NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSEin the Test Booklet only. 10.On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall

Paper Code : 0000CT100115001

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2017

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NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

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Form Number :

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

Important Instructions

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet

with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else

(except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks

are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of

Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in

each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four)

marks for correct response.

6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response

of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made

if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/

marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet.

Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or

written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc,

except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.

9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose

in the Test Booklet only.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer

Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the

candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

1.

2.

3. 3 4. 90360

5. A, B, C 30 4

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

Note : In case of any correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper Code & YourForm No. (Correction Paper Code Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail)

Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (MAJOR) Test Pattern : JEE-Main

TEST # 01 TEST DATE : 31 - 01 - 2016

1/310000CT100115001

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

PART A - PHYSICS

1. Standing waves are generated on a sonometer

string loaded with a cylindrical body. If the

cylinder is completely immersed in water, the

length of the loops changes by a factor of 2.2.

The specific gravity of the material of the

cylinder is :-

(1) 1.11 (2) 2.15

(3) 2.50 (4) 1.26

2. A steel ball is released from rest a distance

above a rigid horizontal surface and bounces

several time. The diagram shows how its

velocity varies with time. Which statement

correctly explains why the areas X and Y are

equal?

X

Yvel

ocit

y

0relative

ballfalling

ballrising

ballfalling

ballrising

ballfalling

time

1impact

st2

impact

nd3

impact

rd

1.

2.2

(1) 1.11 (2) 2.15

(3) 2.50 (4) 1.26

2.

X Y

X

Yvel

ocit

y

0relative

ballfalling

ballrising

ballfalling

ballrising

ballfalling

time

1impact

st2

impact

nd3

impact

rd

0000CT1001150012/31



(1) The ball's acceleration is not same during

its upward and downward motion.

(2) The speed at which the ball leaves thesurface after an impact is equal to the speed

at which it returns to the surface for the nextimpact.

(3) For one impact, the speed at which the ballhits the surface equals the speed at which it

leaves the surface.

(4) The ball rises and falls through the samedistance between the impact 1 & 2.

3. A small steel sphere of mass m is falling

vertically through a viscous liquid with a

constant speed v. Which row in the table

correctly describes the changes with time in the

kinetic energy and gravitational potential

energy of the sphere?

Kinetic Energy GravitationalPotential Energy

(1) constant and equal decreases at a rateto ½ mv2 of mgv

(2) constant and equal decreases at a rateto ½ mv2 of (mgv – ½ mv2)

(3) increases at a rate decreases at a rateof mgv of mgv

(4) increases at a rate decreases at a rate

of mgv of (½ mv2 – mgv)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 2

3. m

v

(1) ½ mv2 mgv

(2) ½ mv2 (mgv – ½ mv2)

(3) mgv mgv

(4) mgv (½ mv2 – mgv)

3/310000CT100115001



4. At temperatures close to 0 K, the heat capacityC of a certain solid is related to its temperatureT by the equation C = aT3, where a is a constantcharacteristic of the solid. Heat is supplied tothe solid at a steady rate. Which graph bestrepresents the variation of its temperature Twith time t?

(1)

T

t0

0

(2)

T

t0

0

(3)

T

t0

0

(4)

T

t0

0

5. The given diagram shows three light pieces ofpaper placed on a wire that is stretched overtwo supports, Q and R, a distance 4x apart.When the wire is made to vibrate at a particularfrequency, all the pieces of paper, except themiddle one, fall off the wire. Which of thefollowing could be the wavelength of thevibration?

x x x x

Q R

paper

(1) 2x (2) 3x (3) 4x (4) 8x

4. 0 K C T C = aT3 a T t

(1)

T

t0

0

(2)

T

t0

0

(3)

T

t0

0

(4)

T

t0

0

5.

4x Q

R

x x x x

Q R

paper

(1) 2x (2) 3x (3) 4x (4) 8x

0000CT1001150014/31



6. The given diagram shows a straight length oftape being wound on to a reel. The reel isrotating about a fixed axis with constant angularvelocity and its radius is increasing at a steadyrate. Which graph correctly shows the variationwith time of the speed v at which the tape movestowards the roll ?

radiusv

(1)

v

t0

0

(2)

v

t0

0

(3)

v

t0

0

(4)

v

t0

0

6. v

radiusv

(1)

v

t0

0

(2)

v

t0

0

(3)

v

t0

0

(4)

v

t0

0

5/310000CT100115001



7. A spring hangs vertically from the ceiling and

a mass is attached to its free end. When the

mass is pulled down and released, it oscillates

vertically with simple harmonic motion of

period T. The variation with time t of its distance

from the ceiling is as shown. Which statement

gives a correct deduction from this graph?

