Question Paper Bank Po 21

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

rdZ'kfDr ijh{k.kfunsZ'k (15) : uhps izR;sd iz'u esa nks vFkok rhu dFku vkSjmlds ckn rhu fu"d"kZ fn;s x, gSA vkidks fn, x;s dFkuksa dkslR; ekuuk gS] Hkys gh oks loZKkr RkF;ksa ls fHkUu izRkhr gksrs gksAlHkh fu"d"kks± dks if<+, fiQj r; dhft, fd fn;s x, fu"d"kks±esa dkSu lk fu"d"kZ fn;s x, dFkuksa dk rdZlaxr :i lsvuqlj.k ugh djrk gSA

(1) ;fn] dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k ugha djrk gSA(2) ;fn] dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k ugha djrk gSA(3) ;fn] dsoy fu"d"kZ III vuqlj.k ugha djrk gSA(4) ;fn] nksuksa fu"d"kZ I ,oa II vuqlj.k ugha djrs gSA(5) ;fn] nksuksa fu"d"kZ II ,oa III vuqlj.k ugha djrs gSA

(1–2):

1. dFku :

dqN pqfg;k fcYyh gSAdksbZ fcYyh dqÙkk ugha gSAlkjs dqÙks ykseM+h gSAfu"d"kZ :I. dqN dqÙkksa ds pqfg;k gksus dh laHkkouk gSAII. lkjh yksefM+;ksa ds fcYyh gksus dh laHkkouk gSAIII. dqN fcYYkh;k¡ pqfg;k ugha gSA

2. fu"d"kZ :I. dqN pqfg;ksa ds dqÙks u gksus dh laHkkouk gSAII. lHkh ykseM+h fcYyh gSAIII. lHkh yksefM+;ksa ds dqÙks gksus dh laHkkouk gSA

(3–4):

3. dFku :

lHkh vaxwBh;k¡ pwfM+;k¡ gSAdqN pwfM+;k¡ gkj gSAdksbZ gkj pkch ugha gSAfu"d"kZ :I. lHkh vaxwfB;ksa ds gkj gksus dh laHkkouk gSAII. dqN pqfM+;k¡ pkch ugha gSAIII. lHkh pkch;k¡ gkj gSA

4. fu"d"kZ :I. dksbZ pwM+h vaxwBh ugha gSAII. dksbZ pkch gkj ugha gSAIII. dqN gkj pqfM+;k¡ ugha gSA

5. dFku :

dqN iRFkj f'kyk gSAdqN f'kyk igkfM+;k¡ gSAdksbZ igkM+h ioZr ugha gSAfu"d"kZ :I. lHkh ioZr igkfM+;k¡ gSAII. lHkh iRFkjksa ds igkfM+;k¡ gksus dh laHkkouk gSAIII. de ls de dqN iRFkj f'kyk ugha gSA

funsZ'k (69) : uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz'u esa ,d iz'u vkSj mldsuhps nks dFku I vkSj II fn, x, gSaA vkidks ;g r; djuk gSfd dFkuksa esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIrgS ;k ugha gSA nksuksa dFkuksa dks if<+, vkSj mÙkj nsaA(1) ;fn dsoy dFku I esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'u dk mÙkj nsus ds

fy, i;kZIr gS] tcfd dsoy dFku II esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'udk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gSA

(2) ;fn dsoy dFku II esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'u dk mÙkj nsus dsfy, i;kZIr gS] tcfd dsoy dFku I esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'udk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gSA

(3) ;fn ;k rks dsoy dFku I ;k dsoy dFku II esa fn;s x;s vkadM+siz'u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr gSA

(4) ;fn dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa dss vkadM+s feykdj Hkh iz'u dkmÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gSA

(5) ;fn dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa dks vkadM+s feydj iz'u dkmÙkj nsus ds fy, vko';d gSA

6. C dk LFkku Kkr djsa\I. E, G ,oa H ds chp [kM+k gS ,oa C, H ,oa K ds chp

[kM+k gSAII. J drkj ds vafre Nksj ij [kM+k gS ,oa J ,oa K ds chp

dsoy ,d O;fDr gSA7. fdlh dksM Hkk"kk esa ‘pink’ dks dSls fy[kk tkrk gS?

I. fdlh fuf'pr dksM Hkk"kk esa ‘green and red’ dks‘#$@’ ,oa ‘yellow and pink’ dks ‘6©#’ fy[kktkrk gSA

II. ‘pink and black’ dks ‘#©7’ ,oa ‘orange and

green’ dks ‘$%#’ fy[kk tkrk gSA8. P, Q, R, S, U ,oa V esa ls dkSu lcls vf/d iSls dekrk gS\

I. P vf/dre ugha ij] dsoy R ,oa S ls vf/d iSlsdekrk gSA

II. V, P ls vf/d fdarq U ls de] ysfdu Q ls vf/dugha dekrk gSA

9. N, R ls fdl rjg lacaf/r gS\I. R, T tks Q dh iRuh gS] dk iq=k gSA N, P tks Q dk

llqj gS] dk iq=k gSSAII. Q, N dk HkkbZ ,oa P dk iq=k gSA P, T tks R dh ek¡ gS]

dk llqj gSA10. f'koe mÙkj dh vksj 20 ehVj pyrk gS] fiQj vius ck,¡ eqM+rk

gS ,oa 30 ehVj pyrk gSA og nqckjk mÙkj dh vksj 25 ehVjpyrk gSA mlds ckn] og vius nk,¡ eqM+us ds ckn 30 ehVjpyrk gSA vc] og vius 'kq:vkrh fcanq ls fdruh nwj gS ,oafdl fn'kk esa gS\(1) 40 ehVj] if'pe (2) 45 ehVj] mÙkj(3) 55 ehVj] nf{k.k (4) 50 ehVj] mÙkj(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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REASONING

Direction (15) : In each of the questions beloware given two or three statements followed bythree conclusions. You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to beat variance with commonly known facts. Readall the conclusions and then decide which ofthe given conclusions do not follow logicallyfrom the given statements disregardingcommonly known facts.

1. If only conclusion I does not follow.

2. if only conclusion II does not follow.

3. If only conclusion III does not follow.

4. If both conclusion I and II do not follow.

5. If both conclusion II and III do no follows.

(1–2):

1. Statements :

Some mice are cats.

No cat is a dog.

All dogs are foxes.

Conclusions :

I. Some dogs being mice is a possibility.

II. All foxes being cats is a possibility.

III. Some cats are not mice.

2. Conclusions :

I. Some mice not being dogs is apossibility.

II. All foxes are cats.

III. All foxes being dogs is a possibility.

(3–4):

3. Statements :

All rings are bangles.

Some bangles are necklaces.

No necklace is a key.

Conclusions :

I. All rings being necklaces is a possibility.

II. Some bangles are not keys.

III. All keys are necklaces.

4. Conclusions :

I. No bangle is a ring.

II. No key is a necklace.

III. Some necklaces are not bangles.

5. Statements :

Some stone are rocks.

Some rocks are hills.

No hill is a mountain.

Conclusions :

I. All mountains are hills.

II. All stones being hills is a possibility.

III. At least some rocks are not mountains.

Directions (6–9) : Each of the questions belowconsists of a questions and two statementsnumbered I and II given below it. You have todecide whether the data provided in thestatements are sufficient to answer thequestions. Read both the statements and givenanswer.

1. If the data in statement I alone aresufficient to answer the questions, whilethe data in statement II alone are notsufficient to answer the questions.

2. If the data in statement II alone aresufficient to answer the question, while thedata in statement I alone are not sufficientto answer the questions.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or instatement II alone are sufficient to answerthe questions.

4. If the data in both the statement I and IItogether are not sufficient to answer thequestion.

5. If the data in both statements I and IItogether are necessary to answer thequestions.

6. What is the position of C?I. E stands between G and H and C stands

between H and K.II. J stands at an extreme end of the row

and there is only one person between Jand K.

7. How is ‘pink’ written in a code language?I. In a certain code language, ‘green and

red’ is written as ‘#$@’ and ‘yellow andpink’ is written as ‘6©#’

II. ‘pink and black’ is written as ‘#©7’ and‘orange and green’ is written as ‘$%#’.

8. Among P, Q, R, S, U and V, who earns themost money?I. P earns more money than only R and

and S but not the maximum.II. V earns more than P but less than U,

but not more than Q.9. How is N related to R?

