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N T S ESAT – 2019
¥ÀwæPÉ - II / PAPER - II vÀgÀUÀw - 10 / CLASS - 10
ªÁå¸ÀAVPÀ ¥ÀæªÀÈwÛ ¥ÀjÃPÉë / SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
REGISTER NO :
¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ : 120 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ¼ÀÄ EAVèµï/PÀ£ÀßqÀ UÀjµÀ× CAPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ : 100TIME : 120 MINUTES ENGLISH / KANNADA MAX. MARKS : 100
Question Booklet Sl. No.
1. F ¥Àæ±ÉߥÀŹÛPÉAiÀÄÄ 100 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
2. J¯Áè ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼ÀÄ PÀqÁØAiÀÄ. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ MAzÀÄ CAPÀ«zÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà IÄuÁvÀäPÀ CAPÀ EgÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
3. ¥Àæw¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀGvÀÛgÀPÉÌMAzÀÄCAPÀªÀ£ÀÄߤÃqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
4. ¤ªÀÄUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVgÀĪÀ ¥ÀæªÉñÀ ¥ÀvÀæzÀ°è£À ºÀ£ÉÆßAzÀÄ CAQUÀ¼À£ÉÆÃAzÀt¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄߥÀæ±ÉߥÀŹÛPÉAiÀĪÉÄïɸÀàµÀÖªÁV§gɬÄj.
5. ¥ÀjÃPÁëCªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è,
• ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ¼À£ÀÄßeÁUÀgÀÆPÀvɬÄAzÀN¢j.
• N.JªÀiï.Dgï. (OMR) ¥ÀÅlzÀ°è ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±Éß ¸ÀASÉåUÉ ¸ÀjºÉÆAzÀĪÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸À®Ä ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVgÀĪÀ £Á®Ä̪ÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼À¥ÉÊQ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀGvÀÛgÀzÀMAzÀĪÀÈvÀÛªÀ£ÀÄߤð/PÀ¥ÀÅà±Á¬ÄAiÀÄ Á¯ï¥Á¬ÄAmï¥aÉ£ïªÀiÁvÀæG¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¹±ÉÃqïªÀiÁr.MªÉÄäGvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß±ÉÃqïªÀiÁrzÀªÉÄà ɧzÀ Á¬Ä À®ÄCªÀPÁ±À«®èªÀÄvÀÄÛAiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃC£ÀUÀvÀåUÀÄgÀÄvÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄßN.JªÀiï.Dgï.(OMR)GvÀÛgÀ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀĪÉÄïɪÀiÁqÀ¨ÁgÀzÀÄ.
• GzÁºÀgÀuÉ:20£Éà ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ ¸ÀjGvÀÛgÀzÀ DAiÉÄÌ ¸ÀASÉå 3DVzÀÝ°èN.JªÀiï.Dgï.(OMR)¥ÀÅlzÀ°èªÀÈvÀÛ3£ÀÄߤð/PÀ¥ÀÅà ¨Á¯ï ¥Á¬ÄAmï ¥É£ï G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¹ F PɼÀUÉvÉÆÃj¹zÀAvɪÀÈvÀÛªÀ£ÀÄß ÀA¥ÀÇtðªÁV±ÉÃqïªÀiÁqÀ ÉÃPÀÄ.
20) 1 2 4 (EzÀÄ GzÁºÀgÀuÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ)
6. MAzÀÄ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉMAzÀQÌAvÀºÉZÀÄѪÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄßvÀÄA©zÀÝ°èCAvÀºÀGvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄßvÀ¥ÉàAzÀÄ¥ÀjUÀt¹CAPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄߤÃqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
7. N.JªÀiï.Dgï. (OMR) ¥ÀÅlzÀ°è ¤UÀ¢vÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è «zÁåyð ºÁUÀÆ PÉÆoÀr ªÉÄðéZÁgÀPÀgÀÄ vÀ¥ÀàzÉà ¸À» ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
8. ¥ÀjÃPÁë CªÀ¢ü ªÀÄÄVzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ GvÀÛj¹zÀ N.JªÀiï.Dgï. (OMR) ¥À Ålª À£ À Ä ß P ÉÆo Àr ªÉÄð éZÁg ÀP ÀjU É v À¥ À àz Éà M¦à¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
9. ¥ÀjÃPÁë PÉÆoÀrAiÉƼÀUÉ PÁå®Ä̯ÉÃlgï, ªÉƨÉʯï zÀÆgÀªÁtªÀÄvÀÄÛEvÀgÉAiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃJ¯ÉPÁÖç¤PïG¥ÀPÀgÀtUÀ¼À£ÀÄßvÀgÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄߤµÉâü¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
10. C£ÀĪÁ¢vÀ¥Àæ±ÉߥÀwæPÉUÀ¼À°èAiÀiÁªÀÅzÉøÀªÀĸÉåUÀ¼ÀÄGzÀ㫹zÀÝ°è¥À æ± É ß ¥Àw æP ÉAi ÀÄ EAVèµï DªÀÈw ÛAi ÀÄ£ É ßà CAwªÀĪÉAzÀÄ¥ÀjUÀt¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
11. PÀZÁÑ PÁAiÀÄðªÀ£ÀÄß ¥Àæ±ÉߥÀŹÛPÉAiÀÄ°è ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ PÀZÁÑ PÁAiÀÄðzÀ
ºÁ¼ÉAiÀÄ°èAiÉÄêÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
Instructions to Students «zÁåyðUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
NTSE-SAT (K-10)
1. ThisQuestionBookletcontains100questions.
2. Allquestionsarecompulsory.Eachquestioncarriesonemarkandthere will be no negative marking.
3. Eachcorrectanswerwillbeawardedonemark.
4. WriteyourElevendigitrollnumberasallottedtoyouintheadmissionticketclearlyonthetestbooklet.
5. Duringtheexamination,
• Readthequestionscarefully.
• Completely darken/shade the relevant ovalagainstQuestionNo.intheOMRanswersheetusingblue/blackball pointpen.Donot try toalter theentryandnot todoanystraymarksonOMRSheet.
• Example:InaquestionbookletifNo.3isthecorrectanswerforQuestionNo.20,thenintheOMRanswersheet,shadecircle3usingblue/blackballpointpenasfollows.
20) 1 2 4 (Thisisanexampleonly)
6. If more than one oval is darkened for a givenquestion,suchansweristreatedaswrongandnomarkswillbegiven.
7. The Student and Room Supervisor should sign in the OMR sheet in the space provided.
8. CandidateshouldreturntheansweredOMRsheetonly to theRoomSupervisor before leaving theexaminationhall.
9. The calculator,mobiles and any other electronicequipmentsarenotallowedinsidetheexaminationhall.
10. English version of the question paper will beconsideredasfinal,incaseofanydisputearisingoutofvariationintranslationversion.
11. RoughworkcanbedoneintheplaceprovidedintheQuestionBooklet.
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)ªÁå¸ÀAVPÀ ¥ÀæªÀÈwÛ ¥ÀjÃPÉë
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
«µÀAiÀĸÀÆa / CONTENTS
SL. No. / PÀæ.¸ÀA
Subject / «µÀAiÀÄ
Question No / ¥Àæ±Éß ¸ÀASÉå Page No /
¥ÀÅl ¸ÀASÉåFrom / EAzÀÄ
To / UÉ
1 PHYSICS¨sËvÀ±Á¸ÀÛç
1 13 3-7
2 CHEMISTRYgÀ¸ÁAiÀÄ£À±Á¸ÀÛç
14 26 8-11
3 BIOLOGYfêÀ±Á¸ÀÛç
27 40 12-17
4 HISTORYEwºÁ¸À
41 50 18-23
5 GEOGRAPHY¨sÀÆUÉÆüÀ
51 60 24-28
6
POLITICAL SCIENCE, SOCIOLOGY, ECONOMICS AND BUSINESS STUDIESgÁdå±Á¸ÀÛç, ¸ÀªÀiÁd±Á¸ÀÛç, CxÀð±Á¸ÀÛç ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ CzsÀåAiÀÄ£À
61 80 29-38
7 MATHEMATICSUÀtÂvÀ
81 100 39-47
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
3
PHYSICS
1. A house hold consumes 1 kwh of energy per day. This energy in joules is:
1) 3.6 × 105 J
2) 6.3 × 105 J
3) 6.3 × 106 J
4) 3.6 × 106 J
2. Resistors are connected as shown in the circuit diagram.
The effective resistance between A and B is:
3Ω
3Ω
3Ω
4Ω
4Ω
A B
1) 3Ω
2) 3.5Ω
3) 11Ω
4) 5.5Ω
¨sËvÀ±Á¸ÀÛç
1. UÀȺÀ §¼ÀPÉUÁV MAzÀÄ ¢£ÀPÉÌ 1 kwh £ÀµÀÄÖ
±ÀQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸À¯ÁVzÉ. G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¹zÀ
±ÀQÛ e˯ïUÀ¼À°è:
1) 3.6 × 105 J
2) 6.3 × 105 J
3) 6.3 × 106 J
4) 3.6 × 106 J
2. PÉÆnÖg ÀĪÀ avÀ æz ÀAvÉ MAzÀÄ ªÀÄAqÀ®zÀ°è
gÉÆÃzsÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß eÉÆÃr¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
A ªÀÄv ÀÄ Û B UÀ¼ À £ Àq ÀÄ«£À ¥ ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj
gÉÆÃzsÀªÀÅ:
3Ω
3Ω
3Ω
4Ω
4Ω
A B
1) 3Ω
2) 3.5Ω
3) 11Ω
4) 5.5Ω
4
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)3. Two steel balls of mass 1 kg and 2 kgs
and a lead ball of 10kgs are released together from the top of tower 30m high. Assuming the path to be in vacuum:
1) The lead ball reaches the ground earlier. 2) The 1 kg iron ball reaches the ground
earlier. 3) All the balls reach the ground
simultaneously. 4) The 2 kgs steel ball reaches the
ground earlier.
4. The maximum number of 60w bulbs that can be run from the main supply of 220v if you do not want to overload a 5A fuse:
1) 18 2) 11 3) 20
4) 10
5. The diagram shows a current carrying wire passing through the centre of a square card board. The magnetic field at points A, B and C is:
AB
C
1) Equal at A, B and C 2) Stronger at B than A, equal at B and C 3) Stronger at B than C, weaker at B
than A 4) Stronger at B than A, weaker at C
than A
3. 30«Äà JvÀÛgÀ«gÀĪÀ UÉÆÃ¥ÀÅgÀzÀ vÀÄ¢¬ÄAzÀ 1 PÉ.f ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 2 PÉ.f vÀÆPÀ«gÀĪÀ JgÀqÀÄ PÀ©âtzÀ ZÉAqÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÁUÀÆ 10 PÉ.f vÀÆPÀzÀ ¹Ã¸ÀzÀ ZÉAqÀ£ÀÄß MmÁÖV PɼÀUÉ ºÁQzÉ. ZÉAqÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ZÀ° ÀĪÀ ºÁ¢ ¤ªÁðvÀªÁVzÉ JAzÀÄ ¨sÁ«¹zÀgÉ:
1) ¹Ã ÀzÀZÉAqÀĪÉÆzÀ°UɣɮªÀ£ÀÄßvÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛzÉ.
2) 1 PÉ.f. vÀÆPÀ«gÀĪÀ PÀ©âtzÀ ZÉAqÀĪÉÆzÀ®Ä £É®ªÀ£ÀÄß vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛzÉ.
3) J¯ÁèZÉAqÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄMAzÉèÁjUɣɮªÀ£ÀÄßvÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛªÉ.
4) 2 PÉ.f. vÀÆPÀ«gÀĪÀ PÀ©âtzÀ ZÉAqÀĪÉÆzÀ®Ä £É®ªÀ£ÀÄß vÀ®Ä¥ÀÅvÀÛzÉ.
4. 220v «zÀÄåvï ¥ÀÇgÉ ÊP É ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ªÀÄÄRå «zÀÄåvï ªÀÄAqÀ®zÀ°è 5A ¥sÀÇå À£ÀÄß NªÀgï ÉÆÃqï ªÀiÁqÀzÀAvÉ §¼À¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ 60w ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåðzÀ §®ÄâUÀ¼À UÀjµÀ× ¸ÀASÉå:
1) 18 2) 11 3) 20 4) 10
5. PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ avÀæªÀÅ MAzÀÄ ZËPÁPÁgÀzÀ gÀnÖ£À PÉÃAzÀæzÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ºÁzÀÄ ºÉÆÃUÀÄwÛgÀĪÀ «zÀÄåvï ºÀjAiÀÄÄwÛgÀĪÀ ªÁºÀPÀ vÀAwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥Àæw¤¢ü¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ©AzÀÄUÀ¼À°è£À PÁAvÀPÉëÃvÀæªÀÅ:
A
B
C
1) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ©AzÀÄUÀ¼À°è¸ÀªÀÄ£ÁVzÉ. 2) A VAvÀB AiÀÄ°è¥À槮ªÁVzÉ, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
UÀ¼À°è¸ÀªÀĪÁVzÉ.
3) C VAvÀB AiÀÄ°è¥À槮ªÁVzÉ.A VAvÀB AiÀÄ°èzÀħð®ªÁVzÉ.
4) A VAvÀB AiÀÄ°è¥À槮ªÁVzÉ.A VAvÀC AiÀÄ°èzÀħð®ªÁVzÉ.
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
5
6. The solar constant at a place is 1.4 kw/m2. The solar energy received by an area of 4m2 per second at this place is:
1) 6.5 KJ
2) 6.5 J
3) 5.6 J
4) 5.6 KJ
7. While performing an experiment of dispersion of white light through a prism, four students represented the dispersion pattern as shown below.
Identify the correct representation:
White Light
VR
White Light
VR
1) 2)
White Light
VR White
LightVR
3) 4) 8. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical
lens each of focal length -10cm are given. The mirror and lens are likely to be:
1) The mirror is concave mirror and the lens is concave lens.
2) The mirror is convex mirror and the lens is convex lens.
3) The mirror is convex mirror and the lens is concave lens.
4) The mirror is concave mirror and the lens is convex lens.
6. MAzÀÄ ¥ÀæzÉñÀzÀ ËgÀ ¹ÜgÁAPÀ 1.4 kw/m2 DVzÉ. F ¥ÀæzÉñÀzÀ°è 4m2 «¹ÛÃtðzÀ PÉëÃvÀæªÀÅ ¥Àæw ¸ÉPÉAqïUÉ ¥ÀqÉzÀ ¸ËgÀ±ÀQÛAiÀÄÄ:
1) 6.5 KJ
2) 6.5 J
3) 5.6 J
4) 5.6 KJ
7. UÁf£À ¥ÀlÖPÀzÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ©½AiÀÄ §tÚzÀ « sÀd£ÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀæAiÉÆÃUÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁqÀĪÁUÀ, £Á®ÄÌ «zÁåyðUÀ¼ÀÄ F PɼÀV£ÀAvÉ ¨É¼ÀQ£À «¨sÀd£ÉAiÀÄ £ÀªÀÄÆ£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥Àæw¤¢ü¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ¥Àæw¤¢ü¸ÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr:
©½AiÀÄ ¨É¼ÀPÀÄ
VR
©½AiÀÄ ¨É¼ÀPÀÄ
VR
1) 2)
©½AiÀÄ ¨É¼ÀPÀÄ
VR ©½AiÀÄ
¨É¼ÀPÀÄVR
3) 4)
8. ¸ÀAUÀªÀÄ zÀÆgÀ -10cm EgÀĪÀ MAzÀÄ UÉÆðAiÀÄ zÀ¥Àðt ºÁUÀÆ MAzÀÄ vɼÀĪÁzÀ UÉÆðAiÀÄ ªÀĸÀÆgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. zÀ¥Àðt ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀĸÀÆgÀUÀ¼À «zsÀ:
1) zÀ¥ÀðtªÀŤªÀÄßzÀ¥ÀðtªÀÄvÀÄÛªÀÄ ÀÆgÀªÀŤªÀÄߪÀĸÀÆgÀªÁVzÉ.