100

distance fromceiling (in cm)

30

00 ¼ T ½ T

t

(1) The amplitude of the oscillation is 70 cm.

(2) The kinetic energy is maximum at t = 1

2T..

(3) The restoring force on the mass increases

between t = 0 and t = 1

4 T..

(4) The speed is maximum at t = 1

4 T..

7.

T

t

100

distance fromceiling (in cm)

30

00 ¼ T ½ T

t

(1) 70 cm

(2) t = 1

2T

(3) t = 0 t = 1

4T

(4) t = 1

4 T

0000CT1001150016/31



8. The given diagram shows isotherms for a fixedmass of an ideal gas at temperature T

1 and T

2.

What is the value of the ratio

r.m.s. speed of the molecules at temperature T2r.m.s. speed of the molecules at temperature T1

?

T2

T1

0 1 2 3 4

1

2

3

4

p(in10 Pa)5

V(in m )3

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 4

9. The given graph illustrates a transverse wavetravelling on a string at a particular instant, andthe points P, Q, R and S represent elements ofthe string. Which of the following statementsabout the motion of the elements is correct?

displacement

distance along string

P

Q

R

S

(1) The speed of the element at P is a maximum(2) The displacement of the element at Q is

always zero.(3) The energy of the element at R is entirely

kinetic(4) The acceleration of the element at S is

maximum.

8. fy;s rkieku T

1 T

2

T2

T1

T2

T1

0 1 2 3 4

1

2

3

4

p(in10 Pa)5

V(in m )3

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 4

9. P, Q, R S

displacement

distance along string

P

Q

R

S

(1) P

(2) Q

(3) R

(4) S

7/310000CT100115001



10. Air is pumped into a balloon, of initial

volume V, until its diameter has doubled. If the

atmospheric pressure is p, what is the work

done against the atmosphere ?

(1) pV (2) 3pV (3) 4pV (4) 7pV

11. The given diagram shows a detector placed

between a transmitter of sound waves and a

metal plate. At three adjacent points, R, S and

T, the meter shows zero intensity. Which of the

following is the frequency of the emitted wave?

(Take the velocity of sound as = 300 m/s)

meter

transmitter

waves

emitted

R S T waves

reflected

1.5m 1.5m

metalplate

detector

(1) 900 Hz (2) 100 Hz

(3) 0.01 Hz (4) 0.09 Hz

12. If a section of a soap bubble of radius r by a

plane through its centre is considered, the force

on the half due to surface tension is :

(1) 2 rT (2) 4 rT

(3) r T (4) 2r T

10. V

p

(1) pV (2) 3pV (3) 4pV (4) 7pV

11.

R, S T

(= 300 m/s)

meter

transmitter

waves

emitted

R S T waves

reflected

1.5m 1.5m

metalplate

detector

(1) 900 Hz (2) 100 Hz

(3) 0.01 Hz (4) 0.09 Hz

12. r

(1) 2 rT (2) 4 rT

(3) r T (4) 2r T

0000CT1001150018/31



13. A train moving towards a hill at a speed of

72 km/hr sounds a whistle of frequency

500 Hz. A wind is blowing from the hill at a

speed of 36 km/hr. If the speed of sound in air

is 340 m/s, the frequency heard by a man on

the hill (nearly) is :-

(1) 532.5 Hz (2) 565.0 Hz

(3) 516.5 Hz (4) 589.0 Hz

14. Two particles A and B are moving in XY plane.

Particle A moves along a line with equation

y = x while B moves along X axis such that

their X coordinates are always equal. If B

moves with a uniform speed 3 m/s, the speed

of A is :-

(1) 3 m/s (2) 1

3m/s

(3) 3 2 m/s (4) 3

2 m/s

15. Two point masses M each are placed at (L, 0)

& (–L, 0). A third point mass M is uniformly

rotating on the circle x2 + y2 = L2 . Equation of

path traced by COM of 3 point masses is

(1) x2 + y2 = L2 (2) x2 + y2 = L2/3

(3) x = y = 0 (4) x2 + y2 = L2/9

13. 72 km/hr

500 Hz

36 km/hr

340 m/s

(1) 532.5 Hz (2) 565.0 Hz

(3) 516.5 Hz (4) 589.0 Hz

14. A B, XY A y

= x B, X

X

B 3 m/s

A

(1) 3 m/s (2) 1

3m/s

(3) 3 2 m/s (4) 3

2 m/s

15. M, (L, 0) (–L, 0)

M, x2 + y2 = L2

(1) x2 + y2 = L2 (2) x2 + y2 = L2/3

(3) x = y = 0 (4) x2 + y2 = L2/9

9/310000CT100115001



16. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire

of length is n0. A bridge is now introduced at

a distance of (

0000CT10011500110/31



18. A light rod acted upon by three forces, is in

equilibrium. Which of the following diagramshows the possible position and direction of the

forces?

