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MODEL QUESTION
Bank PO General Awareness
1. Name the Canadi an member of Parliament of Indian origin who created a flutter in India as well as Punjabi diaspora by introducing a petition in Canadian Parliament for recognising 1984 anti-Sikh riots as"Sikh genocide" in June 2010 and who is now carrying same appealback home. 1) SukhDhaliwal 2) Keith Vaz 3) Ujjawal Dosanjh 4) Rahim Jaffer 5) None of these
2. Name the governor of Pakistan's Punjab province who was shot dead by his own bodyguard recently. 1) Rana Muhammad Iqbal 2) Salman Taseer 3)Zulnkar AliMagsi 4)RajaZulqarnainKhan 5) None of these
3. The current Statutory Liquidity Rratio (SLR) is 1)25% 2)24% 3)23% 4)22% 5) None of these
4. Who among the following has made India's largest public offering of Rs 15,200 cr? 1) BHEL 2) NTPC 3) Coal India 4) Indian Oil Corporation 5) None of these
5. Who among the following has been appointed as the head of the expert group on facilitation of public private partnership (PPP) in power distribution? 1) Yash Pal 2) Shashank Munohar 3) Aran Ramanathan 4) BK Chaturvedi 5) None of these
6. Who has been appointed as the head of the committee on financing of infrastructure? The committee would suggest steps for improving capital market for garnering long-term savings and facilitating foreign investment flow. 1) Rakesh Mohan 2) Shyamala Gopinath 3)DrKCChakrabarty 4)Dr SubirGokarn 5) None of these
7. Which of the following is not a sports term? 1) Kick 2) Basis point 3) Bully 4) Match point 5) Back foot
8. G-20 summit in 2011 will be held in 1) Mexico City (Mexico) 2) London (UK) 3) Cannes (France) 4) Beijing (China) 5) None of these
9. Who has been appointed as the head of working group on agriculture constituted by the Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh which has suggested that the govt provide farm loans to farmers at an interest rate of four per cent, raise the minimum support price for farm
produce and expand diesel subsidy scheme across the country? l)DrAVdyanathan 2) Prof Manmohan Sharma 3) Ashok Chawla 4) Bhupinder Singh Hooda 5) None of these
10. The Centre has approved additional capital infusion of `6,000 cr in 10 public sector banks with an objective to raise its holding to a minimum of in all state-run banks. 1)51% 2)55% 3)58% 4)61% 5) None of these
11. The govt had announced infusion `15,000 cr in the Budget 2010-11 to ensure that the capital adequacy ratio (CAR) of all the public sector banks increase to 1)7% 2)9% 3)10% 4) 12% 5) None of these
12. Which of the following committees of has been set up to study the issues and concerns of the micro finance institutions (MFIs)? 1) Lakshmi Chand Committee 2) YH Malegam Committee 3) Prof Suresh D Tendulkar Committee 4) Prof UR Rao Committee 5) None of these
13. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said that it would conduct open market operation (OMO) auctions for purchase of govt securities for an aggregate amount of
in Jan 2011 to ensure liquidity in the system. l)`12,000cr 2)`24,000cr 3)`36,000cr 4)`48,000cr 5) None of these
14. Name the country with which state-run Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) announced that its power subsidiary ONGC Tripura Power (OTPC) has inked a memorandum of understanding of understanding (MoU) to open up a new transport corridor for transporting heavy equipment for its plant in Tripura. l)Myanmar 2) Bangladesh 3) Bhutan 4) Nepal 5) None of these
15. The market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) mandated all listed companies to disclose within days any change in their shareholding pattern, and forms coming out with public offer will have to inform the same one day before going public. 1)10 2)15 3)20 4)25 5) None of these
16. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has recommended setting up a 'National Broadband Network' at a cost of `60,000 cr to achieve 16 cr broadband
connections by 1)2012 2)2014 3)2016 4)2018 5) None of these
17. As a New Year gift to Buddhist pilgrims, the govt has decided to extend visa-on-arrival (VoA) facility to five ASEAN countries from Jan 1, 2011. Which of the following is not among them? 1) Cambodia 2) Indonesia 3) Philippines 4) Vietnam 5)Myanmar
18. According to the Election Commission, how many national parties are there in the country? 1)6 2)8 3)10 4)12 5) None of these
19. Tejas is 1) anti-tank missile 2) surface-to-air missile 3) light combat aircraft 4) civilian aircraft 5) None of these
20. Name the committee on the proposed food security bill which has favoured legal entitlement of subsidised foodgrains to the poor (below the poverty line), but has rejected the National Advisory Council's recommendation that above the poverty line (APL) households be partially covered, saying it is not feasible at the current levels of grain production and procurement. 1) Rakesh Mohan Committee 2) Naresh Chandra Committee 3) Usha Thorat Committee 4) C Rangarajan Committee 5) None of these
21. Name the country in which govt has fallen after eleven cabinet ministers belonging to Hizbollah and its allies resigned on Jan 12 over the international investigation on the 2005 assassination of the former prime minister Rafik Hariri. l)Iran 2) Iraq 3) Lebanon, 4) Oman 5) None of these
22. The daughter or Sikh immigrants from Punjab, Indian-American Namrata "Nikki" Randhawa Haley, proudly recollected her Indian heritage while being sworn in as the first woman and non-white Governor of 1) South Carolina 2) Ohio 3) California 4) Massachusetts5) None of these
23. The annual India-European Union (EU) summit in 2010 was held in 1) Brussels 2) Paris 3) London 4) Geneva 5) None of these
24. What amount has Wipro Chairman Azim Premji donated towards educating the rural poor? l)`2,230cr 2)`3,43()cr 3)`5,672cr 4) `8,846 cr 5) None of these
25. Who has succeeded Richard Holbrooke as the special envoy of US President Barack Obnma for Afghanistan and Pakistan? 1) Ali Triki 2)Koichiro Matsuura 3) Frank Ruggiero 4) Helien Clerk
5) None of these 26. Name the promoter of Jaipur Foot who has been
honoured by the Philippine Parliament. 1) VR Mehta 2) Som Mittal 3) Pramod Bhasin 4) NM Boro 5) None of these
27. Name the chief executive officer of Prasar Bharati who has been suspended on charges of irregulatities. l)VinodRai 2)MVNair 3)BSLalli 4) Ranjan Mittal 5) None of these
28. Parimarjan Negi is associated with 1) Football 2) Athletics 3) Badminton 4) Chess 5) None of these
29. Name the former chief minister of Kerala who died recently. 1) ESL Narasimhan 2) VS Achutanandan 3) BS Yeddyurappa 4) K Karunakaran 5) None of these
30. Who has been appointed as the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)? 1) AP Singh 2) Kamlesh Sharma 3) Sanjeev Tripathi 4) Dr Sheekant Sharma 5) None of these
31. Who is the author of the book Jawaharlal Nehru: Civilizing a Savage World? 1) Aran Shourie 2) Nayantara Sahgal 3) RK Narayan 4) Namita Gokhale 5) None of these
32. Who is the author of the book My Life With Taliban? 1) Abdul Salam Zaeef 2) Mulla Omar 3) Mullah Sadiq 4) Mohammad Yaqub 5) None of these
33. Surendra Mohan, who died recently, was a 1) Theatre personality 2) Socialist thinker and activist 3) Painter 4) Sportsman 5) Journalist
34. Which of the following states is associated with Ladli Laxmi scheme? 1)UP 2) MP 3) Chhattisgarh 4) Delhi 5) None of these
35. Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of l)Iraq 2) Pakistan 3) Iran 4) Tunisia 5) None of these
36. Name the first batsman to notch up 50 Test hundreds. 1) Duncan Fletcher 2) Ricky Ponting 3) Virender Sehwag 4) Sachin Tendulkar 5) None of these
37. Who has been named Time magazine's 2010 Person of the year? 1) Julian Assange 2) Mark Zuckerburg 5) Wen Jiabao 4) Barack Obama 5) None of the
