MOCK TEST : NEET - II 2016 · TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS 1. ... T ou ensu / cor only. I studen i ou hav occupi e oth studen, tudent hal emove fro th ... P-Mca / NEET-II-2016/20-07

Test Pattern : NEET Test Date : 20 - 07 - 2016

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat

only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examinationand shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku

ij cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkSj nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?k.Vs gS rFkk iz'u i= esa 180 iz'u gSaA vf/kdre vad 720 gSaA

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwysVj ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gSA

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ifjoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

iz'u i= gy djus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesa lHkh ist layXu gSa vFkok ughaA

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds 4 vad gSaA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ij 1 vad dkV fy;k tk,xkA mÙkj dks vuqeku ls Hkjuk gkfudkjd gks ldrk gSA

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black BallPoint Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

ijh{kkFkhZ dks gy fd;s x;s iz'u dk mÙkj OMR mÙkj iqfLrdk esa lgh LFkku ij dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy ikWbUV isu ds }kjk mfpr xksys dks xgjk

djds nsuk gSA

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

isfUly dk iz;ksx loZFkk oftZr gSA

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET- II 2016

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do sobl ijh{kk iqfLrdk dks tc rd uk [kksys a tc rd dgk u tk,sA

Important Instructions / egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k

MOCK TEST : NEET - II 2016

Paper Code : 1001CM370715011

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

MOCK TEST/ Target: Pre-Medical / NEET-II-2016/20-07-2016

H-1/391001CM370715011

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKINGHAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS

1. The adiabatic container shown in figure has twochambers, separated by a partition, of volumesV1 = 2.0 litre and V2= 3.0 litre. The chamberscontain m1= 4.0 and m2=5.0 moles of a gas atpressures p1 = 1.00 atm and p2 = 2.00 atm. Thepressure after the partition is removed and themixture attains equilibrium is P0 atm, then find thevalue of 2.5 P0.

V1 V2

m1 1, p m2 2, p

(1) 4 (2) 3(3) 2 (4) None of these

2. At STP a rod is hung from a frame as shown infigure, leaving a small gap between the rod andfloor. The frame and rod system is heateduniformly upto 350 K. Then

frame

Rod

(1) The rod will never touch the floor in any case.(2) If arod > aframe, then rod may touch the floor.(3) If arod < aframe, then rod may touch the floor.(4) None of the above

3. A ball of mass m hits the floor with a speed vmaking an angle of incidence q = 45° with thenormal to the floor. If the coefficient of restitution

e = 1

2, find the speed of the reflected ball .

(1) 3

v2

(2) 1

v2

(3) 2

v3

(4) 5

v4

1. fp= esa iznf'kZr :¼ks"e ik= dks ,d foHkktd }kjk nks d{kksaesa foHkkftr fd;k x;k gS ftuds vk;ru V1 = 2.0 litrerFkk V2= 3.0 litre gSA bu d{kksa esa p1 = 1.00 atm rFkkp2 = 2.00 atm nkcksa ij Øe'k% m1 = 4.0 o m2 = 5.0eksy xSl Hkjh gqbZ gSA bl foHkktd dks gVkus ds i'pkr~ tcxSlh; feJ.k lkE;koLFkk izkIr dj ysrk gS rks nkc dk ekuP0 atm izkIr gksrk gSA 2.5 P0 dk eku Kkr dhft;sA

V1 V2

m1 1, p m2 2, p

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) dksbZ ugha

2. STP ij ,d NM+] fp=kuqlkj ,d Ýse ls yVdh gqbZ gSAQ'kZ rFkk NM+ ds e/; FkksM+k vUrjky gSA Ýse rFkk NM+ fudk;dks 350 K rd ,dleku :i ls xeZ fd;k tkrk gSrks%&

frame

Rod

(1) fdlh Hkh fLFkfr esa NM+] Q'kZ dks dHkh Hkh Li'kZ ugha djsxhA(2) ;fn arod > aframe gks rks NM+ Q'kZ dks Li'kZ dj ldrh gSA(3) ;fn arod < aframe gks rks NM+] Q'kZ dks Li'kZ dj ldrh gSA(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

3. æO;eku m dh ,d xsan v osx ls vkiru fcUnq ij yEcjs[kk ls vkiru dks.k q = 45° cukrs gq, Q'kZ ls Vdjkdj

ijkofrZr gksrh gSA ;fn izR;oLFkku xq.kkad e = 1

2 gks rks

ijkofrZr xsan dk osx vkSj ijkorZu dks.k Kkr dhft,A

(1) 3

v2

(2) 1

v2

(3) 2

v3

(4) 5

v4

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MOCK TEST : NEET-II- 2016/20-07-2016

1001CM370715011

4. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of massm from the earth's surface (radius R) to infinity is-

(1) mgR

2(2) 2mgR

(3) mgR (4) mgR

4

5. Block A of mass 4 kg is to be kept at rest againsta smooth vertical wall by applying a force F asshown in figure. The force required is :-(g = 10 m/s2)

45º

F

(1) 40 2 N (2) 20 2 N

(3) 10 2 N (4) 15 2 N

6. A uniform thin stick of length l and mass m isheld horizontally with its end B hinged at a pointB on the edge of a table. Point A is suddenlyreleased. The acceleration of the centre of massof the stick at the time of release, is :-

B A

(1) 34

g (2) 37

g

(3) 2g

7(4)

17

g

7. A solid cylinder is placed in a container in contactwith the base. When liquid is poured into thecontainer, none of it goes beneath the solid, whichremains closely in contact with the base. Then :(1) There must be a buoyant force will act on the

solid cylinder.(2) There may be a buoyant force will act on the

solid cylinder.(3) No buoyant force will act on the solid

cylinder.

(4) Nothing can be said

4. nzO;eku m dh oLrq dks iFoh (f=T;k R) dh lrg ls vuarrd Qsadus ds fy;s vko';d xfrt ÅtkZ gksxh%

(1) mgR

2(2) 2mgR

(3) mgR (4) mgR

4

5. 4 kg æO;eku CykWd A fp=kuqlkj cy F }kjk ,d fpduhÅ/okZ/kj nhokj ds fo:¼ fojkekoLFkk essa gS] rks vko';dcy gksxk :-(g = 10 m/s2)

45º

F

(1) 40 2 N (2) 20 2 N

(3) 10 2 N (4) 15 2 N

6. l yEckbZ vkSj m æO;eku dh ,d iryh le:i NM+ dks{kSfrt fn'kk esa bl izdkj j[kk gS fd fp=kuqlkj bldk Bfljk] ,d est ds fdukjs ls ,d dCts }kjk tqM+k gSA NM+ds fljs A dks vpkud NksM+ fn;k tkrk gSA NM+ dks NksM+usds le; ij æO;eku dsUæ ds Roj.k dk eku gksxk :-

B A

(1) 34

g (2) 37

g

(3) 2g

7(4)

17

g

7. ,d Bksl csyu dks ,d chdj esa blds vk/kkj ds lkFk laidZesa j[kk x;k gSA tc bl chdj esa nzo Mkyk tkrk gS rks nzoBksl ds uhps ugha tkrk gS tks fd vk/kkj ds lkFk laidZ esagS rks&(1) Bk sl c syu ij ,d mRIykod cy dk;Zjr

gSA(2) Bksl csyu ij ,d mRIykod cy dk;Zjr gks ldrk

gSA(3) Bk sl c syu ij dk sb Z mRIykod cy dk;Z ugh a

djsxkA(4) dqN ugha dg ldrsA


H-3/391001CM370715011

8. An astronomical telescope of length 50 cmproduces a magnification of 9 in normaladjustment. Calculate focal length of its objectiveand eye piece.(1) 4cm, 2cm (2) 30cm, 5cm(3) 55cm, 10cm (4) 45cm, 5 cm

9. Weight of the bob of a simple pendulum is W.Length of the pendulum is l and it is oscillatingwith an amplitude A. Maximum tension in thestring during oscillation will be :

(1)2

2

AW 1

é ù+ê ú

ë ûl (2) 2

AW 1é ù+ê úë ûl

(3) W (4) A

W 1é ù-ê úë ûl

10. The circuit in the figure consisting of threeidentical lamps and two coils, is connected to adc source. The ohmic resistance of the coils isnegligible. After some time switch S is opened.Select correct alternative(s) just afterward.

S C1 C2

L1 L2 L3

(1) Brightness of L1 remains same(2) Brightness of L1 becomes 2 times(3) Brightness of L1 becomes 3 times(4) Brightness of L2 and L3 remains same

11. A small ring P is threaded on a smooth wire bentin the form of a circle of radius a and center O. Thewire is rotating with constant angular speed w abouta vertical diameter xy, while the ring remains at rest

relative to the wire at a perpendicular distance 12

a

from xy. w2 is equal to :-

P

x

y

O

(1)2ga

(2) g2a

(3) 2g

a 3(4)

g 32a

8. ,d [kxksyh; nwjn'khZ esa ftldh yEckbZ 50 lseh gS] lkekU;O;oLFkk ds fy; vko/kZu 9 ik;k tkrk gSA vfHkn`';d rFkk

vfHkus= ySal dh Qksdl nwjh Kkr dhft;sA

(1) 4cm, 2cm (2) 30cm, 5cm

(3) 55cm, 10cm (4) 45cm, 5 cm

9. ljy yksyd ds xksyd dk Hkkj W gSA ;g l yEckbZ dkyksyd A vk;ke ds lkFk nksyu dj jgk gSA nksyu ds nkSjku

vf/kdre ruko Kkr djs :

(1)2

2

AW 1

é ù+ê ú

ë ûl (2) 2

AW 1é ù+ê úë ûl

(3) W (4) A

W 1é ù-ê úë ûl

10. n'kkZ, x, fp= esa ifjiFk esa rhu leku cYc rFkk nks lekudq.Myh yxkbZ xbZ gSa] ftUgsa dc L=ksr ls tksM+k x;k gSAdq.Mfy;ksa dk vksfed izfrjks/k ux.; gSA dqN le; cknfLop S dks [kksyk x;kA buesa ls dkSulk fodYi dqath [kksyusds Bhd ckn lgh gSA

S C1 C2

L1 L2 L3

(1) L1 dh ped leku jgsxhA(2) L1 dh ped nqxuh gksxhA(3) L1 dh ped rhu xquh gksxhA(4) L2 rFkk L3 ped leku jgsxhA

11. ,d fpdus rkj dks O dsUnz rFkk A f=T;k ds o`r ds :iesa eksMk x;k gS rFkk bl ij ,d NksVh oy; P dks fijks;k

x;k gSA rkj Å/okZ/kj O;kl xy ds ifjr% fu;r dks.kh; pky

w ls ?kq.kZu dj jgk gSA tcfd oy; xy ls 12

yEcor nwjh

ij rkj ds lkis{k fojkeoLFkk esa gSaA w2 gksxk :-

P

x

y

O

(1)2ga

(2) g2a

(3) 2g

a 3(4)

g 32a

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MOCK TEST : NEET-II- 2016/20-07-2016

1001CM370715011

12. Half life period of two elements are 40 minute and20 minute respectively, then after 80 minute ratioof the remaining nuclei will be (Initially both haveequal active nuclei) :-(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1

13. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal toC1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C areconducted to a battery as shown in the figure. Theratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is –

C2

C1

C4

C3

V

(1) 74

(2) 223

(3) 322

(4) 47

14. The figure shows a family of parallelequipotential surfaces and four paths along whichan electron is made to move from one surface toanother as shown.(I) what is the direction of the electric field?(II) Rank the paths according to magnitude of

work done, greatest first.

1

23

4

80 V 70 V 60 V 50 V 40 V

(1) Right ward; 4 > 3 > 2 > 1(2) Left ward; 1 > 2 > 3 > 4(3) Right ward; 3 = 4 > 2 = 1(4) Leftward; 1 > 2 > 3 = 4

12. nks rRo ftudh v/kZvk;q 40 feuV o 20 feuV gS rks80 feuV i'pkr~ 'ks"k ukfHkdksa ds la[;kvksa dk vuqikr gksxk;fn nksuksa ds izkjafEHkd lfØ; ukfHkd leku gS %&(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2(3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1

13. bl fp= esa fn[kkus ds vuq:i C1= C, C2 = 2C,C3 = 3C vkSj C4 = 4C /kkfjrkvksa ds la/kkfj=ksa dks ,dcSVªh ls tksM+k x;k gSA C2 vkSj C4 ij ds vkos'kksa dk vuqikrgksxk –

C2

C1

C4

C3

V

(1) 74

(2) 223

(3) 322

(4) 47

14. fp= esa lekUrj lefoHko i`"Bksa rFkk pkj iFkks dks n'kkZ;kx;k gS ftlesa ,d bysDVªkWu ,d lrg ls nwljh lrg dh

vksj fp=kuqlkj xfr dj jgk gSA

(I) fo|qr {ks= dh fn'kk D;k gksxh

(II) fd;s x;s dk;Z ds ifjek.k ds vuqlkj iFkksa dks O;ofLFkr

dhft,] cM+k lcls igysA

1

23

4

80 V 70 V 60 V 50 V 40 V

(1) nka;h vksj; 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

(2) cka;h vksj; 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(3) nka;h vksj; 3 = 4 > 2 = 1

(4) cka;h vksj; 1 > 2 > 3 = 4


H-5/391001CM370715011

15. Consider the inferences given below in respectof the following current loop of wire kept in a

magnetic field Br

.

30°

B

BC

IL

A

A. The force on the elementAC of the wire is

3ILB

2 directed into the page.

B. The force on the elementAB of the wire is

3ILB

2directed into the page.

C. The total force on the loop ABCA is zero.Which of the above is /are not true ?(1) A and B (2) B only(3) A and C only (4) B and C

16. Transverse wave propagates in a medium with avelocity of 1450 m/sec. The distance between thenearest points at which the oscillations of theparticles carried in the opposite phase p is0.1 m. What is the frequency of wave :-(1) 290 Hz (2) 7250 Hz

(3) 14500 Hz (4) 145 Hz17. In the figure, the potentiometer wire AB of length

L and resistance 9r is joined to the cell D of emf

e and internal resistance r. The cell C's emf is E2

and its internal resistance is 2r. The galvanometerG will show no deflection when the lengthAJ is :-

J

CE2

,2rG

DE,r

BA

(1) 4L9

(2) 5L9

(3) 7L18

(4) 11L18

15. pqEcdh; {ks= Br

esa j[ksa rkj ds /kkjkokgh ywi ds lEcUèkesa fuEu fu"d"kksZ ij fopkj dhft;s

30°

B

BC

IL

A

A. rkj ds Hkkx AC ij cy 3ILB

2, dkxt ds ry ds

vUnj dh vksj gksxkA

B. rkj ds Hkkx AB ij cy 3ILB

2, dkxt ds ry ds

vUnj dh vksj gksxkA

C. ywi ABCA ij dqy cy 'kwU; gksxk

mijksDr esa ls vlR; gS ?

