontaneous

(3) Process B A is spontaneous

(4) All the above are false

54. If for the reaction : A B

Ef = energy of activation for the forward reaction

Er = energy of activation for the backward reaction

For the exothermic reaction :

(1) Ef > Er (2) Ef < Er

(3) Ef = E

r(4) None

55. The structure of ionic compoundA+B– is identical

to NaCl. If the edge length is 400 pm and the

cation redius is 75 pm. Then evaluate the radius

of anion.

(1) 100 pm (2) 125 pm

(3) 250 pm (4) 325 pm

56. Molecular weight of dibasic acid is 40 and

equivalent weight of mono acid base is 20.

If 4 gm. of each compound is taken in a litre of

water, the solution is :-

(1) Acidic (2) Neutral

(3) Less Basic (4) Of pH = 14

57. Electron is moving with a velocity of 106 m/s. Its

wave length would be :-

(Given h = 6.63×10–34 J s and m = 9.11×10–31 kg)

(1) 0.727 nm (2) 7.27 nm

(3) None (4) 72.7 nm

58. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia at 298K is:

H°f = –46.11 kJ mol–1. This value is applicable

to this equation :-

(1) ½N2(g) +3/2H

2(g) NH

3(g)

(2) N(g) + 3H(g) NH3(g)

(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

(4) ½N2(g) + 3/2H2(g) NH3()

59. To a 10 ml of 10–3 N H2SO4 solution water has

been added to make the total volume to one litre.

Its pOH would be :-

(1) 3 (2) 14 (3) 9 (4) 5

60. CsBr possesses bcc structure. The edge length of

the unit cell is 400 pm. Find out the interionic

distance?

(1) 346.4 pm (2) 200 pm

(3) 300 pm (4) 100 pm

53. A B :-H = +ve, S = –ve, TS > H

:-(1) A B (2) B A (3) B A (4)

54. : A B :E

f =

Er = :

(1) Ef > Er (2) Ef < Er

(3) Ef = E

r(4)

55. A+B– NaCl

400 pm 75 pm

(1) 100 pm (2) 125 pm

(3) 250 pm (4) 325 pm

56. 40

20

4 1 :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

57. 106 m/s :-( : h = 6.63×10–34J s m = 9.11×10–31 kg)

(1) 0.727 nm (2) 7.27 nm

(3) (4) 72.7 nm

58. 298K H°f = –46.11 kJ mol–1 :-(1) ½N2(g) +3/2H2(g) NH3(g)

(2) N(g) + 3H(g) NH3(g)

(3) N2(g) + 3H

2(g) 2NH

3(g)

(4) ½N2(g) + 3/2H

2(g) NH

3()

59. 10–3 N H2SO4 10

1 pOH :-

(1) 3 (2) 14 (3) 9 (4) 5

60. CsBr bcc

400 pm :-

(1) 346.4 pm (2) 200 pm

(3) 300 pm (4) 100 pm

Kota/01CM414101H-14/42


61. What weight of 98% pure H2SO4 is required to

neutralize 80 gm. of NaOH?

(1) 98 gm. (2) 0.98 gm.

(3) 100 gm. (4) 980 gm.

62. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of He+

is –871.6 × 10–20 J. The energy of the electron in

the first orbit of hyhdrogen would be :-

(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–9 J

(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J

63. A system absorbs 300 cal of heat with the result

that the volume of the system becoms double of

its initial volume and temprature changes from

273 K to 546 K. The work doen by the system

on the surroundings is 200.0 cals. Calculate E.

(1) 273 kcal (2) 500 cal

(3) 100 cal (4) –500 cal

64. To a 1000 litre solution of pH = 3 , water has been

added to make the pH = 4. How much water has

been added in the process :-

(1) 900 litre (2) 9000 litre

(3) 10,000 litre (4) None of these

65. An aqueous solution of urea has freezing point

–0.52°C. Calculate the osmotic pressure of

solution at 27°C. Assume molarity and molality

be same. Kf(H

2O) = 1.86 –mol– kg.

(1) 4.53 (2) 5.1

(3) 3.2 (4) 6.87

66. 100 gm. of marble is treated with 1000 ml of 1N

HCl. At the end of the reaction the weight of

undissolved marble is :-

(1) 10 gm. (2) 25 gm.

(3) 50 gm. (4) 75 gm.

67. To a uniform tube of 100 m long H2 and O

2 were

released from the opposite end. Distance from O2

end at which they meet is :-

(1) 80 (2) 20 (3) 50 (4) 60

68. Dissociation energy of methane and ethane

respectively are 360 and 620 kcal mole–1.

Calculate C–C bond energy :

(1) 80 kcal mol–1 (2) 160 kcal mol–1

(3) 260 kcal mol–1 (4) None

69. A solution has pH = 2, its pH has been increased

to 4. The H+ concentration of the solution is

______ the original solution.

(1) Twice (2) Half

(3) Hundred times more (4) Hundred times less

61. 80 NaOH 98%

H2SO

4 :-

(1) 98 (2) 0.98 (3) 100 (4) 980

62. He+ –871.6×10–20 J

:-(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–9 J

(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J

63. 300 273 K 546 K 200.0 E :-(1) 273 kcal (2) 500 cal

(3) 100 cal (4) –500 cal

64. pH = 3 1000 pH = 4 :-(1) 900 (2) 9000 (3) 10,000 (4)

65. –0.52°C 27°C

Kf(H2O) = 1.86 –mol– kg.

(1) 4.53 (2) 5.1

(3) 3.2 (4) 6.87

66. 100 1N HCl 1000 :-(1) 10 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75

67. 100 H2

O2 O2 :-(1) 80 (2) 20 (3) 50 (4) 60

68. 360

620 kcal mole–1 C–C :

(1) 80 kcal mol–1 (2) 160 kcal mol–1

(3) 260 kcal mol–1 (4) None

69. pH = 2 pH 4 H+ :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


H-15/42Kota/01CM414101

70. Arrange the following solution in order of

decreasing freezing point :-

(i) 0.075 M CuSO4(ii)0.060 M (NH

4)2SO

4

(iii) 0.14M urea (iv) 0.04 M MgCl2

(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) iv > iii > i > ii

(3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) ii > iii > i > iv

71. 100 ml of 0.6 N H2SHO4 and 200 ml of

0.3 N HCl solutions are mixed. This solution has

been further diluted to 600 ml. Normality of the

solution would be :-

(1)2N

5(2)

N

10

(3) N

5(4)

N

20

72. Two flasks A and B of the same capacity contain

helium and hydrogen respectively at 27°C and

1 atmosphere pressure. Flask A contains.