2) zÀ¥ÀðtªÀÅ ¦Ã£ÀzÀ¥ÀðtªÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛªÀĸÀÆgÀªÀŦãÀªÀĸÀÆgÀªÁVzÉ.
3) zÀ¥ÀðtªÀÅ ¦Ã£À zÀ¥ÀðtªÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛªÀĸÀÆgÀªÀŤªÀÄߪÀĸÀÆgÀªÁVzÉ.
4) zÀ¥ÀðtªÀÅ ¤ªÀÄß zÀ¥ÀðtªÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛªÀĸÀÆgÀªÀÅ ¦Ã£ÀªÀĸÀÆgÀªÁVzÉ.
6
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)9. In the following diagram ‘M’ is a
mirror and ‘P’ is an object and ‘Q’ is its magnified image of ‘P’ formed by the mirror. The mirror ‘M’ is a:
C F
P
M Q
O
1) Concave mirror 2) Convex mirror 3) Planor mirror 4) Plano convex mirror
10. A person takes hot coffee by pouring it into the saucer when he is in hurry because he knows that:
1) The latent heat of steam is high and the coffee will become cold quickly.
2) The evaporation increases with the increase in surface area and the cooling of coffee is faster.
3) Part of heat will be absorbed by saucer and coffee become cold quickly.
4) The high specific heat of water makes the coffee cold quickly.
11. The energy released when 3g of a material is completely converted into energy during a nuclear reaction is
(given, speed of light = 3 × 108 m/sec): 1) 27 × 1016 J 2) 27 × 1014 J 3) 27 × 1019 J 4) 27 × 1013 J
9. PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ avÀæzÀ°è ‘M’ zÀ¥ÀðtªÁVzÉ. ‘P’ ªÀ ÀÄÛªÁVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘Q’ ªÀÅ zÀ¥Àðt¢AzÀ GAmÁzÀ ‘P’ AiÀÄ zÉÆqÀØzÁzÀ ¥Àæw©A§ªÁVzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ ‘M’ zÀ¥ÀðtªÀÅ MAzÀÄ:
C F
P
M Q
O
1) ¤ªÀÄßzÀ¥Àðt
2) ¦Ã£ÀzÀ¥Àðt
3) ¸ÀªÀÄvÀ®zÀ¥Àðt
4) ¸ÀªÀÄvÀ®¦Ã£ÀzÀ¥Àðt
10. M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ ©¹AiÀiÁzÀ PÁ¦üAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ÉÃUÀ Éë ÀĪÀ ¸À®ÄªÁV PÁ¦üAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Á¸ÀgïUÉ ¸ÀÄjAiÀÄÄvÁÛ£É. PÁgÀt:
1) ¤ÃgÁ«AiÀÄ UÀÄ¥ÉÆÛõÀÚ ºÉZÁÑVzÀÄÝ, PÁ¦ü¨ÉÃUÀvÀtÚUÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
2) ªÉÄà ÉäöÊ«¹ÛÃtðºÉZÁÑzÀAvÉD«AiÀiÁUÀÄ«PɺÉZÀÄÑvÀÛzɺÁUÀÆPÁ¦ü ÉÃUÀvÀuÁÚUÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
3) Àé®àGµÀÚªÀ£ÀÄß Á Àgï»ÃjPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀjAzÀPÁ¦ü¨ÉÃUÀvÀtÚUÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
4) ¤ÃgÁ«AiÀÄC¢üPÀ«²µÉÆÖõÀÚªÀÅPÁ¦ü ÉÃUÀvÀtÚUÁUÀĪÀAvɪÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
11. MAzÀÄ £ÀÆåQèAiÀÄgï QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ°è 3g £À MAzÀÄ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛªÀÅ ¸ÀA¥ÀÇtðªÁV ±ÀQÛAiÀiÁV ªÀiÁ¥ÀðqÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ ©qÀÄUÀqÉAiÀiÁzÀ ±ÀQÛAiÀÄÄ
(¨É¼ÀQ£À ªÉÃUÀ = 3 × 108 m/sec):
1) 27 × 1016 J 2) 27 × 1014 J 3) 27 × 1019 J 4) 27 × 1013 J
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
7
12. Consider the following Assertion and the Reason and select the correct alternative:
Assertion (A): Alloys are used in electric heating devices.
Reason (R): Alloys do not oxidise readily at high temperature.
1) A is true and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are false.
3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
4) A is false R is true.
13. Consider the following statements and select the correct alternative:
Statement (A): The frequency of the sound wave whose wave length is 1.5cm with speed 339 m/s is 22600Hz.
Statement (B): The given sound is audible to human beings.
1) Statement A is true, Statement B is false
2) Both Statements A and B are true
3) Statement A is false, Statement B is true
4) Both Statements A and B are false
12. PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ¥À æw¥ÁzÀ£É ºÁUÀÆ CzÀgÀ ÀªÀÄxÀð£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀt¹, ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
Dj¹:
¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A): «zÀÄåvï GµÀÚ G¥ÀPÀgÀtUÀ¼À°è «Ä±Àæ¯ÉÆúÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R): Cw ºÉZÀÄÑ vÁ¥ÀªÀiÁ£ÀzÀ°èAiÀÄÆ
«Ä±Àæ¯ÉÆúÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¨ÉÃUÀ GvÀ̵ÀðUÉƼÀÄîªÀÅ¢®è.
1) A ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ R ¸ÀjDzÀgÉR JA§ÄzÀÄA UÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ®è.
2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆvÀ¥ÀàÅ.
3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ Àj ºÁUÀÆ R JA§ÄzÀÄ A UɸÀjAiÀiÁzÀ«ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
4) A vÀ¥ÀàÅ R ¸Àj.
13. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀt¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹j:
ºÉýPÉ (A): vÀgÀAUÀ zÀÆgÀ 1.5cm, ªÉÃUÀ 339 m/s EgÀĪÀ ±À§ÝvÀgÀAUÀzÀ DªÀÈwÛ 22600 Hz DVzÉ.
ºÉýPÉ (B): PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ±À§ÝªÀÅ ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ¤UÉ ±ÀæªÀå
±À§ÝªÁVzÉ.
1) ºÉýPÉA ¸Àj, ºÉýPÉB vÀ¥ÀàÅ
2) ºÉýPÉA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj
3) ºÉýPÉA vÀ¥ÀàÅ, ºÉýPÉB ¸Àj
4) ºÉýPÉA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÀÆvÀ¥ÀàÅ
8
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
CHEMISTRY
14. A reaction is described below. 2Na + X Sodium ethoxide + Hydrogen
X Hot Concentrated H2SO4
CH2=CH2+H2O
Identify ‘X’:
1) CH3 - COOH
2) CH3 - CHO
3) CH3 - CH2-OH
4) CH3 - CH3
15. Match the salts with their common name:
Hydrated Salt Common Name
A. MgSO4. 7H2O i Gypsum
B. CuSO4. 5H2O ii Green vitriol
C. FeSO4. 7H2O iii Blue vitriol
D. CaSO4. 2H2O iv Epsum
1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
16. The volume occupied by half a mole of a gas at standard temperature and pressure is:
1) 5.6 L.
2) 11.2 L.
3) 22.4 L.
4) 2.8 L.
gÀ¸ÁAiÀÄ£À ±Á¸ÀÛç
14. PɼÀUÉ MAzÀÄ ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀtªÀ£ÀÄß «ªÀj¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
2Na + X ÉÆÃrAiÀÄA FxÁPÉìöÊqï + ºÉÊqÉÆæÃd£ï
X ©¹AiÀiÁzÀ ¸ÁjPÀÈvÀ H2SO4
CH2=CH2+H2O
‘X’ C£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) CH3 - COOH
2) CH3 - CHO
3) CH3 - CH2-OH
4) CH3 - CH3
15. ®ªÀtUÀ¼À£ÀÄß CªÀÅUÀ¼À ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ºÉ¸Àj£ÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÆA¢¹j :
d°ÃAiÀÄ ®ªÀt ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄ
A. MgSO4. 7H2O i f¥ÀìA
B. CuSO4. 5H2O ii ºÀ¹gÀÄ«næAiÀiÁ¯ï
C. FeSO4. 7H2O iii ¤Ã°«næAiÀiÁ¯ï
D. CaSO4. 2H2O iv J¥ÀìA
1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
16. CzsÀð ªÉÆïï C¤®ªÀÅ ²µÀÖ GµÀÚvÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ MvÀÛqÀzÀ°è ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀ UÁvÀæ:
1) 5.6 L.
2) 11.2 L.
3) 22.4 L.
4) 2.8 L.
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
9
17. Choose the correct statements about the given chemical reaction:
3MnO2(S) + 4Al(S) →3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3 + Heat.
a) Reaction is exothermic.
b) Al is acting as oxidizing agent.
c) MnO2 is getting reduced.
d) Al is more reactive than Mn.
1) a, c and d
2) a, b and c
3) a, b and d
4) a, b, c and d
18. NH3 gas can be dried by passing it over:
1) Concentrated H2SO4
2) P2O5
3) Anhydrous CaCl2
4) CaO
19. X + Y → Z + SO2 X+Z → Cu + SO2 Identify X, Y and Z:
1) X-Cu2O, Y-H2SO4 and Z-Cu2S
2) X-Cu2S, Y-H2S and Z-Cu2O
3) X-Cu2S, Y-O2 and Z-Cu2O
4) X-Cu2S, Y-H2SO4 and Z-Cu2O
17. F PɼÀU É P ÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ gÁ¸ÁAi ÀĤPÀ Q æAi ÉÄU É ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr:
3MnO2(S) + 4Al(S) →3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3 + ±ÁR.
a) gÁ¸ÁAiÀĤPÀ QæAiÉÄ §»gÀĵÀÚPÀ. b) Al GvÀ̵ÀðtPÁjAiÀiÁV ªÀwð¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
c) MnO2 C¥ÀPÀµÀðtUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ. d) Al EzÀÄ Mn VAvÀ ºÉZÀÄÑ QæAiÀiÁ¥ÀlÄvÀé
ºÉÆA¢zÉ.
1) a, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d
2) a, b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c
3) a, b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d
4) a, b, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d
18. NH3 C¤®ªÀ£ÀÄß F C¤®zÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ºÁ¬Ä¹zÁUÀ MtV¸À§ºÀÄzÁVzÉ:
1) ¸ÁjPÀÈvÀ H2SO4
2) P2O5
3) ¤dð®CaCl2
4) CaO
19. X + Y → Z + SO2 X+Z → Cu + SO2 X, Y ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Z C£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) X-Cu2O, Y-H2SO4 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Z-Cu2S
2) X-Cu2S, Y-H2S ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Z-Cu2O
3) X-Cu2S, Y-O2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Z-Cu2O
4) X-Cu2S, Y-H2SO4 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Z-Cu2O
10
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)20. Identify the correct order of elements
according to their metallic character: 1) K > Na > Li > Mg 2) K > Na > Mg > Li 3) K > Mg > Na > Li 4) K > Li > Na > Mg
21. Consider the elements of group-14. Choose the correct alternative:
a) Si and Ge are semi conductors b) Carbon and silicon are non metals c) Sn and Pb are metals d) Si and Ge are metalloids
1) a, b, c and d. 2) a, b and d. 3) a, c and d. 4) a, b and c.
22. The following statements applies to SO2 but NOT to H2S:
1) The gas is soluble in water. 2) It is an oxidising as well as a
reducing agent. 3) It is a dibasic acid. 4) Itiseasilyliquifiable.
23. Statement (A) : Iron does not burn on heating.
Statement (B) : Iron filings burn vigorously, when sprinkled in the flame of the burner.
1) Both the statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are true.
2) Both the statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are false.
3) Statement ‘A’ is true, but Statement ‘B’ is false.
4) Statement ‘A’ is false, but Statement ‘B’ is true.
20. zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À ¯ÉÆûÃAiÀÄ UÀÄtUÀ¼À DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ PÀæªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) K > Na > Li > Mg 2) K > Na > Mg > Li 3) K > Mg > Na > Li 4) K > Li > Na > Mg
21. 14£Éà UÀÄA¦£À zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀt¹. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
a) Si ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Ge CgɪÁºÀPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ b) PÁ§ð£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¹°PÁ£ï C¯ÉÆúÀUÀ¼ÀÄ c) Sn ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Pb ¯ÉÆúÀUÀ¼ÀÄ d) Si ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Ge ¯ÉÆúÁ¨sÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
1) a, b, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d. 2) a, b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d. 3) a, c ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d. 4) a, b ªÀÄvÀÄÛ c.22. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ SO2 UÉ C£Àé¬Ä¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
DzÀgÉ H2S UÉ C£Àé¬Ä¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è:
1) C¤®ªÀŤÃj£À°è«°Ã£ÀUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
2) EzÀÄGvÀ̵ÀðPÀºÁUÀÆC¥ÀPÀµÀðPÀªÁVzÉ.
3) EzÀÄ¢é¥ÀævÁå«ÄèÃAiÀĪÁVzÉ.
4) EzÀ£ÀÄ߸ÀÄ®¨sÀªÁVzÀæ«ÃPÀj¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
23. ºÉýPÉ (A) : PÀ©âtªÀ£ÀÄß PÁ¬Ä¹zÀgÀÆ, CzÀÄ zÀºÀ£ÀUÉƼÀÄîªÀÅ¢®è.
ºÉýPÉ (B) : PÀ©âtzÀ ZÀÆgÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¨ÉAQAiÀÄ°è ZÀĪÀÄÄQ¹zÁUÀ, CªÀÅ wêÀæªÁV zÀºÀ£ÀUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛªÉ.
1) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘B’JgÀqÀƺÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀĸÀj.
2) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘B’JgÀqÀƺÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄvÀ¥ÀÄà.
3) ºÉýPÉ‘A’ ¸Àj,DzÀgɺÉýPÉ‘B’ vÀ¥ÀÄà.
4) ºÉýPÉ‘A’ vÀ¥ÀÄà,DzÀgɺÉýPÉ‘B’ ¸Àj.
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
11
24. ºÉýPÉ (A) : ¨É½î ªÀ¸ÀÄÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÁ½UÉ vÉgÉ¢mÁÖUÀ, ¸Àé®à ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ PÀ¥ÀÄà §tÚPÉÌ wgÀÄUÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R) : CzÀÄ UÁ½AiÀÄ°è£À DªÀÄèd£ÀPÀzÉÆA¢UÉ ªÀw𹠨ɽîAiÀÄ DPÉìöÊqï ¯ÉÃ¥À£À gÀÆ¥ÀÄUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
1) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ UÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉ.
2) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’JgÀqÀƸÀjDzÀgÉ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ UÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ®è.
3) ‘A’ ¸Àj,DzÀgÉ‘R’ vÀ¥ÀÄà.
4) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆvÀ¥ÀÄà.
25. ºÉýPÉ (A) : PÁå°ìAiÀÄA (Z=20) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DUÁð£ï (Z=18) L¸ÉÆèÁgïUÀ½UÉ GzÁºÀgÀuÉUÀ¼ÁVªÉ.
¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R) : F JgÀqÀÆ zsÁvÀÄUÀ¼À°è MlÄÖ £ÀÆåQèAiÀiÁ£ïUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉå ¸ÀªÀĪÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
F PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr:
1) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ UÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉ.
2) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’JgÀqÀƸÀjDzÀgÉ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ UÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ®è.
3) ‘A’ ¸Àj,DzÀgÉ‘R’ vÀ¥ÀÄà.
4) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆvÀ¥ÀÄà.
26. ºÉÊqÉÆæÃd¤PÀgÀt QæAiÉÄUÉ M¼ÀUÁUÀzÀ ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛUÀ¼ÀÄ:
1) C6H12 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C4H10
2) C8H10 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C5H12
3) C13H24 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C14H28
4) C14H30 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C5H12
24. Assertion (A) : Silver articles becomes black after some time when exposed to air.
Reason (R) : It reacts with oxygen in the air to form a coating of silver oxide.
1) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
2) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct, but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’.
3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false.
25. Assertion (A) : Calcium (Z=20) and Argon (Z=18) are examples for isobars.
Reason (R) : The total number of nucleons is same in the atoms of this pair of elements.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives:
1) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
2) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct, but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’.
3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false.
26. The compounds which do not undergo hydrogenation:
1) C6H12 and C4H10
2) C8H10 and C5H12
3) C13H24 and C14H28
4) C14H30 and C5H12
12
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
BIOLOGY
27. Assertion (A): During the day plants do not release CO2
Reason (R): CO2 generated during respiration is used for photosynthesis:
1) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false
2) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
3) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ explains ‘A’
4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ doesn’t explain ‘A’
28. The following statements about blood vessels is / are correct:
(A) Arteries have thin and less muscular walls.
(B) Walls of veins are non-elastic. (C) Arteries have no valves in their
inner lining. (D) Veins do not collapse when empty.
1) A and D 2) Only D 3) B and C 4) A and C
29. Remarkable reduction in blood pressure affects normal functioning of the kidney as follows:
1) Reduces secretion of nitrogenous wastes.
2) Reducesrenalfiltration. 3) Reduce reabsorbtion of useful
materials. 4) Reduces tubular secretion.
fêÀ±Á¸ÀÛç
27. ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A): ºÀUÀ°£À°è ¸À¸ÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ CO2 £ÀÄß ©qÀÄUÀqÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
¸Àª ÀÄx Àð£ É (R): G¹gÁlzÀ ¸ Àª ÀÄAi À Äz À° è GvÀ àw ÛAi ÀiÁzÀ CO2 £ÀÄß zÀÄ åw¸ÀA±É èõÀuÉU É G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ:
1) ‘A’ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ vÀ¥ÀàÅ
2) ‘A’ vÀ¥ÀàŪÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ ¸Àj
3) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ºÁUÀÆ ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ AiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
4) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÄ Àj CzÀgÉ ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ AiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ªÀj¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
28. gÀPÀ Û£Á¼ÀUÀ¼À PÀÄjvÀ F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ:
(A) C¥ÀzsÀªÀĤUÀ¼ÀÄ vɼÀĪÁzÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀrªÉÄ ¸ÁßAiÀÄÄ«£À ©wÛ UÉÆÃqÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢ªÉ.
(B) C©üzsÀªÀĤUÀ¼À ©wÛUÀ¼ÀÄ ¹Üw ¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀªÁV®è. (C) C¥Àzs ÀªÀĤUÀ¼ÀÄ vÀªÀÄä M¼À¥ÀzÀgÀUÀ¼À°è
ªÁ¯ïéUÀ¼À£ÀÄß (valves) ºÉÆA¢®è. (D) C©üzsÀªÀĤUÀ¼ÀÄ SÁ° EgÀĪÁUÀ ªÀÄÄaÑ
PÉƼÀÄîªÀÅ¢®è.
1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D 2) D ªÀiÁvÀæ 3) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C 4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
29. gÀPÀÛzÉÆvÀÛqÀzÀ°è UÀªÀÄ£ÁºÀð E½PÉ ªÀÄÆvÀæ ¦AqÀUÀ¼À ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼À ªÉÄÃ¯É F jÃw ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ ©ÃgÀÄvÀÛzÉ:
1) ¸ÁgÀd£ÀPÀ vÁådåzÀ ¸À 櫸ÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄßPÀÄApvÀUÉƽ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
2) ª À ÄÆv À æ ¦Aq À ¸ ÉÆø À Ä«P ÉAi À Ä£ À Ä ßPÀÄApvÀUÉƽ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
3) G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛªÀ ÀÄÛUÀ¼À¥ÀÅ£Àgï»ÃgÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄßPÀÄApvÀUÉƽ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
4) £Á¼ÀUÀ¼À Àæ« ÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄßPÀÄApvÀUÉƽ ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
13
30. The changes that are likely to happen in the plant in the following picture:
(A) A hormone abscisic acid is synthesized at the shoot tip.
(B) When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the plant.
(C) Abscisic acid helps the cells to grow longer.
(D) Cells grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light.
Select the correct option.
1) A and B
2) B and C
3) C and D
4) B and D
30. PɼÀV£À avÀæzÀ°ègÀĪÀ ¸À¸ÀåzÀ°è GAmÁUÀ§ºÀÄzÁzÀ §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉUÀ¼ÀÄ »ÃVgÀÄvÀÛªÉ:
(A) PÁAqÀzÀ vÀÄ¢AiÀÄ°è D©ì¹Pï DªÀÄè JAzÀÄ
PÀgÉAiÀÄĪÀ ºÁªÉÆÃð£ÀÄ GvÀàwÛAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(B) AiÀiÁªÁUÀ ¨É¼ÀPÀÄ ¸À¸ÀåzÀ MAzÀÄ PÀqɬÄAzÀ
¥À¸Àj¸À®Ä ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉÆÃ, DQì£ï
À ÀåzÀ £ÉgÀ½£À sÁUÀzÀ PÀqÉUÉ « ÀÛgÀuÉUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
(C) D©ì¹Pï DªÀÄè fêÀPÉÆñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ GzÀݪÁV
¨É¼ÉAiÀÄ®Ä ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(D) ɼÀQ¤AzÀ zÀÆgÀ«gÀĪÀ PÁAqÀzÀ sÁUÀzÀ°ègÀĪÀ
fêÀPÉÆñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ GzÀݪÁV ¨É¼ÉAiÀÄÄvÀÛªÉ.
¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹.
1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
2) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
3) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
4) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
14
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)31. Choose the most appropriate statement
from the options listed below that explains the factors which affects transpiration:(A) If the wind blows faster, the
water vapour released during transpiration is faster.
(B) Increase in atmospheric pressure increases the rate of transpiration.
(C) Decrease in temperature allows more water to evaporate.
(D) High humidity in the air increases the rate of transpiration.
1) A only
2) B and C only
3) D only
4) A and D only
32. Match column-I with column-II and identify the correct answer:
Column-I Column-IIA Insulin i Promotes tissue
metabolismB Thyroxine ii Stimulates milk
secretionC Antidiuretic
Hormone (ADH)
iii Testosterone secretion
D Oxytocin iv Promotes g lucose utilization by the body cells
v Increase reabsorption of water from kidney
1) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - ii2) A - ii, B - iii C - iv, D - i3) A - iii, B - v, C - i, D - ii4) A - v, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
31. ¨ÁµÀà « Àdð£ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ É ¥Àæ sÁªÀ ©ÃgÀĪÀ CA±ÀUÀ¼À PÀÄjvÀ CvÀåAvÀ ÀÆPÀÛ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß/UÀ¼À£ÀÄß F PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ½AzÀ Dj¹:
(A) UÁ½AiÀÄÄ ªÉÃUÀªÁV ©Ã¹zÀgÉ, ÁµÀà « Àdð£É ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è ©qÀÄUÀqÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ ¤ÃgÁ«AiÀÄÄ ªÉÃUÀªÁV ©qÀÄUÀqÉAiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(B) ªÁvÁªÀgÀtzÀ MvÀÛqÀ ºÉZÁÑzÀAvÉ ¨ÁµÀà «¸Àdð£ÉAiÀÄ zÀgÀ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(C) vÁ¥ÀªÀiÁ£À PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁzÀ°è ºÉaÑ£À ¤ÃgÀÄ D«AiÀiÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(D) UÁ½AiÀÄ°è ±ÀĵÀÌvÉ ºÉZÁÑzÀ°è ¨ÁµÀà «¸Àdð£É zÀgÀ ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
1) A ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) D ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ
32. ¥ÀnÖ-I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀnÖ-II £ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ ºÁUÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
¥ÀnÖ-I ¥ÀnÖ-IIA E£ÀÄì°£ï i CAUÁA±ÀUÀ¼ÀZÀAiÀiÁ¥À
ZÀAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄßGvÉÛÃf¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
B xÉågÁQì£ï ii ºÁ°£À¸Àæ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄßGvÉÛÃf¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
C DåAnqÉÊAiÀÄÄgÉnPïºÁªÉÆÃð£ÀÄ(ADH)
iii mɸÉÆÖùÖÃgÁ£ï ¸À櫸ÀÄ«PÉ
D DQìmÉÆù£ï iv zÉúÀzÀfêÀPÉÆñÀUÀ¼À°èUÀÄèPÉÆøï£À§¼ÀPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄßGvÉÛÃf¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ
v ªÀÄÆvÀæ¦AqÀ¢AzÀ¤Ãj£À¥ÀÅ£Àgï »ÃgÀÄ«PÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄߺÉaѸÀÄvÀÛzÉ
1) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - ii2) A - ii, B - iii C - iv, D - i3) A - iii, B - v, C - i, D - ii4) A - v, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
15
33. The correct route that sperm follows when it releases from the testis of a mammal:
1) Vasdeferens→Epididymis →Urethra
2) Urethra→Epididymis →Vasdeferens
3) Epididymis→Urethra →Vasdeferens
4) Epididymis→Vasdeferens →Urethra
34. Pattern baldness is more common in males than in females due to:
1) dominant genes of such traits are found in the ‘X’ chromosome.
2) dominant genes of such traits are found in the ‘Y’ chromosome.
3) recessive genes of such traits are found in the ‘X’ chromosome.
4) recessive genes of such traits are found in the ‘Y’ chromosome.
35. An useful biological indicator of SO2
pollution:
1) Bryophytes
2) Algal bloom
3) Lichens
4) Pseudomonas
33. À ÀÛ¤AiÀÄ ªÀȵÀt¢AzÀ ©qÀÄUÀqÉAiÀiÁzÀ «ÃAiÀiÁðtÄ
C£ÀĸÀj¸ÀĪÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ªÀiÁUÀðªÉAzÀgÉ:
1) «ÃAiÀÄð£Á¼À → ªÀȵÀ£Á¼À ÀÄgÀ½ →ªÀÄÆvÀæ «¸Àdð£Á£Á¼À
2) ªÀÄÆvÀæ« Àdð£Á£Á¼À →ªÀȵÀ£Á¼À ÀÄgÀ½
→«ÃAiÀÄð£Á¼À
3) ªÀȵÀ£Á¼À ÀÄgÀ½ →ªÀÄÆvÀæ« Àdð£Á£Á¼À →«ÃAiÀÄð£Á¼À
4) ªÀȵÀ£Á¼À ÀÄgÀ½ →«ÃAiÀÄð£Á¼À →ªÀÄÆvÀæ «¸Àdð£Á£Á¼À
34. vÀ¯É ¨ÉÆüÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ UÀAqÀ¸ÀgÀ°è ºÉAUÀ¸ÀjVAvÀ
ºÉZÁÑV PÀAqÀħgÀÄvÀÛzÉ. KPÉAzÀgÉ:
1) CAvÀºÀUÀÄt®PÀëtUÀ¼À¥À槮ªÀA±ÀªÁ»UÀ¼ÀÄ ‘X’ ªÀtðvÀAvÀÄ«£À°èPÀAqÀħgÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
2) CAvÀºÀUÀÄt®PÀëtUÀ¼À¥À槮ªÀA±ÀªÁ»UÀ¼ÀÄ
‘Y’ ªÀtðvÀAvÀÄ«£À°èPÀAqÀħgÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
3) CAvÀºÀUÀÄt®PÀëtUÀ¼ÀzÀħð®ªÀA±ÀªÁ»UÀ¼ÀÄ
‘X’ ªÀtðvÀAvÀÄ«£À°èPÀAqÀħgÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
4) CAv Àº À U À Ät®P À ëtU À¼ À z À ħð®
ªÀA±ÀªÁ»UÀ¼ÀÄ ‘Y’ ªÀtðvÀAvÀÄ«£À°èPÀAqÀħgÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
35. SO2 ªÀiÁ°£ÀåªÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÀÆa¸ÀĪÀ G¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛ eÉÊ«PÀ
¸ÀÆZÀPÀ:
1) §æAiÉÆÃ¥sÉÊmÁUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) ±ÉʪÀ®UÀ¼ÀGvÁàzÀ£É
3) ¯ÉÊPÉ£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ(PÀ®ÄèºÀÆ)
4) ¸ÀÆåqÉÆêÉÆãÁ¸ï
16
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)36. Animal species that is being conserved
in ‘Dachigam National Park’:
1) Musk deer
2) Golden Oriole
3) Hangul or Kashmir stag
4) Tiger
37. The correct sequence of aerobic respiration in yeast is:
1) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Mitochondria CO2 + Water + Energy
2) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Cytoplasm Ethanol + CO2 + Energy
3) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Mitochondria Lactic Acid + Energy
4) Glucose Cytoplasm Pyruvate Cytoplasm Ethanol + CO2
38. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they couldn’t fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this means:
1) Reptiles have evolved from birds.
2) There is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds.
3) Birds have evolved from reptiles.
4) Feathers are homologous structures in both the organisms.
36. ‘zÀaUÁªÀiï gÁ¶ Ö ç ÃAi À Ä GzÁå£ Àª À£ À ’z À° è
¸ÀAgÀQë¸À®àqÀÄwÛgÀĪÀ ¥Áæt ¥Àæ¨ÉÃzsÀ:
1) PÀ¸ÀÆÛj fAPÉ
2) a£ÀßzÀNjAiÉÆïï
3) ºÀAUÀƯïCxÀªÁPÁ²äÃgÀ¸ÁÖöåUï
4) ºÀÄ°
37. ¬ÄøïÖ£À°è £ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀ ªÁAiÀÄÄ«PÀ G¹gÁl
¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ PÀæªÀĪÉAzÀgÉ:
1) UÀÄ èP ÉÆøï P ÉÆñ Àz À æª À å ¥ É Êg À Ī ÉÃmïªÉÄÊmÉÆÃPÁAræAiÀiÁ CO2 + ¤ÃgÀÄ + ±ÀQÛ
2) UÀÄèPÉÆøïPÉÆñÀzÀæªÀå¥ÉÊgÀĪÉÃmïPÉÆñÀzÀæªÀåJxÀ£Á¯ï + CO2 + ±ÀQÛ
3) UÀÄ èP ÉÆøï P ÉÆñ Àz À æª À å ¥ É Êg À Ī ÉÃmïªÉÄÊmÉÆÃPÁAræAiÀiÁ¯ÁåQÖPïDªÀÄè + ±ÀQÛ
4) UÀÄèPÉÆøïPÉÆñÀzÀæªÀå¥ÉÊgÀĪÉÃmïPÉÆñÀzÀæªÀåJxÀ£Á¯ï + CO2
38. PÉ®ªÀÅ qÉÊ£ÉÆøÁgïUÀ¼ÀÄ gÉPÉÌUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÀÝgÀÆ
CªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ ºÁgÀ¯ÁUÀÄwÛgÀ°®è. DzÀgÉ ¥ÀQëUÀ¼ÀÄ
gÉPÉÌUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢zÀÄÝ CªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ ¥ÀQëUÀ½UÉ ºÁgÀ®Ä
¸ÀºÀP Àj¸ÀÄvÀ ÛªÉ. «PÁ¸ÀzÀ zÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ EzÀgÀ
CxÀðªÉãÉAzÀgÉ:
1) ¥ÀQëUÀ½AzÀ Àjà ÀÈ¥ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ«PÁ ÀºÉÆA¢ªÉ.