I. R is son of T, who is wife of Q. N is son ofP, who is father-in-law of Q.

II. Q is brother of N and son of P, who isfather-in-law of T, who is mother of R.

10. Shivam walks 20m towards north then heturns to his left and walks 30m. Again, hewalks 25m towards north. After that hewalks 30m after turning to his right. Howfar is he from his starting point and inwhich direction?(1) 40m. west (2) 45m, north(3) 55m, south (4) 50m, north(5) None of these

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funsZ'k (1115) : nh xbZ lwpuk dks è;kuiwoZd i<+s rFkk uhpsfn, x, iz'uksa dk mÙkj ns%

N% f[kykM+h U, V, W, X, Y ,oa Z fofHkUUk izdkj ds [ksytSls& dSje] 'krjat] [kks&[kks] Vsful] gkWdh] ,oa cSMfeaVu [ksyrs gS]ij t:jh ugha fd blh Øe esaA lHkh fe=k fofHkUUk jaxksa tSls& cSaxuh]gjk] uhyk] ukjaxh] yky ,oa ihys jax dh Vh&'kVZ igurs gSA os fofHkUUkizdkj ds eksckbZy iQksu tSls& eksVks G, ysuksoks ,oa ekbØkseSDl iz;ksxdjrs gS] ij t:jh ugha fd blh Øe esaA de ls de nks O;fDr lekurjg ds eksckbZy iQksu dk iz;ksx djrs gSA

og O;fDr tks gkWdh [ksyrk gS] ekbØkseSDl dk iz;ksx djrkgSA Z ekbØkseSDl dk iz;ksx djrk gS ,oa gjs jax dh Vh&'kVZ igurkgS] fdarq og u rks dSje vkSj uk gh [kks&[kks [ksyrk gSA og] tks Vsful[ksyrk gS] eksVks G dk iz;ksx djrk gSA V ,oa og O;fDr tks cSaxuhjax dh Vh&'kVZ igurk gS] fdarq ,d 'krjat f[kykM+h ugha gS] lekuizdkj ds eksckbZy iQksu dk iz;ksx djrs gSA og tks ,d dSje f[kykM+hgS] eksVks G dk iz;ksx djrk gSA X ,d gkWdh f[kykM+h gS ,oa og ukrks uhyh Vh&'kVZ vkSj uk gh ihyh Vh&'kVZ igurk gSA ysuksoks 'krjatds f[kykM+h }kjk iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA Y ,d Vsful f[kykM+h gS ,oaukjaxh jax dh Vh&'kVZ igurk gS] fdarq og ml eksckbZy iQksu dk iz;ksxugha djrk ftl izdkj dh W iz;ksx djrk gSA U yky vFkok ihyhgh&'kVZ uyh igurk gSA og f[kykM+h tks ekbØkseSDl dk iz;ksx djrkgS] uk rks Vsful vkSj uk gh [kks&[kks [ksyrk gSA os f[kykM+h tks ukjaxh,oa uhyh jax dh Vh&'kVZ igurs gS] leku izdkj ds eksckbZy iQksu dkiz;ksx djrs gSA11. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d 'krjat f[kykM+h gS\

(1) Z (2) W(3) U (4) V

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha12. buesa ls dkSu lk eksckbZy iQksu Y }kjk fd;k mi;ksx tkrk gS\

(1) eksVks G (2) ;k rks ysusoks ;k eksVks G

(3) ekbØkseSDl(4) fu/kZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

13. buesa ls dkSu ihyh Vh&'kVZ igurk gS\(1) Z (2) X(3) Y (4) U

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha14. buesa ls dkSu ,d cSMfeaVu f[kykM+h gS\

(1) W (2) Z(3) U (4) V

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha15. buesa ls dkSu lh ;qfDr lgh gS\

(1) Y – Vsful – ihyk – eksVks G (2) X – cSMfeaVu – yky – ysuksoks

(3) W – 'krjat – cSaxuh – ysuksoks(4) U – dSje – gjk – ekbØkseSDl(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

funsZ'k (1620) : uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz'uksa esa fn, x, dFkuksadks lR; ekurs gq, irk yxkb, fd uhps fn;s x, fu"d"kZ I, II,III vkSj IV esa dkSu lk@dkSu ls fu"d"kZ fuf'pr :i ls lR;gS ,oa mlds vuqlkj viuk mÙkj r; djsaA16. dFku :

H > W < M, N = P > H, K < L < N

fu"d"kZ :I. N > W II. M > NIII. K = H IV. P > L

(1) dsoy I lR; gSA (2) dsoy II ,oa III lR; gSA

(3) dsoy III lR; gSA(4) dsoy I ,oa IV lR; gSA(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

17. dFku :G = C > P = T, U < N = J < G

fu"d"kZ :I. U < P II. G > NIII. G > T IV. U < G

(1) lHkh I, II, III ,oa IV lR; gSA (2) dsoy II, III ,oa IV lR; gSA

(3) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gSA(4) dsoy IV lR; gSA(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

18. dFku :R < S < Q = P, T = U > E > P

fu"d"kZ :I. T < S II. E < QIII. S < U IV. T > R

(1) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gSA(2) dsoy III ,oa IV lR; gSA(3) dsoy I ,oa IV lR; gSA(4) dsoy III lR; gSA(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

19. dFku :C > D = E < G, L > T > N = G

fu"d"kZ :I. T > D II. L > EIII. C > T IV. D < E

(1) dsoy I, II III ,oa IV lR; gSA (2) dsoy II ,oa III lR; gSA

(3) dsoy I ,oa IV lR; gSA(4) dksbZ lR; ugha gSA(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

20. dFku :W < V = Q < R, P > S = T > W

fu"d"kZ :I. P < Q II. S < VIII. R < T IV. P > V

(1) lHkh I, II, III ,oa IV lR; gSA (2) lHkh II ,oa III lR; gSA

(3) lR; I ,oa IV lR; gSA(4) dksbZ lR; ugha gSA(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

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Directions (11–15) : Study the followinginformation carefully and answer the questionsgiven below:

Six players U, V, W, X, Y and Z plays differenttypes of sports, viz Carrom, Chess, Kho-Kho,Tennis, Hockey and Badminton, but notnecessarily in the same order. All friends wear aT-shirt of a different colour, viz Violet, Green,Blue, Orange, Red and Yellow. They use differenttypes of mobile phones, viz Moto G, Lenovo andMicromax, but not necessarily in the same order.At least two persons use the same type of mobilephone.

The person who plays Hockey usesMicromax. Z uses Micromax and wears a GreenT-shirt, but he plays neither Carrom nor Kho-Kho. The one who plays Tennis uses Moto G. Vuses the same type of mobile phone as the personwho wears a Violet T-shirt, but he is not a Chessplayer. The one who is player of Carrom usesMoto G. X is a Hockey player and he wearsneither Blue T-shirt nor Yellow T-shirt. Lenovois used by a Chess player. Y is a Tennis playerand wears an Orange T-shirt, but he does notuse the same mobile phone as W. U does not weara Red or Yellow T-shirt. The players who useMicromax play neither Tennis nor Kho-Kho. Theplayers who wear Orange and Blue T-shirts usethe same type of mobile phone.11. Who among the following is a Chess player?