(1) The same numebr of atoms as B does

(2) The same weight of the gas as B does

(3) Double the number of atoms as B does

(4) Half the number of atoms as B does

73. At 440°C, HI was heated in closed tube up to the

point of equilibrium. 22% of HI was decomposed.

The equilibrium constant is :-

(1) 0.282 (2) 0.0796

(3) 0.0199 (4) 1.99

74. The pH of aqueous solution of three acids A, B

and C respectively is 1,2 and 3. What will be the

ratio of their [H+]?

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 300 : 20 : 10

(3) 100 : 10 : 1 (4) 1 : 10 : 100

75. Osmotic pressure of 40% (w/v) urea solution is

1.64 atm and that of 3.42% (w/v) can sugar is 2.46

atm. When equal volume of the above two

solutions are mixed, the somotic pressure of the

resulting solution would be :-

(1) 1.1 atm (2) 2.05 atm

(3) 3.6 atm (4) 4.3 atm

76. The magnitude of charge on the electron is

4.8 × 10–10 esu. What is magnitude of charge on

the nucleus of Li+ :-

(1) 4.8 × 10–10 esu (2) 9.6 × 10–10 esu

(3) 1.44 × 10–9 esu (4) 2.40 × 10–9 esu

70. :-

(i) 0.075 M CuSO4 (ii)0.060 M (NH4)2SO4

(iii) 0.14M urea (iv) 0.04 M MgCl2

(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) iv > iii > i > ii

(3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) ii > iii > i > iv

71. 0.6 N H2SHO

4 100 0.3 N HCl

200600

:-

(1)2N

5(2)

N

10

(3) N

5(4)

N

20

72. A B 27°C

1 He H2 A :-

(1) B (2) B (3) B (4) B

73. 440°C HI 22% :-(1) 0.282 (2) 0.0796

(3) 0.0199 (4) 1.99

74. A, B C pH

1, 2 3 [H+] :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 300 : 20 : 10

(3) 100 : 10 : 1 (4) 1 : 10 : 100

75. 40% (w/v) 3.42% (w/v)

1.64 2.46

:-(1) 1.1 atm (2) 2.05 atm

(3) 3.6 atm (4) 4.3 atm

76. 4.8 × 10–10 esu

Li+ :-

(1) 4.8 × 10–10 esu (2) 9.6 × 10–10 esu

(3) 1.44 × 10–9 esu (4) 2.40 × 10–9 esu

Kota/01CM414101H-16/42


77. A mixture of three gases A (density = 0.82), B

(density = 0.26) and C (density = 0.51) is enclosed

in a vessel at constant temperature when

equilibrium is established :-

(1) Gas A will be at the top in the vessel

(2) Gas B will be at the top in the vessel

(3) Gas C will be between gases A and B in the

vessel

(4) The gases will mix homogeneously

throughout the vessel

78. If 1.0 mole of I2 was added to 1 litre flask at 1000 K.

At equilibrium (Kc = 104) :-

(1) [I2(g)] > [I(g)] (2) [I2(g)] < [I(g)]

(3) [I2(g)] = [I(g)] (4) [I

2(g)] = ½[I(g)]

79. A weak acid HA has a pH = 2. It confirms the

following data :-

C Ka [A–]

(1) 0.1 M 10% – –

(2) 0.01M – 10–2 –

(3) – – – 10–2M

(4) All the above

80. Which of the following solution will have

maximum molecules.

(1) 200 ml solution of 2M glucose

(2) 100 ml solution of 3M glucose

(3) 100 ml solution of 3M sucrose

(4) Indefinite

81. The electromagnetic radiation of wave length

242 nm are sufficient to cause the ionization of

sodium atom. The corresponding ionization

energy of sodium in kJ mol–1 would be :-

(1) 449.5 (2) 494.5 (3) 944.5 (4) 955.4

82. The heat of combustion of SR and SM are 70,960

and 71,030 cals, respectively. What would be the

heat of transition for the change. SR SM

where, SR = sulphur rhombic

SM

= sulphur monoclinic

(1) 70,960 cals (2) 71,030 cals

(3) –70 cals (4) +70 cals

83. The equilibrium constant for :-H2(g) + CO2(g) H2O(g) + CO(g) is 1.8 at1000°C. If 1.0 mole of H2 and 1.0 mole of CO2are placed in a 1.0 litre flask, the final equilibriumconcentration of CO at 1000° will be :-

( 1.8 1.34)

(1) 0.290 M (2) 0.386 M(3) 0.573 M (4) 0.688 M

77. A ( = 0.82), B ( = 0.26) C ( = 0.51)

:-

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C, A B

(4)

78. I2 1.0 1000 K 1.0 (Kc

= 104 ) :-

(1) [I2(g)] > [I(g)] (2) [I

2(g)] < [I(g)]

(3) [I2(g)] = [I(g)] (4) [I

2(g)] = ½[I(g)]

79. HA pH = 2

:-C Ka

[A–]

(1) 0.1 M 10% – –

(2) 0.01M – 10–2 –

(3) – – – 10–2M

(4) 80. :-

(1) 2M 200

(2) 3M 100

(3) 3M 100

(4)

81. 242 nm kJ mol–1 :-(1) 449.5 (2) 494.5

(3) 944.5 (4) 955.4

82. SR)

(SM

) 70,960 71,030

:-

(1) 70,960 (2) 71,030

(3) –70 (4) +70

83. 1000°C :-H2(g) + CO2(g) H2O(g) + CO(g) 1.8 1 1.0 H

2

1.0 CO2 CO :-

( 1.8 1.34)

(1) 0.290 M (2) 0.386 M

(3) 0.573 M (4) 0.688 M


H-17/42Kota/01CM414101

84. Water contains dissolved CO2, its reaction with

water is represented as :

CO2 + H2O H3O+ + HCO3

–

Kc for the reaction is 3.8 × 10–7 and pH = 6.

What is the value of 3

2

[HCO ]

[CO ]

?