2) ¸ÀjøÀÈ¥ÀUÀ¼ÀĪÀÄvÀÄÛ¥ÀQëUÀ¼ÀªÀÄzsÉå«PÁ¸ÀzÀ
¸ÀA§AzsÀ«®è.
3) ¥ÀQëUÀ¼ÀĸÀjøÀÈ¥ÀUÀ½AzÀ«PÁ¸ÀUÉÆArªÉ.
4) JgÀqÀÆfëUÀ¼À°ègÉPÉÌUÀ¼ÀÄKPÀgÀÆ¥ÀzÀ°è
gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀiÁVªÉ.
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
17
39. Examine the following statements and select the correct option:
Statement (A) : Speciation may take place when variation is combined with geographical isolation.
Statement (B) : Traits in one individual may not be inherited seperately.
1) ‘A’ is true and ‘B’ is false.
2) ‘A’ is false and ‘B’ is true.
3) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are true.
4) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are false.
40. The fluid that protects the developing embryo:
1) Vitreous humour.
2) Aqueous humour.
3) Endolymphfluid.
4) Amnioticfluid.
39. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥Àj²Ã°¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
ºÉýP É (A) : © ü£ À ßv ÉU À¼ À Ä ¨ s ËU ÉÆýP À
¨ É Ã¥ Àðq À Ä«P ÉAi ÉÆA¢U É e ÉÆv ÉU ÀÆrzÁU À
¥Àæ¨sÉâPÀgÀt GAmÁUÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
ºÉýPÉ (B) : MAzÀÄ fëAiÀÄ°è£À ¥ÀæwAiÉÆAzÀÄ
UÀÄtUÀ¼ÀÄ ¥ÀævÉåÃPÀªÁV C£ÀĪÀA²ÃAiÀĪÁUÀ¯ÁgÀªÀÅ.
1) ‘A’ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘B’ vÀ¥ÀàÅ.
2) ‘A’ vÀ¥ÀàŪÀÄvÀÄÛ‘B’ ¸Àj.
3) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘B’ JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj.
4) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘B’ JgÀqÀÆvÀ¥ÀàÅ.
40. ¨É¼ÉAiÀÄÄwÛgÀĪÀ ¨sÀÆætªÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÀAgÀQë¸ÀĪÀ zÀæªÀ :
1) PÁZÀPÀgÀ¸ÀzsÁvÀÄ.
2) d®gÀ¸ÀzsÁvÀÄ.
3) JAqÉÆðA¥sïzÀæªÀ.
4) C«ÄßÃAiÉÆÃnPïzÀæªÀ.
18
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
HISTORY
41. Identify the given regions in the map with their corresponding European settlements in India and select the correct option using the codes given below:
A
B
C
D
1) A - Ahmedabad, B - Broach, C - Machlipatnam, D - Chandranagor
2) A - Chandranagor, B - Ahmedabad, C - Broach, D - Machlipatnam
3) A - Broach, B - Chandranagor, C - Machlipatnam, D - Ahmedabad
4) A - Machlipatnam, B - Broach, C - Ahmedabad, D - Chandranagor
EwºÁ¸À
41. ¨sÀÆ¥ÀlzÀ°è ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è LgÉÆÃ¥ÀågÀ £É¯ÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß DzsÀj¹ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A
B
C
D
1) A - CºÀªÀÄzÁ¨Ázï, B - ¨ÉÆæÃZï, C - ªÀÄZÀ°Ã¥ÀlÖtA, D - ZÀAzÀæ£ÁUÀÆgï
2) A - ZÀAzÀæ£ÁUÀÆgï, B - CºÀªÀÄzÁ¨Ázï, C - ¨ÉÆæÃZï,D - ªÀÄZÀ°Ã¥ÀlÖtA
3) A - ¨ÉÆ æÃZï , B - ZÀAz À æ£ÁU ÀÆgï, C - ªÀÄZÀ°Ã¥ÀlÖtA,D - CºÀªÀÄzÁ¨Ázï
4) A - ªÀÄZÀ°Ã¥ÀlÖtA, B - ¨ÉÆæÃZï, C - CºÀªÀÄzÁ¨Ázï,D - ZÀAzÀæ£ÁUÀÆgï
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
19
42. Identify the correct statements with regard to the Solanki dynasty:
A. Chandradeva was the founder of this dynasty.
B. Moolaraja II defeated Mohammed Ghazni near Mount Abu.
C. During the rule of this dynasty, t h e f a m o u s J a i n s c h o l a r Hemachandra compiled Prakruth dictionary ‘Deshimala’.
D. Ullaf Khan and Nusrath Khan, the military generals of Allauddin Khilji defeated Karnadeva.
1) Only A, B and C are correct
2) Only B, C and D are correct
3) Only A, C and D are correct
4) Only C and D are correct
43. The correct family chart in ascending order of the important rulers of Shatavahana dynasty is:
1) Simukha, Gautamiputra Shatakarni, Vashishtaputra pulamayi, Yajnashri Shatakarni.
2) Simukha, Vashistaputra pulamayi, Gautamiputra Shatakarni, Yajnashri Shatakarni.
3) Simukha, Yajnashri Shatakarni, Va s h i s h t a p u t r a p u l a m a y i , Gautamiputra Shatakarni.
4) Simukha, Vashistaputra pulamayi, Yajnashri Shatakarni, Gautamiputra Shatakarni.
42. ¸ÉÆüÀAQ ªÀÄ£ÉvÀ£ÀPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. ZÀAzÀæzÉêÀ F ªÀÄ£ÉvÀ£ÀzÀ ¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀ.
B. JgÀqÀ£Éà ªÀÄÆ®gÁd ªÀĺÀªÀÄäzï WÀfßAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
ªÀiËAmï C§Ä«£À §½ ¸ÉÆð¹zÀ£ÀÄ.
C. F ªÀÄ£ÉvÀ£ÀzÀ D½éPÉAiÀÄ°è SÁåvÀ eÉÊ£À ¥ÀArvÀ
ºÉêÀÄZÀAzÀæ `zÉòªÀiÁ¯Á’ JA§ ¥ÁæPÀÈvÀ
¤WÀAl£ÀÄß gÀa¹zÀ£ÀÄ.
D. C¯ÁèªÀÅ¢Ýãï T°ÓAiÀÄ zÀAqÀ£ÁAiÀÄPÀgÁzÀ
G®Ä¥sïSÁ£ï ªÀÄvÀÄ Û £ÀĸÀ ævïSÁ£ÀgÀÄ
PÀtðzÉêÀ£À£ÀÄß ¸ÉÆð¹zÀgÀÄ.
1) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
2) B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
3) A, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
4) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
43. KjPÉAiÀÄ PÀæªÀÄzÀ°è ±ÁvÀªÁºÀ£ÀgÀ gÁd ªÀÄ£ÉvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß D½zÀ ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR CgÀ¸ÀgÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ªÀA±ÁªÀ½AiÀÄÄ:
1) ¹ªÀÄÄR,UËvÀ«Ä¥ÀÅvÀæ±ÁvÀPÀtÂð,ªÀ²µÀÖ¥ÀÅvÀæ¥ÀÅ®ªÀiÁ¬Ä,AiÀÄdÕ²æñÁvÀPÀtÂð.
2) ¹ªÀÄÄR,ªÀ²µÀÖ¥ÀÅvÀæ¥ÀÅ®ªÀiÁ¬Ä,UËvÀ«Ä¥ÀÅvÀæ±ÁvÀPÀtÂð,AiÀÄdÕ²æñÁvÀPÀtÂð.
3) ¹ªÀÄÄR, AiÀÄdÕ²æà ±ÁvÀPÀtÂð, ªÀ²µÀÖ¥ÀÅvÀæ¥ÀÅ®ªÀiÁ¬Ä,UËvÀ«Ä¥ÀÅvÀæ±ÁvÀPÀtÂð.
4) ¹ªÀÄÄR,ªÀ²µÀÖ¥ÀÅvÀæ¥ÀÅ®ªÀiÁ¬Ä,AiÀÄdÕ²æñÁvÀPÀtÂð,UËvÀ«Ä¥ÀÅvÀæ±ÁvÀPÀtÂð
20
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)44. Read the given Statements and select
the correct answer:
Assertion (A): There was a Sun temple in all Inca centres.
Reason (R): The people of Inca believed that the Sun God was the link between the people and God Veerakocha.
1) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false.
2) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true.
3) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
45. Read the given statements and identify the correct option related to them:
A. It has Mukhamantapa and Garbhagruha with a Nandi idol in front of this historical temple.
B. Garbhagruha on top of the Garbhagruha is a special feature of this temple.
C. Henry cousins, the art critic observed the sculpture of Garuda on the door of Garbhagruha and called it a Vaishnava temple.
D. Since a saint lived here for a number of days people called it in his name.
1) Birla Mandir.
2) Ladhkhan Temple.
3) Tulsidas Mandir.
4) Gurunanak Dwara.
44. PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß N¢j ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A): J¯Áè EAPÁ PÉÃAzÀæUÀ¼À®Æè MAzÀÄ ¸ÀÆAiÀÄð zÉêÁ®AiÀÄ«vÀÄÛ.
¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R): ÀÆAiÀÄðzÉêÀ£ÀÄ zÉêÀgÁzÀ «ÃgÀPÉÆZÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ d£ÀUÀ¼À £ÀqÀÄ«£À ÀA¥ÀPÀðPÉÆAr JA§ÄzÀÄ EAPÁ d£ÀgÀ £ÀA©PÉ.
1) ‘A’ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ vÀ¥ÀàÅ.
2) ‘A’ vÀ¥ÀàÅ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ ¸Àj.
3) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄ Û ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzɪÀÄvÀÄ Û ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ AiÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
4) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀƸÀjAiÀiÁVzɪÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ AiÀÄ ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ®è.
45. PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß N¢j ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀÅUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. ªÀÄÄRªÀÄAl¥À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÀ¨s ÀðUÀȺÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀ F LwºÁ¹PÀ zÉêÁ®AiÀÄzÀ ªÀÄÄAzÉ £ÀA¢ «UÀæºÀ«zÉ.
B. U À¨ s À ðU À Ⱥ Àz À ª É Ä Ã¯ É ª À Äv ÉÆ Û Az À Ä UÀ¨s ÀðUÀȺÀ«gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ F zÉêÁ®AiÀÄzÀ «±ÉõÀªÁVzÉ.
C. UÀ¨s ÀðUÀ ȺÀzÀ ¨ÁV® ªÉÄÃ¯É UÀg ÀÄqÀ£ À ²®à«gÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß UÀªÀĤ¹zÀ PÀ¯Á «ªÀıÀðPÀ ºÉ¤æ PÀ¹£ïì EzÀ£ÀÄß ªÉʵÀÚªÀ zÉêÁ®AiÀÄ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉ¢zÁÝgÉ.
D. ¸ÀAvÀ£ÉƧâ E°è ºÉZÀÄ Ñ ¢£ÀUÀ¼À PÁ® ªÁ ÀªÁVzÀÝjAzÀ d£ÀgÀÄ F zÉêÁ®AiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß CªÀ£À ºÉ¸Àj¤AzÀ PÀgÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛgÉ.
1) ©¯ÁðªÀÄA¢gÀ.
2) ¯ÁqïSÁ£ïzÉêÁ®AiÀÄ
3) vÀļÀ¹zÁ¸À ªÀÄA¢gÀ
4) UÀÄgÀÄ£Á£ÀPïzÁégÀ
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
21
46. Observe the following pictures of social reformers and identify the order of the statements correctly related to them:
Annie BesantC¤ ¨É¸ÉAmï
Savithri Bai Phule¸Á«wæ ¨Á¬Ä ¥sÀůÉ
Tarabai ShindhevÁgÁ¨Á¬Ä ²AzsÉ
Pandita Rama Bai¥ÀArvÀ gÀªÀiÁ ¨Á¬Ä
i ii iii iv
A. Dedicated her l i fe for the betterment of women of India and established ‘Mukti Mission’.
B. She opposed the exploitation of women in her book ‘Stri Purusha Tulana’.
C. While treating the patients of plague along with her son, she died of it.
D. Called for universal brotherhood without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste and colour.
i ii iii iv
1) B C D A
2) A B D C
3) C A B D
4) D C B A
46. PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ ¸ÀªÀiÁd ¸ÀÄzsÁgÀPÀgÀ avÀæUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀªÀĤ¹ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ EgÀĪÀ PÀæªÀÄzÀAvÉ CªÀjUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À UÀÄA¥À£ÀÄß Dj¹:
A. ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄgÀ GzÁÞgÀPÁÌV vÀªÀÄä fêÀ£ÀªÀ£Éßà ªÀÄÄqÀĦlÄÖ ‘ªÀÄÄQÛ «ÄµÀ£ï’ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÀÄlÄÖºÁQzÀgÀÄ.
B. vÀªÀÄä PÀÈw `¹Ûçà - ¥ÀÅgÀĵÀ vÀÄ®£Á’zÀ°è ªÀÄ»¼ÉAi ÀÄ ±ÉÆõÀuÉAi ÀÄ£ÀÄß GUÀ æªÁV ¥Àæw¨sÀn¹zÁÝgÉ.
C. ¥ÉèÃUï ªÀĺÁªÀiÁjAiÀÄ gÉÆÃUÀPÉÌ vÀÄvÁÛzÀªÀgÀ ¸ÉêÉAi ÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀªÀÄ ä ªÀÄUÀ£ ÉÆqÀ£É ¸ÉÃj ªÀiÁqÀÄwÛgÀĪÁUÀ Éà ¥ÉèÃUï gÉÆÃUÀPÉÌ vÀÄvÁÛzÀgÀÄ.
D. d£ÁAU À , °AU À , eÁw ª À Äv À Ä Û ª Àtðz À ¨ÉÃzsÀ¨sÁªÀ«®èzÉ ¸ÁªÀðwæPÀ ¸ÀºÉÆÃzÀgÀvÀéPÉÌ PÀgÉ ¤ÃrzÀÝgÀÄ.
i ii iii iv
1) B C D A
2) A B D C
3) C A B D
4) D C B A
22
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)47. The important events those took
place during the American war of Independence is depicted in the following flow diagram. Identify the correct chronological sequence:
i ii iii iv→ → → A. Cornwallis surrender B. The Sugar and Molasses Act C. Second Congress of Philadelphia D. Boston Tea Party
i ii iii iv1) B C D A2) B D C A3) A B D C4) C B A D
48. Choose the correct sequence to indicate the given statement of the results of the Battle of Plassey as TRUE (T) or FALSE (F):A. The Battle of Plassey brought
out the immorality, lack of unity among the Indians and the greed of Indian business men.