38. Who among the following has been ranked World No. 1 badminton player?
l)WangShixian 2) SainaNehwal 3)WangXin 4) Han Jin 5) None of these
39. Name the team which has won the Col CK Nayudu under-22 all India cricket tournament. 1)UP 2)Baroda 3) Hyderabad 4) Mumbai 5) None of these
40. Who among the following is the main accused in the estimated `400-cr fraud at Citibank's Gurgaonbranch? 1) Shivraj Puri 2) Vikram Pandit 3) Hardeep Puri 4) Shivaji Batra 5) None of these
41. Name the country in which govt has been dismissed and parliament dissolved under sweeping protests against spiralling food prices. 1) Tunisia 2) Algeria 3) Morocco 4) Namibia 5) None of these
42. Name the Tunisian President who has said that he would step down from his post in 2014 and push for greater freedoms and reforms. l)Omaral-Bashir 2) Zine al-Abidine Ben Ali 3) Qaboos bin Said al Said 4) Bashar al Assad 5) None of these
43. In which of the following country more than 500 people were killed in mudslips recently? 1) Panama 2) Paraguay 3) Brazil 4) Peru 5) None of these
44. Name the pilgrimage centre where more than 100 people died in a stampede on Jan 15. 1) Shirdi 2) Sabrimala 3) Rameshwaram 4) Badrinath 5) None of these
45. Who among the following is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification (CBFC)? 1) Sharmila Tagore 2) Shabana Azmi 3)NafisaAli 4)OmPuri 5) None of these
46. Which of the following has won the Ranji Trophy title after defeating hosts Baroda on basis of their first innings lead in the final in Vadodara? 1) Delhi 2) Rajasthan 3) UP 4) Punjab 5) None of these
47. National Youth Day is observed on l)Jan5 2) Jan 7 3) Jan 12 4) Jan 17 5) None of these
48. Buoyed by the massive growth recorded in trade between India and South Africa, and the huge potential it holds for the future, the two countries have decided to set a target of achieving $ 15 billion bilateral trade by 1)2012 2)2015 3)2017 4)2020 5) None of these
49. Name the country in which the UN ended its peace mission on Jan 15,2011. 1) Bangladesh 2) Sudan 3) Iraq 4) Nepal 5) None of these
50. Name the country in which polling centres closed their doors on Jan 15 after a week-long vote on independence from the north that could end a vicious cycle of civil war with the creation of the world's newest state. l)Nigeria 2) Sudan 3) Ivory Coast 4) Ghana 5) None of these
English Directions (Q. 51-60): Read the passage carefully and
answer the questions given below it Currency devaluation takes place when one country's
currency is reduced in value in comparison to other currencies. After currency devaluation, more of the devalued currency is required in order to purchase the same amount of other currencies. Afictional example: If last year, one US Dollar purchased 50 Indian Rupees, and this year, one US Dollar can only purchase 45 Indian Rupees, the US dollar has undergone a currency devaluation.
Currency devaluation can take two forms. It can either be the natural result of market forces, or it can the the result of government intervention. In the first scenario, the global market changes its opinion about the stability, value or future of a currency and decides that it is willing to pay less. In the second scenario, a nation's government fixes the relative price of their currency below its present level and prohibits currency exchange at any other rate.
Currency devaluation can help achieve a more desirable balance of trade. For nations experiencing a trade deficit (when imports exceed exports), a currency devaluation will reduce the price of their products abroad and increase the price of foreign products in domestic markets. Increased demand for products in other countries due to lower prices can also mean more jobs and lower unemployment rates at home.
Since its Independence in 1947, India has faced two major financial crises and two consequent devaluations of the rupee. These crises were in 1966 and l991 and they had similar causes.
The 1966 devaluation was the result of the first major financial crisis the government faced. Since 1950, India ran continued trade deficits that increased in magnitude in the 1960s. Two additional factors played a role in the 1966 devaluation. The first was India's war with Pakistan in late 1965. The second factor is the drought of 1965/1966. The sharp rise in prices in this period, which led to devaluation, is often blamed on the drought, but in 1964/1965 there was a record harvest and still, prices rose by 10%. The drought was a catalyst for, rather than a direct cause of, devaluation. Following the 1966 devaluation, the government initially liberalized its trade restrictions by reducing export subsidization and import tariffs. These actions counteracted the devaluation to some extent but even taking these policies into consideration, there was still a net devaluation.
1991 is often cited as the year of economic reform in India. Surely, the government's economic policies changed drastically in that year, but the 1991 liberalisation was an extension of earlier, albeit slower, reform efforts that had begun in the 1970s when India relaxed restrictions on imported capital goods as part of its industrialization plan.
While the devaluation of 1991 was economically necessary to avert a financial crisis, the radical changes in India's economic policies were, to some extent, undertaken voluntarily by the government of PVNarasimha Rao. In July of 1991 the Indian government devalued the rupee by between 18 and 19 per cent. 51. What is meant by currency devaluation?