(1) 3.8 × 10–1 (2) 3.8 × 10–13

(3) 6.0 (4) 3.8

85. Arrange the following in the increasing order of

their boiling points :-

(i) 10–3 M NaCl (ii) 10–3 M Urea

(iii) 10–3 M MgCl2

(iv) 10–2 M NaCl

(1) (i)<(ii)<(iv)<(iii) (2) (i)<(ii)<(iii)<(iv)

(3) (ii)<(i)<(iii)<(iv) (4) (iv)<(iii)<(i)<(ii)

86. The mass number of three isotopes of the element

X are M, M+1 and M+2. The average mass

number of the element is M+0.5. As such the

isotopes should confirm their ratio given below:-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 : 1

87. Heat of reaction are given as :

C(gr) + ½O2 CO, H = –110.5 kJ and

CO + ½O2 CO

2 , H = –283.2 kJ

Predict the heat of reaction :

C(gr) + O2 CO2

(1) –393.7 kJ (2) +393.7 kJ

(3) –172.7 kJ (4) +172.7 kJ

88. For the reaction : N2O

4(g) 2NO

2(g), the degree

of dissociation in term of KP can be expressed as:-

(1)p

p

K / P

4 K / P (2) p

p

K

4 K

(3)

1/ 2

p

p

K / p

4 K / p

(4)

1/ 2

p

p

K

4 K

89. The atomic mass of an element having bcc structure

is 100 gm/mol. The length of the edge of unit cell

is 400 pm. The density of the element is :-

(1) 10.38 gm/cm3 (2) 5.19 gm/cm3

(3) 7.29 gm/cm3 (4) 2.14 gm/cm3

90. Following pair of solutions are in contact by

semipermeable membrane in which case thephenomenon of osmosis will take place

(1) 0.1 M Urea and 0.1 M KCl(2) 0.2 M Glucose and 0.2 M urea

(3) 1 × 10–3 M CaCl2 and 1.5 × 10–3 M NaCl

(4) 0.1 M Sucrose and 0.1 M maltose

84. CO2

:

CO2 + H

2O H

3O+ + HCO

3–

Kc = 3.8 × 10–7 pH = 6

3

2

[HCO ]

[CO ]

:-

(1) 3.8 × 10–1 (2) 3.8 × 10–13

(3) 6.0 (4) 3.8

85. :-(i) 10–3 M NaCl (ii) 10–3 M Urea

(iii) 10–3 M MgCl2 (iv) 10–2 M NaCl

(1) (i)<(ii)<(iv)<(iii) (2) (i)<(ii)<(iii)<(iv)

(3) (ii)<(i)<(iii)<(iv) (4) (iv)<(iii)<(i)<(ii)

86. X M, M+1

M+2 M+0.5

:-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 : 1

87. :C(gr) + ½O2 CO, H = –110.5 kJ CO + ½O

2 CO

2 , H = –283.2 kJ

:-C(gr) + O2 CO2

(1) –393.7 kJ (2) +393.7 kJ

(3) –172.7 kJ (4) +172.7 kJ

88. : N2O

4(g) 2NO

2(g)

KP :-

(1)p

p

K / P

4 K / P (2) p

p

K

4 K

(3)

1/ 2

p

p

K / p

4 K / p

(4)

1/ 2

p

p

K

4 K

89. bcc 100 gm/mol

400 pm :-(1) 10.38 gm/cm3 (2) 5.19 gm/cm3

(3) 7.29 gm/cm3 (4) 2.14 gm/cm3

90.

:-(1) 0.1 M 0.1 M KCl

(2) 0.2 M 0.2 M urea

(3) 1 × 10–3 M CaCl2 1.5 × 10–3 M NaCl

(4) 0.1 M 0.1 M

Kota/01CM414101H-18/42


91. Find out the correct match from the following

table :-

Coloumn I Coloumn II Coloumn III

(i) Cyanobacteria Cell

membrane

Movement

(ii) Eubacteria Pili Protein

synthesis

(iii) Cyanobacteria Chromatophore Photosynthesis

(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)

(3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iii)

92. Consider the following four statements A, B, C,

D and select the right option for two correct

statements :-

(A) Ulothrix, asexually reproduces by zoospore

formation

(B) Albugo, asexually reproduces by conidia

formation

(C) Life cycle pattern is diplontic in Mucor and

Rhizopus

(D) Mucor mucido is homothallic species

The correct statements are :

(1) A & B (2) B & C

(3) C & D (4) A & C

93. Which of the statements are correct about the plant

seen here?

(A) It is Ginkgo biloba.

(B) It is called maiden hair tree.

(C) It was found during the age of dinosaurs.

(D) It produces fruits

(1) Only D is correct.

(2) Only A, C and D are correct.

(3) Only A, B and C are correct.

(4) All are correct.

91. :-

LrEHk-I LrEHk-II LrEHk-III

(i) lk;uksthok.kq dksf'kdk f>Yyh xeu

(ii) lR; thok.kq fiykbZ izksVhu

la'ys"k.k

(iii) lk;uksthok.kq Økse sVksQksj izdk'k

la'ys"k.k

(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)


92. A, B, C D :-(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (1) A B (2) B C(3) C D (4) A C

93.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) D

(2) A, C D

(3) A, B C

(4)


H-19/42Kota/01CM414101

94. Read the following statements :-

(A) Bryophytes are thallus like and prostrate or

erect

(B) They are attached to the substratum by the

help of only multicellular rhizoids

(C) They usually occur in damp, humid and shaded

localities

(D) The sporophyte of bryophytes is free living

How many above statements are correct and

incorrect regarding bryophytes :-

(1) 2–correct ; 2–incorrect




95. Which one of the following structures in

Hirudinaria is correctly matched with it's function?

(1) Annuli – internal segmentation

(2) Parapodia – locomotion

(3) Setae – Attachement

(4) Clitellum – Cocoon formation

96. Match column-I with column-II & select the

correct options :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Exocoetus (i) Saw fish

(B) Pterophyllum (ii) Angel fish

(C) Pristis (iii) Flying fish

(D) Trygon (iv) Sting ray

(v) Fighting fish

Options :-

A B C D

(1) iii v ii iv

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) iii ii iv i

97. A primitive angiosperm that lacks vessels :-

(1) Magnolia (2) Ranalisma

(3) Nymphaea (4) Wintera

94. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

:-

(1) 2– ; 2–

(2) 1– ; 3–

(3) 3– ; 1–

(4) 4– ; 0–

95.

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

96. -I -II :-

-I -II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

(v)

:-

A B C D

(1) iii v ii iv

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii ii i iv

(4) iii ii iv i

97. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/01CM414101H-20/42


98. The excess of nutrients which are not used

immediately, are converted into .......and are stored

in tissue ........