B. After the Battle of Plassey, Siraj - ud - dulah became the Nawab of Bengal.
C. The Company gained exclusive rights to do business in Bengal after the Battle of Plassey.
D. Mir Jaffar had to pay a huge amount as a war relief.
1) TTTT 2) TFTF 3) TFFT 4) TFTT
47. CªÉÄÃjPÁ ¸ÁévÀAvÀæöå ¸ÀAUÁæªÀÄzÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è £ÀqÉzÀ ««zsÀ WÀl£ÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß F PɼÀV£À ºÀjªÀÅ avÀæzÀ°è vÉÆÃj À ÁVzÉ. ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ PÁ¯Á£ÀÄPÀæªÀÄt ¸ÀgÀtÂAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. PÁ£ïðªÁ°¸ï£À ±ÀgÀuÁUÀw
B. ¸ÀPÀÌgÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁPÀA© PÁ¬ÄzÉ
C. JgÀqÀ£É ¦ü¯ÉqÉ°áAiÀiÁ C¢üªÉñÀ£À
D. ¨ÉÆøÀÖ£ï nà ¥Ánð
i ii iii iv1) B C D A2) B D C A3) A B D C4) C B A D
48. ¥Áè¹ PÀzÀ£ÀzÀ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸Àj (T) CxÀªÁ vÀ¥ÀàÅ (F) JA§ C£ÀÄPÀæªÀĪÁzÀ eÉÆÃqÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr:A. ¥Áè¹ PÀzÀ£ÀªÀÅ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄgÀ°èzÀÝ C£ÉÊwPÀvÉ,
LPÀåvÉAiÀÄ PÉÆgÀvÉ, C¸ÀAWÀl£É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ F PÁ®zÀ ªÁå¥Áj ªÀUÀðzÀ°èzÀÝ ÉÆéüvÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀæzÀ²ð¹vÀÄ.
B. ¥Áè¹ PÀzÀ£ÀzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ ¹gÁdÄzËÝ®£ÀÄ §AUÁ¼ÀzÀ £ÀªÁ§£ÁzÀ£ÀÄ.
C. ¥Áè¹ PÀzÀ£ÀzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ §AUÁ¼À ¥ÁæAvÀåzÀ°è ªÁå¥ÁgÀ £ÀqɸÀ®Ä C¤§ðA¢üvÀ ºÀPÀÌ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqɬÄvÀÄ.
D. AiÀÄÄzÀÞ £ÀµÀÖ ¥ÀjºÁgÀªÁV «ÄÃgï eÁ¥sÀgÀ£ÀÄ PÀA¥À¤UÉ C¥ÁgÀ ªÉÆvÀÛªÀ£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ ÉÃPÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
1) TTTT 2) TFTF 3) TFFT 4) TFTT
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
23
49. Read the given statements and identify the correct Act which is related to all of them:A. This act formulated Bi-cameral
legslative body at the centre.B. As per this Act “Diarchy” was
allowed at regional government.C. As per this Act a High Commissioner
was appointed for India.D. As per this Act Provincial budget
was seperated from Central budget.
1) Indian Government Act of 1935
2) Indian Council Act of 1909
3) Indian Council Act of 1892
4) Indian Council Act of 1919
50. In List-A authors and in List-B their works are given. Choose the correct answer by matching them:
List-A List-BA. Charles
Dickensi Mayor of
Casterbridge
B. Emile Zola ii Germinal
C. Thomas Hardy
iii Jane Eyre
D. Charlotte Bronte
iv Hard times
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
3) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
49. PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ F J¯Áè ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß N¢j ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀÅUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀjºÉÆAzÀĪÀ PÁAiÉÄÝAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. F PÁAiÉÄÝAiÀÄÄ PÉÃAzÀæzÀ°è ¢é¸ÀzÀ£À ±Á¸ÀPÁAUÀ gÀZÀ£ÉUÉ CªÀPÁ±À ¤ÃrvÀÄ.
B. F PÁAiÉÄÝAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ ¥ÁæAvÀåUÀ¼À°è ‘‘¢é ÀPÁðgÀ’’ ¥ÀzÀÞwUÉ CªÀPÁ±À ¤ÃqÀ¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
C. F PÁAi ÉÄ ÝAi ÀÄ ¥À æPÁg À ¨sÁg Àv ÀP É Ì M§â ºÉÊPÀ«ÄµÀ£Àgï£ÀÄß £ÉêÀÄPÀ ªÀiÁqÀ¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
D. F PÁAiÉÄÝAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ PÉÃAzÀæzÀ §eÉmï¤AzÀ ¥ÁæAvÀåUÀ¼À §eÉl£ÀÄß ¨ÉÃ¥Àðr¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
1) 1935 gÀ¨sÁgÀvÀ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀPÁAiÉÄÝ
2) 1909 ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ¥ÀjµÀvïPÁAiÉÄÝ
3) 1892 ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ¥ÀjµÀvïPÁAiÉÄÝ
4) 1919 ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ¥ÀjµÀvïPÁAiÉÄÝ
50. A-¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è ¯ÉÃRPÀgÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B-¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è CªÀgÀ PÀÈwUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. CªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
A-¥ÀnÖ B-¥ÀnÖ
A. ZÁ¯ïìð rPÉ£ïì i ªÉÄÃAiÀÄgï D¥sï PÁå±ÀÖgï©æqïÓ
B. J«Ä¯É eÉÆïÁ ii d«Äð£À¯ï
C. xÁªÀÄ¸ï ºÁrð iii eÉãï LgÉ
D. ZÁ¯ÉÆðmÉÖ ¨ÉÆæAmÉ
iv ºÁqïð mÉʪÀiïì
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
3) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
24
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
GEOGRAPHY
51. The group of wild life sanctuaries and the states in which they are located is given below. Identify the correctly matched group:
1) Manas - Meghalaya Bhadra- Karnataka Annamalai-Tamilnadu Mudumalai- Kerala
2) Biligiriranga Hills - Karnataka Rathambor- Gujarat Nagarjunasagara-Andhrapradesh Jaldapara- Kerala
3) Nagarjuna Sagara - Telangana Bharathpura- Rajasthana Manas- Assam Dandeli- Karnataka
4) Mudumalai- Tamilnadu Periyar- Kerala Bharathpur- Gujarat Jaldapara- Assam
52. Identify the correct statements related to ‘cotton crop’ from the options given below:
i. It is grown as a Rabi Crop in India.
ii. It is tropical and sub-tropical zone crop.
iii. It requires 100 to 150 C temperature. iv. It requires 50 to 100 cm annual
rainfall.
Codes : 1) (i) and (ii) only correct 2) (iii) and (iv) only correct 3) (i) and (iii) only correct 4) (ii) and (iv) only correct
¨sÀÆUÉÆüÀ
51. F PɼÀUÉ ªÀ£ÀåfëzsÁªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ EgÀĪÀ gÁdåUÀ¼À UÀÄA¥À£ÀÄß ¤ÃrzÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆAzÁtÂPÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ UÀÄA¥À£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) ªÀiÁ£À¸À-ªÉÄÃWÁ®AiÀÄ ¨sÀzÀæ-PÀ£ÁðlPÀ CuÁÚªÀįÉÊ-vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ ªÀÄÄzÀĪÀįÉÊ-PÉÃgÀ¼À
2) ©½VjgÀAUÀ£À¨ÉlÖ-PÀ£ÁðlPÀ gÁxÀA¨ÉÆÃgÀ-UÀÄdgÁvï £ÁUÁdÄð£À¸ÁUÀgÀ-DAzsÀæ¥ÀæzÉñÀ d®Ý¥ÁgÀ-PÉÃgÀ¼À
3) £ÁUÁdÄð£À¸ÁUÀgÀ-vÉ®AUÁt ¨sÀgÀvÀ¥ÀÄgÀ-gÁd¸ÁÛ£ï ªÀiÁ£À¸À- C¸ÁìA zÁAqÉð-PÀ£ÁðlPÀ
4) ªÀÄÄzÀĪÀįÉÊ - vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ ¥ÉjAiÀiÁgï-PÉÃgÀ¼À ¨sÀgÀvÀ¥ÀÄgÀ-UÀÄdgÁvï d®Ý¥ÁgÀ-C¸ÁìA
52. ‘ºÀwÛ É¼É’ UÉ ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß F PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÀ UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
i. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ¥À æªÀÄÄR gÀ© ¨É¼ÉAiÀiÁV ɼÉAiÀįÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
ii. EzÀÄ GµÀÚ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G¥ÀGµÀÚªÀ®AiÀÄzÀ ¨É¼ÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
iii. ¨ÉøÁAiÀÄPÉÌ 100 jAzÀ 150 ¸É°ìAiÀĸï GµÁÚA±ÀzÀCªÀ±ÀåPÀvÉEzÉ.
iv. ªÁ¶ðPÀ 50 jAzÀ 100 ¸ÉA.«Äà ªÀÄ¼É ¨ÉÃPÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
¸ÀAPÉÃvÀUÀ¼ÀÄ :
1) (i) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (ii) ªÀiÁvÀæ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ 2) (iii) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (iv) ªÀiÁvÀæ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ 3) (i) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (iii) ªÀiÁvÀæ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ 4) (ii) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (iv) ªÀiÁvÀæ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀzÀÄÝ
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
25
53. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer :
Assertion (A): Laterite soil is not that much useful for agriculture.
Reason (R): Laterite soil Undergoes more leaching process.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
4) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
54. Refer to the given circles below, select the correct option regarding ‘X’ and ‘Y’:
TheEastflowingRiver
X
TheWestflowingRiver
Y
1) ‘X’ can be ‘Narmada’ and ‘Y’ Can be ‘Godavari’.
2) ‘X’ can be ‘Kaveri’ and ‘Y’ Can be ‘Netravati ’.
3) ‘X’ can be ‘Mahanadi’ and ‘Y’ Can be ‘Krishna ’.
4) ‘X’ can be ‘Sharavathi’ and ‘Y’ Can be ‘Tapi ’.
53. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß N¢j ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr :
¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A): ¯ÁålgÉÊmïªÀÄtÄÚ PÀȶUÉCµÉÆÖAzÀÄG¥ÀAiÀÄÄPÀÛªÀ®è.
¸ Àª À Äx Àð£ É (R): ¯Á ålg É Êm ï ª À ÄtÄ Ú º ÉZ À Ä Ñ
d®«°ÃPÀgÀtPÉÆ̼À¥ÀqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
1) (A) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (R) JgÀqÀÆ ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (R) EzÀÄ (A) £À¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ«ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
2) (A) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (R) JgÀqÀƸÀj,DzÀgÉ (R) EzÀÄ (A) £À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ®è.
3) (A) ¸Àj,(R) vÀ¥ÀàÅ.
4) (A) vÀ¥ÀàÅ,(R) ¸Àj.
54. F PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ ªÀÈvÀÛUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀªÀĤ¹, ‘X’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘Y’ UÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ ¸ÀªÀÄ¥ÀðPÀªÁzÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
¥ÀƪÁð©üªÀÄÄRªÁVºÀjAiÀÄĪÀ £À¢
X
¥À²ÑªÀiÁ©üªÀÄÄRªÁV ºÀjAiÀÄĪÀ £À¢
Y
1) ‘X’ £ÀªÀÄðzÁ£À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀĪÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘Y’ UÉÆÃzÁªÀj£À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
2) ‘X’ PÁªÉÃj £À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘Y’ £ÉÃvÁæªÀw£À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
3) ‘X’ ªÀĺÁ£À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄ Û ‘Y’ PÀȵÁÚ£À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
4) ‘X’ ±ÀgÁªÀw £À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘Y’ vÁ¦£À¢AiÀiÁVgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
26
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)55. Match the column ‘A’ with columm ‘B’
and choose the correct Answer:
Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’A. Veer Savarkar International
Airporti Nagpur
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri International Airport
ii Bhuvaneshwar
C. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport
iii Port Blair
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport
iv Ahmedabad
v VaranasiChoices : 1) A- ii, B-v, C-iv, D-i 2) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-iv 3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
56. Match the marked multipurpose river valley projects on the map of India (i, ii, iii, iv) with their respective names:
b
a
d
c
i. Bhakra Nangal ii. Nagarjuna Sagar iii. Kosi iv. Hirakud 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
55. ¥ÀnÖ ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀnÖ ‘B’ AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹ ºÁUÀÆ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
¥ÀnÖ ‘A’ ¥ÀnÖ ‘B’A. «ÃgÀ ¸ÁªÀPÀðgï CAvÀgÀ
gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ«ªÀiÁ£À¤¯ÁÝt
i £ÁUÀÄàgÀ
B. ¯Á¯ï§ºÀzÀÆÝgï±Á¹ÛçCAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ«ªÀiÁ£À¤¯ÁÝt
ii ¨sÀĪÀ£ÉñÀégÀ
C. ¨Á¨Á ¸ÁºÉèï CA¨ÉÃqÀÌgï CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ«ªÀiÁ£À¤¯ÁÝt
iii ¥ÉÆÃmïð¨ÉèÃgï
D. ¸ÀzÁðgïªÀ®è¨sÀ¨ÁAiÀiï¥ÀmÉïï CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ«ªÀiÁ£À¤¯ÁÝt
iv CºÀäzÁ¨Ázï
v ªÁgÀuÁ¹DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ :
1) A- ii, B-v, C-iv, D-i 2) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-iv 3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
56. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ £ÀPÉëAiÀÄ°è UÀÄgÀÄw¹gÀĪÀ ««zsÀÉÆÃzÉÝñÀ £À¢ PÀt廃 AiÉÆÃd£ÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß (i, ii, iii, iv) CªÀÅUÀ¼À ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÆA¢¹j:
b
a
d
c
i. ¨sÁPÁæ£ÀAUÀ¯ï ii. £ÁUÁdÄð£ï ¸ÁUÀgÀ iii. PÉÆù iv. »gÁPÀÄqï
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
27
57. A tourist was travelling across Indian states. He first visited Pykara hydro electric power station, secondly Jawaharalal Nehru sea port, thirdly Bokaro steel plant station and lastly Govindha Vallaba Panth reservoir. Identify the proper sequence of the states the tourist travelled:
1) Maharashstra, Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgadh, Gujarat.
2) Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, Karnataka.
3) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Gujarath.
4) Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, UttarPradesh.
58. While teaching a topic on ‘Minerals and Energy Resources’ the geography teacher had made the following statement about a particular resource in the class:
“This resource is formed from plant residue and transformed due to high temperature and pressure. It is composed largely of carbon”
The teacher has stated about the resourse mentioned below.
1) Manganese
2) Iron
3) Coal
4) Bauxite
57. M§â ¥ÀæªÁ¹UÀ£ÀÄ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ gÁdåUÀ¼À ¥ÀæªÁ¸À PÉÊUÉÆAqÀ£ÀÄ. CªÀ£ÀÄ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä ¥ÉÊPÁgÀ d®«zÀÄåvï PÉÃAzÀæ, £ÀAvÀgÀ PÀæªÀĪÁV dªÀºÀgÀ¯Á¯ï £ÉºÀgÀÄ §AzÀgÀÄ, ¨ÉÆPÁgÉÆ GPÀÄÌ ¸ÁܪÀgÀ PÉÃAzÀæ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ UÉÆëAzÀ ªÀ®è¨sÀ¥ÀAvÀ ¸ÁUÀgÀ d¯Á±ÀAiÀÄUÀ½UÉ sÉÃn ¤ÃrzÀ£ÀÄ. CªÀ£ÀÄ ¥ÀæAiÀiÁt ɼɹzÀ gÁdåUÀ¼À
¸ÀÆPÀÛªÁzÀ C£ÀÄPÀæªÀĪÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) ªÀĺÁgÁµÀÖç, DAzsÀæ ¥ÀæzÉñÀ, bÀwÛøÀUÀqsÀ, UÀÄdgÁvï.
2) DAzsÀ æ ¥ÀæzÉñÀ, ªÀĺÁgÁµÀÖ ç, ©ºÁgï, PÀ£ÁðlPÀ.
3) PÉÃgÀ¼À,vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ,Mr±Á,UÀÄdgÁvï.
4) vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ, ªÀĺÁgÁµÀÖç, eÁRðAqï, GvÀÛgÀ¥ÀæzÉñÀ.