(1) Z (2) W(3) U (4) V(5) None of these

12. Y uses which or the following mobilephones?(1) Moto G

(2) Either Lenovo or Moto G(3) Micromax(4) Can't be determined(5) None of these

13. Who among the following wears a Yellow T-shirt?(1) Z (2) X(3) Y (4) U(5) None of these

14. Who among the following is a Badmintonplayer?(1) W (2) Z(3) U (4) V(5) None of these

15. Which of the following combinations is true?(1) Y – Tennis – Yellow – Moto G

(2) X – Badminton – Red – Lenovo(3) W – Chess – Violet – Lenovo(4) U – Carrom – Green – Micromax(5) None of these

Directions (16–20) : In the given questions,assuming the given statements to be true, findwhich of the given four conclusions numberedI, II, III and IV is/are definitely true and giveyour answer accordingly.16. Statements :

H > W < M, N = P > H, K < L < NConclusions :I. N > W II. M > NIII. K = H IV. P > L(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II and III are true(3) Only III is true(4) Only I and IV are true(5) None of these

17. Statements :G = C > P = T, U < N = J < GConclusions :I. U < P II. G > NIII. G > T IV. U < G(1) All I, II, III and IV are true

(2) Only II, III and IV are true(3) Only I and II are true(4) Only IV is true(5) None of these

18. Statements :R < S < Q = P, T = U > E > PConclusions :I. T < S II. E < QIII. S < U IV. T > R(1) Only I and II are true(2) Only III and IV are true(3) Only I and IV are true(4) Only III is true(5) None of these

19. Statements :C > D = E < G, L > T > N = GConclusions :I. T > D II. L > EIII. C > T IV. D < E(1) Only I, II III and IV are true

(2) Only II and III are true(3) Only I and IV are true(4) None of true(5) None of these

20. Statements :W < V = Q < R, P > S = T > WConclusions :I. P < Q II. S < VIII. R < T IV. P > V(1) All I, II, III and IV are true

(2) Only II and III are true(3) Only I and IV are true(4) None is true(5) None of these

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21. 'kCn COMPARE esa v{kjksa ds ,sls fdrus tksM+s gS ftuds

chp 'kCn esa mrus gh v{kj gS] ftrus vaxzsth o.kZekyk esa

muds chp gksrs gS\

(1) ,d (2) nks

(3) rhu (4) pkj

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

22. 'kqHke] vuqjkx] vk'kq ,oa eunhi fdlh daiuh esa dke djrs

gS] ,oa izR;sd vyx&vyx jkf'k dekrk gSA vuqjkx] eunhi

ls vf/d iSls dekrk gSA vk'kq dsoy 'kqHke ls de iSls

dekrk gS] fdarq vuqjkx ls vf/d iSls dekrk gSA muesa lcls

vf/d dkSu dekrk gS\

(1) vk'kq

(2) 'kqHke

(3) eunhi

(4) fu/kZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk


23. 'kCn INDIAN ds igys vkSj pkSFks LFkku ds v{kj dks ijLij

cny fn,s tkrs gSA mlh rjg] nwljs ,oa ikapos LFkku okys rFkk

rhljs ,oa NBs LFkku okys v{kj ijLij cny fn, tkrs gSA bl

rjg cuh u;h O;oLFkk esa nk;sa ls rhljs ,oa ck;sa ls rhljs v{kjksa

ds chp vaxzsth o.kZekyk fdrus v{kj gksrs gS\

(1) ,d (2) nks

(3) rhu (4) pkj

(5) buesa ls dksbZugha

24. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu iz'u fpUg (\) ds LFkku ij D;k

vk;sxk\

HJI KML NPO QSR ?

(1) QWR (2) UWV

(3) TVU (4) WXY

(5) VQP

25. fcanq Q ds mÙkj dh vksj 4 ehVj dh nwjh ij gSA fcanw S, fcanw

Q ds iwoZ 10 ehVj dh nwjh ij rFkk fcanw T ds nf{k.k esa 5 ehVj

dh nwjh ij gSA T, R ls fdl fn'kk esa gS\

(1) mÙkj (2) nf{k.k

(3) mÙkj&iwoZ (4) nf{k.k&if'pe


funsZ'k (2630): nh xbZ lwpuk dks è;kuiwoZd i<+s rFkk uhps

fn, x, iz'uksa dk mÙkj ns%

P, A tks W ls fookfgr gS] dh iksrh gSA M, A ftldh nks

iqf=k;k¡ ij ,d Hkh iq=k ugha gS] dk lkyk gSA R, Q dk dftu gS ,oa

P dk HkkbZ gSA U ,oa V, W ds nkekn gSA V dks ,d iq=k ,oa nks iqf=k;k¡

gSA U dks ,d iq=k ,oa ,d iq=kh gSA T ,oa S, X dh iqf=k;k¡ gSA D

Hkh blh ifjokj dk ,d lnL; gSA

26. nh xbZ lwpuk ds vuqlkj] X, R ls fdl rjg lacaf/r gS\

(1) ekrk

(2) ekSlh

(3) csVh

(4) fu/kZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk


27. nh xbZ lwpuk ds vuqlkj T, W ls fdl rjg lacaf/r gS\

(1) iksrh (2) iq=kh

(3) iq=k (4) ukuh@nknh


28. ifjokj esa fdrus naifÙk gS\

(1) ,d (2) nks

(3) rhu (4) pkj


29. fUkEufyf[kr leqgksa esa ls dkSu naifÙk leqg gS\

(1) U, D (2) X, V

(3) S, Q (4) dsoy (1) vkSj (2)


30. D, V ls fdl rjg lacaf/r gS\

(1) cgu (2) ekrk

(3) lkyh (4) HkkbZ


31. dFku :

Hkkjr ljdkj us eujsxk ds rgr lw[kk izHkkfor {ks=kksa esa fnuksa

dh la[;k esa 50 vf/d c<+kus dk iSQlyk fd;k gSA

fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lh nh xbZ lwpuk dk rkfdZd

ifj.kke ugha gS\

(1) fdlku ukSdfj;ksa dh ryk'k esa vU; jkT;ksa dh vksj

iyk;u ugha djsaxsA

(2) lw[kk izHkkfor {ks=kksa esa vf/d xjhc ifjokjksa dks de

xjhc ifjokjksa dh rqyuk vf/d ykHkkfUor fd;k tk,xkA

(3) ns'k dh xzkeh.k vFkZO;oLFkk esa lq/kj gksxkA

(4) xzkeh.k yksxksa dh Ø;&'kfDr lerk esa o`f¼ gksxhA


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21. How many such pairs of letters are there

in the word COMPARE each of which has

as many letters between them in the word

as they have between them in the English

alphabetical order?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

(5) None of these

22. Subham, Anurag, Aashu and Mandeep are

working in a company, each earning a

different amount. Anurag earns more than

Mandeep. Aashu earns only less than

Subham but more than Anurag. Who among

them earns the maximum?

(1) Aashu

(2) Subham

(3) Mandeep

(4) Can't be determined

(5) None of these

23. The positions of first and fourth letters of

the word INDIAN are interchanged.

Similarly, the positions of second and fifth

letters and third and sixth letters are

interchanged. In the new arrangement

thus formed, how many letters are there

between the letter which is third from the

right and the letter which is third from the

left in the English alphabetical order?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

(5) None of these

24. Which of the following will come in place of

question mark(?)?

HJI KML NPO QSR ?

(1) QWR (2) UWV

(3) TVU (4) WXY

(5) VQP

25. Point Q is 4m towards north of Point R. Point

S is 10m towards east of Point Q and 5m

towards south of Point T. In which direction

is T with respect to R?

(1) North (2) South

(3) North-east (4) South-west

(5) None of these

Directions (2630) : Study the followinginformation carefully and answer the questionsgiven below:

P is granddaughter of A, who is married to

W. M is brother-in-law of A, who has two

daughters but no son. R is cousin of Q and brother

of P. U and V are sons-in-law of W. V has two

daughters and one son. U has one son and one

daughter. T and S are the daughters of X. D is

also the member of this family.

26. How is X related to R according to the given

information?

(1) Mother

(2) Aunt

(3) Daughter

(4) Can’t be determined

(5) None of these

27. How is T related to W according to the given

information?

(1) Granddaughter (2) Daughter

(3) Son (4) Grandmother

(5) None of these

28. How many couples are there in the family?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

(5) None of these

29. Which of the following groups is/are the

group of a couple?

(1) U, D (2) X, V

(3) S, Q (4) Only (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

30. How is D related to V?

(1) Sister (2) Mother

(3) Sister-in-law (4) Brother

(5) None of these

31. Statement :

The Government of India has decided to

increase the number of days by 50 under

the MGNREGA in the drought-affected

areas.

Which of the following statements is not a

logical consequence of the given

information?

(1) Farmers will not migrate to other states

in search of jobs.

(2) The poorer households in the drought-

hit states will be more benefitted than

less poor ones.

(3) Rural economy of the country will

improve.

(4) Purchasing power parity of rural people

will increase.