(1)

P Q

R (2)

P Q

R

(3) P

Q

R (4) P

Q

R

19. At a power station, heat is removed from theheat exchanger by cooling water at 6.7 × 109 J

per minute. The cooling water enters at 6.0 °Cand leaves at 14.0 °C. [Take the specific heat

capacity of water 4200 J/kg°C]Which of the following is the rate of water

flow?

(1) 9

16.7 10 60 kgs4200 8

(2)9

16.7 10 kgs4200 8 60

(3) 1

9

4200 8kgs

6.7 10 60

(4)1

9

4200 8 60kg s

6.7 10

18.

(1)

P Q

R (2)

P Q

R

(3) P

Q

R (4) P

Q

R

19.

6.7 × 109 J

6.0 °C

14.0 °C [

= 4200 J/kg°C]

(1) 9

16.7 10 60 kgs4200 8

(2)9

16.7 10 kgs4200 8 60

(3) 1

9

4200 8kgs

6.7 10 60

(4)1

9

4200 8 60kg s

6.7 10

11/310000CT100115001



20. In case of an adiabatic process the correctrelation in terms of pressure p and density ofa gas is :-(1) p = constant (2) p –1 constant(3) p – 1 = constant (4) p – = constant

21. A cylindrical block of wood of base area30 cm2, floats in a liquid of density 900 kg/m3.The block is depressed lightly and thenreleased. The time period of the resultingoscillations of the block is equal to that of springwith block of same mass, then spring constantis equal to :(1) 40 N/m (2) 27 N/m

(3) 30 N/m (4) 23 N/m

22. A uniform solid sphere of mass m is beingpulled on a horizontal surface with force Fparallel to the surface and applied at its top mostpoint. If the acceleration of the cylinder is a &it is rolling on the surface, the value of F is :

(1) ma (2) 3

ma2

(3) 7

ma10

(4) 10

ma7

23. A shooting game involves using a gun that firesby itself at random times. The player can onlypoint the gun in a fixed direction while the targetmoves from side to side with simple harmonicmotion, as shown. At which of the given regionshould the player aim in order to score thegreatest number of hits?

target

1 2 3 4 5

(1) 3 (2) either 1 or 5

(3) either 2 or 4 (4) any of 1, 2, 3, or 5

20. p (1) p = (2) p –1 (3) p – 1 = (4) p – =

21. 30cm2 900 kg/m3 (1) 40 N/m (2) 27 N/m

(3) 30 N/m (4) 23 N/m

22. m F a F

(1) ma (2) 3

ma2

(3) 7

ma10

(4) 10

ma7

23.

target

1 2 3 4 5

(1) 3 (2) 1 5(3) 2 4 (4) 1, 2, 3, 5

0000CT10011500112/31



24. Two generators S1 and S

2 produce water wave

of equal frequency. A point P is located such

that (S1P – S

2P) is equal to half a wavelength.

When operated alone, S1 produces an

oscillation of amplitude 2a at P while S2

produces an oscillation of amplitude a. If the

generators are operated in phase, which graph

correctly shows the resultant oscillation at P?

(1)

displacement

time

+a

–a

0 (2)

displacement

time

+a

0

(3)

displacement

time

+a

–a

0

+3a

–3a

(4)

displacement

time0

+3a

–3a

25. A wax candle floats vertically in a liquid of

density twice that of wax. The candle burns at

the rate of 4 cm/hr. Then, with respect to the

surface of the liquid the upper end of the candle

will :-

(1) fall at the rate of 4 cm/hr(2) fall at the rate of 2 cm/hr(3) rise at the rate of 2 cm/hr(4) remain at the same height

24. S1 S

2

P (S

1P – S

2P)

S1 P 2a

S2 a

P

(1)

displacement

time

+a

–a

0 (2)

displacement

time

+a

0

(3)

displacement

time

+a

–a

0

+3a

–3a

(4)

displacement

time0

+3a

–3a

25.

4 cm/hr

(1) 4 cm/hr

(2) 2 cm/hr

(3) 2 cm/hr

(4)

13/310000CT100115001



26. If the threshold of hearing is assumed to be the

reference (0 dB), then the threshold of pain is

taken to be 120 dB. Let the corresponding

sound intensities be I0 and I respectively.

Then, 0I

I is:-

(1) 120 (2) 1012

(3) 10–12 (4) 101.2

27. A 40 g ball dropped from a certain height

bounces back from the horizontal ground

without losing mechanical energy. If its speed

is 10 m/s just before making contact with the

ground, and the average value of the force of

the ground on the ball is equal to 16 N while

ball and wall are in contact, how long were they

in contact?