(1) A o B (2) dsoy B

(3) dsoy A o C (4) B o C

16. vuqizLFk rjax ,d ek/;e esa 1450 m/sec ds osx ls xfrekugSA mu fudVre fcUnqvksa ds e/; nwjh ftu ij d.kksa ds nkSyu

foijhr dyk p esa gksrs gSa] 0.1 m gSA rjax dh vko`fÙk D;k

gS

(1) 290 Hz (2) 7250 Hz

(3) 14500 Hz (4) 145 Hz

17. fp= esa] L yEckbZ rFkk 9r izfrjks/k ds foHkoekih rkj ABdks r vkUrfjd izfrjksèk rFkk e fo|qr okgd cy okys lsyD ds lkFk tksM+k tkrk gSA lsy C dk fo|qr okgd cyE2

gS rFkk bldk vkUrfjd izfrjks/k 2r gSA tc xsYosuksehVj

G esa dksb Z fo{ksi ugha gS] rc yEckbZ AJ dk ekugksxk&

J

CE2

,2rG

DE,r

BA

(1) 4L9

(2) 5L9

(3) 7L18

(4) 11L18

H-6/39

MOCK TEST : NEET-II- 2016/20-07-2016

1001CM370715011

18. The potential energy of a particle oscillating onx-axis is given by U = 20 + (x – 2)2 here U is injoule and x is in metre. Total mechanical energyof the particle is 36 J.Find the maximum K.E. of the particle.(1) 16 J (2) 20 J (3) 36 J (4) 6 J

19. A 2100 W continuous flow geyser (instant geyser)has water inlet temperature = 10°C while the waterflows out at the rate of 20 g/s. The outlettemperature of water must be about(1) 20°C (2) 30°C(3) 35°C (4) 40°C

20. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet mabout the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twicethe shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the planetto move from C to D and t2 is the time to movefrom A to B, then :

C

D

vm

B

S

A

(1) t1 = t2

(2) t1 = 8t2

(3) t1 = 4t2

(4) t1 = 2t2

21. A particle projected from origin moves in x-y

plane with a velocity ˆ ˆv 3i 6xj= +r , where i and j

are the unit vectors along x and y axis. Find theequation of path followed by the particle :-

(1) y = x2 (2) y = 2

1x

(3) y = 2x2 (4) y = 1x

22. What is the minimum coefficient of friction fora solid sphere to roll without slipping on aninclined plane of inclination q ?

(1) 2

tan7

q (2) 1

gtan3

q

(3)1

tan2

q (4) 2

tan5

q

18. x-v{k e s a nk syu djus oky s d.k dh fLFkt Åtk ZU = 20 + (x – 2)2 ls n'kkZ;k x;k gS] tgk¡ U twy esa gS]rFkk x ehVj esa gSA d.k dh dqy ;kaf=d ÅtkZ 36 J gSAd.k dh vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ Kkr djsaA(1) 16 J (2) 20 J(3) 36 J (4) 6 J

19. ,d 2100 W ds lrg çokg xhtj esa ty ds ços'k}kj ij rki 10°C gS tcfd ty 20 g/s dh nj lsckgj fudyrk gSA ty dk fuxZe }kj ij rki D;kgksxkA(1) 20°C (2) 30°C(3) 35°C (4) 40°C

20. fp= esa lw;Z S ds pkjksa vksj fdlh xzg m dh nh?kZoÙkkdkjd{kk dks n'kkZ;k x;k gSA Nk;kafdr {ks=Qy SCD dk ekuNk;kafdr {ks=Qy SAB dh rqyuk esa nqxquk gSA ;fn xzgdks C ls D rd tkus esa t1 le; o A ls B rd tkus esat2 le; yxrk gks] rks

C

D

vmB

SA

(1) t1 = t2

(2) t1 = 8t2

(3) t1 = 4t2

(4) t1 = 2t2

21. x-y ry esa xfr dj jgs fdlh d.k dks ewy fcUnq ls osx

ˆ ˆv 3i 6xj= +r ls iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA tgk¡ i o j ,

x o y v{k ds vuqfn'k bdkbZ lfn'k gSA d.k }kjk vuqlfjriFk dh lehdj.k Kkr dhft;sA

(1) y = x2 (2) y = 2

1x

(3) y = 2x2 (4) y = 1x

22. q >qdko okys ,d vkur ry ij ,d Bksl xksyk fcuk fQlysyq<+drk gS rks blds fy;s ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad dk U;wure eku D;kgksxk ?

(1) 2

tan7

q (2) 1

gtan3

q

(3) 1

tan2

q (4) 2

tan5

q


H-7/391001CM370715011

23. For given transistor circuit, the base current is10µA and the collector current is 5.2 mA. FindVBE & VCE :-

R =1kC W5.5V

VCE

VCC

VBE

(1) 0.5 V & 0.3 V(2) 0.3 V & 0.5 V(3) 0.4 V & 0.4 V(4) 0.2 V & 0.6 V

24. A non conducting sphere of radius 'a' has a netcharge '+q' uniformly distributed throughout itsvolume. A spherical conducting shell having innerand outer, radii 'b' and 'c' and net charge '–q' isconcentric with the sphere (see the figure)Read the following statements

ab

c+q

(i) The electric field at a distance r from the centre

of the sphere for r < a = 30

1 qr

4 ape(ii) The electric field at distance r for a < r < b = 0(iii) The electric field at distance r for b < r < c = 0(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the

spherical shell = –q(v) The charge on the outer surface of the spherical

shell = +qWhich of the above statements are true ?(1) (i) , (ii) and (v) (2) (i) , (iii) and (iv)(3) (ii) , (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) , (iii) and (v)

25. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron movingwith a velocity 1.5 × 108 m/s is equal to that ofa photon. The ratio of the kinetic enrgy of theelectron to the energy of the photon is

(1) 14

(2) 12

(3) 2 (4) 4

23. fn;s gq, VªkaftLVj ifjiFk ds fy;s vk/kkj /kkjk 10µA ,oalaxzkgd /kkjk 5.2 mA gSA VBE rFkk VCE dke eku KkrdjsaA

R =1kC W5.5V

VCE

VCC

VBE

(1) 0.5 V vkSj 0.3 V(2) 0.3 V vkSj 0.5 V(3) 0.4 V vkSj 0.4 V(4) 0.2 V vkSj 0.6 V

24. 'a' f=T;k ds vpkyd xksys es usV vkos'k '+q' gS tks bldslEiw.kZ vk;ru esa ,dleku :i ls forjhr gSA ,d xksyh;pkyd dks'k ftldh vkUrfjd o cká f=T;k 'b' o 'c' gSrFkk dqy vkos'k '–q' gS tks fd igys xksys ds lkFk fp=kuqlkjladsUnzh; gSA fuEu dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;sA

ab

c+q

(i) r < a ds fy;s xksys ds dsUnz ls r nwjh ij fo|qr {ks=

= 30

1 qr

4 ape

(ii) a < r < b ds fy;s r nwjh ij fo|qr {ks= = 0

(iii) b < r < c ds fy;s r nwjh ij fo|qr {ks= = 0

(iv) xksyh; dks'k dh vkUrfjd lrg ij vkos'k = –q

(iv) xksyh; dks'k dh cká lrg ij vkos'k = +q

mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls lR; dFku dkSuls gSA(1) (i) , (ii) rFkk (v)

(2) (i) , (iii) rFkk (iv)

(3) (ii) , (iii) rFkk (iv)

(4) (ii) , (iii) rFkk (v)

25. 1.5 × 108 m/s osx ls xfr dj jgs ,d bysDVªk Wu dhfM&czksxyh rjaxnS/;Z QksVkWu ds leku gSA bysDVªkWu dh xfrt

ÅtkZ dk QksVkWu dh ÅtkZ ds lkFk vuqikr gksxk\

(1) 14

(2) 12

(3) 2 (4) 4

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1001CM370715011

26. The rms value of 50 Hz., ac is 20 A. Find theminimum time taken by the current to reach itsrms value from zero.(1) 5 ms (2) 2.5 ms(3) 10 ms (4) 2.5 ms

27. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bended atthe middle point O as shown in figure. Consideran axis passing through two middle point O andperpendicular to the plane of the bent rod. Thenmoment of inertia about this axis is :

O

q

(1) 2/3 mL2 (2) 1/3 mL2

(3) 1/12mL2 (4) 1/24 mL2

28. Power applied to a particle varies with time asP = (3t2 – 2t + 1) watts, where t is time in seconds.Then the change in kinetic energy between timet = 2s to t = 4s is-(1) 46 J (2) 52 J(3) 92 J (4) 104 J

29. Shown in the figure is a system of three particleshaving masses m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2kg and m3 = 4kgconnected by two springs. At an instant.accelerations of these particles are 1m/s2, 2m/s2

and 0.5 m/s2 respectively as shown? The externalforce at this instant acting on the system is :-

m1 m2 m3

1m/s2 2m/s2 0.5m/s2

(1) 1 N rightward(2) 3 N leftward(3) 3 N right ward(4) Zero

30. A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K. Theenergy of radiation emitted by this object betweenwavelength 4990 Å and 5000 Å is U1, between9990 Å and 10000 Å is U2 and between14990 Å and 15000 Å is U3. The Wien's constantb = 2.88 × 10–3 mK, then :-(i) U2 > U1 (ii) U2 > U3

(iii) U1 = U3 < U2 (iv) U1 < U2 < U3

(1) i, ii (2) i, iii (3) i, iv (4) ii, iii

26. fdlh 50 Hz. vko`fÙk dh izR;korhZ /kkjk dk oxZek/; ewyeku 20 A gSA 'kwU; ls izkjaHk dj oxZek/; ewy eku rdigqapus esa /kkjk dks yxus okyk U;wure le; gksxkA(1) 5 ms (2) 2.5 ms(3) 10 ms (4) 2.5 ms

27. L yackbZ ,oa M nzO;eku dh ,d iryh NM+ fp=kuqlkjchp ls eksM+ nh tkrh gSA rks NM+ ds ry ds yacor ,oa

fcanq O ls xqtjus okyh v{k ds ifjr% NM+ dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ

gksxk&

O

q

(1) 2/3 mL2 (2) 1/3 mL2

(3) 1/12mL2 (4) 1/24 mL2

28. ,d d.k ij vkjksfir 'kfDr le; ds lkFk fuEukuqlkj cnyrhgS P = (3t2 – 2t + 1) watts, tgka t le; gS lsd.M esark s d.k dh xfrt Åtk Z e s a time t = 2s lst = 4s ds e/; ifjorZu gksxk-(1) 46 J (2) 52 J(3) 92 J (4) 104 J

29. m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2kg rFkk m3 = 4kg nzO;eku dsrhu d.kksa ds fudk; dks nks fLizxksa }kjk tksM+k tkrk gSAml {k.k ij buds Roj.k Øe'k % 1m/s2, 2m/s2 rFkk0.5 m/s2 gSaA bl {k.k ij fudk; ij vkjksfir cygksxk :-

m1 m2 m3

1m/s2 2m/s2 0.5m/s2

(1) 1 N nka;hvksj(2) 3 N cka;h vksj(3) 3 N nka;h vksj(4) 'kwU;

30. ,d Ïf".kdk oLrq 2880 K rki ij gSA rjaxnS/; Z4990 Å rFkk 5000 Å ds e/; bl oLrq }kjk mRlftZr

fodhj.k dh ÅtkZ U1, 9990 Å o 10000 Å ds e/;

U2 rFkk 14990 Å o 15000 Å ds e/; U3 gSaA ohu fu;rkad

b = 2.88 × 10–3 mK gS rks :-(i) U2 > U1 (ii) U2 > U3

(iii) U1 = U3 < U2 (iv) U1 < U2 < U3

(1) i, ii (2) i, iii (3) i, iv (4) ii, iii


H-9/391001CM370715011

31. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a carnot engineas the working substance. If during the adiabaticexpansion part of the cycle the volume of the gasincreases from V to 32 V, the efficiency of theengine is :-(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.99

32. Assuming diodes to be ideal. Choose the correctstatement :-

AB–10V R D1 D2

(1) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased,so current flows from A to B

(2) D2 is in forward bias and D1 is in revrse biasand hence no current flows from B to A

(3) D1 and D2 both are in forward bias, so currentflows from A to B

(4) D1 and D2 both are in reverse bias, so no currentflows from A to B

33. An open pipe is suddenly closed with the resultthat the second overtone of the closed pipe isfound to be higher in frequency by 100 Hz thenthe first overtone of the initial pipe. Fundamentalfrequency of the open pipe will be :-(1) 100 Hz (2) 150 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 300 Hz

34. Image of an object approaching a convex mirrorof radius of curvature 20 cm along its optical axis

is observed to move from 253

cm to 507

cm in 25

second. What is the average speed of the abject?(1) 1 cm/s (2) 2 cm/s (3) 3 cm/s (4) 4 cm/s

35. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a blackpaper. The are viewed by eye of pupil diameter3 mm. Approximately, what is the maximumdistance at which these dots can be resolved bythe eye? [Take wavelength of light = 500 nm]:-(1) 6 m (2) 3 m (3) 1 m (4) 5 m

36. A photon of energy E ejects a photoelectron froma metal surface whose work function is W0. If thiselectron enters into a uniform magnetic field ofinduction B in a direction perpendicular to thefield and describes a circular path of radius r, thenthe radius r is given by (in the usual notation) :-

(1) 0m(E - W )eB

(2) 02m(E - W )eB

(3) 02e(E - W )mB

(4) 02m(E - W )eB

31. ,d f}ijek.kqd vkn'kZ xSl dks dkuksZ batu esa dk;Zdkjh inkFkZds :i esa iz;ksx es fy;k tkrk gS] ;fn pØ ds :nks"e izlj.k

Hkkx ds nkSjku xSl dk vk;ru V ls c<+dj 32 V gks tkrk

gS rks batu dh n{krk gksxh :-

(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.99

32. Mk;Mks dks vkn'kZ ekurs gq,A lgh fodYi pqus :-

AB–10V R D1 D2

(1) D1 vxz ok;l gS rFkk D2 i'p ok;l gSa vr% /kkjk Als B izokfgr gksxh

(2) D2 vxz ok;l gS rFkk D1 i'p ok;l gSa vr% /kkjk Bls A izokfgr ugha gksxh

(3) D1 rFk D2 nksuksa vxz ok;l gS vr% /kkjk A ls B izokfgrgksxh

(4) D1 RkFkk D2 nksuksa i'p ok;l gS vr% /kkjk A ls Bizokfgr gksxh

33. ,d [kqys ikbZi dks vpkud can fd;k tkrk gS ifj.kkeLo:ican ikbZi ds f}rh; vf/kLojd dh vko`fr izkjfEHkd ikbZids vf/kLojd dh vko`fr ls 100 Hz T;knk gksrh gSA rks[kqys ikbZi dh ewy vkofr D;k gksxh :-(1) 100 Hz (2) 150 Hz(3) 200 Hz (4) 300 Hz

34. ,d oLrq dk izfrfcEc 20 cm oØrk f=T;k ds mry niZ.k

dh vksj izdk'kh; v{k ds vuqfn'k 253

cm ls 507

cm

rd 25 lsd.M esa xfr djrk gqvk ns[kk x;k gSA oLrq dhvkSlr pky D;k gksxh ?(1) 1 cm/s (2) 2 cm/s (3) 3 cm/s (4) 4 cm/s

35. ,d dkys i`"B ij 1 mm nwjh ij nks 'osr fcUnq gSA bufcUnqvksa dks 3 mm O;kl dh vka[k dh iqryh }kjk ns[kktkrk gSa og vf/kdre nwjh yxHkx D;k gksxh ftlls bufcUnqvks dks vka[k }kjk foHksfnr fd;k tk lds[ekus izdk'k dk rjaxnS/;Z = 500 nm]:-(1) 6 m (2) 3 m (3) 1 m (4) 5 m