(5) None of these

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 7


32. dFku :

vka/z izns'k esa Ñ".kk vkSj xksnkojh ufn;ksa dks tksM+us ds

vkSipkfjd 'kqHkkjaHk ds lkFk Hkkjr us vius yacs le; ls yafcr

izeq[k ufn;ksa dh tksM+dj ,d jk"Vªh; ty fxzM cukus dh

egRokdka{kh y{; dh rjiQ ,d dne c<+k;k gSA

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu Ñ".kk vkSj xksnkojh unh dks tksM+us dk

,d izHkko gksxk\

(1) ml {ks=k esa jgus okys gtkjksa fdlkuksa dks ykHkkfUor fd;k

tk,xkA

(2) iwjs vka/z izns'k esa Ñf"k mRiknu c<+sxkA

(3) jkT; esa ck<+ tSlh fLFkfr dHkh iSnk ugha gksxhA

(4) iwjs vka/z izns'k esa gtkjksa xk¡o is;ty dh vkiwfrZ ik;saxsA

(5) dsoy (1) ,oa (4)

33. dFku :

gky gh esa lekIr gq, igys cSp ds pj.k 3 ds ,iQ ,e pSuy

,oa izQhDosalh uhykeh esa vius liQy Hkkxhnkjh ds cy ij

jsfM;ks feZph us vkSj vf/d 'kgjksa esa vius foLrkj dks ysdj

iwjh rjg ls rS;kj gSA

fuEUkfyf[kr esa ls dkSu nh lh xbZ tkudkjh ls vuqeku yxk;k

tk ldrk gS\ (vuqeku og gS tks lh/s rkSj ij ugha dgk

tkrk gS] fdarq fu"d"kZ ds :i esa vuqeku yxk;k tk ldrk

gSA)

(1) vkSj vf/d 'kgjksa dks ,iQ ,e cSaM ls tksM+k tk,xkA

(2) yksxksa dks vius ,iQ ,e lsV ij O;kid fodYi feysxkA

(3) jsfM;ks ls vkSj vf/d yksx tqM+sxksA

(4) jsfM;ks fephZ ds Jksrkvksa dh la[;k esa o`f¼ gksxhA


34. dFku :

Ñf"k ea=kky; ds igys vfxze vuqeku ds vuqlkj [kjhiQ

[kk|kUUk dk mRIknu fiNys lky dh rqyuk esa 1-79 izfr'kr

de gksdj bl o"kZ 124-05 feyh;u Vu gksus dh mEehn gSA

fuEu esa ls dkSu lk mRIkknu esa fxjkoV ds fy, ,d laHkkfor

dkj.k gks ldrk gS\

(A) ns'k ds dqN fgLlksa esa de o"kks± dk gksuk

(B) fdlkuksa dk flapkbZ esa de :fp ysuk

(C) fdlkuksa dk [ksrh esa vfxze izkS|ksfxdh dk mi;ksx

(D) vkSj vf/'d fdlkuksa dk ljdkj vkSj cgqjk"Vªh; ukSdfj;ks

dh vksj eqM+uk

(E) ns'k esa flapkbZ lqfo/kvksa dk vHkko

(1) dsoy (A) ,oa (C) (2) dsoy (B) ,oa (D)

(3) dsoy (A) ,oa (E) (4) dsoy (C) ,oa (E)

(5) mi;qZDr lHkh

35. dFku :

us'kuy xzhu fVªC;wuy us ;g funsZ'k fn;k gS fd ewfrZ foltZu

dh vuqefr dsoy mu yksxksa dks nh tk;sxh tks tSo :i ls u"V

gksus ;ksX; lkezkxh;ks ls cus gS] IykfVLd@IykLVj vkWiQ isfjl

ls ughaA

fuEu esa ls dkSu fn, x, dFku ls iwokZuqeku yxk;k x;k gS\

(,d /kj.k lh/s rkSj ij dgh xbZ ugha cfYd eku yh x;h

vFkok xzg.k dh xbZ gksrh gSA)

(1) IykfLVd ;k IykLVj vkWiQ isfjl dh cuh gqbZ ewfrZ;ksa esa

dksbZ u"V gksus ;ksX; lkekfxz;ksa ls ugha cuh gksrh gSA

(2) IykfLVd lkekxzh i;kZoj.k ds vuqdqy ugha gSA

(3) IykLVj vkWiQ isfjl ls cuh ewfrZ;k¡ vf/d vkd"kZd gksrh gSA

(4) IykfLVd ;k IykLVj vkiQ isfjl ls cuh ewfrZ;k¡ LkLrh

gksrh gSA

(5) dsoy (1) ,oa (2)

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 8


32. Statement :

With the formal launch of linking the

Krishna and the Godavari river in Andhra

Pradesh, India has taken a step forward in

its ambitious long- pending goal to interlink

major rivers to form a national water grid.

Which of the following will be an effect(s) of

interlinking of the Krishna and the

Godavari River?

(1) Thousands of farmers staying in that

area will be benefited.

(2) Agriculture production will boost up

across Andhra Pradesh.

(3) Flood-like situation will never arise in

the state.

(4) Thousands of villages across Andhra

Pradesh will get drinking water supply.

(5) Only (1) and (4)

33. Statement :

FM network Radio Mirchi is all set to expand

its footprint to more cities, on the back of

its successful participation in the first batch

of the Phase 3 FM channel and frequency

auctions that ended recently.

Which of the following can be inferred from

the given information? (An inference is

something that is not directly stated but

can be inferred from the given information.)

(1) More cities will be connected to the FM

band.

(2) People will get wider choice on their FM

set.

(3) More people will be connected to the

radio.

(4) There will be an increase in the number

of listeners of Radio Mirchi.

(5) None of these

34. Statement :

Kharif foodgrain production is expected at

124.05 million tonnes this season, 1.79 per

cent less than last year, as per the first

advance estimate of the agriculture

ministry.

Which of the following may be a probable

reason for the fall in production?

(A) Less rainfall in some parts of the

country

(B) Farmers taking less interest in

irrigation

(C) Farmers using advance technology in

farming

(D) More farmers moving towards

government and MNC jobs

(E) Lack of irrigation facilities in the

country

(1) Only (A) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (D)

(3) Only (A) and (E) (4) Only (C) and (E)

(5) All of the above

35. Statement :

National Green Tribunal has directed that

idol immersion would be allowed "only of the

ones which are made from biodegradable

material and not from plastic/Plaster of

Paris".

Which of the following has been assumed

in the given statement? (An assumption is

something that is not directly stated but is

supposed or taken for granted.)

(1) Idols made up of plastic or Plaster of

Paris are non biodegradable.

(2) Plastic materials are not environment-

friendly.

(3) Idols made of Plaster of Paris are more

attractive.

(4) Idols made up of plastic or Plaster of

Paris are cheaper.

(5) Only (1) and (2)

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 9


la[;kRed vfHk;ksX;rk36. ,d xk¡o essa n yksxksa dh vkSlr vk;q 47 o"kZ gS] ysfdu tk¡p

djus ds ckn ;g Kkr gksrk gS fd muesa ls ,d O;fDr dhvk;q bldh okLrfod vk;q ls 38 o"kZ de yxkbZ xbZ gSA vr%lqèkkj ds ckn] ubZ vkSlr vk;q nks o"kZ c<+ tkrh gS] rks ‘n’

dk eku Kkr dhft,A(1) 16 (2) 19(3) 17 (4) 23(5) 21

37. ,d nw/ okyk 25 yhVj 'kw¼ nw/ esa uy ls 8 yhVj eqÝr ikuhfeykrk gSA ;fn 'kq¼ nw/ dk ewY; ` 32 yhVj gS] rks iwjsfeJ.k dkss Ø; ewY; ij cspus ij nw/ okys dks fdruk izfr'krykHk gksxk\(1) 28% (2) 34%(3) 32% (4) 37%(5) 42%

38. lat; ̀ 12 yk[k esa ,d gksVy [kjhnrk gS vkSj cj[kk ̀ 18

yk[k esa ,d dkj [kjhnrh gSA gksVy ds ewY; esa izfr o"kZfiNys o"kZ dh rqyuk esa 25% dh o`f¼ gksrh gS ,oa dkj dsewY; esa izfro"kZ 30% dk àkl gksrk gSA rhu o"kks± ckn gksVy,oa dkj ds ewY; dk varj D;k gksxk\(1) ` 1535840 (2) ` 1698500(3) ` 1726350 (4) ` 1924280(5) ` 2143650