1) fall in price level 2) fall of exports 3) reduction in the purchasing capacity 4) negative balance of trade 5) None of these
52. Let us suppose that the price of 1 Dollar as on 31st March 2010 was ̀ 47 but, as on 18 May 2010, `49 was required for the same. What does it mean? 1) devaluation of Dollar 2) devaluation of Rupee 3) not concerned with value of currency 4) devaluation of both the currencies 5) None of these
53. Devaluation of Indian rupee will lead to which of the following? 1) It will reduce the price of Indian products abroad. 2) It will reduce the demand of Indian products worldwide. 3) Exporters will incur loss. 4) Importers will be benefited. 5) None of these
54. What are the ways of currency devaluation? 1) mutual agreement between two countries. 2) by market forces and govt control 3) according to the instructions of the World Bank? 4) by growth of exports. 5) None of these Directions (Q. 55-59): Mark the statements) true with
reference to the passage. 55. I A govt takes resort to devaluation in the case of an
economic crisis, II.Currency devaluation helps exporters positively. 1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I & II 4) Either I or II 5) None of these
56. I. Currency devaluation may result in more employment opportunities.
II. As a result of devaluation the country will have to pay less for the imported goods.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I & II 4) Either of the two 5) None of these
57. I. India has faced two major financial crises since Independence.
II. One of the important factors that triggered the 1966 crisis was lack of foresight of the political leadership.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I & II 4) Either I or II 5) None of these
58. I. The 1966 devaluation was supported by the subsidisation of exports,
II. Introduction of import tariffs marked the 1966 crisis. 1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I & II 4) Either I or II 5) None of these
59. I. It was 1991 when the process of economic reforms was started in India.
II. Devaluation of 1991 was economically necessary to avert the financial crisis.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I & II 4) either I or II 5) None of these
60. In 1991, the Indian govt, devalued rupee by 1)18% 2)20% 3)12% 4) More than 20% 5) Not given the passage Directions (Q. 61-70): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.
The exhibition will be remembered for accuracy and 61 documentation as well as sensitive response. It is one thing to record 62 what one sees and quite another, to record it with 63 and imagination—pictorial 64 to which one can relate. He, following in the 65 of some of the all-time greats of photography, is happy with the 66 statements he makes. What 67 his work to us is its elegant 68, and smooth and unassertive 69 free from any effort for effect. He is one of those convinced "moderns" to whom photography is more visual poetry than technical 70. 61. 1) artistic 2) artesian 3) artistry
4)beautification 5) statistically 62. 1) visually 2) perfection 3) cryptically
4) awfully 5) seemingly 63. 1) foresight 2) insight 3) sight
4) foregone 5) candid 64. 1) idiom 2) caricature 3) sketch
4) outline 5) portrait 65. l)wake 2) footsteps 3) imprint
4) footprints 5) line 66. 1) audio 2) vascular 3) visual
4) sensory 5) classic 67. 1) brings 2) disarrays 3) lugs
4) endears 5) endeavour 68. 1) grace 2) casualness 3) treatise
4) complexity 5) Utopia 69. 1) treaty 2) memoirs 3) mementos
4) technique 5) clique 70. 1) jargon 2) jugglery 3) gibberish
4) wizard 5) complexion Directions (Q. 71-80): Read each sentence carefully
and detect the error which may be in any one of the parts—
1,2,3 or 4. In case of 'No error', 5 will be the answer. 71. 1) A variety of / 2) pleasant items / 3) in the shop / 4)
attract everybody. / 5) None of these 72. 1) The table's legs / 2) have been / 3) elaborately / 4)
carved. / 5) None of these 73. 1) The sceneries / 2) of Kashmir is/ 3) so charming that/4)
it attracts tourists from all over the world. / 5) None of these 74. 1)1 would appreciate / 2) if readers would / 3) write to me /
4) about how they meditate. / 5) None of these 75. 1) Neither of the / 2) two children / 3) said their prayer / 4)
before going to bed./ 5) None of these 76. 1)I sat down/2) oppositehim/3)andproduced/4)thepacket
of cigarettes. / 5) None of these 77. 1) This incident / 2) occurred/ 3) just exactly / 4) five years
ago. / 5) None of these 78. l)Rajeev smilcd when he was remembering/2) his hard early
years / 3) and his long/ 4) road to success. / 5) None of these 79. 1) The doctor advised/2) MrBawejathat/ 3)because of his
severe cramps / 4) he should lay in the bed for few days. / None of these
80. 1) Good heavens / 2) how has she / 3) grown is 4) really surprising! / 5) None of these Directions (Q. 81-85): Rearrange the following
sentences to make a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
A The government needed an adequate and a reliable statistical data for economic planning.
B. The greatest impetus was provided by the formulation of 5-year plans for the country.
C It was only after the achievement of independence that the government of India made earnest efforts to instal proper organs for the collection, publication and co-ordination of various statistical work.
D. For bringing coordination in statistical activities at various levels a statistical unit was set up at the centre which later became a Central Statistical Organisation.
E Another stimulus was provided by the growing statistical needs of various international organisations and the efforts to promote statistical standards for international comparability.
81. Which should be the THIRD sentence? 1)E 2)C 3)D 4)A 5)B
82. Which should form the FIFTH sentence? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
83. Which should be the FIRST sentence? 1)C 2)A 3)B 4)D 5)E
84. Which should be the FOURTH sentence? 1)D 2)A 3)C 4)B 5)E
85. Which should be the SECOND sentence? 1)E 2)A 3)B 4)D 5)C
Directions (Q. 86-91): Each sentence has some words given in bold. Find a suitable replacement, if required, from the options given. (5) will be the answer if no correction is required. 86. Her kindness to him was met by a cruel rebuff.