(1) 25 ms (2) 50 ms

(3) 75 ms (4) 100 ms

28. A surface of area S is placed perpendicular to

the direction of travel of a plane wave. The

energy per unit time intercepted by the surface

is E when the amplitude of the wave is A. The

area of the surface is reduced to ½ S and the

amplitude of the wave is increased to 2A. What

is the energy per unit time intercepted by this

smaller surface?

(1) 4E (2) 2E (3) E (4) ½ E

26. (0 dB)

120 dB

I0 I 0

I

I

(1) 120 (2) 1012

(3) 10–12 (4) 101.2

27. 40 g

10 m/s

16 N

(1) 25 ms (2) 50 ms

(3) 75 ms (4) 100 ms

28. S

A

E ½ S

2A

(1) 4E (2) 2E (3) E (4) ½ E

0000CT10011500114/31



29. A uniform meter scale is supported from its

20 cm mark. A body suspended from 10 cm

mark keeps the scale horizontal. However, the

scale gets unbalanced if the body is completely

immersed in water. To regain the balance the

body is shifted to the 8 cm mark. Therefore,

the specific gravity of the material of the body

is :-

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 4

30. What could be a correct expression for the

speed of ocean waves in terms of its wavelength

, the depth h of the ocean, the density of sea

water, and the acceleration of free fall g ?

(1) g

(2) g / h

(3) gh

(4) g /

29. 20 cm

10 cm

8

cm

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 4

30. ,

h,

g

(1) g

(2) g / h

(3) gh

(4) g /

15/310000CT100115001



PART B - CHEMISTRY

31. Ratio of stoichiometric coefficient of N2H

4 to

Cl– in the following reaction

ClO3– + N

2H

4 NO

3– + Cl–

(1) 8/15 (2) 1

(3) 2/3 (4) 6/14

32. 40 ml 0.1N KMnO4 is equivalent to

30 ml KHC2O

4 solution. How many ml of

0.1 N KOH are required to titrate 60 ml of same

KHC2O

4 solution.

(1) 40 ml (2) 30 ml

(3) 28.57 (4) 35.5

33. A 124 W bulb converts only 15% of the energy

supplied to it into visible light of wavelength

640 nm. How many photons are emitted by the

light bulb in one second

(1) 4 × 1019 (2) 6 × 1019

(3) 8 × 1018 (4) 3 × 1019 photon

34. What is the debroglie wavelength of electron,

in hydrogen atom, moving in an orbit having

maximum magnetic quantum no. = +2

(1) 9.97 Å (2) 2.8 Å

(3) 6.12 Å (4) 3.32 Å

35. Incorrect postulate of kinetic theory of gases

(1) Gas particles move in random motion

(2) Forces between gas molecules are negligible

(3) Gas molecules with higher molar mass have

more kinetic energy

(4) Collision between gas molecules are elastic

31. ClO3

– + N2H

4 NO

3– + Cl–

N2H

4 Cl–

(1) 8/15 (2) 1

(3) 2/3 (4) 6/14

32. 40 ml 0.1N KMnO4 30 ml KHC

2O

4

KHC2O

4

60 ml 0.1 N KOH ml

(1) 40 ml (2) 30 ml

(3) 28.57 (4) 35.5

33. 124 W 15% 640 nm (1) 4 × 1019 (2) 6 × 1019

(3) 8 × 1018 (4) 3 × 1019 34.

+2 (1) 9.97 Å (2) 2.8 Å(3) 6.12 Å (4) 3.32 Å

35. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

0000CT10011500116/31



36. Equal masses of three non-reacting different

ideal gases X, Y and Z are mixed in a sealed

rigid container. If the temperature of the system

remain constant at 400K, which of the

following statement about gas X can never be

correct-

(1) Its partial pressure can be equal to 1/3rd of

total pressure

(2) Average kinetic energy per mole of gas

X is highest

(3) It can never be liquified

(4) It's partial pressure can be calculated with

knowledge of volume of the container and

mole of X.

37. Which graph is not a straight line for an ideal

gas

(1) P vs 1

V (at constant T & n)

(2) PV vs V2 (at constant T & n)

(3) P vs T2 (at constant V & n)

(4) log P vs log (V2) (at constant T & n)

38. CH4 gas behaving non ideally. Compressibility

factor for gas is 1.5 at 2 atm, 400K. Calculate

molar volume for gas

[Given = R = 0.08 Litre atm

K mole

]

(1) 24 litre (2) 16 litre


36.

X, Y Z

400K

X

(1) 1/3

(2) X

(3)

(4) X

37.