39. tc A, B ,oa C dks fdlh dk;Z iwjk djus ds fy, yxk;ktkrk gSA A ,oa B feydj ftrus le; esa dk;Z dk 75%

djrs gS] B ,oa C feydj ml dk;Z dk 60% dke djrs gSAmuesa lcls vf/d dk;Zdq'ky dkSu gS\(1) A (2) C ,oa B(3) B (4) A ,oa C(5) A ,oa B

40. iadt fdlh ;k=kk ds fuf'pr Hkkx dks 6 fdeh@?kaVs dh nj lsr; djrk gS ,oa 'ks"k nwjh dks vkWVks ls 30 fdeh-@?kaVs dh njls r; djus dk fu'p; djrk gSA ;fn og iwjh ;k=kk 12 ?kaVsesa r; djrk gks] rks mlds }kjk vkWVks ls r; dh xbZ ;k=kkcrk,a] ;fn iwjs ;k=kk dh vkSlr pky 20 fdeh-@?kaVk gksA

(1) 61

2(2) 6h

(3) 7h (4) 5h(5) 8h

funsZ'k (41–45): fuEufyf[kr ikbZ&pkVZ dks è;kuiwoZd i<+s ,oauhps fn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj ns%

ikbZ&pkVZ I fo'ofo|ky; izos'k ijh{kk esa mifLFkr fo|kfFkZ;ksadh la[;k dk fo"k;okj C;kSjk iznf'kZr djrk gS ,oa ikbZ&pkVZ II

fo'ofo|ky; }kjk pqus x, fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k dk fo"k;okj fo'ys"k.knsrk gSA

ikbZ&pkVZ – I

15%

18%

17%

10%

Ñf"k

13%

27%okf.kT;

foKku

izca/u vfHk;kaf=kdh

vU;

mifLFkr fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh dqy la[;k = 18700

ikbZ&pkVZ – II

foKku

23%

vfHk;kaf=kdh

20%

izca/u

8%

Ñf"k 19%

vU; 18% okf.kT;

12%

ijh{kk ds i'pkr p;fur fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh dqy la[;k = 9200

41. vfHk;kaf=kd 'kk[kk ls p;fur fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k ,oa vU;'kk[kk ls p;fur fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k dk varj D;k gS\(1) 207 (2) 184

(3) 295 (4) 295

(5) 267

42. fdlh 'kk[kk esa ijh{kk esa p;fur fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k ,oamifLFkr fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k dk varj U;wure gS\

(1) Ñf"k (2) izca/u

(3) foKku (4) vU;

(5) okf.kT;

43. foKku ,oa vU; 'kk[kk esa mifLFkr fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k]vfHk;kaf=kd ,oa okf.kT; 'kk[kk esa mifLFkr fo|kfFkZ;ksa dhla[;k dk fdruk izfr'kr gS\(1) 117% (2) 108%

(3) 140.63% (4) 129.33%


44. foKku ,ao izca/u 'kk[kkvksa dks feykdj p;fur fo|kfFkZ;ksa dhdqy la[;k D;k gS\(1) 2505 (2) 2737

(3) 2396 (4) 3932

(5) 2852

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 10


QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

36. In a village the average age of n number ofpeople is 47 years. But after verification itwas found that the age of one of the personswas considered 38 years less than theactual age. So, the new average, after thecorrection, increased by 2 years. The valueof n is(1) 16 (2) 19(3) 17 (4) 23(5) 21

37. A milkman mixes 8 litres of free tap waterwith 25 litres of pure milk. If the cost ofpure milk is ` 32 per litre the percentageprofit to the milkman when he sells all themixture at the cost price is(1) 28% (2) 34%(3) 32% (4) 37%(5) 42%

38. Sanjay purchased a hotel worth ` 12 lakhand Barkha purchased a car worth ` 18lakh. The value of the hotel increased everyyear by 25% from the previous value andthe value of the car depreciated every yearby 30%. What is the difference between theprice of the hotel and that of the car afterthree years?(1) ` 1535840 (2) ` 1698500(3) ` 1726350 (4) ` 1924280(5) ` 2143650

39. When A, B and C are deployed for a task insome days. A and B together can complete75% of the work and B and C together cancomplete 60% of the work in same numberof days. Who is the most efficient?(1) A (2) Either C or B(3) B (4) Either A or C(5) Either A or B

40. Pankaj walked at 6 kmph for a certain partof the journey and then he hired an autofor the remaining part of the journey,moving at 30 kmph. If he took 12 hours forthe entire journey, what part of the journeydid he cover by the auto if the average speedof the entire journey was 20 kmph?

(1) 61

2(2) 6h

(3) 7h (4) 5h(5) 8h

Directions (41–45): Study the following piecharts carefully and answer the questionsgiven below:

Pie-chart-I shows discipline-wise breakupof the number of students who appeared in theuniversity entrance examination and pie-chart

II shows discipline-wise breakup and the numberof students selected by the university.

PiechartI

Commerce 15%

Science 18%

Engineering

17%

Management 10%

Agriculture

13%

Other 27%

Total no. of students appearing = 18700PiechartII

Science 23%

Engineering

20%

Management 8%

Agriculture

19%

Other 18%

Com

mer

ce

12%

Total number of students selected after theexamination = 9200

41. What is the difference between the numberof students selected from Engineeringdiscipline and the number of studentsselected from others discipline?(1) 207 (2) 184(3) 295 (4) 295(5) 267

42. For which discipline is the differencebetween the number of students selectedand the number of students appearing inthe examination the minimum?(1) Agriculture (2) Management(3) Science (4) Others(5) Commerce

43. The total number of candidates appearingfrom Science and other discipline was whatpercent of the total number of studentsappearing from Engineering and Commercediscipline?(1) 117% (2) 108%(3) 140.63% (4) 129.33%(5) None of these

44. What is the total number of studentsselected from Science and Managementdisciplines together?(1) 2505 (2) 2737(3) 2396 (4) 3932(5) 2852

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 11


45. ijh{kk esa izca/u 'kk[kk ls mifLFkr fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k ,oavfHk;kaf=kdh 'kk[kk ls p;fur fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k dk vuqikrD;k gS\(1) 19 : 17 (2) 187 : 184(3) 23 : 21 (4) 105 : 97

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ughafunsZ'k (46–50) : fuEUkfyf[kr xzkiQ dks è;kuiwoZd i<+s uhpsfn, x, iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsaAfdlh laLFkk ds fofHkUUk foHkkxksa ds deZpkfj;ksa dh la[;k

rFkk muesa iq#"kksa ,oa efgykvksa dk vuqikr

450

0

500

400

350

300

250

200

150

100

50

HkkSfr

dh

jlk;u

xf.kr

daI;wVj

bfrg

kl

fganh

vaxzst

h

vFkZ'kkL=k

deZpkfj;

ksa dh la[;k

iq#"kksa ,oa efgykvksa dk vuqikr

2:1

6:5

5:4

3:4

7:8

5:3

2:3

7:5

:

HkkSfrdjlk;uxf.kr

daI;wVjvFkZ'kkL=kbfrgklfganhvxzasth

foHkkx iq#"k efgyk

46. xf.kr foHkkx ds 25% iq#"k deZpkfj;ksa ,oa bfrgkl foHkkx

ds 35% iq#"k deZpkfj;ksa dh la[;k dk vuqikr D;k gS\

(1) 5 : 7 (2) 3 : 5

(3) 7 : 13 (4) 5 : 12

(5) 5 : 12

47. HkkSfrd ,oa fganh foHkkxksa dks feykdj efgyk deZpkfj;ksa dh

dqy la[;k ,oa daI;wVj ,oa vaxzsth foHkkxksa dks feykdj muds

efgyk deZpkfj;ksa dh dqy la[;k dk varj D;k gS\

(1) 143 (2) 155

(3) 139 (4) 132

(5) 160

48. lHkh foHkkxksa esa efgyk deZpkfj;ksa dk vkSlr D;k gS\

(1) 139 (2) 152

(3) 130 (4) 146

(5) 186

49. vFkZ'kkL=k foHkkx esa iq#"k deZpkfj;ksa dh la[;k] xf.kr foHkkx

esa efgyk deZpkfj;ksa dh la[;k dk fdruk izfr'kr gS\

(1) 82.3% (2) 79.5%

(3) 87.5% (4) 75.2%

(5) 92%

50. ;fn HkkSfrd foHkkx ds 40% iq#"k deZpkjh ,oa fganh foHkkx

ds 50% efgyk deZpkjh vuqifLFkr gksa] rks Øe'k% bu

foHkkxksa esa mifLFkr deZpkfj;ksa dk vuqikr D;k gksxk\

(1) 3 : 5 (2) 7 : 8

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 11 : 13

(5) 1 : 1

funsZ'k (51–55) : fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz'uksa esa Üka`[kyk esa ,d

la[;k yqIr nh xbZ gSA vkidks Üka`z[kyk ds iSVuZ dks Kkr djuk

gS ,oa (?) fpUg ds yqIr la[;k ds LFkku ij ntZ djuk gSA

51. 5 6 15 40 89 ? 291

(1) 165 (2) 150

(3) 160 (4) 170

(5) 155

52. 125 142 176 244 380 652 ?

(1) 1196 (2) 1236

(3) 1375 (4) 1298

(5) 1025

53. 13 20.5 48.5 153 619.5 ? 18637.5

(1) 1032 (2) 1276

(3) 3105 (4) 2171

(5) 3869

54. 1 2 8 33 148 ? 4626

(1) 325 (2) 973

(3) 628 (4) 1879

(5) 765

55. 2 2 4 12 48 240 1440 ?

(1) 2345 (2) 10080

(3) 8596 (4) 9632

(5) 11860

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 12


45. What is the ratio of the number of studentsappearing in examination fromManagement discipline to the number ofstudents selected from Engineeringdiscipline?(1) 19 : 17 (2) 187 : 184(3) 23 : 21 (4) 105 : 97(5) None of these

Directions (46–50) : Study the following graphcarefully to answer the questions that follow.Number of employees in various departmentsof an organisation and the ratio of males to

females

450

0

500

Physi

cs

Ch

emis

try

Math

s

Com

pu

ter

Econ

om

ics

His

tory

Hin

di

En

glish

Num

ber

of

Em

plo

yee

400

350

300

250

200

150

100

50

Ratio of males to females

Physics 2:1

Chemistry 6:5

Maths 5:4

Computer 3:4

Economics 7:8

History 5:3

Hindi 2:3

English 7:5

Department Male : Female

46. What is the ratio of 25% of male employeesin the Maths department to 35% of maleemployees in the Histgory department?(1) 5 : 7 (2) 3 : 5(3) 7 : 13 (4) 5 : 12(5) 5 : 12

47. What is the difference between the totalnumber of female employees in the Physicsand Hindi department together to those inthe Computer and English departmenttogether?(1) 143 (2) 155(3) 139 (4) 132(5) 160

48. What is the average of the female

employees in all the departments?

(1) 139 (2) 152

(3) 130 (4) 146

(5) 186

49. What is the percentage of the male

employees in the Economics department

with respect to the female employees in the

Maths department?

(1) 82.3% (2) 79.5%

(3) 87.5% (4) 75.2%

(5) 92%

50. If 40% of male employees in the Physics

department and 50% of female employees

in the Hindi department are absent, then

what is the ratio of the present employees

in these departments respectively?

(1) 3 : 5 (2) 7 : 8

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 11 : 13

(5) 1 : 1

Directions (51–55): In each of the following

questions, one number is missing in the series.

You have to understand the pattern of the

series and then insert the missing number in

place of (?) mark.

51. 5 6 15 40 89 ? 291

(1) 165 (2) 150

(3) 160 (4) 170

(5) 155

52. 125 142 176 244 380 652 ?

(1) 1196 (2) 1236

(3) 1375 (4) 1298

(5) 1025

53. 13 20.5 48.5 153 619.5 ? 18637.5

(1) 1032 (2) 1276

(3) 3105 (4) 2171

(5) 3869

54. 1 2 8 33 148 ? 4626

(1) 325 (2) 973

(3) 628 (4) 1879

(5) 765

55. 2 2 4 12 48 240 1440 ?

(1) 2345 (2) 10080

(3) 8596 (4) 9632

(5) 11860

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 13


funsZ'k (5660) : uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz'u esa ,d iz'u vkSjmlds uhps nks dFku I vkSj II fn, x, gSaA vkidks ;g r; djukgS fd dFkuksa esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIrgS ;k ugha gSA nksuksa dFkuksa dks if<+, vkSj mÙkj nsa&

(1) ;fn ;k rks dsoy dFku I ;k dsoy dFku II esa fn;s x;svkadM+s iz'u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr gSA

(2) ;fn dsoy dFku I esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'u dk mÙkj nsus dsfy, i;kZIr gS] tcfd dsoy dFku II esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'udk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gSA

(3) ;fn dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa dks vkadM+s feydj iz'u dkmÙkj nsus ds fy, vko';d gSA

(4) ;fn dsoy dFku II esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'u dk mÙkj nsus dsfy, i;kZIr gS] tcfd dsoy dFku I esa fn;s x;s vkadM+s iz'udk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gSA

(5) ;fn dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa dks vkadM+s feykdj Hkh iz'udk mÙkj nsus ds fy, i;kZIr ugha gSA

56. v/Z&o`r dk ifjeki D;k gS\I. v/Zo`r dh f=kT;k] oxZ dh Hkqtk ds vk/s ds cjkcj gSAII. oxZ dk {ks=kiQy 784 oxZ lseh gSA

57. Vsªu dh yackbZ D;k gS\I. Vsªu ,d [kaHks dks 25 lsdsaMks esa ikj djrh gSAII. og Vsªu ,d 216 eh- yach Vsªu dks 34 lsdsaMksa esa ikj

djrh gSA58. C;kt dh nj D;k gS\

I. fdlh fuf'pr jkf'k dks lk/kj.k C;kt dh nj ls fuos'kdjus ij ;g 12 o"kks± esa 3 xquh gks tkrh gSA

II. nks o"kks± esa pØo`f¼ C;kt ,oa lk/kj.k C;kt dk varj` 156.25 gSA

59. fdlh vk;rkdkj Hkw[kaM ds lHkh pkjksa Hkqtkvksa dks feykdj` 350 izfr eh- dh nj ls ?ksjus dk [kpZ D;k gksxk\I. ml Hkw[kaM dh yackbZ dk 150% ,oa pkSM+kbZ bldh

yackbZ dk 37.5% gSAII. ml Hkw[kaM dk {ks=kiQy 1944 oxZ eh- gS] tks bldh

pkSM+kbZ ds la[;kRed eku dk 54 xquk gSA60. iq#"kksa] efgykvksa ,oa yM+dks esa ls dkSu ,d leku dk;Z dks

lcls 'kh?kz iwjk djsxk\I. 10 iq#"k ,oa 8 efgyk,a ,d dke dks 18 fnuksa esa iwjk

djrs gSAII. 12 yM+ds ,oa 9 yM+fd;k¡ mlh leku dk;Z dks 24 fnuksa

esa iwjk djrs gSAfunsZ'k (61–62) : fuEUkfyf[kr xzkiQ dks è;kuiwoZd i<+s ,oarnuqlkj mÙkj nsaA

fdlh lqjkgh esa 5 lisQn] 4 gjs, 2 uhys ,oa 3 dkys iRFkj dhxsasns gSA61. ;fn nks xsanks dks ;kn`fPNd :i ls fudkyk tkrk gS] rks nksuksa

ds gjs vFkok de ls de ,d ds gjs gksus dh izkf;drk D;kgS\

(1)25

91(2)

46

91

(3)33

91(4)

4

91


62. ;fn rhu xsanks dks ;kn`fPNd :i ls fudkyk trk gS] rks muesals fdlh ds lisQn u gksus dh izkf;drk D;k gS\

(1)3

364(2)

11

364

(3)3

13(4)