58. ¨sÀÆUÉÆüÀ ±Á¸ÀÛçzÀ ²PÀëPÀgÀÄ ‘R¤d ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ±ÀQÛ
¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®UÀ¼ÀÄ’ «µÀAiÀÄzÀ ¥ÁoÀ ¨ÉÆÃzs À£É
ªÀiÁqÀĪÁUÀ MAzÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®zÀ PÀÄjvÀÄ
vÀgÀUÀwAiÀÄ°è F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉ ¤ÃrzÀgÀÄ:
“F ¸ ÀA¥ À£ ÀÆ ä®ª À Å ¸ À¸Á åª À± É Ãµ ÀU À½Az À
gÀZÀ£ÉUÉÆArzÀÄÝ, C¢üPÀ GµÁÚA±À ªÀÄvÀÄ Û
MvÀÛqÀUÀ½AzÀ ¥ÀjªÀvÀð£ÉUÉÆArzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ºÉZÀÄÑ
EAUÁ®zÀ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£ÉºÉÆA¢zÉ”.
²PÀëPÀgÀÄFPɼÀV£À¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®zÀPÀÄjvÀĺÉýPÉ
¤ÃrzÁÝgÉ.
1) ªÀiÁåAUÀ¤Ã¸ï
2) PÀ©ât
3) PÀ°èzÀÝ®Ä
4) ¨ÁPÉìÈmï
28
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)59. Read the following statements, and
choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): The population is high in the Northern plain of India.
Reason (R): The fertility of soil is one of the factors affecting on the distribution of population.
1) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
2) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
60. The type of vegetation shown in the picture is found in this type of forests in India:
1) Mangrove Forest
2) Mountain Forest
3) Monsoon Forest
4) Evergreen Forest
59. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß N¢j ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁr:
¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A): ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀGvÀÛgÀ ªÉÄÈzÁ£ÀªÀÅ C¢üPÀ
d£À¸ÀASÉå¬ÄAzÀPÀÆrzÉ.
¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R): ªÀÄtÂÚ£À ¥sÀ®ªÀvÀÛvÉAiÀÄÄ d£À¸ÀASÁåºÀAaPÉAiÀĪÉÄïɥÀæ¨sÁªÀ©ÃgÀĪÀCA±ÀUÀ¼À°è
MAzÁVzÉ.
1) (A) ¸Àj,(R) vÀ¥ÀàÅ.
2) (A) vÀ¥ÀàÅ,(R) ¸Àj.
3) (A) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (R) JgÀqÀÆ Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (R) EzÀÄ (A) £À¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ«ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
4) (A) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (R) JgÀqÀÆ Àj.DzÀgÉ(R) EzÀÄ (A) £À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ®è.
60. F PɼÀV£À avÀæzÀ°è vÉÆÃj¹gÀĪÀ À ÀåªÀUÀð sÁgÀvÀzÀ F «zsÀzÀ CgÀtåUÀ¼À°è PÀAqÀÄ §gÀÄvÀÛzÉ:
1) ªÀiÁåAUÉÆæêïPÁqÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
2) ¥ÀªÀðvÀPÁqÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
3) ªÀiÁ£ÀÆì£ïPÁqÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
4) ¤vÀåºÀjzÀétðPÁqÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
29
POLITICAL SCIENCE, SOCIOLOGY , ECONOMICS &
BUSINESS STUDIES
61. The list ‘A’ contains fundamental rights and the list ‘B’ their article numbers. Choose the correct option that matches them:
List ‘A’ List ‘B’
A. Right to Freedom i. 23 and 24 articles
B. Right to freedom of religion ii. 14 to 18
articles
C. Right against exploitation iii. 29 to 30
articles
D. Cultural and educational rights iv. 19 to 22
articles
v. 25 to 28 articles
1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D- iv
2) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
3) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-iii
4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
gÁdå±Á¸ÀÛç, ¸ÀªÀiÁd±Á¸ÀÛç, CxÀð±Á¸ÀÛç ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ CzsÀåAiÀÄ£À
61. ‘A’ ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è ªÀÄÆ®¨s ÀÆvÀ ºÀPÀÄ ÌUÀ¼À §UÉ Î ºÁUÀÆ ‘B’ ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è CªÀÅUÀ¼À «¢ü ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À §UÉÎ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. CªÀÅUÀ¼À ºÉÆA¢PÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
¥ÀnÖ ‘A’ ¥ÀnÖ ‘B’
A. ¸ÁévÀAvÀæöåzÀºÀPÀÄÌ i. 23 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 24£Éë¢üUÀ¼ÀÄ
B. zsÁ«ÄðPÀ¸ÁévÀAvÀæöåzÀºÀPÀÄÌ
ii. 14 jAzÀ 18£Éë¢üUÀ¼ÀÄ
C. ±ÉÆõÀuÉAiÀÄ«gÉÆÃzsÀzÀºÀPÀÄÌ
iii. 29 jAzÀ 30£Éë¢üUÀ¼ÀÄ
D. ¸ÁA¸ÀÌøwPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ±ÉÊPÀëtÂPÀºÀPÀÄÌ
iv. 19 jAzÀ 22£Éë¢üUÀ¼ÀÄ
v. 25 jAzÀ 28£Éë¢üUÀ¼ÀÄ
1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D- iv
2) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
3) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-iii
4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
30
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)62. The process of creation of an act in the
state’s legislature is jumbled up. Find the correct option that shows proper order of process of creation of an act:
A. A discussion takes place on the bill and sent to respective house committee.
B. The house approves the bill with 2/3 majority.
C. The person who tables the bill reads out the text loudly.
D. The bill is sent to the Governor’s office for approval.
E. The house committee deliberates on the bill and submits report to the legislative house.
1) A C D B E 2) C A E B D 3) E A C B D 4) C E B D A
63. He discussed the origin, development and functions of state in his book ‘Politics’.
Identify the person:
1) Plato
2) Aristotle
3) Socrates
4) Herodotus
62. «zsÁ£À ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è ±Á¸À£À gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
wgÀÄUÀÄ-ªÀÄÄgÀÄUÀÄ ªÀiÁr ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. ±Á¸À£À
gÀZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ¸ÀÆa¸ÀĪÀ
DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. ªÀÄ ÀÆzÉAiÀÄ §UÉÎ ZÀZÉð £ÀqÉzÀÄ ÀA§AzsÀ ¥ÀlÖ
¸ÀzÀ£À ¸À«ÄwUÉ PÀ¼ÀÄ»¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
B. ÀzÀ£ÀªÀÅ ªÀÄ ÀÆzÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß 2/3gÀ §ºÀĪÀÄvÀzÀ°è
CAVÃPÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
C. ¸Àz À£ Àz À° è ª Àĸ ÀÆzÉ ªÀÄAr¸ÀĪ Àª Àg ÀÄ
ªÀĸÀÆzÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀnÖAiÀiÁV NzÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
D. ªÀĸÀÆzÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß gÁdå¥Á®gÀ CAVÃPÁgÀPÁÌV
PÀ¼ÀÄ»¸À¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
E. ¸ Àz À£ À ¸ À«ÄwAi À Ä Ä ª À ĸ ÀÆz ÉAi À Ä£ À Ä ß
¥Àj²Ã°¸ÀÄv À Ûz É ªÀÄv ÀÄ Û ±Á¸À£ À¸ Àz À£ ÀP É Ì
ªÀgÀ¢AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸À°è¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
1) A C D B E 2) C A E B D 3) E A C B D 4) C E B D A
63. vÀ£Àß ¥ÀŸÀÛPÀ ‘¥Á°nPïì’ £À°è gÁdåzÀ GUÀªÀÄ,
C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼À §UÉÎ ZÀað¹zÁÝgÉ.
F ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) ¥ÉèmÉÆÃ
2) Cj¸ÁÖl¯ï
3) ¸ÁPÀænøï
4) ºÉgÀqÉÆÃl¸ï
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
31
64. One of the following is not a function of Karnataka public service commision:
A. Appointing the gazetted and non gazetted officers.
B. Conducting interviews for direct recruitment of candidates.
C. Conducting departmental exams for state government employees.
D. Train the teachers on modern skills of teaching.
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
65. Observe the four statements given. Choose the option which justifies India’s relationship with it:
A. It signed for peace, friendship and co-operation with India in 1971.
B. It helped in the establishment of Bhilai and Bokaro steel industries.
C. It co-operated during Tashkent agreement in 1966.
D. It co-operated in U.N.O. during the liberation of Goa in 1962.
1) America
2) England
3) Russia
4) France
64. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ¯ÉÆÃPÀ ¸ÉêÁ DAiÉÆÃUÀzÀ PÁAiÀÄðUÀ¼À°è
vÀ¥ÁàVgÀĪÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. ¥ÀvÁæAQvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C¥ÀvÁæAQvÀ C¢üPÁjUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
£ÉëĸÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
B. C¨sÀåyðUÀ¼À £ÉÃgÀ £ÉêÀÄPÁwUÉ ¸ÀAzÀ±Àð£À
£ÀqɸÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
C. gÁdå ÀPÁðj £ËPÀgÀjUÉ E¯ÁSÁ ¥ÀjÃPÉëUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
£ÀqɸÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
D. £À«Ã£À P˱À¯ÁåzsÁjvÀ ¨ÉÆÃzsÀÀ£ÉUÀ¼À §UÉÎ
²PÀëPÀjUÉ vÀgÀ¨ÉÃw ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
65. PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ £Á®ÄÌ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀªÀĤ¹. CªÀÅUÀ¼ÀÄ
sÁgÀvÀzÀ AiÀiÁªÀ gÁµÀÖçzÉÆA¢UÉ EgÀĪÀ ÀA§AzsÀªÀ£ÀÄß
zÀÈrüÃPÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ JA§ÄzÀ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
A. 1971gÀ°è sÁgÀvÀzÉÆA¢UÉ ±ÁAw, ªÉÄÊwæ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ M¥ÀàAzÀPÉÌ ¸À» ºÁQvÀÄ.
B. ©ü Á¬Ä ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ÉÆPÁgÉÆ GQÌ£À PÁSÁð£ÉUÀ¼À
¸ÁÜ¥À£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ ¤ÃrvÀÄÛ.
C. 1966 vÁµÉÌAmï M¥ÀàAzÀzÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è
¸ÀºÀPÀj¹vÀÄÛ.
D. 1962 gÀ UÉÆêÁ «ªÉÆÃZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ÀAzÀ sÀðzÀ°è
«±Àé¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀºÀPÀj¹vÀÄÛ.
1) CªÉÄjPÁ
2) EAUÉèAqï
3) gÀµÁå
4) ¥sÁæ£ïì
32
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)66. A set of four statements is given.
Identify the one which is not Emile Durkhiem’s statement:
1) Emile Durkheim considered society as an important unit of sociological study.
2) He opines that man’s social behaviour has to understand not by personal view but by social background.
3) He believed that the capitalist society would be transformed by its victims i.e working class.
4) He opines that our duties and practices are defined through society’s law and customs.
67. ‘Jharkand Mukti Morcha’ Organization came into being as a result of:
1) Long standing demands of people for the separate State.
2) Movement against atrocities of police force against innocents.
3) Actions of companies that rendered thousands of tribal displacements due to mining.
4) Movement for reservation of Schedule caste and Schedule tribe.
68. Characteristics of culture is given below. Find the one which is not a characteristic of culture:
1) Culture is learnt.
2) Culture is transmissive.
3) Culture is a static Phenomena.
4) Culture is continuous and cumulative.
66. £Á®ÄÌ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ ÁVzÉ. EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è J«Ä° qÀTðA CªÀgÀ ºÉýPÉ C®è¢gÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) ÀªÀiÁd±Á¹ÛçÃAiÀÄCzsÀåAiÀÄ£ÀPÉÌ ÀªÀiÁdªÀ£ÀÄß W ÀlP ÀªÁV J«Ä° q ÀTðAg Àª Àg À Ä ¥ÀjUÀt¹zÀÝgÀÄ.
2) CªÀg À C©ü¥Á æAi À Äz ÀAv É ª ÀiÁ£ Àª À£ À ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ªÀvÀð£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ »£À߯ÉAiÀÄ°èCxÉÊð¹PÉƼÀî¨ÉÃPÉ«£ÀBDvÀ£À ªÀåQÛUÀvÀzÀȶ֬ÄAzÀ®è.
3) §AqÀªÁ¼À±Á»¸ÀªÀiÁdzÀ§°¥À±ÀÄUÀ¼ÁzÀ ±Àæ«ÄPÀ ªÀUÀð¢AzÀ ¸ÀªÀiÁd ¥ÀjªÀwðvÀ-ªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉJAzÀÄCªÀgÀÄ£ÀA©zÀÝgÀÄ.
4) £ÀªÀÄä¥ÀzÀÞwªÀÄvÀÄÛPÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼É®èªÀÇ ÀªÀiÁdzÀPÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄ Û ¸ÀA¥À æzÁAiÀÄUÀ½AzÀgÀƦ À®ànÖªÉJA§C©ü¥ÁæAiÀĺÉÆA¢zÀÝgÀÄ.
67. F PÁgÀt¢AzÀ `eÁRðAqï ªÀÄÄQÛ ªÉÆÃZÀð’ ¸ÀAWÀl£ÉAiÀÄÄ C¹ÛvÀéPÉÌ §A¢vÀÄ:
1) ¥ÀævÉåÃPÀgÁdåPÁÌV£ÀqÉzÀd£ÀgÀ¢ÃWÀðPÁ®zÀ ÉÃrPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ.
2) ªÀÄÄUÀÞgÀªÉÄïɣÀqÉzÀ¥ÉǰøïzËdð£Àå RAr¹£ÀqÉzÀZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½.
3) PÀA¥À¤UÀ¼À UÀtÂUÁjPÉ PÁAiÀÄð¢AzÁV Á«gÁgÀÄ §ÄqÀP ÀlÄ Ö d£ÁAUÀU À¼ À Ä ÀܼÁAvÀgÀUÉÆAqÀªÀÅ.
4) ¥Àj²µÀ×eÁwªÀÄvÀÄÛ¥Àj²µÀ×¥ÀAUÀqÀzÀªÀgÀ «ÄøÀ¯ÁwUÁV£ÀqÉzÀZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½.
68. F PɼÀUÉ ¸ÀA¸ÀÌøwAiÀÄ ®PÀëtUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀA¸À Ì øwAiÀÄ UÀÄt®PÀëtªÀ®èzÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
1) ¸ÀA¸ÀÌøwPÀ°PɬÄAzÀ§gÀĪÀAvÀºÀÄzÀÄ.
2) ¸ÀA¸ÀÌøwªÀUÁð»¸ÀĪÀAvÀºÀzÀÄÝ.
3) ¸ÀA¸ÀÌøwAiÀÄĹÜgÀ¸Àé¨sÁªÀzÁÝVzÉ.
4) ¸ÀA¸À ÌøwAiÀÄÄ ¤gÀAvÀgÀªÁzÀzÀÄÝ ªÀÄvÀÄ Û ÀAUÀæºÀªÁzÀzÀÄÝ.
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
33
69. The list ‘A’ contains Environmental Movement and the list ‘B’ contains related information to the Movement. Choose the correctly matched option:List A List B
A. Silent Valley Movement
i. Began at Tehri-Gharwal District
B. Coastal Karnataka Movement
ii. Started in 1983 by the villagers of Salyani
C. Chipko Movement
iii. Started at the valley of Phalghat
D. Appiko Movement
iv. Started in Mangalore against refineries
v. It was started against honour killing
1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-v
3) A-v, B- iii, C-ii, D-i
4) A-iv, B-v, C- ii, D-iii
70. Assertion (A): Section 17 of the constitution prohibits the practice of untouchability.
Reason (R): The Act of 1989 has given some responsibilies for the government in eradication of untouchability.