36. ÅtkZ E dk ,d QksVkWu /kkrq ds ,d i`"B ls ftldk dk;ZQyu W0 gS] QksVks bysDVªkWu dk mRltZu djrk gSA ;fn ;g

bysDVªkWu ,dleku pqEcdh; {ks= B esa {ks= ds yEcor~ fn'kk

esa izos'k djrk gS rFkk f=T;k r dk o`Ùkh; ekxZ cukrk gS]

rks f=T;k r fuEu izdkj nh tkrh gS :-

(1) 0m(E - W )eB

(2) 02m(E - W )eB

(3) 02e(E - W )mB

(4) 02m(E - W )eB

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1001CM370715011

37. The arrangement of NAND gates shown beloweffectively works as :-

A

B Y

(1) AND gate(2) OR gate(3) NAND gate(4) NOR gate

38. The speed of electromagnetic wave in a mediumof dielectric constant 2.25 and relative permeability4 is :-(1) 1 × 108 m/s(2) 2.5 × 108 m/s(3) 2 × 108 m/s(4) 3 × 108 m/s

39. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes atransition from n = n1 to n = n2 state. The timeperiod of the electron in the initial state (n1) is eighttimes that in final state (n2). The possible valuesof n1 and n2 are-(1) n1 = 8, n2 = 1(2) n1 = 4, n2 = 2(3) n1 = 2, n2 = 4(4) n1 = 1, n2 = 8

40. Two moles of an ideal gas are undergone a cyclicprocess 1 – 2 – 3 – 1. If net heat exchange in theprocess is – 300 J, then work done by the gas inthe process 2-3 is (R = 8.3J/mol K)

600K

V

2

1

3

300KT

(1) – 5000 J (2) 5000 J(3) – 3000 J (4) – 5280 J

41. A magnetic needle of negligible breadth andthickness compared to its length, oscillates in ahorizontal plane with a period T. The period ofoscillation of each part obtained on breaking themagnet into n equal parts and perpendicular to thelength is -(1) T (2) T/n(3) Tn (4) 1/Tn

37. iznf'kZr NAND }kjksa dh O;oLFkk fuEu esa ls izHkkoh :ils fdldh Hkk¡fr dk;Z djrh gS :-

A

B Y

(1) AND }kj(2) OR }kj(3) NAND }kj(4) NOR }kj

38. fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax dk ek/;e esa pky D;k gksxh ftldhvkisfPkd fo|qr'khyrk rFkk vkisf{kd pqEcd'khyrk 2.25rFkk 4 Øe'k% gS :-(1) 1 × 108 m/s(2) 2.5 × 108 m/s(3) 2 × 108 m/s(4) 3 × 108 m/s

39. gkbMªkstu v.kq esa bysDVªkWu n = n1 ls n = n2 voLFkk esapyk tkrk gSA bysDVªkWu dk (n1) voLFkk esa vkorZdky (n2)voLFkk ds vkorZdky dk 8 xquk gS] rks n1 ,oa n2 ds laHko

eku gksaxs-(1) n1 = 8, n2 = 1(2) n1 = 4, n2 = 2(3) n1 = 2, n2 = 4(4) n1 = 1, n2 = 8

40. ,d vkn'k Z x Sl d s 2 ek sy ,d pØh ; izfØ;k1 – 2 – 3 – 1 esa vkrs gSA ;fn izfØ;k esa dqy Å"ek fofu;e– 300 J gS rks xSl }kjk izfØ;k 2-3 esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk&(R = 8.3J/mol K)

600K

V

2

1

3

300KT

(1) – 5000 J (2) 5000 J(3) – 3000 J (4) – 5280 J

41. yEckbZ ds lkis{k ux.; pkSM+kbZ ,oa eksVkbZ dh ,d pqaEcdh;lwbZ {kSfrt ry esa T vkorZdky ls vkorZ xfr djrh gSA

lwbZ ds n leku Hkkxksa aesa yEckbZ ds yEcor~ VwVus ij izR;sd

Hkkx dk vkorZdky gksxk -

(1) T (2) T/n

(3) Tn (4) 1/Tn


H-11/391001CM370715011

42. The curve of angle of incidence versus angle ofdeviation shown has been plotted for prism. Thevalue of refractive index of the prism used is :

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 3

2(4)

2

3

43. In standard YDSE setup, a small transparent slab

containing material of m = 1.5 is placed along AS2

(figure). What will be the distance from O of the

central maxima (PO = 1m) (S1S2 = d)

Screen

S1

S2

L = d/4

A OP

(1) 0.125 m above O

(2) 0.125 m below O

(3) Zero

(4) Can't be determined

44. The inductor in a L–C oscillation has a maximum

potential difference of 16 V and maximum energy

of 640 mJ. Find the value of capacitor in mF in

L–C circuit.

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

45. A disc starts from rest and on the application of a

torque, it gains an angular acceleration given

by a = 3t – t2 . Calculate the angular velocity after

2s.

(1) 5/3 rad/s

(2) 10/3 rad/s

(3) 8/3 rad/s

(4) 7/3 rad/s

42. fizTe ds fy, vkiru dks.k rFkk fopyu dks.k ds e/;,d xzkQ [khapk x;k gSA fizTe ds viorZukad dk ekugksxk&

(1) 3 (2) 2

(3) 3

2(4)

2

3

43. ,d ekud YDSE O;oLFkk esa m = 1.5 okys inkFkZ ls cuh

,d NksVh ikjn'khZ ifêdk dks fp=kuqlkj AS2 ds vuqfn'k

j[kk tkrk gSA dsfUnz; mfPp"B dh O ls nwjh Kkr dhft,A

(PO = 1m) (S1S2 = d)

Screen

S1

S2

L = d/4

A OP

(1) O ls 0.125 m Åij

(2) O ls 0.125 m uhps

(3) 'kwU;

(4) Kkr ugha dj ldrs

44. L–C nksyu esa izsjd dq.Myh ij vf/kdre foHkokUrj16 V o vf/kdre ÅtkZ 640 mJ gSA L–C ifjiFk esa

la/kkfj= dh èkkfjrk mF esa Kkr dhft;sA

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 3 (4) 2

45. ,d pdrh fLFkjkoLFkk ls xfr izkjEHk djrh gS rFkk cy vk?kw.kZds yxkus ij ;g dks.kh; Roj.k izkIr djrh gS ftldk eku

a = 3t – t2 }kjk fn;k tkrk gSA 2 lsd.M ckn dks.kh;

osx Kkr dhft,A

(1) 5/3 rad/s

(2) 10/3 rad/s

(3) 8/3 rad/s

(4) 7/3 rad/s

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MOCK TEST : NEET-II- 2016/20-07-2016

1001CM370715011

46. Which does not give isocyanide test :-

(1) NH2

(2) (CH3)2CH–NH2

(3) Ph–NH2 (4) CH3–NH–CH3

47. B 2

Lindlarcatalyst , H

¬¾¾¾¾ R—CººC—R 3Na / NH¾¾¾¾® A,

A and B are geometrical isomers(1) A is cis, B is trans(2) A is trans, B is cis(3) A and B both are cis(4) A and B both are trans

48. IP of Be is higher than :-(a) B (b) Mg (c) Li (d) Al (e) K(1) a & b (2) a, b & d(3) a, b, d & e (4) a, b, c, d & e

49. The electromotive force of the cell containing twohydrogen electrodes represented as below:-Pt, H2(1 atm) | H

+(10–6M) || H+(10–4M)|H2(1 atm), Pt at298 K is :-(1) – 0.118 volt (2) – 0.0591 volt(3) 0.118 volt (4) 0.0591 volt

50. Calculate the temperature above which thereduction of lead oxide to lead in the followingreaction becomes spontaneous.PbO(s) + C(s) ® Pb(s) + CO(g)[given : DH = 108.4 kJ mol–1 ; DS = 190 JK–1 mol–1](1) 570.5 K (2) 297.5 K

(3) 397.5 K (4) 165.5 K51. Experimentally it is found that a metal oxide has

formula M0.98O1. Metal M is present as M+2 andM+3 in its oxide. Fraction of metal which exist asM+3 would be(1) 7.01% (2) 4.08%(3) 6.05% (4) 5.08%

52. Which of the following can not used to convert

RCHO into RCH2OH?

(1) H2/Pd

(2) LiAlH4

(3) NaBH4

(4) Reaction with RMgX followed by hydrolysis53. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen

present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from0.75 g of compound neutralized 10 mL of 1 MH2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is(1) 37.33 (2) 45.33(3) 35.33 (4) 43.33

46. dkSulk vkblkslkbukbM ijh{k.k ugha nsrk gS\

(1) NH2

(2) (CH3)2CH–NH2

(3) Ph–NH2 (4) CH3–NH–CH3

47. B 2

Lindlarcatalyst , H

¬¾¾¾¾ R—CººC—R 3Na / NH¾¾¾¾® A,

A ,oa B T;kferh; leko;oh gS(1) A is cis, B is trans(2) A is trans, B is cis(3) A and B both are cis(4) A and B both are trans

48. Be dk IP fuEu esa ls fdldh vis{kk vf/kd gksrk gS(a) B (b) Mg (c) Li (d) Al (e) K(1) a vkSj b (2) a, b vkSj d(3) a, b, d vkSj e (4) a, b, c, d vkSj e

49. fn;s x;s lsy dk 298 K ij fo- ok- cy gksxk

Pt, H2(1 atm) | H+(10–6M) || H+(10–4M)|H2(1 atm), Pt

(1) – 0.118 volt (2) – 0.0591 volt

(3) 0.118 volt (4) 0.0591 volt

50. vfHkfØ;k PbO(s) + C(s) ® Pb(s) + CO(g) esa og

rki D;k gksxk ftlls T;knk rki ij ySM vkWDlkbM dk ySM

esa vip;u Lor% gksA [fn;k gS : DH = 108.4 kJ mol–1 ;

DS = 190 JK–1 mol–1]

(1) 570.5 K (2) 297.5 K

(3) 397.5 K (4) 165.5 K

51. izk;ksfxd :i ls ,d /kkrq vkWDlkbM dk lw= M0.98O1. ik;k

x;kA /kkrq M blds vkWDlkbM esa M+2 rFkk M+3 ds :i

ik;k tkrk gS rks blesa èkkrq M+3 dh izfr'kr ek=k gksxh

(1) 7.01% (2) 4.08%

(3) 6.05% (4) 5.08%

52. RCHO dks RCH2OH esa cnyus ds fy, fuEu esa ls fdldkmi;ksx ugha gksrk gS\(1) H2/Pd(2) LiAlH4

(3) NaBH4

(4) RMgX ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djds cus mRikn dk tyvi?kVu

53. feV~Vh ds uewus esa mifLFkr ukbVªkstu ds vkdyu dh tSYMkyfof/k esa] 0.75 g ;kSfxd ls eqDr veksfu;k 1 M H2SO4

ds 10mL dks mnklhu djrh gSA feV~Vh esa ukbVªkstu dh

izfr'krrk gS(1) 37.33 (2) 45.33(3) 35.33 (4) 43.33


H-13/391001CM370715011

54. CH3CH2–COOH 2Red P Br+¾¾¾¾® A (i) Aq. KOH(ii)H+¾¾¾¾¾® B

B gS :-(1) Malonic acid (2) Alanine(3) Lactic acid (4) Glycine

55. dkYifud vfHkfØ;k A + 3B �� 2C + D ds fy,A ds izkjfEHkd eksy B ds nqxqus gSa ;fn lkE;koLFkk ij BrFkk C ds eksy leku gksa rks B ds fdruk izfr'kr fØ;kdj pqdk gS :-(1) 10% (2) 20%(3) 40% (4) 60%

56. la?kV~V fl¼kUr ds vuqlkj D;k lgh gS\(1) i;kZIr ÅtkZ okys v.kq tks izHkkoh VDdjsa nsrs gSa mUgsa lfØ;

v.kq dgrs gSa(2) vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lHkh VDdjsa mRrjnk;h gSa

(3) lHkh VDdjsa izHkkoh gSa(4) i;kZIr ÅtkZ okys v.kq ges'kk izHkkoh VDdjs nsrs gSa

57. fuEu eas ls lgh feyku gS(1) ik;l&ckny(2) Qkse&feJ /kkrq(3) ,jkslkWy&/kqvka(4) Bksl lkWy&dsd

58. CH2 —O + HI ¾¾® ?

(1) CH2OH + I —

(2) CH2I + OH

(3) I

(4) OH + I

59. /kkrq tks B.Ms ty ds lkFk fØ;k ugha djrk gS(1) Mg (2) Na (3) Ca (4) Ba

60. /kukRed lkWy ds fy, fuEu esa ls fdldh Ldanu {kerkvfèkdre gS

(1) Cl– (2) 24SO -

(3) 34PO - (4) 4

6[Fe(CN) ] -

61. izFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k 60 feuV esa 60% iw.kZ gksrh gS] ;gvfHkfØ;k 50% iw.kZ gksus esa fdruk le; ysxhA (;fn rkifu;r jgs)(1) 45 min (2) 60 min(3) 40 min (4) 20 min

54. CH3CH2–COOH 2Red P Br+¾¾¾¾® A (i) Aq. KOH(ii)H+¾¾¾¾¾® B

B is :-(1) Malonic acid (2) Alanine(3) Lactic acid (4) Glycine

55. A + 3B �� 2C + DFor this hypothetical reaction initial moles of Ais twice that of B, if at equilibrium moles of B andC are equal then percent of B reacted is:-(1) 10% (2) 20%(3) 40% (4) 60%

56. According to collision theory :-(1) molecules having sufficient energy gives

effective collision are active molecules(2) all collision are responsible for reaction(3) all collision are effective(4) sufficient energy molecules always gives

effective collision57. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Emulsion – Cloud(2) Foam – Alloys(3) Aerosol – Smoke(4) Solid sol – Cake

58. CH2 —O + HI ¾¾® ?

(1) CH2OH + I —

(2) CH2I + OH

(3) I

(4) OH + I

59. Metal which does not react with water(1) Mg (2) Na (3) Ca (4) Ba

60. For positive sol which has maximumco-agulation power.

(1) Cl– (2) 24SO -

(3) 34PO - (4) 4

6[Fe(CN) ] -

61. If 60% of 1st order reaction was completed in60 min, 50% of the same reaction would becompleted in approximately (if temperature isconstant)(1) 45 min (2) 60 min(3) 40 min (4) 20 min

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1001CM370715011

62. Which of the following is not ligand–(1) PH3 (2) NO+

(3) BF3 (4) Cl–

63. When B2H6 reacts with ammonia at roomtemperature then(1) Both boron are bonded with nitrogen(2) one of the boron is bonded with nitrogen(3) none of the boron is bonded with nitrogen(4) B2H6 does not react with ammonia at low temperature

64. Total number of sulphur atom in H2SnO6 whichform covalent bond in their ground state(1) n-1 (2) n-2 (3) n (4) n+1

65. Which reaction is used to prepare laughing gas(1) Cu + dil. HNO3® (2) Zn + dil. HNO3 ®(3) Cu + conc. HNO3 ® (4) Sn + conc. HNO3 ®