(1) Fat, Adipose tissue

(2) Fat, White fibrous connective tissue

(3) Carbohydrate, matrix

(4) Protein, Elastic connective tissue

99. Interphase represents :-

(1) Between M phase and G1 phase

(2) Between G1 and S phase

(3) Between S phase and G2

(4) Phase between two successive M-phase

100. In elongation of peptide chain, the creation of

peptide bonds between aminoacid is catalyzed by-

(1) r-RNA

(2) Protein in larger subunit

(3) t-RNA

(4) m-RNA

101.

A

B

Choose the correct option regarding above

diagram :-

Name of

organism

A B

(1) Nostoc Mucilagenons

sheath

Heterocyst

(2) Eubacteria Pili Cell wall

(3) Nostoc Heterocyst Mucilagenous

sheath

(4) Nostoc Akinetes Heterocyst

98. .......

........

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

99. :-

(1) M G1

(2) G1 S

(3) S G2

(4)

100.

-

(1) r-RNA

(2)

(3) t-RNA

(4) m-RNA

101.

A

B

:-

ltho dk

uke

A B

(1) ukLVkWd 'ys"eh; ijr gsVsjksflLV

(2) lR;thok.kq fiykbZ dksf'kdk fHkfÙk

(3) ukLVkWd gsVsjksflLV 'ys"eh; ijr

(4) ukLVkWd ,dkbfuV gsVsjksflLV


H-21/42Kota/01CM414101

102. The life cycle in Bryophyta is haplo-diplontic

type, it means that :-

(1) Haploid generation is multicellular and

diploid generation is single celled

(2) Haploid generation is dominant &

multicelllular, diploid generation is also

multicellular but comparatively less

developed

(3) Haploid & diploid generations are equally

developed

(4) Haploid generation is highly reduced

103. During gametangial copulation gemetangium

with 125 nuclei and gemetangium with 50 nuclei

participated then how many and nuclei will

participate in sexual reproduction -

(1) 100 and 100

(2) 125 and 50

(3) 75 and 100

(4) 50 and 50

104. In the following diagrams which one provides peat

that have long been used as fuel :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

102.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

103. 125

50

-

(1) 100 and 100

(2) 125 and 50

(3) 75 and 100

(4) 50 and 50

104.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Kota/01CM414101H-22/42


105. Consider the following four statements (A–D)

regarding Petromyzon?

(A) Jawless vertebrates

(B) Body covered with placoid scales.

(C) Pectoral and pelvic fins are absent.

(D) Adults are marine but migrate to fresh water

for Spawning.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) A only (2) A and B

(3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D

106. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below

represent four different vertebrates. Which one of

these is correctly identified in the option given,

along with its correct class, habitat &

characteristics ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Class Habitat Characteristics

(1) (D) Mammalia Aerial - Ecolocationsensory system

(2) (A) Osteichthyes Fresh water - Brood pouchesin males

(3) (B) Cyclostomata Ectoparasites - Scales andpaired finspresent

(4) (C) Chondrichthyes Marine - Placoid scalesand AirBladder present

107. The terms leptome and hadrome refer to

conducting part of :-

(1) Phloem only

(2) Xylem only

(3) Phloem and xylem respectively

(4) Xylem and phloem respectively

105. (A–D) (A)(B) (C)(D)

(1) A (2) A B(3) A, C D (4) B, C D

106. (A, B, C D) ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) (D) -

(2) (A) -

(3) (B) -

(4) (C) -

107. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)


H-23/42Kota/01CM414101

108. Consider the following four statement (A–D)

related to the animal tissue, and select the correct

option stating which ones are true (T) and which

ones are false (F)?

Statements –

(A) The intercellular matrix of cartilage is solid

and pliable and resists compression

(B) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground

substance

(C) Cartilage is the main tissue that provides

structural frame work of the body

(D) Bones support and protect softer tissues and

organs

Options :

A B C D

(1) F F T T

(2) F T F T

(3) T T F T

(4) T F F F

109. If the initial amount of DNA is 2C then its amount

in G2-phase will be :-

(1) 2C (2) 1C (3) 3C (4) 4C

110. How many t-RNA recognize stop codon of

m-RNA?

(1) Three

(2) Two

(3) One

(4) None of the above


table :-

Coloumn I Coloumn II Coloumn III

(i) Mesosomes Oxidative

Enzyme

Cell

respiration

(ii) Capsule Loose nature Protein

Synthesis

(iii) Flagella Flagellin

Protein

Help in

genetic

recombination

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) Only (iii) (4) Only (i)

108. (A–D)

(T)

(F)

–

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

:

A B C D

(1) F F T T

(2) F T F T

(3) T T F T

(4) T F F F

109. DNA 2C G2

:-

(1) 2C (2) 1C (3) 3C (4) 4C

110. t-RNA, m-RNA

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

111.

:-


(i) ehlkslksElvkWDlhdkjh

fodjdksf'kdh; 'olu

(ii) lEiqfVdk <hyh izdf̀r izksVhu la'ys"k.k

(iii) d'kkfHkdk¶ysftfyu

izksVhu

vkuqoaf'kd

iquZ;kstu es

lgk;d

(1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iii) (4) (i)

Kota/01CM414101H-24/42


112. The life cycle pattern, in which the diploid

sporophyte is dominant, photosynthetic &

independent phase of plant. The gametophyte

phase is represented by few celled dependent

haploid gametophyte. This type of life cycle

pattern is found in :-

(1) Only pteridophytes

(2) Only gymnosperms

(3) Only angiosperms

(4) All seed bearing plants

113. Nostoc fixes nitrogen in symbiotic association

with the following :-

(A) Alnus (B) Gunnera

(C) Anthoceros (D) Casuarina

The correct combination is :-

(1) A & B (2) B & C

(3) A & C (4) A & D

114. Identify the correct match from the column I, II,

and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Chlorophyceae (a) Condidia (i) Fucus

(2) Pheophyceae (b) Pyrenoid (ii) Somatogany

(3) Ascomycetes (c) Calmpconection

(iii) Isokont

(4) Basidiomycetes (d) Funcoxanthin (iv) Penicillium

Options

(1) 3-b-ii, 4-c-i, 2-a-iii, 1-d-iv

(2) 3-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-c-iv, 1-a-ii

(3) 1-b-iii, 2-d-i, 3-a-iv, 4-c-ii

(4) 1-a-ii, 2-c-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-b-i

115. Which of the following structure in torpedo is

incorrectly matched with it's functions?