1) A is true and R is false.
2) A is false and R is true.
3) Both A and R are true and R is related to A.
4) Both A and R are true and R is not related to A.
69. ‘A’ ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ ZÀ¼ÀªÀ½UÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘B’ ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è CªÀÅUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢PÉ DVgÀĪÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
A ¥ÀnÖ B ¥ÀnÖA. ªÀiË£À PÀtªÉ
DAzÉÆî£Ài. vÉ»æ WÀªÁð¯ï f¯ÉèAiÀÄ°è
DgÀA¨sÀªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
B. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ PÀgÁªÀ½ wÃgÀzÀ ZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½
ii. ¸À¯Áå¤ UÁæªÀÄzÀ gÉÊvÀgÀÄ 1983gÀ°è DgÀA©ü¹zÀgÀÄ.
C. a¥ÉÌÇà ZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½ iii. ¥Á¯ïWÁmï PÀtªÉAiÀÄ°è DgÀA¨sÀªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
D. C¦àPÉÆà ZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½ iv. ªÀÄAUÀ¼ÀÆj£À°è ¸Áܦ¸À¯ÁUÀÄwÛzÀÝ vÉÊ®PÁAiÀiÁðUÁgÀzÀ «gÀÄzÀÞ DgÀA¨sÀªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
v. ªÀÄAiÀiÁðzÁ ºÀvÉåAiÀÄ «gÀÄzÀÞ EzÀÄ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀüªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-v
3) A-v, B- iii, C-ii, D-i
4) A-iv, B-v, C- ii, D-iii
70. ¥Àæw¥ÁzÀ£É (A): ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ 17 £Éà «¢üAiÀÄÄ C¸Ààø±ÀåvÉAiÀÄ DZÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤µÉâü¹zÉ.
¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R): C¸Ààø±ÀåvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉÆÃUÀ¯Ár¸À®Ä ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÀÅ 1989gÀ°è ¸ÀPÁðgÀUÀ½UÉ PÉ®ªÉÇAzÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃrzÉ.
1) A ¸Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R vÀ¥ÀàÅ.
2) A vÀ¥ÀàÅ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R ¸Àj.
3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R, EzÀÄ A UÉ ÀA§A¢ü¹zÉ.
4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R JgÀqÀÆ Àj ªÀÄvÀÄÛ R, EzÀÄ A UÉ ÀA§A¢ü¹®è.
34
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)71. A set of four sentences related to
Globalisation is given. Choose the correct option:A. Globalisation creates free trade
zone by removing the import and export duties.
B. Globalisation creates international agreements.
C. Globalisation fight out child labour and slavery.
D. G l o b a l i s a t i o n p r o m o t e s specialization in production.
1) Only A, B and D are correct
2) Only A, B and C are correct
3) Only A is correct
4) Only C is correct
72. The purpose of Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is:A. To ensure access to financial
services in nationalised banks.B. To help every rural citizen to open
bank account.C. To provide loan for smal l
businessmen / start ups from 50,000 to 10 Lakh.
D. To provide life insurance to all citizens between the age of 18 to 50 years.
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
71. eÁUÀwÃPÀgÀtPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ £Á®ÄÌ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
A. eÁUÀwÃPÀgÀtªÀÅ DªÀÄzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄ Û gÀ¥s À Û Å ¸ÀÄAPÀUÀ¼À ¤ªÀÄÆð®£É ªÀiÁr ªÀÄÄPÀÛ ªÁå¥ÁgÀ ªÀ®AiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÀȶָÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
B. eÁU Àw ÃP À g Àtª À Å CAv À g À g Á¶ Ö ç à A i À Ä M¥ÀàAzÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß K¥Àðr¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
C. eÁUÀwÃP Àg ÀtªÀ Å U ÀįÁªÀÄVj ºÁUÀÆ ¨Á®PÁ«ÄðPÀ ¥ÀzÀÞwUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀÄÆð®-£ÉUÉƽ¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
D. eÁUÀwÃPÀgÀtªÀÅ GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¥Áæ«ÃtåvÉ-AiÀÄ£ÀÄß GvÉÛÃf¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
1) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
2) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
3) A ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
4) C ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
72. ¥ÀæzsÁ£À ªÀÄAwæ ªÀÄÄzÁæ AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ GzÉÝñÀ:
A. gÁ¶ÖçÃPÀÈvÀ ÁåAPïUÀ¼À°è ºÀtPÁ¹£À ÉêÉUÀÀ¼ÀÄ ®¨sÀå«gÀĪÀAvÉ £ÉÆÃrPÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ.
B. UÁæ«ÄÃt ¥ÀæzÉñÀzÀ J®è £ÁUÀjÃPÀgÀÄ ¨ÁåAPï SÁvÉ vÉgÉAiÀÄĪÀAvÉ ¸ÀºÁAiÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
C. ÀtÚ / ºÉÆ ÀzÁV GzÀåªÀÄ DgÀA©ü ÀĪÀªÀjUÉ 50,000 jAzÀ 10 ®PÀëzÀªÀgÉUÉ ¸Á® ¸Ë®¨sÀå MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
D. 18 jAzÀ 50 gÀ ªÀAiÉÆêÀiÁ£ÀzÀ J®è £ÁUÀjÃPÀjUÉ fêÀ«ªÀiÁ ¸Ë®¨s À åªÀ£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
35
73. Gender inequality index (GII) is calculated at the international level by one of the following agencies:
A. U.N.D.P
B. UNICEF
C. UN’s General Assembly
D. UNESCO
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
74. The main aim of 73rd amendment of the constitution in 1993 with respect to Panchayatraj system is:
A. Centralization of power and re spons ib i l i t i e s o f v i l l age administration.
B. Abolition of special powers of village administration.
C. D e c e n t r a l i z e a n d c o n f e r constitutional status to the panchayat institutions.
D. To bring village administration under the direct control of state.
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
73. CAvÀgÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ªÀÄlÖzÀ°è °AUÀ C¸ÀªÀiÁ£ÀvÉAiÀÄ
C£ÀĸÀÆaAiÀÄ£ÀÄß(GII) ¯ÉPÀÌ ºÁPÀĪÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ:
A. AiÀÄÄ.J£ï.r.¦
B. AiÀÄĤ¸É¥sï
C. AiÀÄÄ.J£ï. £À ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ¸À¨sÉ
D. AiÀÄģɸÉÆÌÃ
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
74. ¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvï gÁeï ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ
1993gÀ ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ 73£Éà wzÀÄÝ¥ÀrAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄRå
GzÉÝñÀ:
A. UÁæ«ÄÃt DqÀ½vÀ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ C¢üPÁgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀÄ PÉÃA¢æÃPÀgÀt.
B. UÁæ«ÄÃt DqÀ½vÀzÀ «±ÉõÀ C¢üPÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß
vÉUÉzÀĺÁPÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
C. «PÉÃA¢æÃPÀgÀtzÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvïgÁeï
¸ ÀA¸ É ÜU À½U É ¸ÁA«zsÁ¤P À ¸Á Ü£ Àª ÀiÁ£ À
¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
D. UÁæªÀÄ ¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß gÁdå ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ
£ÉÃgÀ »rvÀPÉÌ vÀgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
36
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)75. Statement (A): Foreign direct
investment is an investment of foreign assets into domestic structures, equipment and organisations:
Reason (R): FDI does not include foreign investment into the stock markets.
1) ‘A’ is wrong ‘R’ is correct
2) ‘A’ and ‘R’ both are wrong
3) Only ‘A’ is correct
4) ‘A’ is correct, ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
76. The two Nationalised banks logos are given. Identify the correct option that matches.
A. Syndicate Bank and Canara Bank.B. Canara Bank and Punjab National
Bank.C. Canara Bank and State Bank of
India.D. State bank of India and H.D.F.C
bank
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
75. ºÉýPÉ (A): «zÉò £ÉÃgÀ ºÀÆrPÉAiÀÄÄ «zÉò §AqÀªÁ¼ÀªÀ£ÀÄß zÉòAiÀÄ gÀZÀ£É, ¸ÀgÀPÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ¼À°è ºÀÆrPÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ JA§ÄzÁVzÉ.
¸ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R): «zÉò £ÉÃgÀ ºÀÆrPÉ µÉÃgÀÄ ªÀiÁg ÀÄP Àm É ÖAi À Ä° è£ À «zÉò ºÀÆrPÉAi À Ä£ ÀÄ ß M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀĪÀÅ¢®è:
1) ‘A’ vÀ¥ÀàÅ ‘R’ ¸Àj
2) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆ vÀ¥ÀàÅ
3) ‘A’ ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj
4) ‘A’ ¸Àj, ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ AiÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
76. JgÀqÀÄ gÁ¶ÖçÃPÀÈvÀ ¨ÁåAPÀÄUÀ¼À ¯ÉÆÃUÉÆÃUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. ºÉÆA¢PÉAi ÀiÁUÀĪÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
A. ¹ArPÉÃmï ¨ÁåAPï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÉ£ÀgÁ ¨ÁåAPï.
B. PÉ£ÀgÁ ¨ÁåAPï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀAeÁ¨ï £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï ¨ÁåAPï.
C. PÉ£ÀgÁ ¨ÁåAPï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉÖÃmï ¨ÁåAPï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ.
D. ¸É ÖÃmï ¨ÁåAPï D¥sï EArAiÀiÁ ªÀÄvÀÄ Û ºÉZï.r.J¥sï.¹ ¨ÁåAPï
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
37
77. Assertion (A): The private sector consists of business owned by individuals or a group of individuals :
Reason (R): The private sector may either be partly or wholly owned by the central or state government as per 1991 industrial policy.
1) ‘A’ is right, ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
2) ‘A’ is right, ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’.
3) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are wrong.
4) Only ‘A’ is wrong.
78. One of the privileges of a private limited company is given. Choose the option which is related to it:
A. A private company can be formed by only two members.
B. Need to issue a prospectus as public is invited to subscribe to shares.
C. It is mandatory to keep an index of members in private company.
D. Allotment of shares cannot be done without receiving the minimum subscription.
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
77. º É Ã½P É (A): SÁ¸ÀV ª À®Ai À Ī À Å ª À åQ ÛU À¼ À
CxÀªÁ ªÀåQÛUÀ¼À ¸ÀªÀÄƺÀzÀ ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀvÀézÀ°ègÀĪÀ
ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À£ÉÆß¼ÀUÉÆArzÉ :
ÀªÀÄxÀð£É (R): 1991 gÀ PÉÊUÁjPÁ ¤ÃwAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ,
SÁ ÀV ªÀ®AiÀĪÀÅ, PÉÃAzÀæ CxÀªÁ gÁdå ÀPÁðgÀUÀ¼À
sÁUÀ±ÀB CxÀªÁ ¥ÀÇtð MqÉvÀ£ÀPÉÌ M¼À¥ÀqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
1) ‘A’ ¸Àj, ‘R’ À EzÀÄ ‘A’ £À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
«ªÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
2) ‘A’ ¸Àj, ‘R’ EzÀÄ ‘A’ £À ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
«ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ®è.
3) ‘A’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘R’ JgÀqÀÆvÀ¥ÀàÅ.
4) ‘A’ ªÀiÁvÀævÀ¥ÀàÅ.
78. SÁ¸ÀV °«ÄmÉqï PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¸Ë®¨sÀåªÀ£ÀÄß
¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. CzÀPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌ
UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. PÉêÀ® E§âgÀÄ ÀzÀ ÀåjAzÀ SÁ ÀV PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ£ÀÄß
DgÀA©ü¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
B. µÉÃgÀÄUÀ½UÉ ªÀAwUÉ ¤ÃqÀ®Ä ÁªÀðd¤PÀgÀ£ÀÄß
DºÁé¤ ÀĪÀ PÁgÀt, CzÀÄ ¥ÀjZÀAiÀÄ ¥ÀvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß
¤ÃqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
C. ÀzÀ ÀågÀ ÀÆaAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV EqÀ ÉÃPÁzÀ
CªÀ±ÀåPÀvÉ EzÉ.
D. PÀ¤µÀÖ ªÀAwUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄzÉà SÁ¸ÀV
PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ µÉÃgÀÄUÀ¼À ºÀAaPÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀAw®è
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
38
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)79. The benefits of e-banking are listed.
Choose the wrong statement:A. Customers of e-bank can make
some permitted transaction from office or house.
B. e-banking inculcates a sense of financial discipline by recording each and every transaction.
C. Unlimited access to the bank by the customers.
D. It allows customers to transact only with the government.
1) A 2) B
3) C 4) D
80. Observe the picture and find the suitable statement related to the person:
A. She is called the ‘Queen of Indian television sector’.
B. The founder chairman of JET Airways.
C. The founder of Apollo hospitals.D. Chairman and managing director
of Biocon ltd.
1) A and B only
2) B only
3) C and D only
4) D only
79. E-¨ÁåAQAUï£À C£ÀÄPÀÆ®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀnÖ ªÀiÁqÀ ÁVzÉ. vÀ¥ÁàVgÀĪÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹:
A. E-¨ÁåAQ£À UÁæºÀPÀgÀÄ PÉ®ªÉÇAzÀÄ ¸ÀÆavÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÀªÀÄä PÀbÉÃj CxÀªÁ ªÀģɬÄAzÀ¯Éà ¤ªÀð»¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
B. E-¨ÁåAPï ¥ÀæwAiÉÆAzÀÄ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß zÁR°¸ÀĪ À Åz ÀjAz À DyðP À ²¸ À Û£ À Ä ß C¼ÀªÀr¸À®Ä ¸ÀºÀPÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
C. UÁæºÀPÀjAzÀ ¨ÁåAPï£ÉÆA¢UÉ C¥Àj«ÄvÀ ªÀåªÀºÁgÀ ¸ÁzsÀåªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
D. EzÀÄ PÉêÀ® ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÉÆA¢UÉ ªÀiÁvÀ æ ªÀåªÀºÀj ÀĪÀAvÉ UÁæºÀPÀjUÉ CªÀPÁ±À PÀ°à ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
1) A 2) B
3) C 4) D
80. avÀæªÀ£ÀÄß UÀªÀĤ¹ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ avÀæzÀ°ègÀĪÀ ªÀåQÛUÉ ¸ÀjºÉÆAzÀĪÀ ºÉýPÉ Dj¹:
A. FPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ zÀÆgÀzÀ±Àð£À PÉëÃvÀæzÀ°è `C¢ü¥ÀvÀå Á¢ü¹zÀ gÁtÂ’ JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀįÁVzÉ.