1) met in a 2) met with a 3) met by the 4) met with the 5) No correction required
87. I, no less than him is responsible for this mismanagement. 1) I, no less than he 2) I and not him 3) She no less than he 4) Her no less than him 5) No correction required
88. III-treatment was a ground to her seeking divorce. 1) the ground for 2) the grounds of 3) a ground of 4) the ground on 5) No correction required
89. The shelf was too high to be out of my reach. 1) much high to be out of 2) so high to be in 3) high enough to be out of 4) too high to be within 5) No correction required
90. The lady was asked to read of her postal address. 1) read on 2) read back 3) reading loud 4) reading aloud 5) No correction required
91. The Himalayas lie in the north of India. 1) Himalayas lies 2) Himalayas are 3) Himalaya is 4) Himalayas stand 5) No correction required Directions (Q. 92-100): Fill up the blanks with the most
suitable pair of words from the options given to make a meaningful sentence. 92. More is of conditions of the tribals in
Maharashtra than conditions of those in the other parts of the country. 1) certain, the 2) known, of 3) aware, of 4) favourable, those 5) None of these
93. Although is not a very desirable feeling, we need a certain amount of it to well. 1) anxiety, exist 2) grief, enjoy 3) impatience, preach 4) anger, define 5) None of these
94. Although he is a person, he occasionally loses his . 1) quiet, power 2) cheerful, grief 3) balanced, temper 4) thoughtful, anxiety 5) None of these
95. In a tone, the leader made a powerful to the mob. 1) realistic, zeal 2) lower, conviction 3) loud, argument 4) soft, appeal 5) None of these
96. The tunnel was so and congested that we became . 1) long, adventurous 2) deep, cautious 3) dark, frightened 4) dirty, anxious 5) None of these
97. Wheat is not native to India and barely .
1) isn't either 2) is either 3) is neither
4) is't neither 5) None of these
98. You mad if you think I am going to show my
answer sheet.
1) are to be 2) must be 3) ought to
4) should go 5) None of these
99. The teacher gives many examples to the idea
contained in the poem.
1) bring about 2) bring in 3) bring forth
4) bring out 5) None of these
100. The more electricity you use .
1) your bill will be higher 2) will your bill be higher
3) will be higher your bill 4) the higher your bill will be
5) None of these
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 101-105): What value should come in
the place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
101. (2024) ÷ 1 6 x 1 7 . 8 x 5 5 = ?
1)970.5 2)1010 3)1075.5
4)11055 5) None of these
102. 7.5%of 1400 + 4.5%of3600 = ?÷5
1)1335 2)1425 3)1575
4) 1245 5) None of these
1)14.8 2)16.8 3)17.8
4)19.8 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 106-110): What approximate value should
come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
equations.
106. (78700÷1748)+ (3.79 x 121.24) =?
1)305 2)415 3)525
4)635 5)745
1)30 2)80 3)130
4)170 5)210
108. 25%of 1078 + 182%of668 = ?
1)1050 2)1125 3)1250
4)1325 5)1475
1)360 2)480 3)520
4)660 5)320
Directions (Q. 111-115): What value should come in
the place of question mark (?) in the following number series.
111.1260, 1169, 1088, 1017, 956, ?
1)905 2)895 3)885
4)875 5)865
112.516, 738, 1182, 1848, 2736, ?
1)3412 2)3522 3)3686
4)3734 5)3846
113.8, 73, 418, 1717, 4846, ?
1)8624 2)8947 3)9136
4)9308 5)9996
114.2476, 2279, 2090, 1909, 1736, ?
1)1627 2)1571 3)1472
4)1540 5)1432
115.5, 35, 76, 253, 488, 911, ?
1)1210 2)1325 3)1460
4)1575 5)1680
Directions (Q. 116-120): In each of these questions two
equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the
equations and give answer:
l ) l fp>q
2)Ifp≥q
3)Ifp<q
4)Ifp≤q
5) If p = q or No relation can be established between 'p'
and 'q'.
121. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ̀ 5852 in 3 years and `7788 in 7 years. What is the rate of interest per annum? 1)8% 2)9% 3)10% 4)11% 5)12%
122. In what time will `300000 amount to `746496 at 20% compound interest? 1) 3 yrs 2) 4 yrs 3) 5 yrs 4) 6 yrs 5) 7 yrs
123. From 5 girls and 6 boys in how many ways can 4 be chosen to include at least one girl? 1)315 2)225 3)215 4)185 5) None of these
124. A card is drawn from a pack of cards. What is the probability that it is a digit-card of club?
125. The length of a rectangle is 25 cm more than its breadth. If its length is increased by 15 cm and its breadth is decreased by 5 cm, its area remains unchanged. What is the perimeter of the rectangle initially? 1)240 cm 2) 210 cm 3) 180 cm 4) 150 cm 5) 130 cm
126. A train 120 metres in length passes a pole in 4 seconds and another train of length 210 metres travelling in the same direction in 15 seconds. What is the speed of the second train?
1) 120 km 2) 240 km 3) 320 km 4) 360 km 5) 420 km
128. Two person Ravi and Shyam can do a work in 60 days and 40 days respectively. They began the work together but Ravi left after some time and Shyam finished the remaining work in 10 days. After how many days did Ravi leave? 1)8 days 2) 12 days 3) 15 days 4) 18 days 5) 20 days
129. The ratio of As age to B's is 6 : 7. The product of their ages is 672. What is the ratio of their ages after 6 years? 1)6:7 2)5:7 3)7:8 4) 8:9 5) None of these
130. A boy purchases 20 pens for `15 and sells 15 pens for `20. How much profit does he get?
Directions (Q. 131-135): Following pie-charts show the distribution of different grades of employees of a company and percentage of females among them.
% of different grade employees Total employees = 4000
% of females Total females = 1600
131. What is the ratio of male to female employees in Grade F? 1)11:12 2)12:13 3)13:14 4)14:15 5)15:16
132. What is the difference between male and female employees in Grade C? 1)128 2)172 3)186 4)224 5)288
133. The number of male employees of Grade A is what % of the number of female employees of Grade A? 1)80% 2)92% 3)105% 4) 120% 5) 125%
134. In which grade is the number of male employee the mamaximum? 1)F 2)D 3)C 4)E 5) A
135. The number of male employees in Grade D is how much % more then the number of female employees in the same grade. 1)32% 2)48% 3)60% 4)75% 5) None of these
II.5p-8q=-9 II. q 2 - 4 3 q + 462 = 0 I I .q 2 -26q+ 144 = 0
Directions (Q. 136-140): Following line graphs show the ratio of income to expenditure of two companies 'A' and 'B ' during the period 2005-2010.
136. If the income of company A in the year 2005 was`59.5 lakh what was its expenditure? l)`32.51akh 2)`351akh 3)`37.51akh 4)`42.51akh 5)`451akh
137. If the expenditure of Company B in the year 2009 was `45 lakh then what was its net profit in that year? l)`11.51akh 2)`12.51akh 3)`13.51akh 4)`14.5 lakh 5)`15.5 lakh
138. In which of the following years did Company B have a loss? 1)2008 2)2007 3)2006 4)2005 5) None of these
139. If the income of Company A in the year 2006 was 37 lakh, then what was its percentage profit in that year? 1)36% 2)47.5% 3)60% 4)72.5% 5)85%
140. If the expenditures of Company A and B in the year 2010 was equal to 85 lakh each, then what was the sum of net profit gained by Company A and B in that year? 1)48 lakh 2)51 lakh 3)551akh 4)64lakh 5)671akh Directions (Q. 141-145): Following bar graph shows
the population (in lakhs) of three cities 'A', 'B ' and ' C . The table gives the information about the percentage of population who are below poverty line.
Year City A
% below poverty line
CityB % below
poverty line
City C % below
povery line 1950 75% 60% 80%
1960 72% 55% 72%
1970 60% 48% 70%
1980 60% 40% 66%
1990 64% 36% 60%
2000 50% 25% 40% 141. What is the number of people of City C in the year 1990
who are below poverty line? 1)18.6 lakh 2) 21.6 lakh 3) 22.5 lakh 4) 24 lakh 5) 25 lakh
142. What is the total population of city 'A', Band 'C' in year 2000 which is above poverty line? 1)72 lakh 2) 90 lakh 3) 104 lakh 4)1161akh 5) None of these
143. The number of people of City C in year 1950 who are below poverty line is what percentage of the number of people of City A in year 1990 which are below poverty line? 1)72.5% 2)52% 3)41.25% 4)31.25% 5)27.75%
144. What is the average number of people of city A, B and C in year 1980 which are below poverty line? 1)12.8 lakh 2) 13.6 lakh 3) 14.5 lakh 4) 15.6 lakh 5) None of these
145. The number of people of City A in year 1970 who are below poverty line is how much % more than the number of people of City B in the year 1970 who are below poverty line? 1)12.5% 2)15% 3)17.5% 4)20% 5)22.5% Directions (146-150): Three dealers 'A', 'B ' and 'C
sold a total number of 1200 computer systems (both laptop and desktop) in a month. The number of desktops sold by Dealer 'A'is 10% of the total number of systems sold by all three dealers and the total number of systems sold by Dealer 'B ' is 415, which is 210 more than the number of laptops sold by Dealer 'A'. The number of laptops sold by Dealer 'B' is 200% of the numberof desktops sold by Dealer 'A'number of laptops sold by Dealer-C is 125% of the number of laptops sold by Dealer-B. 146. What is the total number of desktops sold by Dealer C?
1)120 2)140 3)160 4)175 5)180 147. What is the total number of laptops sold by all three
dealers? 1)645 2)725 3)730 4)745 5)750
148. The number of desktops sold by Dealer A is what percentage of the number of laptops sold by Dealer C? 1)40% 2)50% 3)60% 4)70% 5)80%
149. What is the ratio of the number of desktops sold by Dealer B to the number of laptops sold by Dealer C? 1)4:7 2)5:9 3)5:11 4)7:12 5)8:15
150. What is the difference between the number of desktops sold by Dealer 'B' and 'C together and the number of total computer systems (both desktop and laptop) sold by DealerA? 1)50 2)40 3)30 4)20 5)10
Test of Reasoning Directions (Q. 151-155): In each question below is given
a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer. 151. Statement: "Bar Council of India (BCI) has decided to
go on a hunger strike to protest the implementation of the Legal Services Authority (Amendment) Act." — Chairman of BCI Assumptions: I. The amendment has several loopholes and is bound
to hurt the litigants' interests. II. All the members of BCI will welcome the decision. III. The hunger strike held in front of the court will put a
pressure on the respective authority. 1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only I and III 4) All I, II and III 5) None of these
152. Statement: "Despite strong opposition, the controversial Prohibition of Forcible Conversion of Religion Bill was passed by the Tamil Nadu Assembly with the AIADMK and the BJP outvoting the combined opposition of the DMK, the Congress, the Pattali Makkal Katchi and the Left parties." — A news Assumptions:
I. Conversions create resentment among several sections and also inflame religious passions, leading to communal clashes.
II. Conversions only lead to the isolation of the converted. III. Strong opposition puts hindrance before a bill in tak
ing final shape. 1) All I, II and III 2) Only I and II 3) Only I and III 4) Only II and III 5) None of these
153. Statements: "For the third time in a row this week, the indira Gandhi International Airport was put on full alert today after Air India received an anonymous message that two terrorists laden with explosives were aboard its Mumbai-Delhi-Hong Kong flight." — An authority of Indira Gandhi International Airport Assumptions: I. Anonymous message is not likely to be hoax call. II. Anonymous message is likely to be a hoax call. III. Alertness might be helpful in reducing the menace. 1) Only I and III 2) Only II and III 3) Either I or II and Ifl 4) Only III 5) None of these
154. Statements: "You should be very careful so that the society does not adversely comment on the police leadership." — A statement made by a CBI officer to the newly recruited young officers. Assumptions: I. The society always indulges in adverse comments. II. People's trust in the police force is not up to the
desired level. III.Society has the efficiency to judge accurately about
the police leadership. 1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III 4) None 5) None of these
155. Statement: The High Court lias ordered state X to submit the case papers of the hit-and-run accident involving actor Mr Y and directed the police not to allow the actor or his family members and friends to meet witnesses or victims. Assumptions: I. The kith and kin of an accused are likely to make an
effort to tamper with the evidence or create a nuisance to help acquit the accused.
II. The capacity of the wrongdoer cannot be a yardstick for deciding punishment for a crime.
III. The court's immediate concern is the grievance of the victims which needs redressal.
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only I and III 4) All I, II and III 5) None of these Directions (Q. 156-160): In the following questions,
the symobls, ⋆,# S, @ and + are used with the following meanings.
P ⋆ Q means P is not smaller than Q. P # Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q. P $ Q means P is not greater than Q. P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. P + Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the
given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions 1 and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true; 2) if only conclusion II is true; 3) if either I or II is true; 4) if neither I nor II is true; and 5) if both I and II are true.
156. Statements: P@Q, Q ⋆ R , R#S , T + S Conclusions: I.T + P ILS$Q
157. Statements: S$ A, A + K, R ⋆ K , L⋆R Conclusions: LS$L II. L ⋆ A
158. Statements: G@H, F + H, K ⋆ P , M $ P Conclusions: I. K@M II.K#M
159. Statements: A + P, Z + A, N$Z, L$N Conclusions: I. P @ L I I P # L
160. Statements: A@P, Z@A, N ⋆ Z , L⋆N Conclusions: I .P#L II.P+L Directions (Q. 161-165): In each question below are
given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 161. Statements: a. All cups are plates.
b. No plates are utensils. c. All utensils are forks.
Conclusions: I. Some forks are plates. II. All forks are plates, III. Some forks are cups. IV. Some forks are not cups.
1) None follows 2) Either I or II follows 3) Only either I or II and IV follow 4) Only IV follows 5) None of these
162. Statements: a. No oranges are bananas. b. Some bananas are apples. c. All apples are fruits.
Conclusions: I. Some oranges are fruits. II. All fruits are oranges. III. Some bananas are fruits. IV. Some apples are fruits.
1) Only I, III and IV follow 2) Only I and III follow 3) Only III follows 4) Only III and IVfollow 5) None of these
163. Statements: a. All dogs are elephants. b. No dogs are cats. c. All elephants are rats.
Conclusions: I. No cats are elephants. II. Some elephants are not cats. III. No cats are dogs. IV. All dogs are rats.
1) All follow 2) Onlv II, III and IV follow 3) Only I, III and IV follow 4) Only III and IV follow 5) None of these
164. Statements: a. No schools are colleges. b. N o colleges are universities. c. All universities are institutes.
Conclusions: I. No colleges are institutes. II. Nc institutes are schools. III. No colleges are schools. IV. Some colleges are not institutes.
1) All follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only III follows 4) Only III and IV follow 5) None of these
165. Statements: a. Some boxes are bottles. b. All bottles are jars. c. Some jars are buckets.
Conclusions: I. All boxes are jars. II. Some boxes are jars. III. Some buckets are not jars. IV. Some bottles are boxes.
1) Only either I or II and IV follow 2) None follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) None of these Directions (Q. 166-172): Read the following informa
tion and answer the questions given below it: Air India Ltd wishes to engage staff on a fixed term
contract for a period of 3 years to undertake flying/ground duties in Mumbai and other stations in the Air India network. Applications are invited from unmarried Indian nationals who meet the following requirements:
A) The candidate must be a graduate or have passed HSC. B) The candidate must have done 3 years' Diploma in
Hotel Management & Catering from an institute affiliated to the National Council of Hotel Management.
C)The candidate must have the minimum required height: Female: 162.6 cm Male: 172.7 cm
D) The candidate must have weight in proportion to height as per company standards.
E) The candidate should have completed 18 years and not be more than 23 years as on 1 st October, 2010.
F) The candidate must be fluent in English and one or more Indian languages.
G) The candidate must be well-groomed and have a clear complexion and he/she must be ready to produce a valid Indian passport at the time of interview.
However, if a candidate fulfils all criteria except any one of the following: (i) C above, but has produced certificate of domicile of
North-East States and hilly areas, he/she is eligible for relaxation of height requirements up to 2.54 cm.
(ii)E above, but belongs to SC or ST, he/she should be given upper age limit relaxation up to 5 years. And if the candidate belongs to OBC, he/she should be given upper age limit relaxation up to 3 years.
(iii) F above, but is conversant with any of the following foreign languages—French, German and Japanese— he/she should he considered eligible for candidature.
However, if a candidate fulfils all criteria
1. except C and E, but fulfils additional criteria (i) and (ii), his/her case should be sent to Director for recommendations.
2. except E and F, but fulfils additional criteria (ii) and (iii), his/her case should be sent to Assistant Director for recommendations.
Note: Consider a candidate as unmarried unless mentioned otherwise.
Based on the above criteria and the information given in each of the following questions, you have to decide on the course of each case. These cases are given to you as on 1st October, 2010. Mark answer
1) if the candidate is eligible for candidature. 2) if the candidate is not eligible for candidature. 3) if the data given are insufficient to make the decision. 4) if the case is to be referred to the Director. 5) if the case is to be referred to the Assistant Director.
166. Dakshinamoorthy Chatterji is a Bengali. He is well-groomed and has a clear complexion. His height is more than 172 cm but less than 172.7 cm. He is a domicile of a North-East State and has produced domicile certificate. His weight is as per the company's standards. His date of birth is 15 Sep, 1984. He belongs to SC category. He has done 3 years' diploma in Hotel Management and Catering from a recognised institute. He has PG degree in English. However, he is not fluent in Hindi but fluent in English and Sanskrit (Indian language). He is ready to produce a valid Indian passport at the time of interview.
167. Ujjwal Kumar Chaurasia is a graduate, well-groomed, of clear complexion, and twenty-two years old. His weight is not more than his wife's but his height is more than his wife's, whose height is 173 cm. His weight is in proportion to his height as required. He is fluent in three Indian languages including English. He is ready to produce a valid Indian passport at the time of interview. He has done 3 years' diploma in Hotel Management & Catering from an institute affiliated to National Council of Hotel Management.
168. Sisir Kumar Biswas passed 10 + 2 in the year 2004. At that time he was 15 years old. After that he completed 3 years' diploma course. He has the required height and also the weight in proportion to the height. He is fluent in English and Hindi (his mothertongue). He is well-groomed, tall and clear-complexioned. He is ready to produce a valid Indian passport at the time of interview.
169. Patit Paban Sarkar is twenty years old and completed his graduation last year. He is fluent in English as well as in Urdu, an Indian language. He has done 3 years' diploma course as required. He belongs to the hilly areas of India and has produced certificates in favour of each of his claim. He is a very smart person, well-groomed and clear-complexioned. His weight is as per the stipulated standards of the company. He is ready to produce a valid Indian passport at the time of interview.
170. Susmita Choudhury celebrated her 24th birthday last week. She passed 10 + 2 examination at the age of fifteen
years. After that she completed 3 years' diploma in Hotel Management & Catering from an institute affiliated to the National Council of Hotel Management. Her height is 170 cm. She belongs to OBC category. She is fluent in Hindi, English and Urdu languages. She is well-groomed and has a clear complexion. She is ready to produce a valid Indian passport at the time of interview.
171. Raghavendra Krishna Jaiswal did a three-year diploma course in Hotel Management & Catering from an instituted affiliated to the National Council of Hotel Management, after passing 10 + 2. He belongs to a hilly area and has produced a certificate in favour of his claim. His height is 172 cm. His weight is in proportion to his height. He is 25 years old and belongs to ST category. He is fluent in French and German languages.
172. Ballerina Nongdhar is a well-groomed person of a clear complexion. He is 177 cm tall with appropriate weight according to required standards. He is a graduate. He has also done three years' diploma course in the required field. He is 24 years old. He belongs to OBC category. He is fluent in French and Japanese languages. He is ready to produce a valid Indian passport at the time of interview. Directions (Q. 173-177): Answer these questions re
ferring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below: Ser ies : I . 36$XYF£4#ML7TE8U5 ∆G2?⋆HB
9N1 WAV Series: I I . $ 5 • 4 7 # δ M E ? @ α L ∆ D ! 6 R γ 9 β ⋆
A T G Q • = Y K 173. If the positions of the numbers and letters in both the
sequences are reoccupied by themselves after getting rearranged in the ascending and alphabetical order respectively from the left, which of the following pairs will indicate the 5th element and 15th element from the left of series I and series II respectively? 1)C,D 2) Y,D 3)D,A 4) A, G 5) None of these
174. If the first fifteen elements of series I and the last fifteen elements of series II are reversed, then which of the following pairs will depict the seventh and seventeenth elements from left in the newly formed series I and II respectively? 1)#,6 2)#,Y 3 ) 5 , δ 4 ) δ , 6 5) None of these
175. A new series (say series III) is formed with the help of elements of both the series I and II in such a way that first element of series II is followed by first element of series I; second element of series II is followed by second element of series I; ... and so on. Then which element will be exactly midway between P and Q in the new series? Where P has been coded as seventh to the right of eighth element from the left in the new series and Q has been coded as seventh to the left of ninth element from the right.
1)8 2)V 3)K
4)D 5) None of these
176. What is the total number of 'the numbers immediately followed by a letter' and 'the symbols immediately following a letter' together in the new series formed according to the changes made in Q. 175?
1) 13 2) 14 3) 15
4) 16 5) None of these
177. Four of the following five are similar in respect of their positions in the above given sequences and hence form a group. Which does not belong to the group? 1)Y7NQ 2)M ??β 3 ) 3 $ V K 4)$.w= 5 )E?@ α
Directions (Q. 178-182): These questions are based on code languages which utilise letters in the English alphabet In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written. That code is denoted by 1,2,3,4 or 5, not necessarily in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.
178. V O M I T 1)M 2)W 3)T 4)0 5)U
179. CHIDE 1)H 2)E 3)K 4)1 5)D
180. ABOUT
l)x 2)w 3)d 4)e 5)r 181. AMEND
l)n 2)d 3)o 4)z 5)c 182.HINDU
l)z 2)k 3)q 4)h 5)i Directions (Q. 183-188): A word arrangement machine,
when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: and band land hand hind lack job Step I: hind and band lack land hand job Step II: hind band land job and lack hand Step III: hind and lack band hand land job Step IV: land band and job hand lack hind Step V: hand land band lack and job hind Step VI: hand band and hind land lack job
and so on. As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the
appropriate step for the given input or vice versa in the following questions. 183. Input: do we he is it at all
Which of the following steps would be "all we he is do at it"? 1) It is not possible to get the above step. 2) Step VI 3) Step IX 4) Step X 5) None of these
184. If Step IVof an input is "he is to do what her observe", which of the following would definitely be the input? 1) to is he what observe her do 2) he is to what observe her do 3) is he to what observe her do
4) Can't say
5) None of these 185. If Step III of an input is
"when then men can how are you" what would be step VII of the input? 1) then can are when you men how 2) how are men can you then when 3) you then can men are when how 4) how can then men are when you
5) None of these 186. Input: stejpan mesic is the president of Croatia
Which of the following will be step VIII for this input? 1) the mesic stejpan president is of Croatia 2) the is of mesic Croatia stejpan president 3) stejpan mesic is president Croatia of the 4) the stejpan mesic of is president Croatia 5) None of these
187. If Step V of an input is "will you hit centuries three again at", what will be the middle three words of step VII?
1) will you hit 2) you hit centuries
3) hit centuries three 4) centuries three again 5) None of these
188. If step II of an input is "has started new BSC batches for PO", what will be Step VI of the input?
1) new PO for started BSC batches has 2) PO new for started BSC batches has
3) PO new started for batches BSC has 4) PO started batches has new for BSC 5) None of these
189. If K means x, H means ÷, M means +, and N means , then what is the value of 430M660H22N2K5 1)450 2)470 3)100
4)570 5) None of these
190. How many pairs of letters are there in the word RADIOTELEPHONE which have as many letters between them as in the alphabet?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five
4) Six 5) None of these 191. Try to make a meaningful word from the 1st, 4th, 5th, 6th,
7th and 8th letters of the word RADIOTELEPHONE, using each letter only once. If no meaningful word can be made, your answer is X. But if a meaningful word can be made, try to make another word with the 2nd, 4th and 6th letters of this meaningful word. If no meaningful threeletter word can be obtained thus, your answer is Y; if more than one word can be made, your answer is Z; and if only one word can be obtained, your answer is the middle letter of that word.
1)X 2)Y 3)Z
4) O 5) None of these
192. In a certain code language YESTERDAY is written as HIKXJXVGZ; and TOMORROW is written as
EVXWSPQU. How will FORTNIGHT be written in that code? l ) C P N O S X U Q G 2 ) O P D K S T M N R 3 )GQUXSONPC 4 ) Q G Q S O N P C Q 5) None of these
193. Mr X shows three photographs to Mr Y. Pointing towards photograph 1, he says, "The person in photograph 1 is my uncle, who says 'uncle' to the person in photograph 2, and the person in photograph 3 is called 'uncle' by the person in photograph 2." How is Mr X related to the person in photograph 2? 1) Grandson 2) Granddaughter 3) Greatgrandson 4) Either 1 or 2 5) None of these Directions (Q. 194-198): In each question below is given
a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and IL You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows; 2) if only conclusion II follows; 3) if either I or II follows; 4) if neither I nor II follows; and 5)ifbothIand II follow.
194. Statement: "Government would defer, during the current financial year, recovery of crop loan including interest from farmers in the 14 drought-affected states and set up a corpus of `500 crores for modernisation of the plantation sector." — Statement made by PM of country 'X' Conclusions: I. Life of the people of country 'X' is miserable, II. The announced corpus will be sufficient to bring radi
cal change in the current mode of plantation. 195. Statement: "Today, instead of saving, the government's
overspending amounts to a figure equal to 4.5 per cent of GDP. This has to be brought down to 0.5 per cent of GDP." —PM of country X Conclusions: I.Government will have to make big cuts in subsidies and
other wasteful expenditure to get the desired objective, II.GDP of country 'X' is very low.
196. Statement: "The Representation of the People Act will be amended to do away with the clause that (currently) disqualifies from contesting elections only those convicts who have been handed down prison terms of six months or more." — Information and Broadcasting Minister of country 'X' Conclusions: I. Convicted persons are not suitable to serve as a true
representative of the common people. II After the amendment mere conviction would lead to
disqualification, irrespective of what punishment is meted out.
197. Statement: "Untrained drivers are found to be largely
responsible for 95 per cent of the accidents in even advanced countries where infrastructure is very rarely the cause of mishaps." — A report of a survey Conclusions: I. In developing countries road culture has not devel
oped and kept pace with the advancement of technologies.
II. Driver development is directly related to road environment.
198. Statement: The idea floated by the University Grants Commission to hire teachers on contract basis, though bold, is not acceptable to the teaching community. Conclusions: I. Only when a teacher is sure of his job will he put in
sincere effort. II. There is a fear among the teaching community that
teachers on contract may not be dedicated. Directions (Q. 199-202): Study the following informa
tion carefully and answer the given questions based on it Amit, Bunty, Reena, Veena and Dolly were selected for
prizes because of their excellent performance in annual examination conducted by school 'X'. On this occasion their parents were also invited by the school authority. Brajesh, Jayant, Manoj, Ritesh and Vinod were the fathers of the individuals but not necessarily in the same order. Anju, Babita, Punam, Rita and Vinita were the mothers of the individuals but not necessarily in the same order. Among the children only two are males. The first letter of the name of any parent was not the same as the first letter of the name of their child. The same was true of spouses also.
The first letter of the name of Dolly's father was the same as that of Reena's mother. Similarly, Dolly's mother's name started with the firstletter ofReena's father's name. Brajesh and Manoj were not the fathers of Veena and Amit respectively. The first letter of Bunty's mother was the same as the first letter of the name of Veena's father. Anjuis not Dolly's mother. Jayant is the husband of Punam. Reena's performance was best among all; that is why her mother Babita praised her. 199. Who among the following is the father of Amit?
1) Can't say 2) Jayant 3) Manoj 4) Vinod 5) None of these
200. Who among the following is the son of Rita? 1) Can't say 2) Amit 3) Bunty 4) Either Amit or Bunty 5) None of these
201. Father's name of Reena is 1) Can't say 2) Vinod 3) Brajesh 4) Either Vinod or Brajesh 5) None of these
202. Which of the following couples is correctly matched? 1) Jayant, Rita 2) Manoj, Punam 3) Vinod, Babita 4) Ritesh Vinita 5) Brajesh Anju
203. Which of the following pairs is related in the same way as'CAVE'and 'HILL'? 1) OAR: BOAT 2) CAVITY: TOOTH 3) ROOF: HOUSE 4) SHOE: SOCKS 5) None of these
204. A man pointing to a photograph says, "The man is my nephew's maternal grandfather." How is the person in the photograph related to his brother who has no other sibling? 1) Brother-in-law 2) Father 3) Father-in-law 4) Can't say 5) None of these
205. is to verse as sculptor is to . 1) Poet, artist 2) Poet, statue 3) Poem, statue 4) Music, sculpture 5) Rhythm, brush Directions (Q. 206-210): Below is given a passage fol
lowed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
1) if the inference is "'definitely true", ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2) if the inference is "probably true" though not "definitely true" in the light of the facts given.
3) if the "data are inadequate", ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4) if the inference is "probably false" though not "definitely false" in the light of the facts given.
5) if the inference is "definitely false", ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
The government is planning to bring in a second round of voluntary retirement scheme for the employees of Indian public sector banks in the post-budget session, giving room to Indian PSU banks to increase their per employee productivity and reduce overheads. Incidentally, the government is also thinking of opening the option of the employees to opt for pension in view of the great demand for it from the union and associations. Principally it has been accepted to give the employees a chance to opt for pension. But for such options, the required sum will be deducted from their provident fund. This changes the earlier decision of the Ministry to let individual banks bring their own board-approved VRS schemes. Following this sentiment. Bank of India had applied for its second round of VRS to the ministry. But in spite of the scheme getting no objection from the Indian Banks' Association (IB A) and the RBI, the Mumbai-based bank is yet to get the permission from the ministry. It seems likely that the decision will flow in the form of a blanket decision rather than individual case-to-case basis removing any discrepancy amongst different banks. 206. VRS will aim at reducing the burden in terms of employee
overheads of the PSU banks. 207. The second VRS will be brought as a blanket scheme
after the budget. 208. In the last spell of the VRS that the banking industry
saw in the year 2000-01, close to a lakh of employees exited their way out of the banking system.
209. In the last spell of the VRS, PSU banks did not get any
benefits. 210. Indian Banks' Association (IBA) and the RBI regulate
PSU banks. Directions (Q. 211-215): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
211. Which direction is Shashidhar facing? Statements: I. In the early morning Shashidhar was standing in front
of a puppet and the shadow of the puppet was falling to the right of Shashidhar.
II. In the early morning Shashidhar was standing on the ground. His shadow was falling behind him when he turned to his left.
212. Who among A, B, C, D and E teaches History? Statements: I. Each one of them teaches only one subject. B teaches
Mathematics, while E teaches Science. A or C does not teach Geography. A or D does not teach English.
II. C and E are teachers of English and Science respectively and A is a teacher of Mathematics.
213. In a row of boys facing South, who is on the immediate left of Ramakant? Statements: I. Suresh is on the immediate right of Chandrakant, who
is fourth to the right of Ramakant. II. Suresh is third to the right of Ramakant and Naresh is
second to the right of Suresh. 214. Who has secured the maximum marks among six friends
A, B, C,D,E and F? Statements: I.B secured less marks than A and F but not less than
C.D and E. E F secured more marks than B but not as much as A.
215. What will be the position of the hour hand of a clock at 7.30 pm? Statements: I There are English alphabets on the dial of the clock
instead of digits. 1L The hour hand is at P at 7 O'clock.
Directions (Q. 216-220): Each of the following series consists of seven figures, two of which at the ends are unnumbered. One of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Find out the figure.
Directions (Q. 221-225): Each of the following questions consists of unmarked figures followed by five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5. Select a figure from the marked figures which will replace the question mark so that a series be established by the unmarked figures.
Problem Figures Answer Figures