(1) P vs 1

V T n

(2) PV vs V2 T n

(3) P vs T2 V n

(4) log P vs log (V2) T n

38. CH4

2 atm, 400 K 1.5

[ = R = 0.08 Litre atm

K mole

]



17/310000CT100115001



39. In the equilibrium reaction

AgCl (s) + 2NH3(aq.) Ag(NH3)2

+(aq) + Cl–(aq.)

Increase in the concentration of Cl–(aq.) causes.

(1) AgCl(s) to decompose

(2) AgCl(s) to precipitate

(3) Ag(NH3)

2+ (aq.) to form

(4) The NH3(aq.) concentration to decrease

40. For the reaction

2NO2(g) N2O4(g) at 300 K

The value of Kp is 2atm–1. The total pressure

at equilibrium is 10 atm. If volume of container

become two times of its original volume, what

will be its equilibrium pressure at 300K.

(1) 6.4 atm (2) 4.51 atm

(3) 6.0 atm (4) 5.19 atm

41. Equal volume of liquid A (d = 0.8 gm/ml) and

liquid B (d = 1.2 gm/ ml) are mixed to form

a solution. Calculate mole fraction of A in

solution [MA = 16, M

B = 32]

(1) 3/8 (2) 2/3

(3) 4/7 (4) 3/4

42. An aqueous solution of 18 gm oxalic acid

(H2C

2O

4) is made up to 400 ml. Calculate the

volume of 0.1M NaOH required to completely

neutralize 50 ml of above solution -

(1) 500 ml (2) 50 ml

(3) 400 ml (4) 200 ml

39.

AgCl (s) + 2NH3(aq.) Ag(NH3)2

+(aq) +Cl–(aq.)

Cl–(aq.) (1) AgCl(s) (2) AgCl(s) (3) Ag(NH

3)

2+ (aq.)

(4) NH3(aq.)

40. 300 K

2NO2(g) N2O4(g),

Kp 2atm–1 10 atm

300K

(1) 6.4 atm (2) 4.51 atm

(3) 6.0 atm (4) 5.19 atm

41. A (d = 0.8 gm/ml) B (d = 1.2 gm/ ml) A [M

A = 16, M

B = 32]

(1) 3/8 (2) 2/3

(3) 4/7 (4) 3/4

42. 18 gm (H2C

2O

4)

400 ml 50 ml 0.1M NaOH (1) 500 ml (2) 50 ml

(3) 400 ml (4) 200 ml

0000CT10011500118/31



43. The wave no. of the first line of Balmer series

of H atom is 15200 cm–1. What is wave number

of the first line of Lyman series of Li2+.

(1) 456200 cm–1 (2) 136800 cm–1

(3) 738720 cm–1 (4) 152000 cm–1

44. Which of the following plots of radial

probability function 4r22r is incorrectly

labelled

(1)

r

(2s)

4r

2

r

(2)

r

(2P)

4r

2

r

(3)

r

4 r 2 r

(3s)

(4)

r

4 r 2 r

(3P)

43. H-15200 cm–1 Li2+ (1) 456200 cm–1 (2) 136800 cm–1

(3) 738720 cm–1 (4) 152000 cm–1

44. 4r22r

(1)

r

2(s)

4r

2

r

(2)

r

2(P)

4r

2

r

(3)

r

4 r 2 r

3(s)

(4)

r

4 r 2 r

3(P)

19/310000CT100115001



45. If coordinate 'X' is atomic number then select

best for 'Y' coordinate

(1) IE1

(2) Electron affinity

(3) Zeff

(using slater rule) Y

LiNa

K

X(4)

1

electronegativity

46. Maximum enthalpy change is associated with

(1) Li(g)

+ Cl(g)

— Li(g)

+ + Cl(g)

–

(2) Na(g)

+ Cl(g)

— Na(g)

+ + Cl(g)

–

(3) Li(g)

+ Br(g)

— Li(g)

+ + Br(g)

–

(4) Na(g)

+ Br(g)

— Na(g)

+ + Br(g)

–

47. Select set of quantum number which is NOT

associated with any electron in Cr (Z = 24)

(1) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = +1

2

(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –1

2

(3) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1

2

(4) n = 3, l = 1, m = +1, s = –1

2

45. 'X' 'Y'

(1) IE1

(2)

YLi

Na

K

X

(3) Zeff

()

(4) 1

46.