4

91

(5)8

91

63. ;fn fdlh vk;rkdkj [ksr dh yackbZ 20% c<+k;h tkrh gS ,oapkSM+kbZ 20% ?kVk;h tkrh gS] rks ml vk;r dk {ks=kiQy288 oxZ ehVj gks tkrk gSA ewy vk;r dk {ks=kiQy D;k gS\(1) 384 oxZ ehVj (2) 320 oxZ ehVj(3) 300 oxZ ehVj (4) 304 oxZ ehVj(5) 336 oxZ ehVj

64. fdlh jkf'k ij 12% izfro"kZ dh nj ls nks o"kks± dk pØo`f¼C;kt ` 2544 gSA jkf'k D;k gS\(1) ` 12500 (2) ` 11600(3) ` 10100 (4) ` 10000

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha65. ,d eqxhZ ,oa ,d cdjh dks ̀ 540 esa cspus ij ,d eqxhZ ij

25% ,oa ,d cdjh ij 20% dk ykHk gksrk gSA ̀ 538 esacspus ij izkIr ykHk Øe'k% eqxhZ ij 20% ,oa cdjh ij25% gks tk,xkA eqxhZ dh dher Kkr djsaA (` esa)(1) 250 (2) 220(3) 200 (4) 240

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ughafunsZ'k (66–70) : fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa nks lehdj.k I ,oa IIfn;s x, gSA vkidks lehdj.kksa dk gy djuk gS ,oa viuk lghmÙkj r; djuk gSA mÙkj nsa%

1. ;fn x < y

2. ;fn x > y

3. ;fn x = y

4. ;fn x > y

5. ;fn x < y

66. I. x (x + 7) = 30

II. y =

1

2100

9

67. I. 3x2 – 16x + 21 = 0II. 6y2 + 25y + 21 = 0

68. I. 2x5 (x – 2) = 128

II.1

3y9 =

1

24y11

69. I. 20x2 – 108x + 144 = 0II. 25y2 – 50y + 72 = 0

70. I. 2x2 + 18x + 36 = 0II. y2 – y – 12 = 0

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 14


Directions (56–60) : Each questions consists ofa questions and two statements numbered I andII given below it. You have to decide wetherthe data provided in the statements aresufficient to answer the questions. Read boththe statements and given answer.

1. If the data either in statement I alone or instatement II alone are sufficient to answerthe questions.

2. If the data in statement I alone aresufficient to answer the questions, whilethe data in statement II alone are notsufficient to answer the questions.

3. If the data in both statement I and IItogether are necessary to answer thequestions.

4. If the data in statement II alone aresufficient to answer the questions, whilethe data in statement I alone are notsufficient to answer the question.

5. If the data even in both statement I and IItogether are not sufficient to answer thequestions.

56. What is the perimeter of a semi circle?I. The radius of the semi-circle is equal

to half of the side of the square.II. The area of the square is 784 sq cm.

57. What is the length of the train?I. The train crosses a pole in 25 seconds.II. The same train crosses a 216m-long

train in 34 seconds.58. What is the rate of interest pcpa?

I. A certain amount invested on simpleinterest becomes 3 times in 12 years.

II. The difference between the compoundinterest and the simple interest for twoyears is ` 156.25.

59. What is the cost of fencing a rectangularplot along all four sides @ ` 350 per metre?I. The length of the plot is 150% of its

breadth and the breadth is 37.5% of itslenth.

II. The area of the plot is 1944m2, whichis 54 times the numerical values of itsbreadth.

60. Who among men, women and boys willcomplete the same piece of work thefastest?I. 10 men and 8 women can complete a

piece of work in 18 days.II. 12 boys and 9 girls can complete the

same piece of work in 24 days.Directions (6162): Study the given informationcarefully to answer the questions that follow:

An urn contains 5 white, 4 green, 2 blueand 3 black marbles.61. If two marbles are drawn at random, what

is the probability that both are green or atleast one is green?

(1)25

91(2)

46

91

(3)33

91(4)

4

91(5) None of these

62. If three marbles are drawn at random, whatis the probability that none of them is white?

(1)3

364(2)

11

364

(3)3

13(4)

4

91

(5)8

9163. If the length of a rectangular field is

increased by 20% and breadth is reducedby 20%, the area of the rectangle becomes288 m2. What is the area of the originalrectangle?

(1) 384m2 (2) 320m2

(3) 300m2 (4) 304m2

(5) 336m2

64. The compound interest accrued on anamount at the end of two years at 12% perannum is ` 2544. What is the amount?

(1) ` 12500 (2) ` 11600

(3) ` 10100 (4) ` 10000

(5) None of these

65. A hen and a goat were sold for ̀ 540, therebymaking a profit of 25% on a hen and 20%on a goat. When sold for ` 538 the profitwould be 20% on hen and 25% on goat. Findthe cost of a hen (in `)

(1) 250 (2) 220

(3) 200 (4) 240

(5) None of these

Directions (66–70) : In each of these questionstwo equations are given. You have to solvethese equations and given answer.

1. If x < y

2. If x > y

3. If x = y

4. If x > y

5. If x < y

66. I. x (x + 7) = 30

II. y =

1

2100

9

67. I. 3x2 – 16x + 21 = 0

II. 6y2 + 25y + 21 = 0

68. I. 2x5 (x – 2) = 128

II.1

3y9 =

1

24y11

69. I. 20x2 – 108x + 144 = 0

II. 25y2 – 50y + 72 = 0

70. I. 2x2 + 18x + 36 = 0

II. y2 – y – 12 = 0

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 15


ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION

Directions (7180) : Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below

it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in

bold to help you locate them while answering

some of the questions.

The modern world requires us to repose trust in

many anonymous institutions. We strap

ourselves in a flying tin can with two hundred

other people not because we know the pilot but

because we believe that airline travel is safe.

Our trust in these institutions depends on two

factors : skills and ethics. We expect that the

people who run these institutions know what they

are doing, that they build and operate machines

that work as they are supposed to and that they

are looking out for our welfare even though we

are strangers.

When one of these factors is weak or absent,

trust breaks down and we either pay a high price

in safety as in the Bhopal tragedy or a large

‘welfare premium’ such as the elaborate security

measures at airports. Trust deficient

environments work in the favour of the rich and

powerful, who can command premium treatment

and afford welfare premiums. Poor people can

command neither; which is why air travel is safer

than train travel, which in turn is safer than

walking by the road side.

Every modern society depends on the trust in

the skills and ethics of a variety of institutions

such as schools and colleges, hospital and

markets. If we stopped believing in the expertise

of our teachers, doctors and engineers, we will

stop being a modern society.

As the Institution among institutions, it is the

duty of the state to ensure that all other

institutions meet their ethical obligations. The

Indian state has failed in its regulatory role.

Consequently, we cannot trust our schools to turn

out good graduates, we cannot ensure that our

colleges turn out well trained engineers and we

cannot guarantee that our engineers will turn

out to be good products.

Last year, I was invited to speak at an

undergraduate research conference. Most of the

participants in this conference were students at

the best engineering colleges in the state. One

student who was driving me back and forth

recounted a story about the previous year’s final

exam. One of his papers had a question from a

leading textbook to which the textbook’s answer

was wrong. The student was in a dilemma :

should he write the (wrong) answer as given in

the textbook or should he write the right answer

using his own analytical skills. He decided to do

the latter and received a zero on that question.

Clearly, as the student had suspected, the

examiners were looking at the textbook answer

while correcting the examination papers instead

of verifying its correctness.

The behaviour of these examiners is a

breakdown of institutional morals, with

consequences for the

skills acquired by students. I say institutional

morals, for the failure of these examiners is not

a personal failure. At the same conference I met

a whole range of college teachers, all of whom

were drafted as examiners at some time or the

other. Without exception, they were dedicated

individuals who cared about the education and

welfare of their students. However, when put in

the institutional role of evaluating an

anonymous individual they fail in fulfilling their

responsibilities. When some of our best colleges

are run in this fashion, is it any wonder that we

turn out unskilled engineers and scientists ?

If, as we are led to expect, there is a vast increase

in education at all levels and the regulatory

regime is as weak as it is currently, isn’t it likely

that the trust deficit is only going to increase ?