66. How many geometrical isomers are possible forthe given compound

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 867. A hypothetical reaction , A ® 2B, proceed

through following sequence of steps :-A ® C; DH = q1

C ® D; DH = q2

21

D ® B; DH = q3

The heat of reaction for A ® 2B is :(1) q1 – q2 + 2q3 (2) q1+ q2 – 2q3

(3) q1 + q2 + 2q3 (4) q1 + 2q2– 2q3

68. Match List I with List II and select the correctanswer using the codes given below the lists.

List-I List-II

(1) Heavy water (A) Bicarbonates of Mgand Ca in water

(2) Temporaryhardness

(B) lather with soapwater

(3) Soft water (C) D2O

(4) Permamenthardness

(D) Sulphates andchloride of Mgand Ca

(1) 1–C, 2–D, 3–B, 4–A(2) 1–B, 2–A, 3–C, 4–D(3) 1–B, 2–D, 3–C, 4–A(4) 1–C, 2–A, 3–B, 4–D

62. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fyxs.M ugha gSA(1) PH3 (2) NO+

(3) BF3 (4) Cl–

63. tc B2H6 veksfu;k ds lkFk dejs ds rki ij fØ;k djrh gSrc(1) nksuksa cksjku] ukbVªkstu ds lkFk cfU/kr gksrs gSa(2) dksbZ Hkh ,d cksjku] ukbVªkstu ds lkFk cfU/kr gksrk gS(3) dksbZ Hkh cksjku ijek.kq ukbVªkstu ds lkFk cfU/kr ugha gksrk

gS(4) de rki ij B2H6 veksfu;k ds lkFk fØ;k ugha djrk gS

64. H2SnO6 esa dqy lYQj ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k tks fd ewyvoLFkk esa lgla;kstd ca/k curs gSa(1) n-1 (2) n-2 (3) n (4) n+1

65. fuEu esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k esa glkus okyh xSl dk fuekZ.k gksrk gS(1) Cu + dil. HNO3® (2) Zn + dil. HNO3 ®(3) Cu + conc. HNO3 ® (4) Sn + conc. HNO3 ®

66. fn;s x;s ;kSfxd ds fdrus T;kferh; leko;oh lEHko gS

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 867. ,d dkYifud vfHkfØ;k] A ® 2B, fuEu Øekxr inksa

esa lEiUu gksrh gS %&A ® C; DH = q1

C ® D; DH = q2

21

D ® B; DH = q3

vr% A ® 2B ds fy, vfHkfØ;k Å"ek gksxh(1) q1 – q2 + 2q3 (2) q1+ q2 – 2q3

(3) q1 + q2 + 2q3 (4) q1 + 2q2– 2q3

68. rkfydk I rFkk rkfydk II dk feyku djrs gq, uhps fn;s x;slgh dksM dk p;u dhft;sA

rkfydk-I rkfydk-II

(1) Hkkjh ty (A) ty esa Mg rFkk Ca dsckbdkcksZusV

(2) vLFkk;h dBksjrk (B) lkcqu ds lkFk >kxnsrk gS

(3) e`nq ty (C) D2O

(4) LFkk;h dBksjrk (D) Mg rFkk Ca dsDyksjkbM rFkk lYQsV

(1) 1–C, 2–D, 3–B, 4–A(2) 1–B, 2–A, 3–C, 4–D(3) 1–B, 2–D, 3–C, 4–A(4) 1–C, 2–A, 3–B, 4–D


H-15/391001CM370715011

69. Select the correct order for the given properties–(I) Thermal Stability :

BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4

(II) Basic Nature : ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO(III) Solubility in water :

LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH(IV) Solubility in water :

AgF>AgCl> AgBr>AgI(1) I, IV (2) I, II and IV(3) II, III (4) All are correct

70. Which one of the following is wronglymatched ?(1) N3

– - sp - linear(2) I3

– - sp3d - linear(3) I3

+ - sp3 - linear(4) ICl2

– - sp3d - linear71. Identify R in the following sequence of reaction

CuCNKCN¾¾¾® P 4LiAlH¾¾¾® Q 2HNO¾¾¾® R

(1) Benzoic acid(2) Phenyl acetic acid(3) Benzyl alcohol(4) Benzamide

72. In the given reaction

¾¾ ®¾NBS

etherMg¾®¾ 2

2

(i)CO

(ii)H /H OÅ¾¾¾® (X),

(X) will be :-

(1)

CHO

(2) OH

OH

(3)

COOH

COOH(4)

COOH

73. Predict the major product of the followingreaction

OH

(1) 2, 4 dinitrophenol(2) 3, 4 dinitrophenol(3) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol(4) 3, 4, 5-trinitrophenol

69. fn;s x;s xq.kkas ds vk/kkj ij lgh Øe dk p;u dhft;sA(I) rkih; LFkkf;Ro :

BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4

(II) {kkjh; xq.k : ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO

(III) ty esa foys;rk: LiOH >NaOH>KOH > RbOH

(IV) ty esa foys;rk : AgF > AgCl > AgBr>AgI

(1) I, IV (2) I, II, IV

(3) II, III (4) mijksDr lHkh

70. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d xyr feyku gS\(1) N3

– - sp - js[kh;

(2) I3– - sp3d - js[kh;

(3) I3+ - sp3 - js[kh;

(4) ICl2– - sp3d - js[kh;

71. fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds Øe esa R dks igpkfu;s

CuCNKCN¾¾¾® P 4LiAlH¾¾¾® Q 2HNO¾¾¾® R

(1) Benzoic acid(2) Phenyl acetic acid(3) Benzyl alcohol(4) Benzamide

72. In the given reaction

¾¾ ®¾NBS

etherMg¾®¾ 2

2

(i)CO

(ii)H /H OÅ¾¾¾® (X),

(X) gksxk %&

(1)

CHO

(2) OH

OH

(3)

COOH

COOH(4)

COOH

73. fuEu vfHkfØ;k esa eq[; mRikn dks igpkfu;s

OH

(1) 2, 4 dinitrophenol

(2) 3, 4 dinitrophenol

(3) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol

(4) 3, 4, 5-trinitrophenol

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1001CM370715011

74. Which can shows conductance(1) PCl5 (gas) (2) CaCl2 (Molten)(3) AlCl3 (Molten) (4) NaCl (Solid)

75. A solution containing 0.1 g of a non-volatileorganic substance P(molecular mass 100) in 100gof benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by0.2°C, while a solution containing 0.1 g of anothernon-volatile substance Q in the same amount ofbenzene raises the boiling point of benzene by0.4°C. What is the ratio of molecular masses of Pand Q ?(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

76. To prepare

NO2

Et

from which of the

following is the correct sequence of steps?(1) Nitration followed by Friedel Craft ethylation.(2) Friedel Craft ethylation followed by nitration.(3) Friedel Craft acetylation (CH3COCl), nitration

followed by Clemmenson's reduction(4) For Friedel Craft acetylation (CH3COCl),

Clemenson's reduction followed by nitration.77. Proteins have two different types of secondary

structure a-helix and b-pleated sheet structure.a-helix structure is stabilised by :-(1) Peptide bonds(2) van der Waals forces(3) Hydrogen bonds(4) Dipole-dipole interactions

78. Monomer of Neoprene rubber is(1) 1-Chloro-1,3-Butadiene(2) 2-Chloro-1,3-Butadiene(3) 2-Methyl-1, 3-Butadiene(4) 2-Chloro-1,3-Pentadiene

79. Number of peroxide linkage in CrO5, H2SO5,H2S2O8 are respectively(1) 2, 1, 2(2) 2, 2, 2(3) 1, 1, 1(4) 2, 1, 1

80. What is the activation energy for a reaction if itsrate doubles when the temperature is raised from20°C to 35°C ? (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)(1) 15.1 kJ mol–1

(2) 342 kJ mol–1

(3) 269 kJ mol–1

(4) 34.7 kJ mol–1

74. dkSu pkydrk iznf'kZr dj ldrk gS\(1) PCl5 (xSl) (2) CaCl2(xfyr)(3) AlCl3(xfyr) (4) NaCl (Bksl)

75. 100g csathu ds foy;u esa mifLFkr 0.1 g vok"i'khy

dkcZfud inkFkZ P (eksyj æO;eku 100 g) csathu foy;u

dk DoFkukad 0.2°C c<+k nsrk gS] tcfd nwljs vU;

vok"i'khy dkcZfud foys; Q dh 0.1g ek=k csathu dh

leku ek=k ds foy;u dk DoFkukad 0.4°C c<+k nsrk gSA P

rFkk Q ds eksyj æO;eku dk vuqikr D;k gS ?

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

76. ls

NO2

Et

ds fuekZ.k esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk

vfHkfØ;k Øe lgh gS\(1) ukbVªhdj.k ds ckn ÝhMy Øk¶V ,sFkhyhdj.k }kjk(2) ÝhMy Øk¶V , sFkhyhdj.k ds ckn ukbVªhdj.k ls(3) ÝhMy Øk¶V ,slhVhyhuhdj.k] ukbVªhdj.k ds ckn

mRikn dk Dysesulu vip;u ds }kjk(4) ÝhMy Øk¶V , slhVhyhuhdj.k (CH3COCl),

Dysesulu vip;u ds ckn mRikn ds ukbVªhdj.k }kjk77. izksVhu dh nks fHkUu f}rh;d lajpuk,sa gksrh gS a-gsfyDl

rFkk b-fIyVsM 'khV lajpukA a-gsfyDl lajpuk fuEu }kjkLFkk;h gksrh gS :-(1) Peptide bonds(2) Vander waals forces(3) Hydrogen bonds(4) Dipole-dipole interactions

78. fu;ksizhu jcj ds ,dyd dk uke gS(1) 1-Chloro-1,3-Butadiene(2) 2-Chloro-1,3-Butadiene(3) 2-Methyl-1, 3-Butadiene(4) 2-Chloro-1,3-Pentadiene

79. CrO5, H2SO5, H2S2O8 esa ijkWDlh c a/kksa dh la[;k Øe'k%gS(1) 2, 1, 2(2) 2, 2, 2(3) 1, 1, 1(4) 2, 1, 1

80. fdlh vfHkfØ;k dh lfØ;.k ÅtkZ D;k gksxh ;fn bldkrki 20°C ls 35°C djus ij vfHkfØ;k osx nksxquk gks tkrkgS\ (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)

(1) 15.1 kJ mol–1

(2) 342 kJ mol–1

(3) 269 kJ mol–1

(4) 34.7 kJ mol–1


H-17/391001CM370715011

81. Chloramphenicol is an :-

(1) Antiseptic and disinfectant

(2) Antibiotic broad spectrum

(3) Antifertility drug

(4) Antihistaminic82. Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by

electrolysis of a molten mixture of:

(1) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2

(2) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6

(3) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4

(4) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4

83. The freezing point depression constant for wateris 1.86°C m–1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45.0g H2O, the freezing point is changed by 3.82°C.The van't Hoff factor for Na2SO4 is(1) 2.05 (2) 2.63(3) 3.11 (4) 0.381

84. For the reaction :CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

DrH = –170.8 kJ mol–1

Which of the following statements is not true:-(1) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g)

and H2O(l) are not equal(2) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is

given by KP=[ ]

[ ][ ]2

4 2

CO

CH O

(3) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibriumwill cause a shift to the right

(4) The reaction is exothermic

85. The IUPAC name of Cl

O is :-

(1) 3,4–dimethylpentanoyl chloride(2) 1–chloro–1–oxo–2,3–dimethylpentane(3) 2–ethyl–3–methylbutanoyl chloride(4) 2,3–dimethylpentanoyl chloride

86. Which statement is wrong about pH and H+

(1) pH of neutral water does not zero(2) Adding equal volume of 1N solution of

CH3COOH and 1N solution of NaOH, pH willbe 7.

(3) pH of 10–9 M H2SO4 solution will be less than7

(4) Mixing solution of CH3COOH and HCl, pHwill be less than 7.

81. Dyksjks,sfEQfudkWy gS :-(1) iwfrjks/kh vkSj jksxk.kquk'kh(2) izfrtSfod&czkM LisDVªe(3) izfrfu"kspu Mªx(4) izfrfgLVkfeuh

82. ,yqfeuk (Al2O3) ls ,syqfefu;e dk fu"d"kZ.k fuEu esa lsfdl xfyr feJ.k ds fo|qr~ vi?kVu }kjk fd;k tkrk gS\(1) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2

(2) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6

(3) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4

(4) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4

83. ty dk fgekad voueu fLFkjkad 1.86°C m–1 gSA ;fn5.00 g Na2SO4 dks 45.0 g H2O esa ?kksyk tkrk gS] rksfgekad 3.82°C ls ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA Na2SO4 ds fy;sokWUV gkWQ xq.kkad gS%&(1) 2.05 (2) 2.63(3) 3.11 (4) 0.381

84. vfHkfØ;k :CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

DrH = –170.8 kJ mol–1

ds fy, fuEu dFkuksa esa ls dkSulk lR; ugha gS :-(1) lkE;koLFkk ij CO2(g) vkSj H2O(l) dh lkUærk,s

leku ugha gSA(2) vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE; fLFkjkad fuEu }kjk fn;k tkrk

gS KP = [ ]

[ ][ ]2

4 2

CO

CH O

(3) lkE;koLFkk ij CH4(g) vFkok O2(g) feykus ij

lkE;koLFkk nk;ha vkSj foLFkkfir gksxhA(4) vfHkfØ;k Å"ek{ksih gSA

85.Cl

O dk IUPAC uke gS :-

(1) 3,4–MkbesfFkyisUVSuks;y DyksjkbM(2) 1–Dyksjks–1–vkWDlks–2,3–MkbesfFkyisUVsu(3) 2–,fFky–3–esfFkyC;wVSuks;y DyksjkbM(4) 2,3–MkbesfFkyisUVSuks;y DyksjkbM

86. pH o H+ vk;u ds fy, vlR; dFku gksxk %&

(1) mnklhu ty dh pH = 0 ugha gksrh gSA

(2) 1N CH3COOH o 1N NaOH foy;uksa ds leku

vk;ruksa dks feykus ij pH = 7 gksxhA

(3) 10–9 M H2SO4 foy;u dh pH 7 ls de gksxhA

(4) CH3COOH o HCl dks feykus ij pH 7 ls de jgsxhA

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87. Select the correct statement

(1) In chromic perioxide number of peroxy linkageis 3.

(2) Increasing melting point order

Ti < V < Cr < Mn

(3) Standard potential for M2+ / M is positive forCu & Co

(4) None of these

88. aA � mB + nC; DH = –X kCal

If m + n < a then conditions favouring forwardreaction will be :-

(1) low pressure, low temperature

(2) low pressure, High temperature

(3) High pressure, low temperature

(4) High pressure, High temperature

89. Which of the following shows the best possiblestructure of HF through Hydrogen bonding ?

(1) H F+d –d

H+d

F–d

H+d

F–d

(2) HF+d

–d

H+d F

–d

H+d F

–d

(3) H

F

+d–d

H+d F

–d H+d

F–d

(4) F

H

–d+d

F–d H

+d F–d

H+d

F–d H

+d

90. Which of the following is considered to be ananticancer species ?

(1) ClCl

Pt

CH2

Cl

CH2

(2) ClCl

PtClCl

(3) H N3

ClPt

ClNH3

(4) H N3

ClPt

ClNH3

87. lR; dFku pqfu;sA

(1) Øksfed ijvkWDlkbM esa ijkWDlh cU/kksa dh la[;k 3 gSA

(2) xyukad dk c<+rk gqvk Øe

Ti < V < Cr < Mn

(3) M2+ / M dk ekud foHko Cu rFkk Co ds fy, èkukRed

gSA

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

88. aA � mB + nC; DH = –X fd- dSyk sjh ;fnm + n < a gks rks vxz vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lgk;d ifjfLFkfr;kWagksxh :-

(1) fuEu nkc] fuEu rki(2) fuEu nkc] mPp rki(3) mPp nkc] fuEu rki(4) mPp nkc] mPp rki

89. fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk gkbMªkstu ca/k dks lcls vPNsrjhds ls fu:fir djrh gS ?

(1) H F+d –d

H+d

F–d

H+d

F–d

(2) HF+d

–d

H+d F

–d

H+d F

–d

(3) H

F

+d–d

H+d F

–d H+d

F–d

(4) F

H

–d+d

F–d H

+d F–d

H+d

F–d H

+d

90. fuEu es a ls dk Sulh izfr dsUlj Lih'kht ekuhtkrh gS ?

(1) ClCl

Pt

CH2

Cl

CH2

(2) ClCl

PtClCl

(3) H N3

ClPt

ClNH3

(4) H N3

ClPt

ClNH3


H-19/391001CM370715011

91. Dioecy prevents :-

(1) Only autogamy

(2) Only geitonogamy

(3) Neither autogamy nor geitonogamy

(4) Both autogamy and geitonogamy

92. In Parthenium the diploid egg cell is formed

without reduction division and develops into the

embryo with out fertilization. The formation of

diploid embryo from diploid egg cell without

fertilization, called :-

(1) Diploid apogamy

(2) Diploid parthenogenesis

(3) Adventive embryony

(4) Somatic apospory

93. Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Vallisneria, Marchantia and papaya are

dioecious plants

(2) Isogametes of Cladophora and zoospores of

Chlamydomonas are biflagellated

(3) In angiosperms, endosperm represents female

gametophyte

(4) Chara , Pinus and Funaria are monoecious

plant

94. Spike of spikelets type of inflorescence is found

in :-

(1) Euphorbia (2) Triticum

(3) Zea mays (4) Brassica

95. Match the following :-

A Flat bean i Himgiri

B Chilli ii Pusa komal

C Wheat iii Pusa sem 2

D Cow pea iv Pusa sadabahar

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

91. ,dfyaxkJ;hrk jksdrh gS :-

(1) dsoy vkWVksxSeh dks

(2) dsoy thVksuksxSeh dks(3) uk gh vkWVksxSeh dks uk gh thVksuksxSeh dks

(4) vkWVksxSeh ,oa thVksuksxSeh nksuksa dks

92. ikFkZsfu;e esa f}xqf.kr v.M dksf'kdk dk fuekZ.k fcuk ál

foHkktu ds gksrk gS ,oa ;g v.M dksf'kdk fcuk fu"kspu ds

Hkzw.k esa fodflr gks tkrh gSA fcuk fu"kspu ds f}xqf.kr v.M

dksf'kdk ls f}xqf.kr Hkwz.k dk fuekZ.k dgykrk gS %&

(1) f}xqf.kr ,iksxSeh

(2) f}xqf.kr vfu"ksdtuu

(3) viLFkkfud Hkwz.krk

(4) dkf;d ,iksLiksjh

93. vlR; dFku dk p;u dhft, :-

(1) oSfylusfj;k] ekdZsfU'k;k ,oa iihrk ,dfyaxkJ;h ikni gSaA

(2) DysMksQksjk ds le;qXed ,oa DySfeMkseksukl ds py

chtk.kq f}d'kkfHkdh; gksrs gSaA

(3) vkoÙkchft;ksa es Hkwz.kiks"k] eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn dks fu:fir

djrk gSA

(4) dkjk] ikbul ,oa ¶;wusfj;k mHk;fyaxkJ;h ikni gSA

94. Likbfddkvksa dk Likbd izdkj dk iq"iØe ik;k tkrk gS :-

(1) ;wQksfcZ;k esa (2) fVªfVde esa

(3) ftvk est esa (4) czSfldk esa

95. fuEu dk feyku djs :-

A QySV chu i fgefxjh

B fepZ ii iwlk dksey

C xsgw¡ iii iwlk lse 2

D yksfc;k iv iwlk lnkcgkj

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

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96. The given table shows classes of algae and their

main characteristics. Some characteristics in this

table mentioned as A, B, C and D, Observe the

table and choose the option in which A, B, C and

D are correctly identified :-

Classes Chlorophyceae Phaeophyceae Rhodophyceae

Major Pigment

Chl a, b Chl a, c A

Stored Food

Starch B Floridean starch

Cell Wall C Cellulose, algin

Cellulose, pectin,and polysulphate ester

FlagellarNum ber

2-8 2 D

A B C D(1) Chl a, e Fat & oil Peptidoglycan Many

(2)Chl a, d Mannitol,

LaminarinCellulose Absent

(3) Chl a, d Paramylum Lipoprotein One(4) Chl a, e Glycogen Cellulose Absent

97. What is the ploidy of cells of nucellus, megasporemother cell and cells of female gametophyte,respectively ?(1) 3n, 2n and n(2) 3n, n and 2n(3) 2n, 2n and n(4) 2n, n and 3n

98. Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) Mycoplasma are unicellular eukaryotes placedunder Kingdom Protista and they do not havecell wall

(2) Lichens are symbiotic association betweenfungi and roots of higher plants.

(3) Cycas has small specialised roots calledcoralloid roots which are associated with N2

fixing blue-green algae.

(4) Mycorrhiza are symbiotic association between

fungi and green algae.99. In which of the following both male and female

gametophyte have an independent free livingexistence ?(1) Marchantia(2) Pinus(3) Castor(4) Cycas

96. nh xbZ rkfydk esa 'kSoky ds oxZ vkSj muds eq[; vfHky{k.kksa

dks n'kkZ;k x;k gSA dqN vfHky{k.kksa dks A, B, C vkSj D,

ds :i esa fy[kk x;k gSA rkfydk dks izsf{kr djsa vkSj ml

fodYi dks pqus ftlesa A, B, C vkSj D dks lgh igpkuk

x;k gS :-

oxZ DyksjksQkblh fQ;ksQkblh jksMksQkblh

eq[; o.kZd Chl a, b Chl a, c A

lafpr Hkkstu LVkpZ B ¶yksjhfM;u

LVkpZ

dksf'kdk fHkfÙk C lsyqykst]

,Ythu

lsyqykst] iSfDVu

,oa ikWyhlYQsV

,LVj

d'kkfHkdk la[;k 2-8 2 D

A B C D(1) Chl a, e olk o rsy isIVhMksXykbdu dbZ(2) Chl a, d esfuVksy] ysehusfju lssyqykst vuqifLFkr

(3) Chl a, d isjkekbye fyiksizksVhu ,d

(4) Chl a, e Xykbdkstu lsyqykst vuqifLFkr

97. chtk.Mdk; dh dksf'kdkvksa dh] xq:chtk.kq ekr dksf'kdkdh rFkk eknk ;qXedksnfHkn dh dksf'kdkvks dh lw=xqf.krk

Øe'k% D;k gS ?

(1) 3n, 2n vkSj n (2) 3n, n vkSj 2n

(3) 2n, 2n vkSj n (4) 2n, n vkSj 3n

98. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lR; gS\

(1) ekbdksIykTek ,ddksf'kdh; ;wdsfj;ksV gksrs gSa] ftUgsaizksfVLVk txr esa j[kk x;k gS vkSj buesa dksf'kdk fHkfÙkugha gksrh gSA

(2) ykbdsu] dodksa vkSj mPp ikniksa dh tM+ksa ds e/;lgthoh lEca/k gksrs gSaA

(3) lkbdl esa NksVh fof'k"V tM+sa] izoky tM+sa gksrh gSa] tks

N2–fLFkjhdkjh uhy&gfjr 'kSokyksa ls lEcaf/kr gksrh gSaA

(4) ekbdksjkbtk] dodksa vkSj gjs 'kSokyksa ds e/; lgthoh

lEca/k gksrk gSA

99. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa uj ,oa eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn nksuksa

dk Lora= eqDrthoh vfLrRo laHko gS \

(1) ekdZsfU'k;k

(2) ikbul

(3) vj.M

(4) lkbdl


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100. Examine the figures (A to E) given below andselect the right option out of 1-4, in which all thestructures a, b, c, d, e, f, g & h are identifiedcorrectly :-

(A)'b'

'a'

(B)

'c'

'd'

(C)

(D)

'f'

'e'

(E)

'g'

'h'

(1) a – Eye-spot e – Sieve poreb – Pellicle f – Phloemc – Midrib parenchymad – Antheridiophore g – Secondary cortex

h – Epidermis

(2) a – Contractile vacuole e – Companion cellb – Eye-spot f – Sieve tubec – Hold fast elementd – Gemma cup g – complimentary

cellsh – Phellogen

(3) a – Eye spot e – Sieve tubeb – Contractile vacuole elementc – Air bladder f – Companion celld – Archegoniophore g – Complimentary

cellsh – Cork cambium

(4) a – Eye spot e – Phloemb – Nucleus parenchyma

c – Midrib f – Sieve pored – Archegoniophore g – Cork cambium

h – Secondary cortex

100. uhps fn, fp=ksa (A ls E) dh tk¡p dfj, vkSj fn, x,fodYiksa ls og ,d fodYi pqfu,] ftlesa lajpuk,¡ a, b,

c, d, e, f, g ,oa h lgh igpkuh xbZ gS ?

(A)'b'

'a'

(B)

'c'

'd'

(C)

(D)

'f'

'e'

(E)

'g'

'h'

(1) a – n`d fcUnq e – pkyuh fNnz

b – isfydy f – ¶yks,e e`nqrd

c – e/;f'kjk g – f}rh;d oYdqV

d – iaq/kkuh/kj h – vf/kpeZ

(2) a – ladqpu'khy jl/kkuh e – lgdksf'kdk

b – n`d fcUnq f – pkyuh ufydk rRo

c – LFkkiukax g – iwjd dksf'kdk,¡

d – xsek di h – QSykstu

(3) a – n`d fcUnq e – pkyuh ufydk rRo

b – ladqpu'khy jl/kkuh f – lgdksf'kdk

c – ok;q vk'k; g – iwjd dksf'kdk,¡

d – L=h/kkuh/kj h – dkx ,/kk

(4) a – n`d fcUnq e – ¶yks,e e`nqrd

b – dsUnzd f – pkyuh fNnz

c – e/;f'kjk g – dkx ,/kk

d – L=h/kkuh/kj h – f}rh;d oYdqV

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101. Identify the component labelled A, B, C and Din the diagram below, from the list (i) to (viii).

(A)

(B)

(D)

(C)

(i) Epidermis

(ii) Resin canal

(iii) Hypodermis

(iv) Pericycle

(v) Metaxylem

(vi) Protoxylem

(vii) Pith

(viii) Intra fascicular cambium

The correct components are :-

(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – vi, D – viii

(2) A – iii, B – iv, C – vi, D – viii

(3) A – iii, B – v, C – vi, D – vii

(4) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – vii

102. Saccharum barberi is a variety of :-

(1) Sugar cane

(2) Maize

(3) Millets

(4) Rice

103. What is common in Funaria, Dryopteris and

Ginkgo ?

(1) Presence of archegonia

(2) Well developed vascular tissues

(3) Independent gametophyte

(4) Independent sporophyte

101. uhps fn, x, vkjs[k esa tks ?kVd A, B, C rFkk D ukekafdrfd, x, gS] ds lkFk esa nh xbZ lwph (i) ls (viii) esa ls D;k&D;kgS] mudk lgh la;kstd pqfu, :-

(A)

(B)

(D)

(C)

(i) vf/kpeZ

(ii) jsftu ufydk

(iii) gkbiksM£el

(iv) ifjjEHk

(v) vuqnk:

(vi) vkfnnk:

(vii) eTtk

(viii) vUr% iwyh; ,/kk

?kVdksa dk lgh la;kstu gS :-

(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – vi, D – viii

(2) A – iii, B – iv, C – vi, D – viii

(3) A – iii, B – v, C – vi, D – vii

(4) A – iii, B – i, C – v, D – vii

102. lSdsje ckjcjh ,d fdLe gS :-

(1) xUus dh

(2) eDdk dh

(3) Tokj dh

(4) pkoy dh

103. ¶;wusfj;k, MªkW;ksIVsfjl rFkk fxUdks esa D;k mHk;fu"B gS ?

(1) L=hèkkfu;ksa dh mifLFkfr

(2) lqfodflr laogu ÅÙkd

(3) vkRefuHkZj ; qXedksn~fHkn

(4) vkRefuHkZj chtk.kqn~fHkn


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104. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below,represent to four different animals. Which one ofthese is not correctly identified in the option, alongwith their phyla and their specific feature?

DCBA

Figure Name ofanimal

Name ofphylum Specific feature

1 B Fasciola Platyhelminthes a. Digestive tract present.b. Male & female are not separate.

2 C Pheretima Annelida a. Parapodia are found.b. Indirect development.

3 D Hirudineri-a

Annelida a. Parapodia are absent.b. Direct development.

4 A Taenia Platyhelminthes a. Digestive tract absent.b. Acoelomate animal.

105. Which one is correct animal from following thathaving respiratory organ as 'gills' which alsoperform the function of exrection?(1) Ophiura (2) Dentalium(3) Balanoglossus (4) Palaemon

106. MTP is relatively safe during ?(1) Second trimester

(2) Third trimester

(3) First trimester

(4) Any time during pregnancy

107. Normally skin of the birds is dry and non-glandular except __A__ gland found in __B__ partof birds.What are the A and B ?(1) A = Green gland

B = Uropygium(2) A = Preen gland (Oil gland)

B = Beak(3) A = Preen gland

B = Uropygium (Tail)(4) A = Coxal gland

B = Tail

104. uhps fn;s x;s pkj fp= (A, B, C o D) esa pkj fofHkUuçkf.k;ksa dks fn[kk;k x;k gSA buesa ls fdl ,d dks uhps fn;sx;s fodYiksa esa ls muds la?kksa vkSj muds fof'k"B y{k.kksa dkslkFk esa lgh ugha igpkuk x;k gks\

DCBA

fp= çk.kh dkuke la?k dk uke fof'k"B vfHky{k.k

1 B Qsf'kvksyk IysVhgsfYeUFkht a. ikpuuky mifLFkrb. uj o eknk vyx ugha gksrs gS

2 C QsjsVhek ,susfyMk a. ik'oZikn ik;s tkrs gSb. vçR;{k ifjo/kZu gksrk gS

3 D fg:fMusjh;k ,susfyMk a. ik'oZikn vuqifLFkrb. çR;{k ifjo/kZu gksrk gSA

4 A Vhfu;k IysVhgsfYeUFkht a. ikpuuky vuqifLFkrb. vxqgh; çk.kh

105. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,d çk.kh lgh gS ftlesa 'oukax^fxYl* gksrs gS tks mRltZu dk dk;Z Hkh lEiUu djrs gS\

(1) vkSfQ;wjk (2) Ms.Vsfy;e

(3) csysuksXyksll (4) isyheksu

106. fpfdRldh; lxHkZrk lqjf{kr gSa ?(1) f}fr; frekgh esa(2) r`rh; frekgh esa(3) izFke f=ekgh esa(4) xHkkZoLFkk ds nkSjku dHkh Hkh

107. lkekU;r;k if{k;ksa dh Ropk 'kq"d rFkk vxzfUFky gksrh gSviokn __A__ xzaFkh tks fd if{k;ksa ds __B__ Hkkx esa ik;htkrh gSAA o B D;k gS\(1) A = xzhu xzfUFk;k¡

B = ;wjksik;th;e(2) A = izhu xzfUFk;k¡ (rsy xzfUFk;k¡)

B = pksap(3) A = izhu xzfUFk;k¡ (rsy xzfUFk;k¡)

B = ;wjksik;th;e(4) A = dkWDly xzfUFk;k¡

B = iw¡N

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108. Read the following four statements (A-D).

A. Nerve chord is solid and dorsally present.

B. Notochord is ventral

C. Notochord is dorsal and get transformed unitvertebral column.

D. Pharyngeal gill slits present in developmentalstages.

How many of the above statement is/are correctin respect to chordates?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

109. The adult are radially symmetrical but larvae arebilaterally symmetrical is the feature of :-

(1) Porifera (2) Mollusca

(3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata

110. Brush border epithelium occur in :-

(1) Trachea

(2) Stomach

(3) Small intestine

(4) Fallopian tube

111. Following compound of Bile juice help inemulsificatin of fat :-

(1) Cholesteral (2) Bilirubin

(3) Bilivirdin (4) Bile salts

112. Consider the following figure. The reaction takingplace at point A and B will be :-

A

B

% Hbsaluralidwith O2

100

97

0 95 100PO2

Point A Point B

1. HbO2 ® Hb + O2 Hb + O2 ® HbO2

2. Hb + O2 ® HbO2 HbO2 ® Hb + O2

3. H2O + CO2 ® H2CO3 H2CO3 ® H2O + CO2

4. KHbO2 ® KHb + O2 KHb + O2 ® KHbO2

108. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuksa (A-D) dks if<+,A

A. raf=dk jTtq Bksl o i`"B Hkkx ij mifLFkr

B. i`"B jTtq v/kj Hkkx esa

C. i`"B jTtq i`"B Hkkx ea mifLFkr vkSj mldk d'ks:dnM+ esa :ikarfjr gks tkukA

D. xzluh esa Dykse fNnz dk fdlh Hkh ifjo/kZu fd voLFkkesa mifLFkr gksuk

mijksDr fdrus dFku dkWMsZVk (jTtqdh) ds fy, lgh gS\

(1) pkj (2) rhu

(3) nks (4) ,d

109. o;Ld vjh; :i ls lefefr gksrs gS] tcfd ykokZ f}ik'oZ:i esa lefefr gksrs gSA ;g y{k.k ik;k tkrk gS :-(1) iksjhQsjk (2) eksyLdk(3) vkFkksZiksMk (4) ,dkbuksMesZVk

110. cz'k ;qDr fdukjs okyh midyk ik;h tkrh gS :-

(1) Vªsfd;k esa

(2) vkek'k; esa

(3) NksVh vka= esa

(4) fMEcokfguh esa

111. fiÙkjl esa mifLFkr fuEu ?kVd olk ds ik;lhdj.k esa lgk;rkdjrs gS :-

(1) dkScsfLVjkWy (2) fcfy:fcu(3) fcfyojfMu (4) fiÙkjl yo.k

112. fuEufyf[kr fp= dk v/;;u djsA fcUnq A vkSj B ij gksus

okyh fØ;k, gksxh :-

A

B

% Hbsaluralidwith O2

100

97

0 95 100PO2

Point A Point B

1. HbO2 ® Hb + O2 Hb + O2 ® HbO2

2. Hb + O2 ® HbO2 HbO2 ® Hb + O2

3. H2O + CO2 ® H2CO3 H2CO3 ® H2O + CO2

4. KHbO2 ® KHb + O2 KHb + O2 ® KHbO2


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113. Consider the following diagram and identify A,B, C and D. Bruners's glands are found in :-

A

B

C

D

}

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

114. Identify the correct match from colunm-I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1 Expiratorycapacity

a VC+RV i 4600 ml

2 Vitalcapacity

b ERV+RV ii 1600 ml

3 Total lungcapacity

c TV+ERV iii 2300 ml

4 Functionalresidualcapacity

d TV+ERV+IR-V

iv 5800 ml

(1) 1-d-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-b-ii 4-a-i(2) 3-a-iv, 4-b-iii, 1-c-i 2-d-ii(3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-i, 3-a-iv 4-b-iii(4) 4-c-iv, 3-a-iii, 2-d-i 1-c-i

115. In the given figure identify the A and B substanceand its function :-

A

B

Cortex

Medula

(1) A–Urea, B–Na+Cl–, decrease osmolarity inmedula part.

(2) A–Uric acid, B–Urea, increases osmolarity incortex part.

(3) B–Urea, A–Na+Cl–, increases osmolarity inmedula part.

(4) A–Na+Cl–, B–Uric acid, increase osmolarityin cortex part.

113. fuEufyf[kr fp= dk v/;;u djs vkSj A, B, C vkSj D

dks igpkusA cqzulZ xzafFk;k¡ ikbZ tkrh gS :-

A

B

C

D

}

(1) A esa (2) B esa (3) C esa (4) D esa

114. dkWye-I, II o III esa lgh fodYi igpkusA

dkWye-I dkWye-II dkWye-III

1 fu%'olu{kerk

a VC+RV i 4600 ml

2 tSo {kerk b ERV+RV ii 1600 ml

3 QsQM+ksa dhdqy {kerk

c TV+ERV iii 2300 ml

4 fØ;k'khyvof'k"V {kerk

d TV+ERV+IRV iv 5800 ml

(1) 1-d-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-b-ii 4-a-i(2) 3-a-iv, 4-b-iii, 1-c-i 2-d-ii(3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-i, 3-a-iv 4-b-iii(4) 4-c-iv, 3-a-iii, 2-d-i 1-c-i

115. fn;s fp= esa] inkFkZ A vkSj B o mlds dk;Z dks igpkus :-

A

B

Cortex

Medula

(1) A–;wfj;k, B–Na+Cl–, e/;ka' k Hkkx fd ijklj.krk dks?kVkrs gSA

(2) A–;wfjd vEy, B–;wfj;k] oYdqV Hkkx dh ijklj.krkdks c<+krs gSA

(3) B–;wfj;k, A–Na+Cl–, e/;ka'k ek=kk dh ijklj.krkdks c<+krs gSA

(4) A–Na+Cl–, B–;wfjd vEy] oYdqV Hkkx dhijklj.krk dks c<+krs gSA

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116. The atrium and ventricle of the same side isseparated by atrio-ventricular septum which is a:-

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue

(3) Fibrous tissue

(4) Nervous tissue

117. Repeated activation of the muscles lead to theaccumulation of lactic acid due to :-

(1) Fermentation of acids

(2) Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen

(3) Aerobic breakdown of glycogen

(4) Aerobic breakdown of pyruvic acid

118. Find out the correct match from the following table:-


(i) Fibrous joint Sutures No movement

(ii) SynovialJoint

Betweenatlas andAxis

Free movement

(iii) CartilaginousJoint

Betweenadjacentventebrae

Limitedmovement

(1) i only (2) ii only

(3) ii and iii (4) i, ii and iii

119. How many malpighian tubules present incockroach ?

(1) 60 - 100 (2) 90 - 110

(3) 100 - 150 (4) 70 - 90

120. Which of the following eukaryotic cell structuresare not covered by membrane ?

(1)Centrioles, cilia and flagella

(2)Centrioles, nucleolus and centrosome

(3)Ribosomes, nucleolus and lysosomes

(4)Centrosome, centrioles and lysosomes

116. viuh&viuh vksj ds vkfyan ,oa fuy;] vfyan fuy; iV}kjk i`Fkd jgrs gS] tks fd gksrs gS :-

(1) is'kh; ÅÙkd

(2) midyk ÅÙkd

(3) is'kh; ÅÙkd

(4) raf=dk ÅÙkd

117. isf'k;ksa ds ckj&ckj mÙksftr gksus ij] ySfDVd vEy dk teko

gksus yxrk gS] ftldk dkj.k gS :-

(1) vEyksa dks QjesUVs'ku

(2) Xykbdkstu dk vok;oh fo[kaMu

(3) Xykbdkstu dk ok;oh; fo[kaMu

(4) ikb:fcd vEy dk ok;oh; fo[kaMu

118. fuEu lkj.kh esa ls lgh fodYi pqus :-

dkWye-I dkWye-II dkWye-III

(i) js'kh; tksM+ lhou xfrghu

(ii) lkbuksfo;ytksM+

,Vyl vkSj,fDll ds chp

ç;kZIr xfr

(iii) mikfLFk ;qDrtksM+

fudVorhZd'ks:dksa ds chp

Limitedmovement

(1) dsoy i (2) dsoy ii

(3) ii rFkk iii (4) i, ii rFkk iii

119. dkWdjksp esa esyih?kh ufydkvksa dh la[;k gksrh gS :-

(1) 60 - 100 (2) 90 - 110

(3) 100 - 150 (4) 70 - 90

120. ;wdsfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk dh fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk, f>Yyh}kjk <dh ugh a gksrh gS ?

(1)rkjddsanz, i{ekHk rFkk d'kkfHkdk

(2)rkjddsanz, dsafnzdk rFkk rkjddk;

(3) jkbckslkse] dsafnzdk rFkk y;udk;

(4) rkjddk;, rkjddsanz rFkk y;udk;


H-27/391001CM370715011

121. Identify the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

i Lysosomes a

Increasedsurface areafor proteinsynthesis

ii RER bSteroidhormonesynthesis

iii SER c Intracellulardigestion

iv Golgi body d Glycosidation

(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

122. How many of the following statements are correctwith respect to the given figure ?

(a) Chromosomes are most condensed at this stage(b) It represents metaphase of mitosis(c) It may also represent metaphase-II(d) Each chromosome has two identical or non-

identical chromatids(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three

123. To isolate DNA from bacteria we have to breakthe cell wall. This is done by which enzyme ?(1) Cellulase (2) Chitinase

(3) Lysozyme (4) Invertase

124. How many total water molecules will be releasedin the formation of the polypeptide chain whichwill be formed by the translation of this mRNA ?

5-AUG AGA UAC AAA GUG UAC UAA-3(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

125. The protein products of the Bt toxin gene Cry IAbis responsible for controlling, which of the following?(1) Cotton Bollworms (2) Round worm

(3) Fruit fly (4) Corn borer

121. lgh feyku igpkfu, :-

dkye-I dkye-II

i y;udk; aizksVhu la'ys"k.kds fy, vf/kdlrgh {ks=

ii RER bLVhjkbM gkekZsula'ys"k.k

iii SER cvar% dksf'kdkikpu

iv xkWYthdk; d XykbdkslkbMs'ku

(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

122. fn, x, fp= ds lanHkZ esa fdrus dFku lgh gSa ?

(a) bl voLFkk esa xq.klw= lokZf/kd la?kfur gksrs gSa

(b) ;g lelw=h foHkktu dh e/;koLFkk dks n'kkZrk gSA

(c) ;g e/;koLFkk-II dks Hkh n'kkZ ldrk gSA

(d) izR;sd xq.klw= esa nks leku ;k vleku v/kZxq.klw= gSa

(1) nks (2) pkj(3) ,d (4) rhu

123. thok.kq ls DNA dks i`Fkd djus ds fy, dksf'kdk fHkfÙkdks rksM+k tkrk gS ;g fdl fodj }kjk fd;k tkrk gS ?(1) lsY;wyst (2) dkbfVust(3) ykblkstkbe (4) bUoVsZt

124. bl mRNA ds vuqoknu }kjk cuus okyh ikWyhisIVkbM

Jaa[kyk ds fuekZ.k ls fdrus ty ds v.kq fu"dkflr gksaxs ?

5-AUG AGA UAC AAA GUG UAC UAA-3

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

125. Cry IAb Bt VkWfDlu thu dk izksVhu mRikn fdls fu;af=rdjus esa mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS ?(1) dkWVu ckWyÏfe (2) xksyÏfe

(3) Qy eD[kh (4) dkWuZ cksjj

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126. AR + B ¾® A + BR reaction is associated withwhich of the following enzyme ?

(1) EC : 4121 (2) EC : 2111

(3) EC : 3121 (4) EC : 0121

127. Which of the following causes does not explainabsence of specialised organs for gaseouesexchange in plants ?

(1) Each plant part takes care of its own gaseousexchange needs.

(2) No great demands for gaseous exchange inplant.

(3) CO2 produced in respiration is not consumedin photosynthesis.

(4) Diffusing gases don't travel long distance.

128. Select the correct match :-

(1) Streptokinase – Fungus

(2) Cyclosporin-A – Blood cholesterol lowering agent

(3) Statin – Clarified by the use of pectinase

(4) Biological sewage treatment – Flocs

129. During red drop, which of the following pigmentsystem work poorly ?

(1) PS I

(2) PS II

(3) Both PS-I & PS-II

(4) Neither PS I or PS II

130. In the given diagram, order of solute potential willbe :- (Where '®' represents the movement of thewater)

A B

C

. .. ..... ..... .......

. .. .. ..... ..... .......

. .

(1) A > C > B(2) C > A > B(3) A = B < C(4) A < B > C

126. nh xbZ vfHkØ;k AR + B ¾® A + BR fuEu esa ls dkSulsenzyme ls lEcfU/kr gS\

(1) EC : 4121 (2) EC : 2111

(3) EC : 3121 (4) EC : 0121

127. ikni esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d dkj.k ikni esa fof'k"V çdkjds] xSlksa ds vknku&çnku djus okys] vaxdksa dh vuqifLFkfrdks le>k ugha ldrk ?

(1) ikni dk çR;sd Hkkx viuh [k qn dh xSlks a dkvknku&çnku djus esa l{ke gSA

(2) ikni esa T;knk xSlksa ds vknku&çnku dh ekax ugha gksrhgSA

(3) 'olu esa mRikfnr CO2 dk çdk'k la'ys"k.k esa bLrsekyugha gksrk gSA

(4) folfjr gksus okyh xSlsa T;knk nwjh r; ugha djrhA

128. lgh feyku dks pqfu;s :-

(1) LVªsIVksdkbust & dod

(2) lkbDyksLiksfju-A – jDr dkWysLVsjksy de djus okyk dkjd

(3) LVsfVu & isfDVust ds mi;ksx }kjk 'kq¼ fd;k tkrk gSA

(4) tSfod ey mipkj & (¶yksDl) Å.kZd

129. yky fxjkoV ds nkSjku fuEu esa ls dkSulk o.kZd ra= den{krk ls dke djrk gS ?

(1) PS I

(2) PS II

(3) PS-I ,oa PS-II nksuksa

(4) uk rks PS I vkSj uk gh PS II

130. fn;s x;s fp= eas foys; foHko dk Øe gksxkA(tgk¡ '®' ikuh

ds çokg dks crkrk gSA)

A B

C

. .. ..... ..... .......

. .. .. ..... ..... .......

. .

(1) A > C > B

(2) C > A > B

(3) A = B < C

(4) A < B > C


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131. Apoplast movement of water in plant occursthrough :-

(1) Casparian strips

(2) Plasma membrane

(3) Plasmodesmata

(4) Intercellular spaces

132. Which one of the following element is notremobilized in leaf ?

(1) N (2) K (3) P (4) Ca

133. Which of the following statement is incorrectwith regarding to biocontroling agent ?

(1) Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insectsand other arthropods

(2) Tricoderma species are free-living fungi

(3) The ladybird is useful to get rid of mosquitoes

(4) The genus of majority baculoviruses isNucleopolyhedrovirus

134. From the given Diagram identify the type of plant :-

flower

AboveCriticalphoto period

Below

A

flowerCriticalphoto periodBelow

B

Above

(1) A – SDP, B – LDP (2) A – LDP, B – SDP

(3) A – LDP, B – LDP (4) A – SDP, B – SDP

135. Choose out the correct statement :-

(1) Multipolar neurons are specially found incerebral cortex where unipolar neuron foundin retina of eye

(2) Gap between myelin sheath of two neuron iscalled node of ranvier

(3) comparatively impulse transmission is slow inelectric synapse than chemical synapse.

(4) Na+, K+ pump work against concentrationgradient and transport ions activily

131. ikni esa ikuh dk Apoplast çokg fdl ds }kjk gksrk gS?

(1) dsLisjh ifê;k¡

(2) IykTek f>Yyh

(3) IykTeksMsLesVk

(4) vUrjdksf'kdh; vodk'k

132. fuEu esa ls dkSulk rRo iÙkh esa pyk;eku ugh a gS ?

(1) N (2) K (3) P (4) Ca

133. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku tSo fu;a=.k dkjdksa ds lanHkZ esavlR; gSa ?

(1) csD;wyksok;jl ,sls jksxtud gS] tks dhVksa rFkk vU;lafèkiknksa (vkFkzksiksMk) ij geyk djrs gSaA

(2) VªkbdksMekZ iztkfr ,d eqDrthoh dod gSA

(3) ysMhcMZ] ePNjksa ls NqVdkjk fnykus esa vR;Ur ykHkizn gSA

(4) vf/kdk a 'k c sdqyk sok;jl dk o a'k (thul)U;wfDy;ksikWyhghMªks ok;jl gSaA

134. fn;s x;s fp= esa ls ikni ds çdkj dks igpkfu, :-

flower

AboveCriticalphoto period

Below

A

flowerCriticalphoto periodBelow

B

Above

(1) A – SDP, B – LDP (2) A – LDP, B – SDP

(3) A – LDP, B – LDP (4) A – SDP, B – SDP

135. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,&

(1) cgq/kzqoh; raf=dk rarq eq[;r% izefLr"d oYdqV esa ik,tkrs gS tcfd ,d /kzqoh; raf=dk rarq uS= ds jsfVuk esafeyrs gS

(2) nks raf=dk rarq ds e/; ik;k tkus okyk LFkku jsufo;jdh ?kq.Mh dgykrh gS

(3) vkosx lapj.k fo|qrh; lkbusIl esa jlk;fud lkbusIldh rqyuk esa /khek gksrk gS

(4) Na+ - K+ iEi lkUnzrk izo.krk ds foijhr dk;Z djrkgS] o vk;uksa dks lfØ; :i ls vkoxkfer djrk gS

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136. Following is a diagrammatic representation of the

mechanism of hormone action.

Hormone

Uterine cellmembrane

Hormone-receptorcomplex

Nucleus

Nucleus

mRNA

Proteins

Physiological response

Which of the following statement does not support

the hormone action depicted?

(1) It explains the action of a hormone which

interacts with membrane bound receptors.

(2) It explains the action of a hormone which

interacts with intracellular receptors in

nucleus.

(3) The hormone regulates chormosome function

by the interaction of hormone receptor

complex with genome.

(4) This hormone does not generate a second

messenger

137. Functional unit of muscle contraction is :-

(1) Muscle fibre (2) Sarcomere

(3) Sarcosomes (4) Sarcoplasm

138. Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) Photoreceptor cells are not present at blind

spot

(B) The photopic vision is function of rods.

(C) Opsin is an aldehyde of vitamin A.

(D) Action potential is generated in ganglion cells

of retina

How many of the above statements are true ?

(1)4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2

136. uhps gkeksZu fØ;kfo/kh dh vkjs[kh; izLrqfr nh xbZ gSA

Hormone

Uterine cellmembrane

Hormone-receptorcomplex

Nucleus

Nucleus

mRNA

Proteins

Physiological response

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku n'kkZ, x, gkekZsu fØ;kfof/k ds

fy, lgh ugha gS\

(1) ;g ml gkeksZu dh fØ;kfof/k dks n'kkZrk gS tks f>Yyh

vkc¼ xzkfg;ks ls vUrfØZ;k djrs gSA

(2) ;g ml gkeksZu dh fØ;kfof/k dks n'kkZrk gS tks dsUæd

esa vUr% dksf'kdh; xzkfg;ks ls vUrfØZ;k djrs gSA

(3) ;s gkeksZu thukse ls gkeksZu xzkgh ladqy dh vUrfØZ;k

}kjk xq.klw=ksa ds dk;ksZ dks fu;af=r djrs gSA

(4) ;s gkeksZu f}rh;d lans'kokgd iSnk ugha djrs gSA

137. is'kh ladqpu dh fØ;kRed bdkbZ gS :-

(1) is'kh rarq (2) lkdksZfe;j

(3) lkdksZlkse (4) lkdksZIykTe

138. fuEu dFkuksa dks if<+, (A-D)

(A) va/k fcanq ij izdk'k xzkgh dksf'kdk,a vuqifLFkr gksrh

gSA

(B) QksVksfid n`f"V 'kykdk dk dk;Z gSA

(C) vksfIlu foVkfeu A dk ,fYMgkbM gSA

(D) lfØ; foHko dk fuekZ.k xqfPNdk dksf'kdkvksa eas gksrk gSA

mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku lR; gS\

(1)4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2


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139. Oogenesis is the process in the ovary that resultsin the production of female gametes.

Which statement about oogenesis in humanfemale false ?

(1) No more oogonia are formed and added afterbirth.

(2) The process of oogenesis is completed, whenthe egg cell is penetrated by sperm.

(3) In oogenesis unequal cytokinesis result in onesingle large cell, which goes on to form theovum.

(4) Some time polar body is penetrated by sperm,which goes on to form the ovum.

140. Pineal gland is not related with :-

(1) Body temperature

(2) Defence capability

(3) Metabolism

(4) Kidney functions

141. Read the following statement carefully and givethe correct answer about test tube baby.

(A) Fertilisation inside female genital tract anddevelopment of embryo in uterus.

(B) Gestation period is same as a normal.

(C) Fertilisation outside and Implantation insidewomb of female.

(D) Both fertilisation and development of embryoare outside the female genital tract.

Option :

(1) A, B and C (2) B and C

(3) A and B (4) B and D

142. It is diagrammatic presentation of various eventsduring a menstrual cycle, In which find out correctstructure which responsible for maintenance ofendometrium ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) A and C (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) Only C

139. v.M+tuu v.M+k'k; esa gksus okyk og izØe gS] ftlesa ,deknk ; qXed dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA

mijksDr esa ls euq"; ds v.Mtuu ds fy, dkSulk dFkuxyr gS\

(1) tUe ds ckn Åxksfu;k dk fuekZ.k ugha gksrk gSA

(2) v.M+tuu dk izØe rc gh iw.kZ gksrk gS] tc ,d

v.M+dksf'kdk ] 'kqØk.kq ds }kjk Hksfnr dh tkosA

(3) v.M+tuu esa dksf'kdk æO; dk foHkktu vleku gksrkgSA ftlds QyLo:i ,d cM+h dksf'kdk v.M+k.kq esa

cny tkrh gSA

(4) dHkh-dHkh /kqzoh;dk; 'kqØk.kq ds }kjk Hksfnr dj nh tkrhgS] tks v.M+k.kq dks fufeZr djrh gSA

140. fifu;y xzafFk lacaf/kr ugha gS :-

(1) 'kkjhfjd rki ls

(2) lqj{kk {kerk ls

(3) miki;p ls

(4) o`Dd fØ;k ls

141. fuEu dFkuksa dks /;ku ls if<+;s vkSj ij[kuyh f'k'kq ds ckjsesa lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsaA

(A) fu"kspu eknk tuu ekxZ esa vkSj Hkwz.k dk ifjo/kZu xHkkZ'k;esaA

(B) xHkZdky lkekU; xHkZdky ds leku gksrk gSA

(C) fu"kspu eknk ds 'kjhj ds ckgj vkSj vkjksi.k eknk dsoqEc esaA

(D) nksuksa fu"kspu vkSj Hkwz.k dk ifjo/kZu eknk ds tuu ekxZds ckgj

fodYi :

(1) A, B vkSj C (2) B vkSj C

(3) A vkSj B (4) B vkSj D

142. ;s fp= ekfld pØ ds le; v.Mk'k; ifjorZu dks n'kkZrsgS muesa ls ml lajpuk dks ifgpkfu,sa tks ,.M+kseSfVª;e ds

j[kj[kko ds fy, ftEesnkj gS ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) A vkSj C (2) B vkSj C

(3) C vkSj D (4) dsoy C

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143. Which one of the following structure of sperm ismismatched ?

(1) Acrosome Contain spermlysinsthat help infertilisation

(2) Nucleus DNA + Protamineprotein

(3) Proximal centriole Dissolve after spermentry into ovum

(4) Middle piece Contain numerousmitochondria, whichproduce energy formovement of tail

144. Family has 3 girls, probability of son at 4th birthis :-(1) 100% (2) 25%(3) 50% (4) 75%

145. Which of the following symbol is used for sexunspecified ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

146. Choose the correct statements :-

(A) mRNA has some additional sequences that arenot translated and are referred as untranslatedregion (UTR).

(B) The process of splicing represents thedominance of protein world.

(C) In eukaryote, the mRNA does not require anyprocessing to become active.

(D) In bacteria 23s rRNA acts as a catalyst for theformation of peptide bond.

Options :

(1) A, B, C, D (2) A and B

(3) A and D (4) A and C

147. Which of the following is used as a anticancerdrug ?

(1) Ricin (2) Concanavalin-A

(3) Abrin (4) Vinblastin

143. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d 'kqØk.kq dh lajpuk dk xyr feykugS ?

(1) ,Økslkse blesa LieZykbflu Hkjsgksrs gS tks fu"kspu esalgk;rk djrs gSA

(2) dsUnzd DNA + izksVkehu çksVhu

(3) lehiLFk lSfUVª;ksy v.Mk.kq esa 'kqØk.kq dsizos'k ds ckn foyqIr

(4) e/; Hkkx vla[; lw=df.kdk,¡ik;h tkrh gS tks iw¡N dksxfr iznku djus ds fy,ÅtkZ mRiUu djrh gSA

144. ,d ifjokj esa rhu yMfd;ka gSA blesa pkSFkk cPpk yMdkgksxk bldh D;k izkf;drk gksxh ?(1) 100% (2) 25%(3) 50% (4) 75%

145. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ladsr vKkr fyax ds fy, mi;ksx fd;ktkrk gS ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

146. lgh dFkuksa dk p;u dhft, :-

(A) mRNA esa dqN vfrfjDr Øe ik;s tkrs gSa] ftudkvuqoknu ugha gksrk gS] mudks vuVªkUlysVsM {ks= (UTR)dgk tkrk gSA

(B) leca/ku dh izfØ;k izksVhu nqfu;k ds izHkqRo dks iznf'kZrdjrh gSA

(C) ;wdsfj;ksV esa mRNA dks lfØ; gksus ds fy, fdlhHkh izdkj ds lalk/ku dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gSA

(D) thok.kq esa isIVkbM ca/k cukus esa 23s rRNA mRizsjddh Hkkafr dk;Z djrk gSA

fodYi :

(1) A, B, C, D (2) A ,oa B

(3) A ,oa D (4) A ,oa C

147. fuEu esa ls fdldk mi;ksx ,UVhdSalj Mªx ds :i esa fd;ktkrk gS ?

(1) fjflu (2) dkWudsukosfyu-A

(3) ,fczu (4) fouCykfLVu


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148.

In above structure A and B is :-

(1) A - Template ; B - Coding

(2) A - Coding ; B - Template

(3) A - Coding ; B - Coding

(4) A - Template ; B - Template

149. How many different kinds of gametes will be producedby a plant having the genotype AaBBCcDD

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Eight

150. How many characters of pea plant, chosen bymendel, were differentiated on the basis of colour?

(1) Seven (2) One

(3) Three (4) Two

151. The follwing diagrams represent the types ofaestivation in corolla. Identify the correctcombination of labelling :-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Vexillary

(2) A-Valvate, B-Imbricate, C-Twisted, D-Vexillary

(3) A-Vexillary, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Valvate

(4) A-Valvate, B-Vexillary, C-Twisted, D-Imbricate

152. Galactose and Mannose are :-

(1) Optical isomers of Glucose

(2) Anomer of Glucose

(3) Epimer of Glucose

(4) Polyhydroxy ketone

148.

mijksDr lajpuk esa A o B gS :-

(1) A - VsEiysV ; B - dkWfMax

(2) A - dkWfMax ; B - VsEiysV

(3) A - dkWfMax ; B - dkWfMax

(4) A - VsEiysV ; B - VsEiysV

149. ,d ikS/ksa ls] ftldk thu izk:i AaBBCcDD gS] fdrusfHkUu izdkj ds ;qXed cusaxs ?

(1) rhu (2) nks

(3) pkj (4) vkB

150. esaMy }kjk eVj ds ikS/ks esa pqus x;s y{k.kksa esa ls fdrus y{k.kjax ds vk/kkj ij foHksfnr fd;s x;s Fks ?

(1) lkr (2) ,d

(3) rhu (4) nks

151. fuEu fp= iq"iny foU;kl ds fofHkUu i zdkjk s a dk siznf'k Zr djrs gSA bues a ls ukekadu ds lgh la;kstu dksigpkfu;s :-

( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) v c l n

(1) v-dksjLi'khZ, c-O;kofrZr, l-dksjNknh, n-oSDthysjh

(2) v-dksjLi'khZ, c-dksjNknh, l-O;kofrZr, n-oSDthysjh

(3) v-oSDthysjh , c-O;kofrZr, l-dksjNknh, n-dksjLi'khZ

(4) v-dksjLi'khZ, c-oSDthysjh , l-O;kofrZr, n-dksjNknh

152. xsysDVkst o eSUukst gS :-

(1) Xyqdkst ds izdkf'kd leko;oh

(2) Xyqdkst ds ,uksej

(3) Xyqdkst ds ,fiej

(4) iksyhgkbMªksDlh dhVksu

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153. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) The complex tissues are made of more than onetype of cells and these work together as a unit

(2) Xylem parenchyma cells are living and thin walledand their cell walls are made up of cellulose

(3) Gymnosperms have albuminous cells and sievecells. They lack sieve tubes and companioncells.

(4) All tissues including epidermis and vascularbundles constitute the ground tissue

154. Codons - GUU, GUC, GUG and GUA codes forvaline amino acid. This property of codon isknown as :-

(1) Universality (2) Unambiguous

(3) Non overlapping (4) Degeneracy

155. Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Sucrose - Non reducing

(2) Lactose - Blood sugar

(3) Inulin - Disaccharide

(4) Chitin - Hetero polysaccharide

156. Which of the following is the shortest phase ofcardiac cycle ?

(1) Atrial Diastole

(2) Atrial Systole

(3) Ventricular Systole

(4) Joint Diastole

157. Identify the correct match from the column-I, IIand III.


1. Homo habilis i. 1650 c.c. a. did not eatmeat

2. Homo erectus ii. 1400 c.c. b. probably atemeat

3. Neanderthal iii. 900 c.c. c. lived in cave

4. Cromagnon iv. 650-800 c.c. d. Immortalityof soul

(1) 1-d-i, 2-c-ii, 3-b-iv, 4-a-iii

(2) 1-d-ii, 2-c-i, 3-b-iv, 4-a-iii

(3) 1-d-iii, 2-c-ii, 3-b-iv, 4-a-i

(4) 1-a-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-d-ii, 4-b-i

153. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gSa ?

(1) tfVy Ård esa ,d ls vf/kd izdkj dh dksf'kdk,¡gksrh gSa ,oa ;s feydj ,d bdkbZ dh rjg dk;Z djrh gSA

(2) Tkkbye iSjsadkbek dksf'kdk,a thfor gksrh gS rFkk budhfHkfÙk iryh gksrh gS tks lsY;qykst dh cuh gksrh gSA

(3) ftEuksLieZ esa ,yC;wfeuh dksf' kdk,a ,oa pkyuh dksf'kdk,agksrh gS] buesa pkyuh ufydkvksa vkSj lgpj dksf'kdkvksadk vHkko gksrk gSaA

(4) lHkh Ård] ckáRopk rFkk laogu caMy dks feykdjHkj.k Ård cukrs gSaA

154. GUU, GUC, GUG rFkk GUA - dksMksu osfyu vehuksvEy dk dwVys[ku djrs gSaA dkWMksu dk ;g xq.k dgykrkgS :-

(1) lkoZf=drk (2) vlafnX/krk

(3) vu vfrO;kiu (4) viHkz"Brk

155. fuEu esa ls dkSulk lqesfyr gS ?

(1) lqØkst - ukWu fjM~;wflax

(2) ySDVkst - :f/kj 'kdZjk

(3) buqfyu - MkblSdsjkbM

(4) dkbVhu - fo"ke iksyhlSdsjkbM+

156. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ân pØ dh lcls NksVh voLFkk gksrhgS ?

(1) vkfyan f'kfFkyu

(2) vkfyan ladqpu

(3) fuy; ladqpu

(4) la;qDr f'kfFkyu

157. LrEHk-I, II vkSj III dk lgh feyku dhft;s

LrEHk-I LrEHk-II LrEHk-III

1. gksek s gSfcfyl i. 1650 c.c. a. ;s ek¡l ugha[kkrs Fks

2. gkseks bj SDVl ii. 1400 c.c. b. lEHkor% ek¡l[kkrk Fkk

3. fu;aMjFky iii. 900 c.c. c. x qQk esa jgrs Fks

4. Økse sxuu iv. 650-800 c.c. d. vkRek dhvejrk esafo'okl

(1) 1-d-i, 2-c-ii, 3-b-iv, 4-a-iii

(2) 1-d-ii, 2-c-i, 3-b-iv, 4-a-iii

(3) 1-d-iii, 2-c-ii, 3-b-iv, 4-a-i

(4) 1-a-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-d-ii, 4-b-i


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158. The figure below show 3 different conditions.Choose the correct one :ATG ACG GAC AGA AAC......This is original DNA codon which one will showframe-shift mutation ?(A) ATG ACG GAC AGA AAC....(B) ATG CGG ACA GAA AC....(C) ATG AAC GGA CAG AAA C....(1) A, B and C (2) Only B(3) B and C (4) Only C

159. Which statement is not a false statement?(1) Earth was formed about 4.6 million year ago(2) Life was originated in mesozoic era(3) Homologous organ show divergent evolution(4) Fist living form in primitive oceans was

prokaryotic cell160. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and

select the option which includes all the correctones only -(a) Thomas malthus influenced darwin(b) Natural resources are unlimited(c) Populations are stable in size except for

seasonal fluctuation(d) Members of a population vary in

characteristicsOptions :-(1) Statements a, b, c(2) Statements a, b, c and d(3) Statements a, c and d(4) Statements b, c and d

161. Consider the following four statements (a-d) andselect the option which includes all the correctones only.(a) Evidence that evolution of life forms has

indeed taken place on earth has come frommany quarters.

(b) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life formsfound in rocks.

(c) Different aged rock sediments contain fossilsof different life-forms

(d) Different fossils represents extinct organismsOptions :-(1) Statements a, b, c and d(2) Statements a, b and c(3) Statements a, b and d(4) Statements a, c and d

158. uhps rhu fHkUu vkjs[k iznf'kZr gS buesa lgh dk p;udjsa :ATG ACG GAC AGA AAC......;g lgh DNA dksMk su gS ftlesa dkSulk fram-shiftmRifjorZu dks n'kkZrk gS \(A) ATG ACG GAC AGA AAC....(B) ATG CGG ACA GAA AC....(C) ATG AAC GGA CAG AAA C....(1) A, B rFkk C (2) dsoy B(3) B rFkk C (4) dsoy C

159. dkSulk dFku vlR; ugha gS\(1) i`Foh dk fuekZ.k yxHkx 4.6 fefy;u o"kZ iwoZ gqvk(2) thou dh mRifÙk ehlkstksbd egkdYi esa gqbZ(3) letkr vax] vilkfjr fodkl n'kkZrs gS(4) vkfn lkxj esa izFke tho Lo:i] iwoZ dsUædh; dksf'kdk

Fkh160. uhps pkj dFku (a-d) iznf'kZr gS buesa ls ml fodYi dk

p;u djs ftlesa lHkh lgh dFku gks -

(a) Fkksel&ekYFkl us MkfoZu dks izHkkfor fd;k(b) izkd`frd òksr vflfer gS(c) okLrfodrk esa tho la[;k dk vkdkj flfer gS] ekSleh;

mrkj&p<+ko dks NksM+dj(d) fdlh Hkh thola[;k ds lnL;ksa esa y{k.kksa esa fofHkn~rk,sa

gksrh gSfodYi %&(1) dFku a, b, c

(2) dFku a, b, c vkSj d(3) dFku a, c vkSj d(4) dFku b, c vkSj d

161. uhps pkj dFku (a-d) iznf'kZr gS] buesa ls lHkh lgh dFkuksaokyk ,d fodYi dk p;u djsa(a) i`Foh ij thoksa dk fodkl gqvk bl ckr ds izek.k dbZ

gSa(b) thok'e] tho ds dBksj vaxksa ds vo'ks"k gS tks pêkuksa

esa feyrs gS(c) fofHkUu vk;q dh pêkuksa ds Lrj esa] fofHkUu thoksa ds

vo'ks"k feyrs gS(d) fHkUu&fHkUu vo'ks"k foyqIr thoksa dks iznf'kZr djrs

gSfodYi %&(1) dFku a, b, c vkSj d(2) dFku a, b vkSj c(3) dFku a, b vkSj d(4) dFku a, c vkSj d

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162. Acidity in Human urine is an example of

(1) Cellular barrier

(2) Antibody, mediated, immunity

(3) Physiological barrier

(4) Cell mediated immunity

163. The affected individual lacks an enzyme that convertspheylalanine into tyrosine in following disease :-

(1) Phenyl Ketoneuria (2) Tay-sach's disease

(3) Albinism (4) Down syndrome

164. Which of the Antibody when found at the time ofbirth shows congenital infection ?

(1) Ig G (2) Ig A

(3) Ig D (4) Ig M

165. Which of the following is used in preparation ofcosmetic and polishes ?

(1) Honey (2) Pollen

(3) Bee wax (4) Propolis

166. Which of the following related to brainadvancement ?

(1) Depth of ridges & grooves increases

(2) Thick neopallium

(3) More intersensory associations & areas

(4) All of the above

167. Mammary glands are modified :-

(1) Sweat glands (2) Sebaceous gland

(3) Cutaneous glands (4) Scent glands168. Person having deep facial injuries during bike

accident, after that he lost sensations from upperjaw and lower jaw becomes immovable and sometaste sensations also hampered with typicalexpression less face .Which of the cranial nerveaffected ?

(1) Facial

(2) Trigeminal

(3) Glossopharynglal

(4) (1) & (2) both169. The mass emission standard, Bharat stage IV on

4 wheelers is applicable since :-(1) April 2010 (2) October 2010(3) June 2010 (4) April 2005

162. euq"; ds ew= dk vEyh; gksuk mnkgj.k gS

(1) dksf'kdh; ?kVd dk

(2) izfrj{kh vk/kkfjr izfrj{kk dk

(3) fØ;kfo/kh ls lacf/kr ?kVd dk

(4) dksf'kdh; vk/kkfjr izfrj{kk dk

163. fuEu esa ls fdl jksx esa izHkkfor O;fDr esa fQukby,ysfuudks Vk;jkslhu esa cnyus okys ,atkbe dh deh gksrh gSa ?

(1) fQukbyfdVksu;qjh;k (2) Vs -lsDl jksx

(3) jtadghurk(,YchfuLe) (4) Mkmu flaMªkse

164. dkSulh izfrj{kh tUe ds le; ik, tkus ls tUetkr laØe.kgksus dk irk yxrk gS ?

(1) Ig G (2) Ig A

(3) Ig D (4) Ig M

165. fuEu esa ls fdldks dkWLesfVd rFkk iksfy'k cukusa esa iz;qDrfd;k tkrk gS\

(1) 'kgn (2) ijkx

(3) e/kqeD[kh dk ekse (4) izksiksfyl

166. fuEu esa ls D;k efLr"d fd o`f¼ ls lacaf/kr gS ?

(1) efLr"d fd lrg ij mHkkjksa o njkjksa dk xgjk gksuk

(2) eksVh fu;ksisfy;e

(3) T;knk varj laosnh lgHkkfxrk,sa ,oa {ks=

(4) mijksDr lHkh

167. Lru xzafFk;ka :ikarj.k gksrh gSa :-

(1) Losn xzafFk dk (2) flcsfl;l xzafFk dk

(3) Rod xzafFk dk (4) lsaV xzafFk dk

168. ,d O;fDr ds eksVjlkbfdy VDdj gks tkus ds dkj.k psgjsij van:uh pksVs vkrh gSA ftlds ckn mlds Åij vkSj fupyktcM+k laosnughu vkSj tM+ gks tkrk gSA eqWag esa Lokn dh dehvkSj psgjs ds gko Hkko dk xk;c gksukA ;s y{k.k dkSu lhdikyh; raf=dk ds izHkkfor gksus ls gS ?

(1) vkuuh

(2) VªkbZftfeuy¥

(3) ftOgk xzluh

(4) (1) vkSj (2) nksuksa

169. nzO;eku mRltZu ekud] Hkkjr LVst IV, pkj ifg;k okguksij dc ls ykxw gqvk\(1) vçsy 2010 (2) vDVwcj 2010(3) twu 2010 (4) vçsy 2005


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170. Enhanced green house effect is mainly due to :-

(1) Increased emission of CO2, CH4, CFC & N2O

(2) Deforestation

(3) Rain fall pattern

(4) Soil erosion

171. Facultative mutualism can be illustrated with theexample of :-

(1) Sea Anemone & clown fish

(2) Algae & fungi

(3) Hermit crab & sea Anemone

(4) Mycorrhiza & oak

172. How many example represents inexhaustible resource?

Solar energy, Humans, mineral, wind power, wild life,power of tide

(1) five (2) three

(3) four (4) six

173. Zero waste procedure is the part of :-

(1) Wild life conservation

(2) Social forestry

(3) Jhum cultivation

(4) Integrated organic farming

174. Mitochondria divide by which process ?

(1) Budding (2) Binary fission

(3) Fragmentation (4) Meiosis

175. Which of the following cause of biodiversity loss,is related to mutualism ?

(1) Alien species invasion

(2) Over exploitation

(3) Habitate fragmentation

(4) Coextinction

176. In meiosis, splitting of centromere takes place inwhich phase ?

(1) Anaphase - II (2) Anaphase - I

(3) Metaphase - I (4) Metaphase - II

177. Roots of black walnut (juglans nigra) secrete achemical juglone which is toxic to other plantslike apple, alfa alfa etc. This kind of interactionis :-

(1) Amensalism (2) Mutualism

(3) Protocooperation (4) Brood parasitism

170. xzhu gkml çHkko dh of¼ eq[; :i ls fdl ds dkj.k gksrh gS\

(1) CO2, CH4, CFC vkSj N2O ds mRltZu esa o`f¼

(2) ouksUewyu

(3) o"kkZ dk Lo:i

(4) e`nk dk vijnu

171. oSdfYid lgksidkfjrk dh O;k[;k fdl mnkgj.k ls dh tkldrh gS\

(1) leqnzh ,sfueksu vkSj Dykmu eNyh

(2) 'kSoky vkSj dod

(3) gfeZV dsdM+k vkSj leqnzh , sfueksu

(4) ekbdksjkbtk vkSj vksd

172. fdrus mnkgj.k vlekI; lalk/ku dks çnf'kZr djrs gSa ?

lkSj ÅtkZ] euq";] [kfut] ok;q ÅtkZ] oU; thou] Tokjh;ÅtkZA

(1) ikap (2) rhu

(3) pkj (4) N%

173. 'kwU; vif'k"V çØe fdldk ,d vax gS\

(1) oU; thou laj{k.k

(2) lkekftd okfudh

(3) >we [ksrh

(4) ,dhd`r tSo [ksrh

174. lw= df.kdk fdl izfØ;k }kjk foHkkftr gksrk gSa ?

(1) eqdqyu (2) f}foHkktu

(3) fo[k.Mu (4) v¼Zlw=h foHkktu

175. tSo fofo/krk esa gkfu dk] dkSulk dkj.k lgksidkfjrk lslEcaf/kr gS ?

(1) fons'kh tkfr;ksa dk vkØe.k

(2) vfrnksgu

(3) vkoklh; fo[kaMu

(4) lg foyqIrrk

176. v¼Zlw=h foHkktu dh fdl voLFkk esa lsaVªksfe;j dk foHkktugksrk gS ?

(1) i'pkoLFkk - II (2) i'pkoLFkk - I

(3) e/;koLFkk - I (4) e/;koLFkk - II

177. dkys v[kjksV (tqxysal ukbxzk) dh tM+sa tqxyksu uked ,djlk;u lzkfor djrh gSa tks fd nwljs ikniksa tSls fd lsc]vYQk&vYQk ds fy, fo"kSys gksrs gSaA bl rjg dh varfØ;kgS :-

(1) izfrthfork (2) lgksidkfjrk

(3) izkDlg;ksfxrk (4) vaM ijthfork

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178. Match the following :-

Producer A Carnivores

C Standing stateB

flow of energy and flow of nutrientsE D

Decomposition

A B C D E(1) Herbivores Decomposition Litter Cyclic Linear

(2) Keyindustryanimals

Detritus Litter Linear Cyclic

(3) T-2 Duff GFC Cyclic Linear(4) Bacteria Predation Fungi Linear Linear

179. Most affecting green house gas for climaticchange is :-

(1) CO2 (2) Oxygen

(3) CFC (4) NOx

180. ______ is highly hazardous to animal health buton plants this gas does not seen to show adverseeffects :-

(1) CO2 (2) PAN (3) SO2 (4) CO

178. lqesfyr dhft, :-

mRiknd A ekalkgkjh

C [kM+h fLFkfrB

ÅtkZ dk izokg ,oa iks"kdksa dkE D

izokg

vi?kVu

A B C D E(1) 'kkdkgkjh vi?kVu fyVj pØh; js[kh;

(2) dh baMLVªh,uhey

vijn fyVj js[kh; pØh;

(3) T-2 MQ pkj.k [kk| J`a[kyk pØh; js[kh;

(4) thok.kq ijHk{k.k dod js[kh; js[kh;

179. tyok;q ifjorZu dks lokZf/kd izHkkfor dju s okyh xzhu gkmlxSl gS :-

(1) CO2 (2) Oxygen

(3) CFC (4) NOx

180. ______ tUrq LokLF; ds fy, vR;Ur gkfudkjd gS tcfdikniksa ij bldk uqdlkunk;d çHkko ugha fn[krk :-

(1) CO2 (2) PAN

(3) SO2 (4) CO

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015


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