(1) Li(g)

+ Cl(g)

Li(g)

+ + Cl(g)

–

(2) Na(g)

+ Cl(g)

Na(g)

+ + Cl(g)

–

(3) Li(g)

+ Br(g)

Li(g)

+ + Br(g)

–

(4) Na(g)

+ Br(g)

Na(g)

+ + Br(g)

–

47. Cr (Z = 24)

(1) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = +1

2

(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = –1

2

(3) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1

2

(4) n = 3, l = 1, m = +1, s = –1

2

0000CT10011500120/31



48. Set of species in which 3rd principal level is

completely filled

(1) Ar, Zn (2) Cu, Zn

(3) Cu+2, Zn+2 (4) Cl–, Ar

49. XeF4 has total 36 valence electrons. Select

correct for uses of valence electrons in XeF4

(1) 8 valence electrons used to make Xe – F

bonds

(2) 24 valence electrons used to make in lone

pair of F-atoms

(3) 4 valance electrons used to make in two lone

pairs of Xe

(4) All of the above

50. Bond angles 104º, 117º and 180º are associated

with

(1) NH3, NO

2– and NO

2+ respectively

(2) H2O, NH

3 and CO

2 respectively

(3) H2O, O

3 and NO

2– respectively

(4) H2O, O

3 and CO

2 respectively

51. Hydrogen bonding is NOT responsible for

(1) Layer structure of solid boric acid

(2) Less volatile nature of p-nitrophenol as

compared to its ortho isomer

(3) More solubility of 3 2CH CH

|OH

in water as

compared to CH3–O–CH

3(4) Higher boiling point of fluorobenzene as

compared to benzene

48. 3rd

(1) Ar, Zn (2) Cu, Zn

(3) Cu+2, Zn+2 (4) Cl–, Ar

49. XeF4 36 XeF

4

(1) 8 Xe – F

(2) 24 F-

(3) 4 Xe

(4) 50. 104º, 117º 180º ,

-(1) NH

3, NO

2– NO

2+

(2) H2O, NH

3 CO

2

(3) H2O, O

3 NO

2–

(4) H2O, O

3 CO

2

51.

(1)

(2) p-

(3) CH

3–O–CH

3 3 2CH CH

|OH

(4)

21/310000CT100115001



52. (I) POF3 (II) SOF

4 (III) IOF

5

On moving I to III which change is NOT

observed

(1)Number ofd-orbitals involved inbonding

(I) One (II Two (III) Three

(2)Number of orbitalsinvolved inhybridisation

(I) Four (II) Five (III) Six

(3)Number of d

– p

bonds in therespective molecule

(I) One (II) Two (III) Three

(4)Number of lone pairson central atom

(I) Zero (II) Zero (III) Zero

53. Identify correct heat of hydrogenation order :

(1) >

(2) >

(3) >

(4)

>

52. (I) POF3 (II) SOF

4 (III) IOF

5

I III

-

(1)d-

(I) One (II Two (III) Three

(2)

(I) Four (II) Five (III) Six

(3)d – p

(I) One (II) Two (III) Three

(4) (I) Zero (II) Zero (III) Zero

53.

(1) >

(2) >

(3) >

(4)

>

0000CT10011500122/31



54. Identify anti aromatic compound ?

(1)

N+

HH

(2)

(3) (4)

55. Identify correct order of enol content ?

(1)

O O

>

O O

OMe

(2)

O

>

O

(3)

O

>

O

OEt

(4) All of these

56. Choose the correct option ?

(1) Total structural isomeric ether of molecular

formula C5H

12O is 4

(2) Basic strength order of following amine

in aq. phase

(CH3)

2NH > (CH

3)

3N > CH

3NH

2 > NH

3

(3) Inductive effect is dominant phenomenon

over resonance for halogen towards

electrophilic attack

(4) All of these

54.

(1)

N+

HH

(2)

(3) (4)

55.

(1)

O O

>

O O

OMe

(2)

O

>

O

(3)

O

>

O

OEt

(4)

56.

(1) C5H

12O

4

(2)

(CH3)

2NH > (CH

3)

3N > CH

3NH

2 > NH

3

(3)

(4)

23/310000CT100115001



57. Identify correct acidic strength order ?

(1)

OH

>

OH

NO2

(2)

OH

>

OH

NO2NO2

NO2O2N

(3) CHCH < CH2=CH

2

(4) NH3 > CHCH

58. Identify correct stability order ?

(1) >– –

(2) >

(3)MeO

+

OMeMeO

> +

(4) >– C

CF3

CF3F3C

–

57.

(1)

OH

>

OH

NO2

(2)

OH

>

OH

NO2NO2

NO2O2N

(3) CHCH < CH2=CH

2

(4) NH3 > CHCH

58.

(1) >– –

(2) >

(3)MeO

+

OMeMeO

> +

(4) >– C

CF3

CF3F3C

–

0000CT10011500124/31



59. Identify correct stability order of resonating

structures ?

(1)

OH

<

O–H+

–

(2) >

O+O

+

(3)

O–

O O

N

N+

– >

O

N

N

+

(4) <+

–

60. Identify total number of structural isomers with

C5H

12 molecular formula ?

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

59.