We are all aware of the consequences of

ignoring corruption at all levels of society. While

institutional failures in governance are obvious,

I think the real problem lies deeper, in the

failure of every day institutions that are quite

apart from institutions that impinge on our lives

only on rare occasions. It is true that our lives

are made more miserable by government officials

demanding bribes for all sorts of things, but

what about the everyday lying and cheating

and breaking of rules with people who are

strangers ?

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 16


Let me give you an example that many of us

have experienced. I prefer buying my fruits and

vegetables from roadside vendors rather than

chain stores. To the vendor, I am probably an ideal

customer, since I do not bargain and I do not take

hours choosing the best pieces, instead, letting

the vendor do the selecting. The market near

my house is quite busy; as a result, most vendors

are selling their wares to strangers. It takes a

while before a particular vendor realises that I

am a repeat customer. In such a situation trust

is crucial. I have a simple rule : if a vendor palms

off a bad piece whose defects are obvious, I never

go back to that person again. It is amazing how

often that happens.

In my opinion, the failure of institutional

ethics is as much about these little abuses of

trust as anything else. Everyday thievery is like

roadside trash; if you let it accumulate the whole

neighbourhood stinks.

71. What is the meaning of the phrase ‘palms

off’ as used in the passage ?

(1) steals from

(2) hides away from

(3) buys quickly

(4) acquires a good price for

(5) passes on by deception

72. Why, according to the author, do people repose

trust in institutions they do not know ?

(1) The marketing strategies adopted by

these institutions make them

trustworthy in the eyes of the public.

(2) Many other people before them have

done the same thing, thus they feel safe.

(3) People learn from the experiences of

their richer counterparts who have

availed of the services of these

institutions.

(4) They believe that these institutions

have the requisite knowledge and will

act only in favour of the general public.

(5) These institutions charge a very high

price for the services they provide

which leads people to trust them.

73. Which of the following is NOT true in the

context of the passage ?

(A) Despite being aware of the fact that

clients will not return, fruit and

egetable vendors sell bad goods.

(B) Examiners are devoted to their jobs.

(C) Examiners deliberately mark correct

answers as incorrect ones.

(1) Only (A) and (C) (2) Only (B)

(3) Only (A) (4) Only (B) and (C)

(5) Only (C)

74. What, according to the author, happens

when there is a breakdown of trust?

(A) Less affluent people have to compromise

on quality.

(B) Our wellbeing is compromised.

(C) We pay a higher price for services.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) and (C)

(3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (B)

(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

75. Which of the following reasons, make/s the

author an ideal customer to a fruit and

vegetable vendor ?

(A) He/she remains a regular customer

of the same vendor.

(B) He/she does not haggle for prices.

(C) He/she finishes the selection of goods

in a short time.

(1) Only (B) (2) Only (B) and (C)

(3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (B)

(5) All (A), (B) and (C) are true

76. Why according to the author, do institutional

failures in governance not matter on a

larger scale ?

(1) The general public does not care about

the failures of these institutions as

they do not feature in their lives at all.

(2) Such institutional failures are almost

non-existent and do not occur often to

matter to the public.

(3) These intrude in our lives only under

exceptional circumstances whereas the

everyday lies contribute to much more.

(4) These are a part of every country’s

problems and are taken with a pinch of

salt by the public.

(5) These institutional failures do not

hamper the functioning of the country

in any manner and are hence less

important.

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 17


Directions (7778): Choose the word/group of

words which is most similar in meaning to the

word/ group of words printed in bold as used in

the passage.

77. OBLIGATION

(1) responsibility (2) dependability

(3) compulsion (4) debt

(5) force

78. EXPERTISE

(1) proficiency (2) authenticity

(3) inability (4) power

(5) reality

Directions (79–80) : Choose the word/group of

words which is most opposite in meaning to

the word/ group of words printed in bold as used

in the passage.

79. UNSKILLED

(1) civilized (2) enlightened

(3) amateur (4) trained

(5) cultured

80. MISERABLE

(1) despondent (2) energetic

(3) dynamic (4) vigorous

(5) joyous

Directions (81–85) : Rearrange the following six

sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the

proper sequence to form a meaningful

paragraph; then answer the questions given

below them.

(A) Building of these structures requires a

lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a large

amount of carbon dioxide in the

atomosphere.

(B) The major source of carbon dioxide is

power plants.

(C) Another twenty percent of carbon

dioxide emitted in the atmosphere

comes from burning of gasoline in the

engines of vehicles.

(D) Buildings, both commercial and

residential respresent a larger source

of global warming pollution than the

said cars and trucks.

(E) The major cause of global warming is

the emission of green house gases like

carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide

etc. into the atmosphere.

(F) These power plants emit large amounts

of carbon dioxide produced from burning

of fossil fuels for the purpose of

electricity generation.

81. Which of the following should be the

SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E (2) D

(3) C (4) B

(5) A

82. Which of the following should be the THIRD

sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) F

83. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

84. Which of the following should be the SIXTH

sentence after rearragement?

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

(5) E

85. Which of the following should be the

FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E (2) D

(3) C (4) B

(5) A

Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 18


Directions (86–95) : In the following passage

there are blanks each of which has been

numbered. These numbers are printed below

the passage and against each, five words are

suggested, one of which fits the blank

appropriately. Find out the appropriate word

in each case.

It is noteworthy that the prime minister's

working group set up to suggest long-term

solutions to ...(86)... the growing demand for

affordable food has acknowledged the use of

biotechnology as integral to a second Green

Revolution. Although Indian agriculture serves

as a good example of incorporating hybrid

varieties of high-yielding crops, the attitude

towards genetically modified or transgenic food

has been sceptical. But cotton is the only ...(87)...

crop currently approved for ...(88)... in India. Bt

brinjal is under moratorium for commercial

release. In a country where 65 percent of

agricultural land is still ...(89)... on 'the monsoon,

there needs to be far greater investment in

biotechnology-driven solutions to increase yields.

True, there are valid health and environment

...(90)... regarding the adoption of GM crops. It is

for this reason that adequate ...(91)... need to be

in place to ensure consumer safety. But an

...(92)... rejection of genetically modifited food

would be ...(93)... to the country's food security.

Given the huge deficit between demand

and production, there is an urgent need to adopt

a ...(94)... approach no agriculture. Brazil serves

as a good example. Over the last 40 years the

South American nation has scripted an

agricultural revolution in the dry plains of the

country by providing basic inputs on a large scale

and vigorously adopting GM crops. There is no

reason why India can't ...(95)... this. Storage and

delivery is the other side of the problem that can

be significantly mitigated by policy decisions that

allow for greater FDI in retail. Scientific

innovations combined with a farsighted farm-to-

-fork agriculture strategy are the answer to

India's growing food needs.

86. (1) meet (2) suggest

(3) complete (4) seek

(5) recommend

87. (1) food (2) transgenic

(3) high-yielding (4) genetic

(5) organic

88. (1) research (2) hybrid

(3) release (4) launch

(5) cultivation

89. (1) tilled (2) dependent

(3) depends (4) independent

(5) available

90. (1) concerns (2) protests

(3) factors (4) yields

(5) areas

91. (1) warnings (2) features

(3) safeguards (4) research

(5) alerts

92. (1) accurate (2) hasty

(3) absurd (4) outright

(5) honest

93. (1) risk (2) beneficial

(3) attestation (4) acrimonious

(5) detrimental

94. (1) thoughtful (2) middle

(3) holistic (4) hybrid

(5) balance

95. (1) replicate (2) test

(3) overcome (4) condemn

(5) simulate

Directions (96–100) : Read each sentence to

find out whether there is any error in it. The

error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.

The number of that part is the answer. If there

is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of

punctuation, if any).

96. Some of the world (1)/ largest water bodies

are (2)/ drying up thus threatening (3)/ the

livelihoods of millions. (4)/ No error. (5)

97. Among the many (1)/ challenges facing the

country (2)/ in the next decade (3)/ is

proverty and unemployment.(4)/ No error (5)

98. According to economists (1)/ not more than

five percent (2)/ of education loans taken

(3)/ by students are overdue. (4)/ No error.

(5)

99. The two candidates share (1)/ a reputation

for (2) competency as well as (3)/ for good

communication skills. (4)/ No error. (5)

100. His main qualification (1)/ on the job is (2)/

his extensive experience (3)/ in foreign

branches. (4)/ No error (5)

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