(1) Electric organ – Generation of electric current.

(2) Claspers – Used in copulation

(3) Ampulla of Lorenzini – Regulation of body

temperature.

(4) Scroll valve – Increases absorptive surface area.

112.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113.

:-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

:-

(1) A B (2) B C

(3) A C (4) A D

114. Identify the correct match from the column I, II,

and III :-


(1) Chlorophyceae (a) Condidia (i) Fucus

(2) Pheophyceae (b) Pyrenoid (ii) Somatogany

(3) Ascomycetes (c) Calmpconection

(iii) Isokont

(4) Basidiomycetes (d) Funcoxanthin (iv) Penicillium

(1) 3-b-ii, 4-c-i, 2-a-iii, 1-d-iv

(2) 3-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-c-iv, 1-a-ii

(3) 1-b-iii, 2-d-i, 3-a-iv, 4-c-ii

(4) 1-a-ii, 2-c-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-b-i

115.

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –


H-25/42Kota/01CM414101

116. Following figures (a) and (b) are related to the:-

(a)

(b)

(1) (a) Liliaceae, (b) Solanaceae

(2) (a) Fabaceae, (b) Solanaceae

(3) (a) Solanaceae, (b) Liliaceae

(4) (a) Solanaceae, (b) Fabaceae

117. Cystoliths are present in:-

(1) Nerium leaf (2) Eichhornia leaf

(3) Ficus leaf (4) Both 2 and 3

118.

A

Mesentron

B

Ileum

Rectum

In above diagramof alimentary canal of cockroach

A and B are shown. Identify A and B correctly :-

(1) Gizzard, malpighian tubules

(2) Crop, gizzard

(3) Oesophagus, hepatic caeca

(4) Crop, hepatic caeca

119. Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Telophase – Reformation of nuclear envelope

(2) Anaphase – Centromere splits

(3) Metaphse – Chromatids separate

(4) Prophase – First stage of M-phase

120. Which of the following RNA polymerase enzyme

catalyses precursor of m-RNA

(1) RNA ligase

(2) DNA polymerase

(3) RNA polymerase-II

(4) RNA polymerase-III

116. (a) (b) :-

(a)

(b)

(1) (a) , (b) (2) (a) , (b) (3) (a) , (b) (4) (a) , (b)

117. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

118.

A

Mesentron

B

Ileum

Rectum

A B A B :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

119. :-(1) – (2) – (3) – (4) – M

120. RNA m-RNA (1) RNA (2) DNA (3) RNA -II

(4) RNA -III

Kota/01CM414101H-26/42



table :-

Coloumn I Coloumn II Coloumn III(i) Monera Eukaryotes Producer

(ii) Protista Unicellular Decomposer

(iii) Mycota Unicellularprokaryotes

Decomposer

(iv) Plantae Multicellular Producer

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)

122. Choose the correct statement from the following :-

(1) In terrestrial plant groups, there is a

progressive evolution of the gametophytic

generation

(2) In all vascular plants both haploid & diploid

generations are independent

(3) Vascular cryptogames differ from

phanerogames, because in the later, only the

sporophyte is independent

(4) Sporophyte of pteridophytes may be

monoecious or dioecious

123. One of the following is correct about Pinus :-

(A) Monoecious – Male & female sporophylls

borne in same strobili

(B) Monoecious – Male & female sporophylls

borne in separate strobili

(C) Dioecious – Male & female sporophylls on

different strobili and on different plants

Option :-

(1) A & B (2) Only B

(3) Only A (4) A, B & C

124. Which of the following phyla includes marine,

triploblastic and radially symmetric animals

having no brain and specialised excretory organs?

(1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora

(3) Echinodermata (4) Both (1) and (2)

121. :-


(i) eksusjk lehedsUædh mRiknd

(ii) izks fVLVk ,ddksf'kdh; vi?kVd

(iii) ekbdksVk ,ddksf'kdh;vlhedsUædh

vi?kVd

(iv) IykaVh cgqdksf'kdh; mRiknd

(1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iv)

122. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

123. :-

(A) –

(B) –

(C) –

:-

(1) A B (2) B

(3) A (4) A, B C

124.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) (2)


H-27/42Kota/01CM414101

125. Find the incorrect statement regarding

amphibians?

(1) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive

tracts open into a common chamber called

cloaca.

(2) Respiration is through lungs and skin.

(3) Heart is 3–chambered with sinus venosus and

conus arteriosus.

(4) Fertilization internal and development is

indirect.

126. Match the following and choose the correct

option?

A. Radicle i. Seed less

B. Parthenocarpicfruit

ii. Root formation

C. Ovule iii. Double fertilization

D. Endosperm iv. Seed

(1) A- i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv

(2) A- ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii

(3) A- iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii

(4) A- ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

127. Multiple (multilayered) epidermis on dorsal and

ventral side of the leaf is found in ?

(1) Zea mays (2) Nerium

(3) Mangifera indica (4) Triticum

128. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

A. Heart of cockroach is differentiated into

funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either

side.

B. The respiratory system of cockroach consists

of a network of trachea that open through

10 pairs of small holes called spiracles.

C. Female cockroach produce 2-3 ootheca each

containing 50-60 eggs.

D. In Mosaic vision, with the help of several

ommatidia a cockroach can receive one image

of an object.

How many of the above statements are right :-

(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

125.

(1)

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

126.

?

A. i.

B. ii.

C. iii.

D. iv.

(1) A- i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv

(2)A- ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii

(3)A- iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii

(4)A- ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

127.

?(1) (2) (3) (4)

128. (A-D) :-

A.

B.

10

C. 2-3

50-60

D.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Kota/01CM414101H-28/42


129. :-(a) (b)

(c) (d) (1) (2) 'c' (3) b (4) a, b d

130. -5'-ATG CAT GCA TGC ATG CAT-3'

m-RNA (1) 5' UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 3'

(2) 5' AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 3'


(4) 3' UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 5'

131.

I II III

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1) (i) (2) (i) (ii)(3) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii)

132. -

1

2

3

4

5 6

'1' '3' '5'

'2', '4', '6'

-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

129. Eukaryotic cells :-

(a) Are comparatively larger than prokaryotic cell

(b) Possesed an orgnised nucleus without a

nuclear membrane

(c) Show cytoplasmic streaming

(d) Do not contain mesosome

(1) All are correct

(2) All are correct except 'c'

(3) Only b is incorrect

(4) a, b & d are correct

130. If the sequence of coding strand in a transcription

unit is -

5'-ATG CAT GCA TGC ATG CAT-3'

What will be sequence of nucleotides in m-RNA?






table :

Column I Column II Column III

(i) Phycomycetes Albugo Green ear disease

(ii) Ascomycetes Neurospora Ergot disease

(iii) Basidiomycetes Ustilago Smut disease

(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)


132. Following is a schematic diagram of evolution of

plants -

1

2

3

Mosses

4

5

Ferns

6

Grasses

Trees

Unicellularalgae

If '1' represent multicellularity '3' represents

diploidy and '5' represents vessels then '2', '4', '6'

can be respectively -

(1)Haploidy, Conducting tissues, Haploidy

(2)Gametophyte, Tracheids, Closed vascular

bundle.

(3)Gametophyte, Open vascular bundle,

Tracheids.

(4) Haploidy, Tracheids, True vessels


H-29/42Kota/01CM414101

133. Identify the following diagrams A to C :

(A) (B) (C)

:-

(1) A - Laminaria, B - Porphyra, C - Chara

(2)A - Fucus, B - Dictyota, C - Laminaria

(3) A - Fucus, B - Polysiphonia, C - Porphyra

(4) A - Laminaria, B-Chara, C - Porphyra

134.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

135.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

136. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

133. Identify the following diagrams A to C :

(A) (B) (C)

Options :-

(1) A - Laminaria, B - Porphyra, C - Chara

(2)A - Fucus, B - Dictyota, C - Laminaria

(3) A - Fucus, B - Polysiphonia, C - Porphyra

(4) A - Laminaria, B-Chara, C - Porphyra

134. When you go through the anatomical study of

various animals then you will come to know that

some animals have body cavities not lined by

mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as

scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and

endoderm, the animals can be identified as?

(1) Tape worms

(2) Round worms

(3) Leeches

(4) Snails

135. Which of the following can not be considered as

an exclusive feature of birds?

(1) 4 chambered heart with only right aortic arch.

(2) Monocondylic skull with heterocoelus

vertebrae.

(3) Metanephric kidney and uricotelism.

(4) Female oviparous with single functional ovary

and oviduct.

136. Carpophore is found in :-

(1) Regma

(2) Cremocarp

(3) Etaerio of Achenes

(4) Carcerulus

Kota/01CM414101H-30/42


137. (A-D) (A) (body fluid)

(B)

(C) (intercellular matrix)

(D)

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

138.A

B

CD

A part of male reproduction

A, B, C D :-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. :-(1) DNA

(2) 70 S (3)

(4)

140. ?

(1) 5'

(2) 3'

(3)

(4)

137. Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) Epithelial tissue has a free surface

which faces either a body fluid or the outside

environment

(B) Epithelial tissue provides a covering or a

lining for some part of the body

(C) In epithelium tissue the cells are compactly

packed with little intercellular matrix

(D) Simple epithelium consists of two or more

cells layers

How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

138.A

B

CD

A part of male reproduction

In above diagram A, B, C and D is shown. Identify

which secreate third layer on spermatophore when

these passout the male genital pore :-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. The stroma of the chloroplast contains all

except :-

(1) Double stranded linear DNA

(2) 70 S ribosomes

(3) Enzymes required for the synthesis of

carbohydrats

(4) Enzymes required for the synthesis of

proteins

140. Where are the primers synthesized on the lagging

strand ?

(1) Only at the 5' end of the newly synthesized

strand

(2) Only at the 3' end of the new synthesized

strand

(3) At the begining of every Okazaki fragment

(4) At multiple places within an Okazaki

fragment


H-31/42Kota/01CM414101

141. Identify the diagram shown below as well as the

related right class and name of sex organs and

select the right option

Name ofOrganism

ClassName of sexorgan

(1) Acetabularia RhodoplayceaeAnthiridia &Archegonia

(2) Chlamydomonas ChlorophyceaeGlobule &Nucule

(3) Chara ChlorophyceaeGlobule &Nucule

(4) Chara PhaeophyceaeAntheridia &Oogonium

142. On the Basis of characters in group A & group

B identify the correct :-

Group - A Group-B

(i) Land plant (i) Land plant

(ii) Plant bodyforms thallus

(ii) Sporophyte isdivided in to root,stem & leaves

(iii) Gemma cupspresent ondorsal surface

(iii) Vascular tissue ispresent

(iv) Multicellularscales are present

(iv) Fruits are absent

(v) Gametophyticplant body

(v) Seeds are present

Options :-

(1) A - Spirogyra B - Riccia

(2) A - Cycas B - Pinus

(3) A - Marchantia B - Cycas

(4) A - Pinus B - Marchantia

141.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

142. A B :-

- A -B

(i) (i)

(ii)

(ii)

(iii)

(iii)

(iv)

(iv)

(v)

(v)

:-(1) A - B - (2) A - B - (3) A - B - (4) A - B -

Kota/01CM414101H-32/42


143. Select the option with all correct features among

given below (A to E) regarding the animal shown

in the following figure.

(A) Diploblastic and without tissue organisation

(B) Sessile and radially symmetric

(C) Found in fresh water and has perforated body

(D) Used as a scrubber while bathing

(E) Water current passing through the body helps

in gathering food and removal of wastes.

(1) B and D only (2) A, C and E

(3) A, C, D and E (4) A, B, C and E

144.

[B][A]

[C]

Mark the correct combination of types of body

cavity or coelom (shown in the above figure) in

various animals from the following table?

A B C

(1) Nereis Ancylostoma Fasciola

(2) Taenia Ascaris Pheretima

(3) Hirudinaria Taenia Ascaries

(4) Wuchereria Faciola Nereis

143. (A E)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(E)

(1) B D (2) A, C E(3) A, C, D E (4) A, B, C E

144.

[B][A]

[C]

:-

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-33/42Kota/01CM414101

145. Which of the following pair is incorrect ?

(1) Cucurbita – Parietal placentation

(2) Tomato – Axile placentation

(3) Dianthus – Superficial placentation

(4) Sunflower – Basal placentation

146. Given below are events of blood clotting

mechanism, Arrange them in correct order :-

(A) Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin

(B) Thrombokinase formed by a cascade process

(C) Conversion of prothrombin into thrombin

(D) Relase of certain factors from platelets

(1) B D C A

(2) D C B A

(3) D B C A

(4) B D A C

147. Which of the following organelle in the figure

correctly matches with its functions ?

Cisternae

(1) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, Lipid synthesis

(2) Golgi Appratus protein synthesis

(3) Smooth endoplasmic Reticulum, Aerobic

respiration

(4) Golgi appratus, formation of Glycoproteins

148. Which face of golgi complex gives rise to the

secretory vesicles ?

(1) Cis face (2) Proximal face

(3) Convex face (4) Trans face

149. Which statement is true for transcription?

(1) Both strands of DNA are copied during

transcription

(2) The total DNA of organism gets transcribed

(3) Adenosine now form base pair with uracil

instead of thymine

(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase enzyme

catalyses process of transcription

145. ?

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

146. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) B D C A

(2) D C B A

(3) D B C A

(4) B D A C

147.

Cisternae

(1) RER,

(2)

(3) SER,

(4)

148.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

149. -

(1) DNA

(2) DNA

(3)

(4) DNA DNA

Kota/01CM414101H-34/42


150. Find the correct match from the following table


(i) Euglena MoneraIdentical pigmentto higer plants

(ii) Puccinia MycotaHeteroecionsnature

(iii) Chara PlantaeMulticellular sexorgan

(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)


151. Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Phycomycetes (i) Imperfectfungi

(b) Ascomycetes (ii) Mushroom

(c) Basidiomycetes (iii) Morels

(d) Deuteromycetes (iv) Aquatic fungi

(1) a - i b - ii c - iii d - iv

(2) a - iii b - iv c - ii d - i

(3) a - iv b - iii c - ii d - i

(4) a - iv b - iii c - i d - ii

152. Which of the following animals has feather like

gills located in mantle cavity and has respiratory

and excretory functions?

(1) Nereis (2) Limulus

(3) Aplysia (4) Ascidia

153. Examine the animals shown in the figure A, B,

C and D and mark the characterstic found in all

of them?

[A][B]

[C] [D]

(1) Jointed appendages and wings

(2) Respiration by tracheal system

(3) Chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages

(4) Body divisible into cephalothorax and abdomen

150.

-I -II -III

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1) (i) (2) (i) (ii)(3) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii)

151. -I -II :-

-I -II

(a) (i)

(b) (ii)

(c) (iii)

(d) (iv)

(1) a - i b - ii c - iii d - iv

(2) a - iii b - iv c - ii d - i

(3) a - iv b - iii c - ii d - i

(4) a - iv b - iii c - i d - ii

152. (1) (2) (3) (4)

153. A, B, C D

[A][B]

[C] [D]

(1) (2) (3) (4)


H-35/42Kota/01CM414101

154. Which pair is not incorrect ?

(1) Leaf tendril – Opuntia

(2) Leaf bladder – Nepenthes

(3) Leaf pitcher – Dischidia

(4) Leaf spine – Sweet pea

155. Which of the following is not correct for the

simple columnar epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of a single layer of tall and

slender cells

(2) Their nuclei are located at the centre of the

cells

(3) Free surface may have microvilli

(4) This epithelium is found in the lining of

stomach and intestine and it help in secretion

and absorption

156. What is a tonoplast :-

(1) Outer membrane of mitochondria

(2) Inner membrane of chloroplast

(3) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant

cells

(4) Cell membrane of plant cell

157. How do the sugar of RNA and DNA differ ?

(1) RNA has six carbon sugar, DNA has five

carbon sugar

(2) The sugar of RNA has hydroxy group that is

not found in sugar of DNA

(3) RNA contain uracil; DNA contain thymine

(4) DNA's sugar has a phosphorus atom, RNA's

sugar does not

158. In a bacteria, if 200 base pairs are present in

nucleoid then total number of ester bonds will

be :-

(1) 200 (2) 398 (3) 2 (4) Zero

154. ?

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) (Leaf spine) –

155.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

156.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

157. RNA DNA ?

(1) RNA DNA

(2) RNA OH DNA

(3) RNA DNA

(4) DNA RNA

158. 200

:-

(1) 200 (2) 398

(3) 2 (4) Zero

Kota/01CM414101H-36/42


159. A cladogram showing evolution of plants is given

below, study it carefully and give the answer of

following question :-

4

32

1BGA

5

leafy gametophyteLiverworts

Embryo

Phycobillins

Silicated cell wall

Naked DNA

Chl cChl b

Chlorophyll-'a'

Number 3 representing the which group of plants

(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Moss

(3) Diatom (4) Red algae

160. Unlike Bryophytes & Pteridophytes in ......(A)....

the male & the female gametophyte do not have

.......(B).............. existance

In above statement fill A & B :-

(1) A : Angiosperm; B : Dependent

(2) A : Gymnosperm; B : Dependent

(3) A : Algae; B : Free Living

(4) A : Gymnosperm; B : Independent free living

161. Which of the following is a correct pair of the

excretory structures and the animals in which they

are found?

(1) Flame cells – Taenia and Wuchereria

(2) Nephridia – Nereis and Limulus

(3) Proboscis gland – Echinus and Balanoglossus

(4) Uriniferous tubules – Salamandra and Chameleon


table :-


(1) Coelenterata Meandrina Brain coral

(2) Echinodermata Antedon Sea lemon

(3) Tunicata Branchiostoma Sea lancelet

(4) Annelida Aplysia Sea hare

Time Management is Life Management

159. :-

4

32

1BGA

5

Naked DNA

Chl cChl b

Chlorophyll-'a'

3 (1) (2) (3) (4)

160. ...........(A)................ .......(B).............. A B (1) A : ; B : (2) A : ; B : (3) A : ; B : (4) A : ; B :

161.

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) – 162. :-

-I -II -III

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-37/42Kota/01CM414101

163. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita

are examples of :-

(1) Homologous organs

(2) Analogous organs

(3) Homoplastic organs

(4) Vestigial organs

164. Observe the given diagram representing the

structural pattern of bone :-

Compact bonetissue

Haversioncanal

It is found in which of the following ?

(a) Epiphyseal part of bone

(b) Metaphyseal part of bone

(c) Diaphysis of bone

(d) Epiphyseal plate of bone

(1) a & b (2) b & c

(3) c & d (4) only c

165. Which of the following statement is not true for

plasma membrane ?

(1) Lipid components of the membrane mainly

consists of Phosphoglycerides

(2) Integral proteins lie on the surface of membrane

(3) Polar head of phospholipid are toward the

outer sides and the hydrophobic tail are

toward the inner part.

(4) Carbohydrate of plasma membrane are involves

in cell to cell recognition mechanisms.

166. Identify a and b

ba 5'

5'

5'

3'

3'

3'5'

(1) a-leading, b-lagging

(2) a-lagging; b-leading

(3) a-leading; b-leading

(4) a-lagging, b-lagging

163. (Thorn) (1) (2) (3) (4)

164. :-

?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) a b (2) b c(3) c d (4) c

165. (1)

(2) (3)

(4)

166. a b

ba 5'

5'

5'

3'

3'

3'5'

(1) a-, b-(2) a-; b-(3) a-; b-(4) a-, b-

Kota/01CM414101H-38/42


167. In eukaryote RNA polymerase-III is resposible

for transcription of........

(1) tRNA, 5srRNA snRNA

(2) mRNA, 23srRNA

(3) 16srRNA, 18srRNA

(4) 28srRNA, 18s and 5.8s rRNA

168. Match the column-I (name of algal cell ) with

column-II (shape of chloroplast) and choose the

correct answer, on the basis of codes given in

column-I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ulothrix (i) Plate like

(B) Zygnema (ii) Reticulate

(C) Oedogonium (iii) Discoid

(D) Chara (iv) Stellate

(E) Fritschiella (v) Girdle shape

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii, E-i

(2) A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i

(4) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

169. Consider the following four statements A, B, C

and D, select the right option -

(A) Diplontic life cycle is found in all seed bearing

plants.

(B) In Pinus, both male cones and female cones

are present on the same tree.

(C) Male gametes of Pinus are biflagellated.

(D) In Pinus, pollination takes place at 3- called

stage.

The correct statements are -

(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D

(3) A and B (4) A, B, C and D

170. Select the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) In green algae sexual reproduction may be

isogamas, anisogamous or oogamous

(2) In red Algae sexual reproduction is oogamous

and accompanied by complex post fertilization

development

(3) In brown Algae sexual reproduction may be

isogamous, Anisogamous or oogamous.

(4) In Bryophyta zygote undergo reduction

division immediately

167. RNA -III (1) tRNA, 5srRNA snRNA

(2) mRNA, 23srRNA

(3) 16srRNA, 18srRNA

(4) 28srRNA, 18s and 5.8s rRNA

168. -I () -II () -I II :-

-I -II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

(E) (v)

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii, E-i

(2) A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i

(4) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

169. A, B, C D, -

(A)

(B)

(C) (D) 3-

-

(1) A, B C (2) A, B D(3) A B (4) A, B, C D

170. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-39/42Kota/01CM414101

171. The animal shown in an adult chordate animal is

shown in the following figure. Its anatomical study

has revealed that is possesses (retains) a chordate

character. Select the correct option w.r.t. the

chordate character, retained in the adult ?

(1) Notochord

(2) Dorsal tubular nerve cord

(3) Pharyngeal gill slits

(4) Post and tail

172. Which of the following statements regarding

mammals are correct ?

(A) Monocondylic skull

(B) Left aortic arch

(C) Respiration by single lung

(D) Metanephric kidney

(E) External ears or pinnae

(F) Amniote

(G) Acoelous or amphiplatyan vertebrae

(H) Corpus callosum in brain

(I) Homiothermic

(1) B, D, E, F, G, H, I

(2) A, B, D, F, G, H, I

(3) A, D, E, F, G, H

(4) B, C, E, F, G, I

173. Cystoliths are composed of :-

(1) Calcium oxalate

(2) Calcium carbonate

(3) MgCO3

(4) Glucosides

171.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

172.

?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(F)

(G)

(H)

(I)

(1) B, D, E, F, G, H, I

(2) A, B, D, F, G, H, I

(3) A, D, E, F, G, H

(4) B, C, E, F, G, I

173. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) MgCO3

(4)

Kota/01CM414101H-40/42


174. A student scrapped some mucus from inner

surface of checks by blunt end of a scalpal and

observed it in microscope, which type of cell can

be seen in microscopic observation ?

(1) Columnar cell

(2) Squamous cell

(3) Cubodial cell

(4) Pigmented cell

175. Find out the incorrect match :-

(1) Telocentric – Terminal centromere

(2) Submetacentric – Centromere slightly away

form middle

(3) Acrocentric – Both arms of chromosome

almost equal

(4) Metacentric – Two equal arms of the

chromosome

176. Read the following statement carefully and select

the correct statement

(A) In transcription only a segment of DNA and

only one of the strand of DNA is copied into

RNA

(B) Both strands of DNA are copied during

transcription

(C) The DNA polymerase on their own initiate the

process of replication

(D) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase

catalyse polymerisation only in one direction

(5' 3')

(1) Only A and D

(2) Only A & B

(3) Only B & C

(4) A, B, C, D

177. Which of the following is not included in a

transcription unit -

(1) Promoter

(2) Terminator

(3) Structural gene

(4) Co-repressor

174.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

175. :-

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

176.

(A) DNA

RNA

(B) DNA

(C) DNA

(D)DNA DNA

(5' 3')

(1) A D

(2) A B

(3) B C

(4) A, B, C, D

177.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-41/42Kota/01CM414101

Study the following characters and give the

answers of questions number 178,179,180

characters -

(A) Floridean starch (B) C - phycocyanin

(C) Laminarin (D) Chlorophyll a and b

(E) Fucoxanthin (F) Alginates

(G) Carrageenin (H) Gemmae

(I) Sporogonium (J) Cynophycean starch

178. Which characters are related to Dictyota,

Sargassum and Laminaria ?

(1) C, E, F (2) D, E, H

(3) A, D, E (4) E, F, J

179. Which characters are present in Nostoc and

Anabena ?

(1) D, A, I (2) C, D, E

(3) B, J (4) A, B

180. Which characters are found in Marchantia ?

(1) C, D, I (2) E, F, G

(3) D, H, I (4) G, I, J

178, 179, 180 -

(A) (B) C -

(C) (D) a b

(E) (F)

(G) (H)

(I) (J) 178.

?

(1) C, E, F (2) D, E, H

(3) A, D, E (4) E, F, J

179. ?

(1) D, A, I (2) C, D, E

(3) B, J (4) A, B

180. ?

(1) C, D, I (2) E, F, G

(3) D, H, I (4) G, I, J

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Your moral duty

is to prove that is

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