(1)

OH

<

O–H+

–

(2) >

O+O

+

(3)

O–

O O

N

N+

– >

O

N

N

+

(4) <+

–

60. C5H

12

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

25/310000CT100115001



PART C - MATHEMATICS

61. Area of the triangle formed by points (102,–4),(105,–2) and (103,–3)-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1

2(4)

1

4

62. The combined equation of pair of lines passingthrough origin and perpendicular to the pair oflines 2x2 – xy – y2 = 0 is-

(1) x2 – xy – 2y2 = 0 (2) x2 – xy – y2 = 0

(3) x2 – 2xy – y2 = 0 (4) 2x2 + xy – y2 = 0

63. If the radical axis of the circles x2 + y2 – 1 = 0and x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 forms the triangleof area A with co-ordinate axes, then the value

of 1

A is-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

64. Let ƒ : R R ƒ(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 2, thenƒ–1(x) is given by-

(1) 31 x 1 (2) 31 x 1

(3) 3 x 1 1 (4) 3 x 1 1

65. Number of solutions of the equation

33 3log x 1 log x 1 2 is (are)

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3

61. (102,–4), (105,–2) (103,–3)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1

2(4)

1

4

62. 2x2 – xy – y2 = 0

(1) x2 – xy – 2y2 = 0 (2) x2 – xy – y2 = 0

(3) x2 – 2xy – y2 = 0 (4) 2x2 + xy – y2 = 0

63. x2 + y2 – 1 = 0 x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 A

1

A

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

64. ƒ : R R, ƒ(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 2

ƒ–1(x)

(1) 31 x 1 (2) 31 x 1

(3) 3 x 1 1 (4) 3 x 1 1

65. 33 3log x 1 log x 1 2

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3

0000CT10011500126/31



66. Let the expression E = 8a + 8b – 3.2a+b takes itsminimum value 'p' at a = & b = , thenperpendicular distance of the point P() fromthe line x + y + 2p = 0 is-

(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 1

2(4) 2

67. Which of the following is true ?

(1) sin95 > sin63 > sin1

(2) sin95 > sin1 > sin63

(3) sin1 > sin95 > sin63

(4) sin1 > sin63 > sin95

68. If |cosx + sinx| + |cosx – sinx| = 2sinx;x [0,2], then maximum integral value of xis-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

69. Consider set A = {1,2,3}. Number of symmetricrelations that can be defined on A containingthe ordered pair (1,2) & (2,1) is-

(1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 32

70. 2n A \ B n B \ A and

5n A B n A 3n B ,where P\Q = P QC.

If n A B 10 , then the value of

n A .n B .n A B8

is -

(1) 63 (2) 72 (3) 90 (4) 70

66. E = 8a + 8b – 3.2a+b , a = b =

p

x + y + 2p = 0 P()

(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 1

2(4) 2

67. ?

(1) sin95 > sin63 > sin1

(2) sin95 > sin1 > sin63

(3) sin1 > sin95 > sin63

(4) sin1 > sin63 > sin95

68. |cosx + sinx| + |cosx – sinx| = 2sinx;x [0,2] x -

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

69. A = {1,2,3} A (1,2)(2,1) (1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 32

70. 2n A \ B n B \ A

5n A B n A 3n B ,

P\Q = P QC

n A B 10 n A .n B .n A B

8

(1) 63 (2) 72 (3) 90 (4) 70

27/310000CT100115001



71. If both roots of quadratic equation

23

x sin cos x 08

are positive and

distinct then complete set of values of in[0,2] is-

(1) 5

,12 12

(2) 13 17

,12 12

(3) 7 11

,12 12

(4) 19 23

,12 12

72. If the inequality kx2 – 2x + k > 0 holds good

for atleast one real 'x', then the complete set of

values of 'k' is-

(1) [–1,1] (2) (–,1] (3) (4) [–1,)

73. Let A (4,4), B (8,4), C (4,8). If P,Q,R are

the midpoint of sides AB,BC & CA respectively

& (,) be the co-ordinates of orthocentre of

PQR, then the value of + is-

(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 16

74. The minimum value of the function

10 2 12 11 1

ƒ x x xx (1 sec x)

is -

(1) 4

1

(2)

3 4

1

(3) 4

3 1

(4) 3

71. 23

x sin cos x 08

[0,2]

-

(1) 5

,12 12

(2) 13 17

,12 12

(3) 7 11

,12 12

(4) 19 23

,12 12

72. kx2 – 2x + k > 0, 'x' 'k' (1) [–1,1] (2) (–,1]

(3) (4) [–1,)

73. A (4,4), B (8,4), C (4,8)

AB,BC CA P,Q,R

PQR (,)

+ (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 16

74.