B. ‘eÉmï KgïªÉÃ¸ï’ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀ CzsÀåPÀëgÁVzÁÝgÉ.
C. C¥ÉÇïÉÆà D¸ÀàvÉæUÀ¼À ¸ÀA¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀgÁVzÁÝgÉ.
D. §AiÉÆÃPÁ£ï ¤UÀªÀÄzÀ CzsÀåPÀëgÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DqÀ½vÀ ¤zÉðñÀPÀgÁVzÁÝgÉ.
1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ªÀiÁvÀæ
2) B ªÀiÁvÀæ
3) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ
4) D ªÀiÁvÀæ
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
39
MATHEMATICS
81. If the zeros of polynomial f(x)=x3-3x2+m are in Arithmetic
Progression then the value of ‘m’ is: 1) 3 2) 2 3) -3 4) -2
82. The Least Common Multiple (LCM) and the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two numbers are 168 and 12 respectively. If the sum of those two numbers is 108, find the difference between them:
1) 36 2) 40 3) 60 4) 64
83. MNO is an isosceles triangle where MN MO= . A circle through the vertex ‘N’ touches side ‘ MO ’ at its middle point ‘P’ and intersects sideMN at point ‘A’. If AM 3cm= then the length of MO is:
M
P
ON
A
1) 6 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 15 cm
UÀtÂvÀ
81. §ºÀÄ ¥ÀzÉÆÃQÛ f(x)=x3-3x2+m £À ±ÀÆ£ÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀªÀiÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉæÃrüAiÀÄ°èzÀÝgÉ, DUÀ ‘m’ £À ¨É¯É :
1) 3 2) 2 3) -3 4) -2
82. JgÀqÀÄ ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ®WÀÄvÀÛªÀÄ ÁªÀiÁ£Àå C¥ÀªÀvÀåðªÀÅ (®¸ÁC) 168 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CªÀÅUÀ¼À ªÀĺÀvÀÛªÀÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå C¥ÀªÀvÀð£ÀªÀÅ (ªÀĸÁC) 12 DVzÀÄÝ D ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ªÉÆvÀÛ 108 DzÀgÉ, CªÀÅUÀ¼À £ÀqÀÄ«£À ªÀåvÁå¸ÀªÀÅ:
1) 36 2) 40 3) 60 4) 64
83. MNO ¸ÀªÀÄ¢é¨ÁºÀÄ wæ¨s À ÄdzÀ°èMN MO= . ±ÀÈAUÀ ‘N’ £À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ºÁzÀÄ ºÉÆÃUÀĪÀAvÉ ‘ MO ’£À ªÀÄzsÀå ©AzÀÄ ‘P’ £À°è Àà²ð ÀĪÀAvÉ MN £ÀÄß ‘A’ £À°è bÉâ ÀĪÀAvÉ ªÀÈvÀÛªÀ£ÀÄß J¼ÉAiÀįÁVzÉ. AM 3cm= DzÀgÉ MO £À GzÀÝ:
M
P
ON
A
1) 6 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 15 cm
40
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)84. In ∆ PQR, PQR 90
0= and QS PR= .The true relation among the following:
P
Q
S
R
A) 2QS = PS × SR
B) 2PQ = RS × PR
C) 2QR = PS × SR
D) PQ QR QS PR× = ×
1) Only A
2) Only A and B
3) Only A and C
4) Only A and D
85. If the area of the triangle formed by joining the points (o, a), (-a, o) and (a, o) is 16a cm2, then the value of ‘a’ is:
1) 16 cm
2) 8 cm
3) 4 cm
4) 2 cm
84. ∆PQR £À°è PQR 900= ªÀÄvÀÄ Û QS PR= .
DzÀgÉ PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ¸ÀA§AzsÀªÀÅ:
P
Q
S
R
A) 2QS = PS × SR
B) 2PQ = RS × PR
C) 2QR = PS × SR
D) PQ QR QS PR× = ×
1) PÉêÀ®A
2) PÉêÀ®A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
3) PÉêÀ®A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
4) PÉêÀ®A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
85. (o, a), (-a, o) ªÀÄvÀÄ Û (a, o) ©AzÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¸ÉÃj¹zÁUÀ GAmÁUÀĪÀ wæ¨s ÀÄdzÀ «¹ÛÃtð
16a cm2 DzÀgÉ, ‘a’ £À ¨É¯É:
1) 16 cm
2) 8 cm
3) 4 cm
4) 2 cm
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
41
86. The interior angles of a polygon are in an Arithmetic Progression and the common difference is 10. If the biggest exterior angle is 850, then the number of sides of the polygon will be:
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
87. If A (0, 7), B (-6, 0) and C (0, -4) are the vertices of ∆ABC, then the distance from centroid of ∆ABC to vertex ‘A’ is:
1) 40
2) 32
3) 68
4) 60
88. Following two statements speak about
Arithmetic Progression. Statement (A) : In an Arithmetic
Progression series:
20+191
3+18
2
3+......................... 25 terms is 300
Statement (B) : In an Arithmetic Progression series :
20+191
3+18
2
3+......................... terms is 30036
Pick the correct option from below:
1) Only statement A is True 2) Only statement B is true 3) Both the statements are true 4) Both the statements are false
86. §ºÀĨsÀÄeÁPÀÈwAiÀÄ M¼ÀPÉÆãÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀªÀiÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉæÃrüAiÀÄ°èzÀÄÝ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£Àå ªÀåvÁå¸ÀªÀÅ 10 DVzÀÄÝ CvÀåAvÀ zÉÆqÀØ ºÉÆgÀ PÉÆãÀ 850 DzÀgÉ, §ºÀĨsÀÄeÁPÀÈwAiÀÄ ¨ÁºÀÄUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉå:
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
87. A (0, 7), B (-6, 0) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C (0, -4) ©AzÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ∆ABC AiÀÄ ±ÀÈAUÀUÀ¼ÀÄ. ∆ABC AiÀÄ UÀÄgÀÄvÀé PÉÃAzÀæ¢AzÀ ±ÀÈAUÀ ‘A’ UÉ EgÀĪÀ zÀÆgÀ:
1) 40
2) 32
3) 68
4) 60
88. PɼÀV£À JgÀqÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀªÀiÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉæÃrüAiÀÄ PÀÄjvÁVªÉ.
ºÉýPÉ (A) : ¸ÀªÀiÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉæÃrüAiÀÄ°è
20 + 19 31 + 18 3
2 + ......... 25 terms = 300¥ÀzÀUÀ¼ÀÄ = 300
ºÉýPÉ (B) : ¸ÀªÀiÁAvÀgÀ ±ÉæÃrüAiÀÄ°è
¥ÀzÀUÀ¼ÀÄ = 30020 + 19 31 + 18 3
2 + .........36 terms = 300
PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß Dj¹:
1) ºÉýPÉA ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj 2) ºÉýPÉB ªÀiÁvÀæ ¸Àj 3) JgÀqÀÆ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀĸÀj 4) JgÀqÀÆ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄvÀ¥ÀÄà
42
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)89. The product of mean and median of
first five prime numbers is:
1) 54.6
2) 28
3) 27
4) 10.8
90. If the difference between sum of the roots and product of the roots of a quadratic equation (ax)2+bx+c=0 (where a≠0) is ‘zero’, then:
1) - b + c = 0
2) b + c = 0
3) a2 - b + c = 0
4) a2 + b + c = 0
91. If Sin 520. cosec (900 - 2A) =1, then the measure of angle ‘A’ is:
1) 190
2) 260
3) 380
4) 520
89. ªÉÆzÀ® 5 C«¨sÁdå ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ÀgÁ¸Àj (mean) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄzsÁåAPÀ (median) UÀ¼À UÀÄt®§ÝªÀÅ:
1) 54.6
2) 28
3) 27
4) 10.8
90. ªÀUÀð ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀt (ax)2+bx+c=0 (a≠0) £À ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼À ªÉÆvÀÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÄÆ®UÀ¼À UÀÄt®§ÞUÀ¼À
ªÀåvÁå¸À ‘¸ÉÆ£Éß’ DzÀgÉ, DUÀ:
1) - b + c = 0
2) b + c = 0
3) a2 - b + c = 0
4) a2 + b + c = 0
91. Sin 520. cosec (900 - 2A) =1, DzÀgÉ DUÀ
PÉÆãÀ ‘A’ £À C¼ÀvÉ:
1) 190
2) 260
3) 380
4) 520
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
43
92. The value of ‘x’ and ‘y’ for the linear equations:
a1 x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 are
1) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a b
1 1 1 2
1 2 2 1
1 2 1
1
c2
22 1 1 - a b
x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a b
1 1 1 2
1 2 2 1
1 2 1
1
c2
22 1 1 - a b
2) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a
2 2 1
1 2 2 1
1 2 1
1
1 2c
b - a b2 2 1
3) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a
2 1 2
2 1 1 2
1 1 1
2
1 2c
b - a b1 1 2
4) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a
1 2 1
1 2 2 1
1 2 1
1
2 2c
b - a b2 2 1
93. If (sinθ + tanθ) = a and (tanθ - sinθ) = b then, a2 - b2 =
1) ab
2) 2 ab
3) 4ab
4) 4 ab
92. F PɼÀV£À gÉÃSÁvÀäPÀ ¸À«ÄÃPÀgÀtUÀ¼À°è ‘x’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ‘y’ £À ¨É¯É
a1 x + b1y + c1 = 0 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ a2x + b2y + c2 = 0
1) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a b
1 1 1 2
1 2 2 1
1 2 1
1
c2
22 1 1 - a b
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
2) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a
2 2 1
1 2 2 1
1 2 1
1
1 2c
b - a b2 2 1
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
3) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a
2 1 2
2 1 1 2
1 1 1
2
1 2c
b - a b1 1 2
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
4) x = b c - b c
a b - a band y =
a - c a
a
1 2 1
1 2 2 1
1 2 1
1
2 2c
b - a b2 2 1
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
93. (sinθ + tanθ) = a ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (tanθ - sinθ) = b DzÀgÉ, a2 - b2 =
1) ab
2) 2 ab
3) 4ab
4) 4 ab
44
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)94. ‘O’ is the centre of the circle. The area
of the shaded region in the given figure is 126 cm2, PQ PR= then the diameter QR is:
P
RQO
1) 21cm
2) 21 2 cm
3) 7 cm
4) 7 2 cm
95. The radius of a solid right circular cone increases by 20% and its height decreases by 20%. The percentage change in its volume is:
1) 15.2 %
2) 20 %
3) 25.2 %
4) 30 %
94. PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ avÀæzÀ°è ‘O’ ªÀÈvÀÛPÉÃAzÀæ. bÁAiÉÄUÉƽ¹zÀ sÁUÀzÀ «¹ÛÃtð 126 cm2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PQ PR= DzÀgÉ
QR £À ªÁå¸ÀªÀÅ:
P
RQO
1) 21cm
2) 21 2 cm
3) 7 cm
4) 7 2 cm
95. £ÉÃgÀ ªÀÈvÀ ¥ÁzÀ ±ÀAPÀÄ«£À wædåªÀÅ 20% ºÉZÁÑVzÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CzÀgÀ JvÀÛgÀªÀÅ 20% PÀrªÉÄAiÀiÁVzÉ. ºÁUÁzÀgÉ CzÀgÀ UÁvÀæÀzÀ¯ÁèUÀĪÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÁ §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉAiÀÄÄ:
1) 15.2 %
2) 20 %
3) 25.2 %
4) 30 %
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
45
96. ‘h’ «ÄÃlgï JvÀÛgÀzÀ PÀlÖqÀ ªÉÄð£À MAzÀÄ ©AzÀÄ«¤AzÀ UÉÆÃ¥ÀÄgÀzÀ ªÉÄîÄÛ¢UÉ G£ÀßvÀ PÉÆãÀªÀÅ ‘α ’ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DzÀgÀ ¥ÁzÀPÉÌ CªÀ£ÀvÀ PÉÆãÀªÀÅ ‘β’ DVzÉ. UÉÆÃ¥ÀÄgÀzÀ JvÀÛgÀªÀÅ:
1) tan bh + (tan a + tan b)
2) h (tan + tan )
tan
α ββ
3)h tan ( + )
tan
α ββ
4)h + tan ( + )
tan
α ββ
97. MAzÀÄ ªÀUÀðzÀ ¸ÀÄvÀÛ¼ÀvÉAiÀÄÄ ªÀÈvÀÛªÉÇAzÀgÀ ¥Àj¢üUÉ
¸ÀªÀĪÁzÀgÉ, ªÀUÀðzÀ «¹ÛÃtð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀÈvÀ ÛzÀ
«¹ÛÃtðUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÀÅ:
1) 14 : 11
2) 22 : 7
3) 11 : 14
4) 7 : 22
96. From the top of a building of height ‘h’ meter, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is ‘α ’ and angle of depression of the foot of the tower is ‘β’. The height of the tower is:
1) tan bh + (tan a + tan b)
2) h (tan + tan )
tan
α ββ
3)h tan ( + )
tan
α ββ
4)h + tan ( + )
tan
α ββ
97. The perimeter of a square is found to be equal to the circumference of a circle. The ratio of the area of that square to the area of that circle would be:
1) 14 : 11
2) 22 : 7
3) 11 : 14
4) 7 : 22
46
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)98. A metal cube is completely submerged
in a cylindrical vessel containing water.
The diameter of the vessel is 30cm, the
level of water is raised by . The
length of the edge of the cube is:
1) 40 cm
2) 30 cm
3) 20 cm
4) 10 cm
99. In trapezium PQRS, PQ||RS and its diagonals intersect at ‘O’. If PQ = 6cm and RS = 3cm then the ratio of the areas of ∆POQ and ∆ROS is:
1) 4 : 1
2) 1 : 2
3) 2 : 1
4) 1 : 4
98. ªÁå¸À 30cm ºÉÆA¢gÀĪÀ ¹°AqÀgï DPÁgÀzÀ ¤ÃjgÀĪÀ
¥ÁvÉæAiÀÄ°è PÀ©âtzÀ WÀ£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆtðªÁV ªÀÄļÀÄV¹zÁUÀ
¥ÁvÉæAiÀÄ°è£À ¤Ãj£À ªÀÄlÖªÀÅ ºÉZÁѬÄvÀÄ.
ºÁUÁzÀgÉ PÀ©âtzÀ WÀ£ÀzÀ CAa£À GzÀÝ:
1) 40 cm
2) 30 cm
3) 20 cm
4) 10 cm
99. PQRS vÁæ¦dåzÀ°è PQ||RS PÀtðUÀ¼ÀÄ ‘O’ £À°è ¥ÀgÀ¸ÀàgÀ bÉâ¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ. PQ = 6cm ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
RS = 3cm DzÀgÉ, ∆POQ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ∆ROS £À «¹ÛÃtðUÀ¼À C£ÀÄ¥ÁvÀªÀÅ:
1) 4 : 1
2) 1 : 2
3) 2 : 1
4) 1 : 4
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)
47
100. The table below shows the value of probability when three identical coins are tossed. They are not matched correctly:
Column-A Column-B
i) Getting at most two heads a)8
4
ii) Getting at least two heads b) 8
5
iii) Getting exactly one head c)8
6
iv) Getting neither all heads nor all tails
d) 83
e) 78
Match the columns correctly:
1) i - e, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
2) i - d, ii - b, iii - a, iv - e
3) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - e
4) i - e, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c
100. Pɼ ÀV£À ¥ÀnÖAi ÀÄÄ ªÀÄÆgÀÄ MAzÉà jÃwAiÀÄ £ÁtåUÀ¼À£ÀÄß a«ÄäzÁUÀ §gÀĪÀ ¸ÀA¨sÀªÀ¤ÃAiÀÄvÉAiÀÄ ¨É¯ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÀÆa¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ. CªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV ºÉÆA¢¹gÀĪÀÅ¢®è:
¸ÀÛA¨sÀ-A ¸ÀÛA¨sÀ-B
i) UÀjµÀ× JgÀqÀÄ ²gÀ ªÉÄîPȨ́gÀĪÀ
a)8
4
ii) PÀ¤µÀ× JgÀqÀÄ ²gÀ ªÉÄîPȨ́gÀĪÀ
b) 8
5
iii) ¤¢ðµÀÖªÁVMAzÀIJgÀªÉÄïɧgÀĪÀ
c)8
6
iv) J®èªÀÇ ²gÀUÀ¼Éà §gÀ¢gÀĪÀCxÀªÁ J®èªÀÇ ¨Á®UÀ¼ÉçgÀ¢gÀĪÀ
d) 83
e) 78
¸ÀÛA¨sÀ ¸Á®ÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹j:
1) i - e, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
2) i - d, ii - b, iii - a, iv - e
3) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - e
4) i - e, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c
48
NTSE-SAT-P2 (K-10)Rough Work / PÀZÁÑ PÁAiÀÄð