10 2 12 11 1

ƒ x x xx (1 sec x)

(1) 4

1

(2)

3 4

1

(3) 4

3 1

(4) 3

0000CT10011500128/31



75. Sum of the solutions of the equation

[x2] – 2x + 1 = 0 is (where [.] denotes greatestinteger function)

(1) 1

2(2) 2 (3) 3 (4)

3

2

76. ABC has integral side lengths. Internal anglebisector of angle B meets side AC at D. IfAD = 3, DC = 8, then perimeter of ABC is-

(1) 37 (2) 36 (3) 35 (4) 33

77.n 1

n kn 1 k 1

k

2

is equal to-

(1) 2

9(2)

4

9(3)

4

3(4)

2

3

78. If the value of x satisfying the equation

1 2 1 2sin 1 x tan 1x

is a

b(where a & b

are coprime), then the value of a2 + b2 is-

(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 1

79. Domain of the function 1ƒ x 2 sec x is-

(1) , 1 1,

(2) , 1 sec1,

(3) ,sec 2 1,

(4) ,sec2 sec1,

75. [x2] – 2x + 1 = 0

([.] )

(1) 1

2(2) 2 (3) 3 (4)

3

2

76. ABC B AC DAD = 3, DC = 8 ABC -(1) 37 (2) 36 (3) 35 (4) 33

77.n 1

n kn 1 k 1

k

2

-

(1) 2

9(2)

4

9(3)

4

3(4)

2

3

78. 1 2 12

sin 1 x tan 1x

x a

b(a b

) a2 + b2

(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 1

79. 1ƒ x 2 sec x

(1) , 1 1,

(2) , 1 sec1,

(3) ,sec 2 1,

(4) ,sec2 sec1,

29/310000CT100115001



80. Two positive distinct numbers a and b eachdiffer from their reciprocal by 1. The value ofa + b is-

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2

81. A circle with centre 'P' is tangent to negativex & y axis and externally tangent to a circlewith centre (–6,0) and radius 2. What is the sumof all possible radii of the circle with centre P ?

(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 64

82. If for the function 21

ƒ x x bx 104

;

ƒ(12 – x) = ƒ(x) x R, then the value of 'b'is-

(1) –3 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) –6

83. How many times digit 5 appears in writingnatural numbers from 1 to 100

(1) 20 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 19

84. The sum of integral values of a such that theequation ||x – 2| – |3 – x|| = 2 – a has a solution-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

85. The range of the function 21 x

ƒ x1 x

is-

(1) [0,1] (2) 1

0,2

(3) 1

0,2

(4) 3

0,2

80. a b

1 a + b

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2

81. 'P' x- y- (–6, 0) 2 P

(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 64

82. 21

ƒ x x bx 104

ƒ(12 – x) = ƒ(x) x R 'b'

(1) –3 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) –6

83. 1 100

(1) 20 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 19

84. a ||x – 2| – |3 – x|| = 2 – a (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

85. 21 x

ƒ x1 x

(1) [0,1] (2) 1

0,2

(3) 1

0,2

(4) 3

0,2

0000CT10011500130/31



86. What is the coefficient of x100 in

(1 + x + x2 + x3 +.... + x100)3 ?

(1) 100C3

(2) 102C3

(3) 102C2

(4) 105C2

87. If ƒ(x) = x11 + sin3(35x) + 111x, then the value

of

1 1 1 16 8ƒ sin ƒ sin ƒ sin ƒ sin5 5 7 7

is equal to-

(1) ƒ(11) (2)

11

ƒ7

(3)

11

ƒ5

(4) ƒ(0)

88. If the graph of non-constant function issymmetric about the point (3,4), then the value

of 6

r 0

ƒ r ƒ 3

is equal to-

(1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 24 (4) 64

89. A country has ten smart cities. The governmentdecides to connect all these cities by road. Howmany roads the government need to constructso that every city is connected to every othercity ?

(1) 45 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 60

90. The total number of selections of the letters"ned needs nineteen nets" is -

(1) 3024 (2) 3528 (3) 3023 (4) 3529

86. (1 + x + x2 + x3 +.... + x100)3 x100

(1) 100C3

(2) 102C3

(3) 102C2

(4) 105C2

87. ƒ(x) = x11 + sin3(35x) + 111x

1 1 1 16 8ƒ sin ƒ sin ƒ sin ƒ sin5 5 7 7

-

(1) ƒ(11) (2)

11

ƒ7

(3)

11

ƒ5

(4) ƒ(0)

88. (3,4)

6

r 0

ƒ r ƒ 3

(1) 32 (2) 40 (3) 24 (4) 64

89.

(1) 45 (2) 50 (3) 55 (4) 60

90. "ned needs nineteen nets" -

(1) 3024 (2) 3528 (3) 3023 (4) 3529

31/310000CT100115001




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NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSEin the Test Booklet only. 10.On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall