Mineral Nutrition - 1 File Download

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SECTION - A

Objective Type Questions

(Methods to Study the Mineral Requirements of Plants)

1. Hydroponics refers to growing plants in

(1) Macronutrients culture medium (2) Water

(3) Solution of mineral nutrients (4) Soil

Sol. Answer (3)

Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants with their roots immersed in nutrient solution.

(Essential Mineral Elements)

2. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. criteria of essentiality of minerals.

(1) Element must be necessary for normal growth and reproduction

(2) Element must be replaceable by another element

(3) Disorders caused by the absence/deficiency of an element can be corrected only by adding that specific

element

(4) Element must be directly involved in plant metabolism

Sol. Answer (2)

Criteria of essentiality say that element must not be replacable by any another element and it must be

indespensable and should have a demonstratable function.

3. How many elements have been found to be essential for plants?

(1) 18 (2) 60 (3) 17 (4) 9

Sol. Answer (3)

Out of 60 elements found in protoplasm of plant, 17 are essential elements and 4 are beneficial, rest without

any reason or having very little function in some plants.

4. The concentration of elements such as carbon and nitrogen in plants is

(1) Above 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter (2) Less than 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter

(3) Equal to 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter (4) Between 1–10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter

Sol. Answer (1)

Carbon and nitrogen are essential macronutrients, they are present in concentration, more than 10 m mole/

kg of dry matter, i.e., why macronutrients.

Chapter 9

Mineral Nutrition

Solutions

2 Mineral Nutrition Solutions of Assignment


5. Which of the following is not essential for all plants?

(1) Mg (2) Co (3) Mo (4) Ni

Sol. Answer (2)

Co is the beneficial element.

6. A macronutrient is

(1) Manganese (2) Zinc (3) Iron (4) Magnesium

Sol. Answer (4)

Magnesium come under 17 essential elements in which 9 are macronutrients, and Mg is one of

macronutrients.

7. Select the odd one out from the following w.r.t. macronutrient.

(1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus (3) Iron (4) Sulphur

Sol. Answer (3)

Iron is a micronutrient.

8. Which of the following is a micronutrient?

(1) Ca (2) Mg (3) K (4) Ni

Sol. Answer (4)

Nickel comes under 8 micronutrients, rest are macronutrients.

9. Which of the following is not a beneficial element?

(1) Na (2) Co (3) K (4) Si

Sol. Answer (3)

"Rest are beneficial elements". K is essential macronutrient.

10. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. micronutrients.

(1) Become toxic in excess

(2) Involved in activation of enzymes

(3) Involved in building of protoplasmic constituents

(4) Concentration is less than 10 millimole kg–1 of dry matter

Sol. Answer (3)

N, P and S are protoplasmic elements as they form protoplasm along with C, H and O.

11. Major function of trace elements is to act as

(1) Constituent of hormones (2) Constituent of amino acids

(3) Constituent of chlorophyll (4) Cofactor of enzymes

Sol. Answer (4)

Trace elements are micronutrients included in functioning of enzymes.

N is constituent of amino acid and hormones.

Mg is constituent of chlorophyll.

3Solutions of Assignment Mineral Nutrition


12. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Mn – Photolysis of water

(2) Ca – Synthesis of middle lamella

(3) P – Component of ATP

(4) Zn – Constituent of coenzyme A

Sol. Answer (4)

Zn activates alcohol dehydrogenase

Zn2+ Carboxylases

Sulphur is a constituent of coenzyme A.

13. Element present in middle lamella is

(1) Zn (2) Cu (3) Ca (4) K

Sol. Answer (3)

Ca and Mg form middle lamella.

Calcium pectate

Magnesiumpectate

14. An element which helps in joining the subunits of ribosomes is

(1) Ca (2) Mg (3) K (4) S

Sol. Answer (2)

Magnesium concentration decides wheather two subunits of ribosomes will remain associated or separate.

50 S

30 S

Mg2+

50 S

30 S

15. Plants which are deficient in zinc will show reduction in the biosynthesis of

(1) Ethylene (2) Coenzyme A (3) Ferredoxin (4) Auxin

Sol. Answer (4)

Zn is used for auxin and tryptophan synthesis.

Fe for ferredoxin.

16. Which of the following groups of elements are mobile?

(1) N, P, K (2) Ca, Mg, S (3) Ca, S, Fe (4) Ca, N, P

Sol. Answer (1)

N, P & K are mobile elements i.e., they can be translocated to younger tissues.

17. The anion-cation balance in plant cells is due to essential element like

(1) Potassium (2) Calcium (3) Sodium (4) Iron

Sol. Answer (1)

+

Nitrate, Cl , K , Sulphate maintain the osmotic balance.

K+ maintains turgidity of guard cells.



18. Which enzyme is activated by zinc?

(1) Nitrate reductase (2) Nitrogenase

(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase (4) Catalase

Sol. Answer (3)

Zn activates alcohol dehydrogenase. It is present in liver.

Hence, called LADH

Stabilize bindingof substrates

Alcohol dehydrogenase

is a dehydrogenase enzyme, facilitate interconversion between

alcohols or ketones with reduction of NAD to NADH+

19. A macronutrient which is component of all organic compounds but is not a mineral element is

(1) Fe (2) P (3) Mg (4) C

Sol. Answer (4)

C, H & O are considered as non-mineral elements because they are obtained from CO2

and H2

O.

20. Component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase is

(1) Mo (2) Mn (3) Co (4) N

Sol. Answer (1)

Nitrogenase is made up of two subunits.

Mo-Fe

Bigger

Fe

Smaller

21. An immobile element present in plant tissues is

(1) N (2) P (3) Ca (4) K

Sol. Answer (3)

Its deficiency first appear in younger leaves because it cannot be mobilised to younger leaves from older leaves.

22. The essential element that activates enzymes rubisco and pepco, also

(1) Needed in the activity of pyruvic acid decarboxylase

(2) Helps in carbohydrate translocation

(3) Essential for water splitting reactions

(4) Forms constituents of phytol tail of chlorophyll

Sol. Answer (1)

(1) It is required in activity of pyruvic acid decarboxylase Mg2+ ions are present in active site. This pyruvate

decarboxylase is used for catalyses decarboxylation of pyruvic acid to an acetaldehyde and CO2.

(2) Mn2+ is essential for water splitting reaction.

(3) Boron helps in carbohydrate translocation.

23. All are the elements whose deficiency symptoms first appear in the older tissues, except

(1) Nitrogen (2) Calcium (3) Potassium (4) Magnesium

Sol. Answer (2)

Immobile element deficiency first in young tissues.

N, K & Mg are mobile elements – deficiency first appears in older tissues.



24. Amino acids like methionine and cysteine contain

(1) Zn (2) S (3) B (4) Cl

Sol. Answer (2)

Methionine and cysteine are the only two amino acids which contain sulphur.

25. Which of the following is not a physiological role of potassium?

(1) Maintain anion-cation balance in cells (2) Maintain turgidity of cells

(3) Help in opening and closing of stomata (4) Synthesize auxins

Sol. Answer (4)

Zn is used for auxin synthesis. Other three works done by potassium.

26. An element involved in metabolism of urea is

(1) Na (2) Si (3) Ni (4) Zn

Sol. Answer (3)

Nickle is the component of enzyme urease.

27. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that element is relatively

immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiencies would show such symptoms?

(1) Ca (2) Mg (3) N (4) K

Sol. Answer (1)

Mg, N & K are mobile.

28. Plants absorb zinc as

(1) Zn (2) ZnSO4

(3) Zn2+ (4) Zn(NO3

)2

Sol. Answer (3)

Absorption of zinc occurs in the form of Zn2+ ions.

29. Mineral present in cytochrome is commonly

(1) Fe (2) Mn (3) Mo (4) Mg

Sol. Answer (1)

Constituent of ferrodoxin and cytochromes.

30. An element essential for nitrogen metabolism is

(1) K (2) Mo (3) Mg (4) Mn

Sol. Answer (2)

Mo-Fe and Fe are two subunits of nitrogenase enzyme used for nitrogen fixation.

31. Boron takes part in

(1) Photosynthesis (2) Activation of enzymes involved in respiration

(3) Transport of carbohydrates through phloem (4) Nitrogen metabolism

Sol. Answer (3)

Potassium is for photosynthesis and activation of enzymes involved in respiration.

Mo for nitrogen metabolism.



32. Which group of micronutrients is required for mitochondrial and photosynthetic electron transport?

(1) Ca, K, Na (2) Cu, Fe (3) Co, Ni (4) N, P, K

Sol. Answer (2)

Cu used in complex IV Cu+ to Cu2+

33. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II

a. Potassium (i) Germination of pollen grains

b. Molybdenum (ii) Involved in synthesis of auxin

c. Boron (iii) Involved in stomatal movement

d. Zinc (iv) Constituent of ferredoxin

e. Sulphur (v) Component of nitrate reductase

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i), e(v) (2) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iv)

(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(v), d(i), e(iv)

Sol. Answer (2)

Potassium helps in the opening and closing of stomata, Molybdenum in nitrogen fixation, Boron in germination

of pollen grains.

34. Death of leaf tissues in plants is caused by deficiency of

(1) Ca and Mg (2) Zn and S (3) Mo and S (4) Mo and C

Sol. Answer (1)

It is caused by Ca, Mg, Cu & K, known as necrosis.

35. Deficiency of which group of elements can cause inhibition of cell division in plants?

(1) N, K, S (2) Mg, Cu, P (3) Ca, Mg, Cu (4) N, K, Ca

Sol. Answer (1)

N, K & S causing stunted growth due to inhibition of cell division.

(Metabolism of Nitrogen)

36. Mark the correct sequence of steps for the development of root nodules in legumes

a. Formation of infection thread.

b. Division of cortical and pericyclic cells.

c. Curling of root hairs.

d. Leghaemoglobin synthesis.

(1) a, c, b, d (2) b, d, a, c (3) c, b, a, d (4) c, a, b, d

Sol. Answer (4)

First curling of root hairs

Formation of infectious thread

Division of cortical and pericycle cells

Leghaemoglobin synthesis for acting as oxygen scavanger



37. A prokaryote responsible for converting ammonia to nitrites is

(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrobacter (3) Nitrocystis (4) Rhizobium

Sol. Answer (1)

Nitrosomonas

3 2 2 22NH 3O 2NO 2H 2H O Energy

38. Conversion of NH3

NO2

– NO3

– is called

(1) Ammonification (2) Nitrification (3) Denitrification (4) Biological N2

-fixation

Sol. Answer (2)

Conversion of ammonia into nitrate is called nitrification.

39. The free living, aerobic and saprotrophic N2

-fixing microbe is

(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhodospirillum (3) Rhizobium (4) Anabaena

Sol. Answer (1)

Azotobacter is a free living saprotrophic, aerobic bacteria.

40. Reaction carried out by N2

metabolising microbes include

I. 2NH3

+ 3O2

2NO2

– + 2H+ + 2H2

O

II. 2NO2

– + O2

2NO3

–

Which of the following statements about these equations is not true?

(1) Step I is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus

(2) Step II is carried out by Nitrobacter

(3) Both steps I and II can be called nitrification

(4) Bacteria carrying out these steps are usually photoautotrophs

Sol. Answer (4)

Bacteria carrying out these steps may not be photoautotrophic.

41. How many ATP are required for the formation of one molecule of NH3

by the nitrogenase enzyme?

(1) Six (2) Eight (3) Twelve (4) Sixteen

Sol. Answer (2)

2 3 2N 8e 8H 16ATP 2NH H 16ADP 16Pi

16 2NH3

8 1NH3

42. Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote is

(1) Frankia (2) Azotobacter (3) Acetobacter (4) Rhizobium

Sol. Answer (2)

Azotobacter is a free living, aerobic, saprophytic bacteria.

43. Amides are transported to the other parts of plant through

(1) Phloem (2) Xylem

(3) Parenchyma (4) Cyclosis and active transport

Sol. Answer (2)

The symbiotic Nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes release ammonia that, to avoid toxicity, must be rapidly converted

into organic forms in the root nodules before being transported to shoot via xylem e.g., amides, ureids.



44. Enzyme nitrogenase is

(1) A Cu-Fe protein (2) Found in prokaryotes only

(3) An O2

requiring enzyme (4) Essential to convert NO2

– to NO3

–

Sol. Answer (2)

Nitrogenase is found only in prokaryotes not in eukaryotes.

45. Function of leghaemoglobin during N2

-fixation is

(1) To convert N2

to NH3

(2) To convert NH3

to N2

(3) To supply O2

for nitrogenase activity (4) To protect nitrogenase from oxygen

Sol. Answer (4)

LHb is used to protect nitrogenase from oxygen. Oxygen is a strong electron acceptor therefore, harmful for

nitrogenase.

46. The given equation refers to

N2

+ 8e– + 8H+ + 16ATP

2NH3

+ H2

+ 16ADP + 16Pi

(1) Ammonification (2) Nitrification (3) Denitrification (4) Nitrogen fixation

Sol. Answer (4)

Conversion of nitrogen into ammonia is known as nitrogen fixation.

47. Pigment leghaemoglobin is present in the roots of

(1) Maize (2) Rice (3) Alfalfa (4) Potato

Sol. Answer (3)

Alfalfa in its roots contains pigment leghaemoglobin.

48. Select the incorrect statement with respect to the biological nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium

(1) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning

(2) Nitrogenase is Mo-Fe protein

(3) Leg-haemoglobin is a pink-coloured pigment

(4) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2

gas into two molecules of ammonia

Sol. Answer (1)

Nitrogenase works in anaerobic condition.

49. The function of amides is all, except

(1) Part of functional proteins (2) Structural part of plant proteins

(3) Storage of excess nitrogen (4) Transport of nitrogen

Sol. Answer (1)

It is not the part of functional proteins.

50. Which of the following is an amide involved in nitrogen metabolism by plants?

(1) Glutamate (2) Cysteine (3) Serine (4) Asparagine

Sol. Answer (4)

Aspargine and glutamine is an amide involved in nitrogen metabolism by plants.



SECTION - B


(Methods to Study the Mineral Requirements of Plants)

1. Growing plants in a nutrient solution

(1) Involves use of chelating agent Na-EDTA to keep iron unavailable to plants

(2) Was first demonstrated by Arnon and Hoagland

(3) Also allows growth of algae in containers

(4) Requires prevention of reaction of light with roots

Sol. Answer (4)

Because in hydroponic we just wanted roots to be immersed in nutrient solution and want to grow them using

it.

(Essential Mineral Elements)

2. Which is not a criteria for essentiality of a mineral?

(1) Direct role in metabolism (2) Requirement is specific

(3) Deficiency causes hunger signs (4) Dispensible for growth

Sol. Answer (4)

It is indispensible for growth.

3. Which is not a true statement regarding macronutrients?

(1) Forms plant structure (2) Usually become toxic in excess

(3) No role in electron transfer (4) Develop osmotic potential

Sol. Answer (2)

No, they are not toxic in excess, micronutrients are toxic in excess.

4. Choose correct statement regarding micronutrients

(1) Become toxic in excess (2) Little role in protoplasmic structure

(3) No role in enzyme activation (4) Both (1) & (2)

Sol. Answer (4)

Micronutrients become toxic in excess and they have little role in protoplasmic structure. Therefore, both

(1) and (2).

5. Deficiency of which element causes deficiency of nitrogen

(1) Mo (2) K (3) Mn (4) S

Sol. Answer (1)

Deficiency of Mo causes deficiency of nitrogen if nitrate is 1° source of nitrogen and if plant depends on

symbiotic nitrogen fixation.

6. Minerals associated with redox reactions are

(1) N, Cu (2) Fe, Cu (3) Fe, K (4) Mn, Mo

Sol. Answer (2)

Fe, Cu, Zn, Ni & Mo are minerals associated with redox reactions.

7. Minerals which maintain cation - anion balance in cells are

(1) Cl, K (2) Fe, Cu (3) K, P (4) Ca, Fe

Sol. Answer (1)

K & Cl are maintain cation-anion balance.



8. Which of the following groups of elements are mobile?

(1) Fe, Ca, B (2) Cl, K (3) B, K, N (4) Ca, Mg, P

Sol. Answer (2)

N, P, K & Mg are mobile elements.

Deficiency symptoms are first seen in mature part of the plant.

9. Which of the following elements are required for chlorophyll synthesis?

(1) Fe and Mg (2) Mo and Ca (3) Cu and Ca (4) Ca and K

Sol. Answer (1)

Fe and Mg

Mg present in ring of chlorophyll

10. If chloroplast is burnt, then which of the following is left?

(1) Magnesium (2) Manganese (3) Iron (4) Sulphur

Sol. Answer (1)

Magnesium is chleated in pyrrole ring.

11. Which is not a trace element?

(1) Mn (2) Cu (3) Mo (4) K

Sol. Answer (4)

Potassium is a macronutrient.

12. Find odd one (w.r.t. critical element)

(1) Nitrogen (2) Potassium (3) Nickel (4) Phosphorus

Sol. Answer (3)

The elements mostly deficient in soil is called as critical elements like N, P & K.

13. Silicon, Cobalt, Sodium and Selenium are

(1) Essential minerals (2) Required by higher plants

(3) Macronutrients (4) Trace elements

Sol. Answer (2)

Si, Co, Se & Na all beneficial elements.

They are required by higher plants.

14. Tryptophan synthesis, carboxylase activity and little leaf of plants are all associated with

(1) Zn (2) B (3) Ca (4) Cu

Sol. Answer (1)

These all are associated with Zn i.e., Tryptophan synthesis carboxylase activity and little leaf of plants.

15. Mineral which is part of CoA, Fd, thiamine and lipoic acid is :

(1) Mn (2) Fe (3) S (4) Ca

Sol. Answer (3)

It is used in synthesis of some vitamins, CoA and ferrodoxin and lipoic acid.



16. Hunger signs in plants are

(1) Symptoms due to lesser water absorption in plants

(2) Symptoms due to poor photosynthesis in plants

(3) Deficiency symptoms of mineral nutrients

(4) Symptoms due to excess water absorption in plants

Sol. Answer (3)

It occurs due to deficiency symptoms of mineral nutrients.

17. (a) Moderate decrease or increase of micronutrients causes deficiency and toxicity symptoms respectively.

(b) Excess of manganese causes toxicity of iron, calcium and molybdenum.

(c) A macronutrient is said to be toxic when present below a critical concentration.

(1) Only (a) is correct (2) Only (b) is correct

(3) (b) & (c) are correct (4) (a) & (c) are correct

Sol. Answer (1)

18. Essential elements are :

(1) Only micronutrients (2) Only macronutrients

(3) C, H, O & N only (4) Both macro and micronutrients

Sol. Answer (4)

Both macro and micronutrients.

(Mechanism of Absorption of Elements)

19. Movement of electrolytes through the roots is generally

(1) Against electro chemical gradient and require energy

(2) Along electro chemical gradient and does not require energy

(3) A passive process

(4) Dependent on aquaporins

Sol. Answer (1)

Movement of electrolytes through roots is generally against electro-chemical gradient and require energy.

Because, it is an active process.

20. Initial phase of ion uptake

(1) Is passive and apoplastic (2) Occurs through symplast

(3) Is active process (4) More than one option is correct

Sol. Answer (1)

Initial phase of ion uptake is a passive process and it is apoplastic, occurring through cell wall and intercel-

lular spaces.

(Translocation of Solutes)

21. The translocation of solute is

(1) Equal to the rate of translocation of water (2) Dependent on transpiration pull

(3) Through xylem vessel (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Translocation of solute i.e., minerals is by xylem through xylem vessels through transpiration pull.



(Soil as Reservoir of Essential Elements)

22. The process of conversion of 2NO3

– 2NO2

–

2NO

N

2O N

2

is called ________ and is done by

(1) Nitrification, Nitrosomonas (2) Denitrification, Pseudomonas

(3) Nitrate assimilation, Nitrogenase (4) Ammonification, Bacillus

Sol. Answer (2)

3 22NO N

is denitrification and it is caused by Pseudomonas denitrification.

(Metabolism of Nitrogen)

23. Process of nitrification and nitrate assimilation are

(1) Oxidation & reduction respectively (2) Reduction & oxidation respectively

(3) Both are oxidation (4) Both are reduction

Sol. Answer (1)

Oxidation and Reduction respectively.

NH3

NH2

–

NH3

–

–3 –5 –7

Oxidation

Reduction

24. Conversion of NO3

NO2 NH

3 is called ______ and is catalysed by ______.

(1) Nitrate assimilation, nitrate and nitrite reductase (2) Nitrification, nitrate and nitrite reductase

(3) Ammonification, glutamate dehydrogenase (4) Denitrification, transaminase

Sol. Answer (1)

NO3 NO

2

Nitrite reductaseNO

2 NH3

Nitrate reductase

Nitrogen assimilation

25. Most common form of nitrogen uptake and usable forms for plants are respectively

(1) NO3

–; NO2

– (2) NH3

; NO3

– (3) NO3

–; NH3

(4) NH3

; NO2

–

Sol. Answer (3)

3NO

is form in which nitrogen is mainly absorbed. NH3 is usable form for plants.

26. Which of the following is/are diazotrophs?

(1) Rhizobium and Azotobacter (2) Frankia and Klebsiella

(3) Anabaena and Nostoc (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Franka, Klebsiella, Anabaena and Nostoc, these all are diazotrophs i.e., organisms

that fix atmospheric nitrogen into usable form.

27. Which is not true for nitrogenase enzyme in root nodules in legumes?

(1) Synthesized by nif genes of Rhizobium (2) Site of reduction of N2

into NH3

(3) It is a Mo-F protein (4) Resistant to O2

conc.

Sol. Answer (4)

It is not resistant to oxygen concentration.

Oxygen concentration is toxic to Nitrogenase enzyme.



28. Leghemoglobin is found in which one of the following organisms?

(1) Anthoceros (2) Aulosira (3) Nostoc (4) Groundnut

Sol. Answer (4)

Leghemoglobin is found in groundnut.

29. How many electron and protons are required to fix a dinitrogen?

(1) 32 each (2) 8 each (3) 16 each (4) 4 each

Sol. Answer (2)

8e– each.

N2

+ 8e–

+ 8H+ + 16 ATP 2NH3

+ H2

+ 16ADP + 16 Pi

30. Cycas and Azolla plants are associated with

(1) Bacillus (2) Klebsiella (3) Anabaena (4) Rhizobium

Sol. Answer (3)

Cycas and Azolla plants are associated with Anabaena.

31. Select the correct statements from the given

(a) Nitrogenase is a heterodimeric protein.

(b) Root hairs curl by action of nitrogenase and plant ‘nod factors’.

(c) During symbiotic N2 fixation ATP is provided by legume plant

(1) (b), (c) (2) (a), (c) (3) only (c) (4) (a), (b)

Sol. Answer (2)

Nitrogenase is a heterodimeric dimer and during symbiotic nitrogen fixation ATP are provided by legume plant.

But root hair curling is not caused by nitrogenase.

32. Nitrogenase enzyme found in root nodules in legumes contains

(1) Mo, Mn, S (2) Co, Mo, Ca (3) Mo, Fe, S (4) Mo, B, S

Sol. Answer (3)

Mo, Fe, S (Present as cofactor)

33. The amino acid which plays a central role in nitrogen metabolism is/are

(1) Glutamic acid (2) -ketoglutaric acid

(3) Aspartic acid (4) Double aminated keto acids

Sol. Answer (1)

It is the primary amino acid through which other amino acids are formed through transamination

34. Transported and storage form of nitrogen in plants are

(1) Amides (2) Polypeptides (3) Amino acids (4) -ketoglutaric acids

Sol. Answer (1)

Amides and ureids are transported through xylem.

35. Ureides are preferred forms for storage and transport of nitrogen in

(1) Triticum aestivum (2) Solanum nigrum (3) Glycine max (4) Allium cepa

Sol. Answer (3)

Glycine i.e., Soyabean

Others are Kidney pea, Peanut, Souther pea.



SECTION - C

Previous Years Questions

1. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants? [NEET-2018]

(1) Ferric (2) Ferrous

(3) Both ferric and ferrous (4) Free element

Sol. Answer (1*)

Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric ions. (According to NCERT)

*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)

2. Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells? [NEET-2018]

(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium (3) Calcium (4) Potassium

Sol. Answer (4)

Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of cells.

3. Which is essential for the growth of root tip? [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Zn (2) Fe (3) Ca (4) Mn

Sol. Answer (3)

Calcium is required by dividing and differentiating cells.

4. In which of the following all three are macronutrients? [NEET-2016]

(1) Nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus (2) Boron, zinc, manganese

(3) Iron, copper, molybdenum (4) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese

Sol. Answer (1)

Nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus are macronutrients.

5. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by :

[Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Cytochrome (2) Leghaemoglobin (3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotene

Sol. Answer (2)

6. Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc (2) Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium

(3) Calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper (4) Potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron

Sol. Answer (2)

Macronutrients are required in large amounts for plant growth.

7. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Senescent leaves (2) Young leaves (3) Roots (4) Buds

Sol. Answer (1)

Nitrogen and potassium are mobile elements.

8. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is: [NEET-2013]

(1) Ammonia (2)3

NO

(3) Glutamate (4)2

NO



Sol. Answer (1)

Ammonia is the first stable product of nitrogen-fixation.

9. Which one of the following is wrong statement? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins

(2) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs

(3) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also

(4) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions

Sol. Answer (1)

Phosphorus is not constituent of all proteins.

10. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Potassium – Readily mobilization (2) Bakane of rice seedings – F.Skoog

(3) Passive transport of nutrients – ATP (4) Apoplast – Plasmodesmata

Sol. Answer (1)

11. For its action, nitrogenase requires [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) High input of energy (2) Light (3) Mn2+ (4) Super oxygen radicals

Sol. Answer (1)

Nitrogenase is an enzyme which catalyses nitrogen-fixation reaction have sites, that facilitate high energy free

electrons.

12. Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Water absorption (3) Photolysis of water (4) Calvin cycle

Sol. Answer (3)

Mn is used in photolysis of water.

13. Nitrifying bacteria [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (2) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates

(3) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds (4) Convert proteins into ammonia

Sol. Answer (2)

Oxidises ammonia to nitrate

NH3

NO2

–

NO3

–

Nitrification

14. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Expression of nif gene (2) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity

(3) Oxygen removal (4) Nodule differentiation

Sol. Answer (3)

Leghaemoglobin acts as oxygen scavenger.

15. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Sulphur (2) Phosphorus (3) Calcium (4) Potassium

Sol. Answer (3)

Ca is not a mobile element.



16. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Pisum (2) Alnus (3) Cycas (4) Cicer

Sol. Answer (3)

Bacteria Anabaena is autotroph and found in symbiotic association with non-leguminous plants. like Cycas,

Azolla.

17. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Anabaena (2) Glomus (3) Rhizobium (4) Frankia

Sol. Answer (2)

18. Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Copper (2) Boron (3) Manganese (4) Zinc

Sol. Answer (3)

Mn is essential for photolysis of water.

19. Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are?

[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Cadmium (2) Phosphorus (3) Iron (4) Manganese

Sol. Answer (1)

Cadmium is not an essential element. It does not come under 17 essential elements.

20. Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation.

Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation?


(1) Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in colour

(2) Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation

(3) The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2

to NH3

(4) Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen

Sol. Answer (4)

Nitrogen is sensitive to oxygen, thus leghaemoglobin acts as oxygen sacavenger.

21. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Molybdenum (2) Copper (3) Manganese (4) Zinc

Sol. Answer (1)

Mo is an element which plays role is nitrogen fixation

Nitrogenase

Mo-Fe

Fe

22. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Frankia (2) Rhizobium (3) Azospirillum (4) Oscillatoria

Sol. Answer (3)

Oscillatoria is a common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields.

23. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Boron (2) Molybdenum (3) Magnesium (4) Zinc



Sol. Answer (3)

Mg is a macronutrient.

24. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Azotobacter (2) Beijernickia (3) Rhodospirillum (4) Rhizobium

Sol. Answer (3)

Rhodospirullum is an anaerobic, free living photosynthetic bacteria.

25. Manganese is required in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Plant cell wall formation (2) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

(3) Chlorophyll synthesis (4) Nucleic acid synthesis

Sol. Answer (2)

Mn is required for photolysis of water.

26. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Azorhizobium (2) Bradyhizobium (3) Clostridium (4) Frankia

Sol. Answer (4)

Franka causes nitrogen-fixation in Alnus.

27. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganism?

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Cicer arietinum (2) Casuarina equisetifolia (3) Crotalaria juncea (4) Cycas revolute

Sol. Answer (2)

Frankia involved in nitrogen fixation in Casuarina and Alnus.

28. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?


(1) Ca (2) Mn (3) Zn (4) Cu

Sol. Answer (1)

It is a macronutrients.

29. Which one of the following statements is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.

(2) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

(3) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.

(4) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for

plant nutrition in soil.

Sol. Answer (2)

Excess growth of living organism in water bodies due to fertilizers are called eutrophication.

30. A plant requires magnesium for : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Cell wall development (2) Holding cells together (3) Protein synthesis (4) Chlorophyll synthesis

Sol. Answer (4)

Mg required for chlorophyll synthesis.



31. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon,

hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Calcium and phosphorous (2) Phosphorus and sulphur

(3) Sulphur and magnesium (4) Magnesium and sodium

Sol. Answer (1)

32. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Pulse crops (2) Cereals (3) Fibre crops (4) Oilseed crops

Sol. Answer (4)

33. The deficiencies of micro-nutrients, not only affects growth of plants but also vital functions such as

photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given below, which group of three elements

shall affect most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Cu, Mn, Fe (2) Co, Ni, Mo (3) Mn, Co, Ca (4) Ca, X, Na

Sol. Answer (1)

Cu

Complex IV

Mn

Photolysisof water

Fe

Activates enzymes

34. Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin?

(1) Sulphur (2) Magnesium (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorus

Sol. Answer (1)

Sulphur is a constituent of Co-A, vitamins like thiamine and biotin and ferredoxin.

35. Which one of the following elements is almost non-essential for plants?

(1) Zn (2) Na (3) Ca (4) Mo

Sol. Answer (2)

Na is almost non-essential because required in micro amount.

36. Plants take zinc in the form of

(1) ZnSO4

(2) Zn++ (3) ZnO (4) Zn

Sol. Answer (2)

It is absorbed in the form of Zn2+ ions.

37. Element necessary for the middle lamella is

(1) Ca (2) Zn (3) K (4) Cu

Sol. Answer (1)

Ca is necessary for middle lamella. Calcium pectate forms this middle lamella.

38. Boron in green plants assists in

(1) Activation of enzymes (2) Acting as enzyme co-factor

(3) Photosynthesis (4) Sugar transport

Sol. Answer (4)

39. The most abundant element present in the plants is

(1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen (3) Manganese (4) Iron

Sol. Answer (1)

C, H & O are the framework elements.



40. Necrosis in crops is due to the deficiency of

(1) Ca, K, S and Mo (2) N, K, S and Mo (3) N, S, Fe and Zn (4) Mg, S, Mn and Ca

Sol. Answer (1)

Necrosis in crops is due to deficiency of Ca, K, S, & Mo.

41. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral nutrition?

(1) Etiolation (2) Shortening of internode (3) Necrosis (4) Chlorosis

Sol. Answer (1)

Yellowing of leaf due to absence of light is called etiolation.

42. When the plants are grown in magnesium deficient but urea rich soil, the symptoms expressed are

(1) Yellowish leaves (2) Colourless petiole (3) Dark green leaves (4) Shoot apex die

Sol. Answer (1)

Mg deficiency causes chlorosis.

43. The major portion of the dry weight of plants comprises of

(1) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (2) Calcium, magnesium and sulphur

(3) Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen (4) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

Sol. Answer (4)

Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are framework elements form 94% of dry weight of plants.

44. Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency of

(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Mn (4) Fe

Sol. Answer (3)

Grey spot of oat are caused by deficiency of Mn.

45. Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all the four blanks A, B, C

and D.

NO2

A

Atmospheric N2

BiologicalN fixation

2

IndustrialN fixation

2

ElectricalN fixation

2

NH3

NO3

–

Soil ‘N’ Pool

B (Uptake)

Decaying biomass C

D



Options:

(1) A – Nitrification B – Ammonification (2) A – Denitrification B – Ammonification

C– Animals D – Plants C – Plants D – Animals

(3) A – Nitrification B – Denitrification (4) A – Denitrification B – Nitrification

C– Animals D – Plants C– Plants D – Animals

Sol. Answer (2)

46. Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2

)

to the atmosphere?

(1) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and denitrification

(2) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction

(3) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds

(4) Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes

Sol. Answer (1)

3 2NO N Dentrification

3 2 3NH NO NO

i.e., Oxidation

47. Nitrifying bacteria

(1) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen (2) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates

(3) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds (4) Convert proteins into ammonia

Sol. Answer (2)

Oxidises ammonia to nitrate

NH3

NO2

–

NO3

–

Nitrification

48. Passive absorption of minerals depend on

(1) Temperature (2) Temperature and metabolic inhibitor

(3) Metabolic inhibitor (4) Auxin

Sol. Answer (1)

Passive absorption of mineral depends on temperature

49. In root nodules of legumes, leg-haemoglobin is important because it

(1) Transports oxygen to the root nodule (2) Acts as an oxygen scavenger

(3) Provides energy to the nitrogen fixing bacterium (4) Acts as a catalyst in transamination

Sol. Answer (2)

LHb acts as an oxygen scavenger.

50. Leghemoglobin is

(1) An oxygen carrier in human blood (2) A protein used as food supplement

(3) An oxygen scavenger in root nodules (4) A plant protein with high lysine content

Sol. Answer (3)

LHb is oxygen scavanger in root nodules.



51. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Legumes fix nitrogen only through the specialized bacteria that live in their roots

(2) Legumes fix nitrogen independently of the specialized bacteria that live in their roots

(3) Legumes fix nitrogen only through specialized bacteria that live in their leaves

(4) Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen

Sol. Answer (1)

Legumes fix nitrogen only through specialised bacteria that live in their roots. (Bacteroids)

52. Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation

(1) Nitrogenase (2) Nitroreductase (3) Transferase (4) Transaminase

Sol. Answer (1)

Nitrogenase enzyme helps in the conversion of nitrogen into ammonia i.e., nitrogen fixation.

53. Which one of the following mineral elements play an important role in biological nitrogen fixation ?

(1) Copper (2) Manganese (3) Zinc (4) Molybdenum

Sol. Answer (4)

Nitrogenase

Mo-Fe

Fe

54. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla

is

(1) Tolypothrix (2) Chlorella (3) Nostoc (4) Anabaena

Sol. Answer (4)

Anabaena is a filamentous autotroph which found in symbiotic association with non legumes plants like

Cycas and Azolla

55. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzyme are inactivated, then there will be no

(1) Fixation of nitrogen in legumes (2) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen

(3) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes (4) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil

Sol. Answer (1)

No fixation of nitrogen in legume because it occurs through nitrogenase enzyme.

56. Roots of which plant contains a red pigment which have affinity for oxygen?

(1) Carrot (2) Soyabean (3) Mustard (4) Radish

Sol. Answer (2)

In legumes, root nodule contains a red or pink pigment called as leghaemoglobin. It is an O2

scavenger.

SECTION - D

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : Some mineral nutrients are essential.

R : They can be synthesized by the plants.

Sol. Answer (3)

First statement is right i.e., 17 essential elements are there, but second statement is wrong because these

are not synthesized in the plant body but they are absorbed as mineral nutrients from soil, atmosphere etc.



2. A : Bacteria enters only the polyploid cells of root cortex.

R : These cells provide cytokinins to bacteria, that promotes bacteria cell division.

Sol. Answer (3)

Bacterial cell enters only polyploid cells of root cortex and bacterial cells also provide/produce cytokinin that

induces polyploidy.

3. A : Chelating agents used in improving availability of some minerals in soil are actually electron acceptors.

R : They increase solubility of some minerals in acidic soils.

Sol. Answer (4)

The agent which keeps metal in the soluble state is called chelating agents.

4. A : N, P, K are called critical elements.

R : They become deficient easily in soil due to leaching and higher requirement.

Sol. Answer (1)

N, P, K are critical elements because they are deficient in soil.

5. A : Influx of ions into inner space of cells is an active process.

R : Ions are available for free exchange in free space.

Sol. Answer (2)

Inward moment of ions is called influx but ions available for exchange is not reason.

6. A : Manganese toxicity cause brown spots, chlorotic veins and inhibition of calcium translocation to shoot apex.

R : Toxic effects may be due to direct excess of micronutrients or its interference in the absorption and

functioning of other nutrients.

Sol. Answer (1)

Manganese toxicity is induce the deficiency of Fe, Mg and Ca.

7. A : Jar for nutrient solution culture contains a split cover with holes which hold a bent tube for aeration.

R : Regular aeration of culture solution is necessary for proper growth and activities of roots.

Sol. Answer (1)

Aeration tube help in aeration which is necessary for proper growth.

8. A : All the diverse minerals element found in plants are not essential for them.

R : Some plants accumulate heavy and toxic minerals such as gold and selenium from the soil.

Sol. Answer (2)

There 60 found in protoplasm but not all are essential. Also this is true that some plants accumulate

radioactive isotopes when growing in near by areas like nuclear plants.

9. A : Ammonia is oxidised first to nitrate then to nitrite by the action of Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

respectively.

R : Nitrite thus formed is absorbed by leaves.

Sol. Answer (4)

Nitrate formed is absorbed by plants and transported to leaves where reduced to form ammonia.

10. A : Soyabean export the fixed nitrogen as ureides.

R : Amides contain excess nitrogen and they are transported via phloem sieve tubes.

Sol. Answer (3)

Transport occurs through xylem.

� � �


SECTION - A


(Introduction)

1. Which equation represents the process of photosynthesis most adequately?

(1) Sunlight6 12 6 2 2 2Chlorophyll

C H O 6O 6CO 6H O (2) Sunlight2 2 6 12 6 2Chlorophyll

6CO 6H O C H O 6O

(3) Sunlight2 2 2 2Chlorophyll

CO H O CH O O (4)Sunlight

2 2 6 12 6 2 2Chlorophyll6CO 12H O C H O 6O 6H O

Sol. Answer (4)

During photosynthesis, green plants synthesized glucose from CO2 and H

2O, in this process oxygen evolved

as by-product.

(Importance of Photosynthesis)

2. Choose incorrect w.r.t. photosynthesis

(1) It is a physico-chemical process

(2) Oxygen is evolved as a by-product in all photosynthetic organisms

(3) Occurs in unicellular and multicellular photoautotrophs

(4) Anabolic and reductive process

Sol. Answer (2)

In some bacteria, H2S is used instead of H

2O. So O

2 is not released.

(What do we know?)

3. Moll’s half leaf experiment was done to show _____ was required for photosynthesis.

(1) H2O (2) Chlorophyll (3) Light (4) CO

2

Sol. Answer (4)

In this experiment, half leaf was enclosed in a test tube containing KOH (which absorbs CO2), half leaf was

in air. When two halves were tested for starch, leaf in air showed the +ve test not other part, which shows

CO2 is required for photosynthesis.

(Historical account – Early experiments)

4. A milestone contribution to the understanding of photosynthesis was made by Cornelius van Niel, which was

based on the studies of

(1) Bacteria (2) Alga (3) Angiospermic plant (4) Lower plant

Chapter 10

Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Solutions

24 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Solutions of Assignment


Sol. Answer (1)

Van Niel studied purple and green sulphur bacteria and showed, O2 evolved from H

2O and not from CO

2.

2 2 6 12 6 2 212H O 6CO C H O 6H O 6O

5. The essential role of air in the growth of green plants was revealed by

(1) Priestley (2) Van Niel (3) Blackmann (4) Emerson

Sol. Answer (1)

Role of air in the growth of green plants is experimently proved by Priestley.

6. Curve showing the effectiveness of different wavelength of light in photosynthesis was first given by Engelmann

using all, except

(1) Filamentous green alga Cladophora (2) Unicellular green alga Chlorella

(3) Suspension of aerobic bacteria (4) Prism to split the light in its components

Sol. Answer (2)

Hill used chlorella for proving that photosynthesis completed in two phase i.e., light and dark phase.

(Where does photosynthesis take place?)

7. Grana present in chloroplast refers to

(1) Stroma lamellae (2) Stacks of quantasomes

(3) Stacks of thylakoids (4) Double membranous envelope

Sol. Answer (3)

GRANA Stacks of thylakoids

(Photosynthetic units/Pigment systems)

8. Photosystem is composed of

(1) Light harvesting complex (2) Reaction centre

(3) Accessory pigments (4) More than one is correct

Sol. Answer (4)

PS has LHC I or II, Reaction Centre, Accessory pigments.

9. In the chloroplast, the stroma lamellae lack the

(1) PS I, NADP reductase (2) PS II, PS I

(3) NADP reductase enzyme, P700

(4) NADP reductase, PS II

Sol. Answer (4)

PS II and NADP reductase absent in the stromo lamellae of the chloroplast.

(The Electron Transport)

10. The movement of electrons as per Z-scheme in light reaction is

(1) From low to high energy level (2) Uphill in redox potential scale

(3) Downhill in redox potential scale (4) Both (2) & (3)

25Solutions of Assignment Photosynthesis in Higher Plants


Sol. Answer (4)

It can occur uphill / downhill in redox potential scale.

11. The assimilatory power produced during light reaction in green algae is

(1) ATP, NADPH + H+ (2) NAD+

(3) NADP (4) ATP & NADH

Sol. Answer (1)

Light reaction gives two assimilatory product.

(i) ATP (ii) NADPH + H+

12. The protons formed by splitting of water are released in the

(1) Lumen of the thylakoids (2) Outer side of the membrane

(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Stroma of chloroplast

Sol. Answer (1)

When a photon of light strikes the reaction centre of PS II, it emites an electron. Two H2O molecules bind

to an enzyme at reaction centre and enzyme splits the water and H+ are released in the lumen and also O2

is produced.

13. The oxygen liberated during the photosynthesis comes from

(1) CO2

(2) Water

(3) Photosynthetic enzymes (4) Carbohydrates

Sol. Answer (2)

2 2H O H O

When a photon of light strikes the reaction centre of PS II, it emites an electron. Two H2O molecules bind

to an enzyme at reaction centre and enzyme splits the water and H+ are released in the lumen and also O2

is produced.

14. Chemiosmotic hypothesis for generation of ATP during light reaction was first explained by

(1) Hill (2) Arnold

(3) P. Mitchell (4) Van Niel

Sol. Answer (3)

Chemiosmotic theory for ATP synthesis was proposed by P.Mitchell.

15. The photosystem connected with splitting of water is

(1) PS II (2) PS I (3) Carotenoid (4) P700

Sol. Answer (1)

Photolysis of H2O occurs at PS II.

16. NADPH is generated through

(1) Anaerobic respiration (2) Cyclic photophosphorylation

(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (4) Glycolysis

Sol. Answer (3)

PS I reduces NADP+ to NADPH in the stroma by action NADP reductase enzyme.



17. Read the following statements:

(a) F0 part of ATPase is associated with breakdown of proton gradient.

(b) A H-carrier contributes in creation of proton gradient.

(c) Movement of electrons in ETS is coupled to pumping of protons into the lumen.

(d) Formation of NADPH + H+ is related with the creation of proton gradient.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three

Sol. Answer (3)

Cyt

b & f

H+

H+

F0

Lumen

ATP synthesis Storma

ADP ATP

Thylakoid

membrane

NADP+

NADPHPS

II

PS

I

H+

F1

18. How many components listed below are part of cyclic ETS?

700 680P , P , NADP reductase, Hydrogen carrier,

PS I, Water Splitting Complex, PS II

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) Four

Sol. Answer (2)

P700

, PSI, Hydrogen carrier.

(Where are ATP and NADPH used?)

19. The CO2 acceptor in C

3 plants is

(1) RuBP (2) PGA (3) PEP (4) OAA

Sol. Answer (1)

In C3 plants, CO

2 acceptor is Ribulose 1-5, bi-phosphate.

20. In C3 plants, first stable product of CO

2 fixation is

(1) 3-PGA (2) Starch (3) OAA (4) Pyruvate

Sol. Answer (1)

2 × 3 PGA

2 × 3 PGAL

DHAP

RUBP 6 C RuBisCo

CO + H O2 2

C Cycle 3 (Ist stable product)

Primary acceptor

Carboxylation

ADP

ATP

Glucose

1 2

3

2ATP

2NADPH4

5

REDUCTION

Dismutase



21. Which among the following is not a step in Calvin cycle?

(1) Carboxylation (2) Reduction

(3) Photophosphorylation (4) Regeneration

Sol. Answer (3)

Photophosphorylation is the step of light reaction.

22. The enzyme responsible for carboxylation reaction (CO2

fixation) in C3 plants is

(1) RuBP oxygenase (2) Pyruvate decarboxylase

(3) RuBP carboxylase (4) PEP carboxylase

Sol. Answer (3)

In C3 plant carboxylation reaction is catalysed by enzyme RuBP carboxylase.

23. Regeneration of four molecules of RuBP in C3 cycle requires the expenditure of _____ ATP.

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

Sol. Answer (2)

For 1 molecule of RUBP 1ATP

For 4 molecule of RUBP 4ATP

24. The enzyme RuBP carboxylase

(1) Activity occurs in C3 and C

4 plants (2) It present in inner thylakoid membrane

(3) Is low temperature sensitive enzyme (4) Shows greater affinity for O2 than for CO

2

Sol. Answer (1)

RUBP carboxylase is used in both plants.

(The C4 Pathway)

25. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the C4 plants?

(1) They show kranz anatomy

(2) Decarboxylation process occurs in bundle sheath cells

(3) Granal chloroplast is present in bundle sheath cells.

(4) PEPcase enzyme activity occurs in mesophyll cells

Sol. Answer (3)

In Bundle sheath cells agranal chloroplast present.

26. In C4 plants, first stable product of CO

2 fixation is

(1) OAA (2) RuBP (3) 3-PGA (4) Malic Acid

Sol. Answer (1)

Oxalo acetic acid is first stable product in C4 plants.

27. In C4 plants, sugar is produced in

(1) Bundle sheath cells (2) Mesophyll cells

(3) Palisade leaf cells (4) Spongy mesophyll

Sol. Answer (1)

In C4 plants sugar synthesized in bundle sheath cell.



28. The C4 and C

3 plants differ from each other in

(1) Type of pigments involved in photosynthesis

(2) The primary acceptor of CO2 during carbon fixation

(3) Type of end products of photosynthesis

(4) Number of NADPH that are consumed during the starch synthesis process

Sol. Answer (2)

In C3

plant primary CO2 accepter is RUBP white in C

4 plant it is PEP.

29. Which one of the following is a C4 plant?

(1) Papaya (2) Potato (3) Maize (4) Pea

Sol. Answer (3)

Maize is a C4 plant.

30. The CO2 fixation during the Hatch and Slack pathway occurs in

(1) Large thick walled cells (2) Mesophyll cells

(3) Vascular bundles (4) Bundle sheath cell cytoplasm

Sol. Answer (2)

C4 pathway occurs in mesophyll cells.

31. ‘Kranz’ anatomy of leaves is found in

(1) C4 plants (2) C

3 plants (3) CAM plants (4) All plants

Sol. Answer (1)

Kranz anatomy is shown by C4

plants.

32. The enzyme required for the CO2 fixation in the C

4 cycle is

(1) PEP carboxylase (2) RuBP oxygenase (3) RuBP carboxylase (4) PGA dehydrogenase

Sol. Answer (1)

In mesophyll cell, PEP carboxylase required for CO2 fixation.

33. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the C4 plants?

(1) The carbon fixation is catalysed by PEP carboxylase

(2) Mesophyll cells lack the RuBisCO enzyme

(3) Photorespiration is absent

(4) More than one option is correct

Sol. Answer (4)

In C4 plants, RuBisCO enzyme absent in mesophyll cell, PEP carboxylase present in mesophyll cell.

34. RuBisCO in C4 plants shows minimum oxygenase activity due to

(1) Abundance of RuBisCO (2) Formation of C4 acid

(3) Decarboxylation of C4 acid (4) Cyclic photophosphorylation

Sol. Answer (3)

Due to decarboxylation of C4 acid, CO

2 evolved in Bundle sheath cell.



35. The primary acceptor of CO2 in C

4 plants is

(1) RuBP (2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid

(3) OAA (4) Malic acid

Sol. Answer (2)

In mesophyll cell of C4 plant primary acceptor of CO

2 is PEP.

36. PEPcase and RuBisCO in C4 plants are present respectively in

(1) Cytoplasm and thylakoids (2) Stroma and cytoplasm

(3) Stroma and thylakoids (4) Cytoplasm and stroma

Sol. Answer (4)

PEPcase in cytoplasm and RuBisCO in the stroma.

37. Plants like sugarcane show high productivity and high efficiency of CO2 fixation, because of

(1) Absence of photorespiration (2) EMP pathway

(3) Calvin cycle (4) TCA cycle

Sol. Answer (1)

Photorespiration is a wasteful process decrease efficiency of C3 plants but absent in C

4 plants.

38. Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in C4 cycle.

(1) CO2 fixation Regeneration Transport

(2) CO2

fixation Recarboxylation Decarboxylation

(3) Transport Regeneration CO2 fixation

(4) CO2 fixation Transport Decarboxylation

Sol. Answer (4)

CO2 fixation occurs first of all in mesophyll cell then transport into bundle sheath cell, where decarboxylation

takes place.

(Photorespiration)

39. A wasteful process which involves oxidation of organic compounds in plants in presence of light is called

(1) Photorespiration (2) PCR Cycle (3) Hill’s reaction (4) Bioluminiscence

Sol. Answer (1)

Photorespiration reduces the rate of photosynthesis.

40. Identify the incorrect match.

(1) Regeneration of PEP – Mesophyll cells

(2) RuBP oxygenase activity – Chloroplast

(3) Photorespiratory loss of CO2

– Cytoplasm

(4) Decarboxylation in C4 pathway – Bundle sheath cell

Sol. Answer (3)

It is initiated in chloroplast Peroxisome - Mitochondria.



(Factors affecting Photosynthesis)

41. Law of limiting factor was given in

(1) 1950 (2) 1905 (3) 1920 (4) 1915

Sol. Answer (2)

Given by Blackman’s

42. Which of the following would rarely be a limiting factor for photosynthesis?

(1) Chlorophyll (2) Light (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Temperature

Sol. Answer (2)

Available from sunlight, required in least amount.

43. The CO2 concentration at which C

4 plants show saturation is about

(1) 360 ppm (2) 380 ppm (3) 450 ppm (4) 500 ppm

Sol. Answer (1)

In C4

plants CO2 compensation point is 360 ppm.

44. Linear relationship exists between incident light and rate of CO2 fixation at/in

(1) High light intensity (2) Low light intensity

(3) Dense forests (4) More than one option is correct

Sol. Answer (4)

Rate of photosynthesis increases at high CO2 concentration and high light intensities.

45. Choose the correct labelling for given figure

C

Rate

of p

hoto

synth

esis

Light Intensity

(1) D-Saturation point, E-Maximum photosynthesis (2) A-Achieved at high light intensity

(3) D-10% of total sunlight, E-Compensation point (4) A-Light saturation at 10% of total sunlight

Sol. Answer (1)

D-Saturation point Because after this point there is no increase.

E-Maximum photosynthesis Max. value.

C

Rate

of p

hoto

synth

esis

h



SECTION - B


(Importance of Photosynthesis)

1. The bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis, takes place in

(1) Crop plants (2) Tropical rain forests (3) Ocean (4) Both (1) & (2)

Sol. Answer (3)

Large number of phytoplankton present and occupied large area.

(What do we know?)

2. Essentiality of CO2 in photosynthesis can be demonstrated using

(1) Moll’s half leaf experiment (2) Ganong screen

(3) Inverted funnel experiment (4) KOH solution

Sol. Answer (1)

In this experiment, half leaf was enclosed in a test tube containing KOH (which absorbs CO2), half leaf was

in air. When two halves were tested for starch, leaf in air showed the test positive not other part, which shows

CO2 is required for photosynthesis.

(Historical account – Early experiments)

3. If a photosynthesising plant releases oxygen, containing more than normal amount of 18O, it is concluded that

the plant has been supplied with

(1) C6H

12O

6 containing 18O (2) H

2O containing 18O

(3) CO2 containing 18O (4) Oxygen in the form of ozone

Sol. Answer (2)

O2 released is from H

2O not from CO

2.

(Photosynthetic Pigments)

4. Choose the correct statement

(1) Chlorophyll-a is soluble in petroleum ether and shows maximum absorption peak at 453 nm and 642 nm

(2) In chlorophyll-b, –CH3 replaces –CHO at 3–C of chlorophyll-a

(3) Chlorophyll-b is soluble in methyl alcohol and shows maximum absorption peak in 429 nm and 660 nm

(4) For biosynthesis of chlorophyll, raw materials required are succinyl Co-A and glycine

Sol. Answer (4)

Chlorophyll-a is soluble in petroleum ether and shows maximum absorption peak at 465 nm and 665 nm while

chlorophyll-b is soluble in methyl alcohol and shows maximum absorption peak at 450 and 640 nm. In

chlorophyll-b, CHO replaces CH3 at 3 C-Chl-a.

(The Electron Transport)

5. The first step in photosynthesis is

(1) Excitation of chlorophyll by light (2) Ionisation of water

(3) ATP synthesis (4) Production of assimilatory power

Sol. Answer (1)

During light reaction the first step is excitation of chlorophyll molecules.



6. Electric charge separation or quantum conversion occurs at

(1) Antenna molecules (2) Thylakoid membrane (3) Reaction centre (4) Stroma

Sol. Answer (3)

It is involved in "Quantum conversion" where energy of light is converted to chemical energy possessed by

emited electron.

7. Minerals involved in photooxidation of water are

(1) Mn, Cl, Ca (2) Mg, Fe, Mn (3) Mn, Fe, Ca (4) N, P, K

Sol. Answer (1)

Oxygen evolving complex i.e., OEC.

8. Z-scheme in thylakoid membrane of plants is concerned with

(1) Reduction of NAD+ (2) Reduction of CO2

(3) Electron transfer (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (3)

Z-scheme is related with pathway of electron during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

9. Absorption of radiant energy causes

(1) Reduction of chlorophyll (2) Oxidation of chlorophyll

(3) Absorption of CO2

(4) Oxidation of CO2

Sol. Answer (2)

Chlorophyll a which is present in LHC get oxidised.

10. Cyclic photophosphorylation releases

(1) ATP and NADPH2

(2) ATP, NADPH2 and oxygen

(3) ATP only (4) NADPH2 only

Sol. Answer (3)

Cyclic phosphorylation, cycled e– many times, and through ETS converts ADP to ATP.

11. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation

(1) ATP is synthesised only (2) Last electron donor is ferredoxin

(3) NADP reductase activity requires H+ from stroma (4) There is involvement of PS-I only

Sol. Answer (3)

NADP H NADPH

12. Select the correct match

Column-I Column-II

a. OEC (i) Primary e– acceptor

b. NADP reductase (ii) Photolysis of H2O

c. Succinyl CoA (iii) Outer surface of thylakoid membrane

d. Phaeophytin (iv) Chlorophyll synthesis

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Sol. Answer (1)

Photolysis of water occurs by OEC, NADP reductase present on the outer surface of thylakoid chlorophyll

synthesized by succinyl CoA.



13. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d) correctly identified.

(c)

H+

(b)

H+

H+

H+

H+

NADPH(a)

NADP+

(d)

Options (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Photosystem-II Thylakoid membrane Photosystem-I ATP synthetase

(2) Photosystem-I Thylakoid membrane Photosystem-II F1

(3) Photosystem-I Inner chloroplast membrane Photosystem-II F0

(4) Photosystem-II Thylakoid membrane Cytochrome b & f F1

Sol. Answer (2)

Cyt

b & f

H+

H+

F0

Lumen

ATP synthesis Storma

ADP ATP

Thylakoid

membrane

NADP+

NADPHPS

II

PS

I

F1

14. Which is not true regarding cyclic electron transfer system (ETS) in thylakoid membrane of higher plants?

(1) Operates at low light intensity (2) Only PS I is involved

(3) Act as a back up for ATP synthesis (4) External electron donor is required

Sol. Answer (4)

No, PS II donates electron.

15. ATP synthesis in chloroplast and mitochondria is due to proton gradient across the membrane. Select correct

statement w.r.t. ATP formation in chloroplast

(a) Proton accumulates in lumen of thylakoid

(b) Splitting of water occurs on inner side of membrane

(c) Proton accumulates in stroma side of chloroplast

(d) NADP reductase is located on stroma side of membrane

(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct

(3) Only (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Sol. Answer (4)

Proton accumulates in lumen of thylakoid.



(Where are ATP and NADPH used?)

16. C3 cycle (reductive pentose phosphate cycle) is basically a

(1) CO2 reduction cycle (2) CO

2 oxidising cycle

(3) Photochemical reaction (4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (1)

It occurs during reduction of CO2 into glucose.

17. To reduce 1 CO2 in C

3 cycle, assimilatory power needed is

(1) 3ATP, 2NADPH + H+ (2) 2ATP, 3NADPH + H+

(3) 5ATP, 2NADPH + H+ (4) 6.5 ATP, 2NADPH + H+

Sol. Answer (1)

1 CO2

requires 3ATP, 2NADPH + H+

18. CO2 acceptor, and carboxylating enzyme in C

3 plants are respectively

(1) PEP, PEPCO (2) RuBP, RUBISCO (3) OAA, RUBISCO (4) 3 PGA, RUBISCO

Sol. Answer (2)

RuBP is CO2 acceptor and enzyme is RUBISCO.

19. The methodology, which has been most useful for investigating the Calvin cycle, is

(1) Radioactive isotope technique (2) Inverted funnel experiment

(3) Half leaf experiment (4) Flash light experimental technique

Sol. Answer (1)

14C. radioactive used in algal photosynthesis studies.

20. Select the correct option for photosynthesis in C3-plants.

(1) Bifunctional nature of PEPcase enzyme

(2) Regeneration of each RUBP requires 6 ATP

(3) First stable product of Calvin cycle undergoes phosphorylation in dark reaction

(4) Optimum temperature is 30–40°C

Sol. Answer (3)

2 ATP 2ADP2 3PGA 2 3 PGAL

(The C4 Pathway)

21. Sorghum and sugarcane plants show saturation at about

(1) 50% of full sunlight (2) 10% of full sunlight

(3) 360 ppm of CO2

(4) 500 ppm of CO2

Sol. Answer (3)

Both sugarcane and Sorghum are C4 plants.

22. CO2 concentrating steps are found in

(1) Rice (2) Sugarcane (3) Wheat (4) Tomato

Sol. Answer (2)

Due to dissociation of malic acid.



23. Kranz anatomy is concerned with

(1) Having peripheral reticulum in chloroplast of bundle sheath

(2) Presence of distinct bundle sheath surrounded by concentric ring of mesophyll cells

(3) Dimorphic chloroplast

(4) Large vacuole in mesophyll cells

Sol. Answer (2)

Bundle sheath is surrounded by mesophyll cells in the plants having Kranz anatomy.

24. In C4 plants, mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells are specialised to perform respectively

(1) Light reaction and dark reaction (2) Dark reaction and light reaction

(3) Light reaction and photorespiration (4) Photorespiration and dark reaction

Sol. Answer (1)

C4 Light reaction

C3 Dark reaction

25. Agranal chloroplasts are found in

(1) Mesophyll of pea leaves (2) Bundle sheath of mango leaves

(3) Mesophyll of maize leaves (4) Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves

Sol. Answer (4)

In Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants for e.g., sugarcane.

26. Find odd one (w.r.t. double carboxylation)

(1) Zea mays (2) Sugarcane (3) Pisum sativum (4) Sorghum

Sol. Answer (3)

Pisum Sativum C3 plant

27. Photosynthesis of maize plant differ from wheat plant in

(1) Number of ATP required per CO2 fixation (2) Having spatial separation in both carboxylations

(3) Having PEPcase activity (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Maize is C4 plant.

Wheat is C3 plant.

28. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells

(1) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange (2) Have large intercellular spaces

(3) Are rich in PEP carboxylase (4) Have a high density of chloroplasts

Sol. Answer (4)

Due to presence of Kranz anatomy.

29. C4 plants are less efficient at low temperature due to

(1) Low O2 affinity of PEPcase (2) Cold sensitivity of PEP synthetase enzyme

(3) Reduced rate of decarboxylation of organic acids (4) High energy requirement for CO2 fixation

Sol. Answer (2)

Optimum temp. is 30 – 40°C



30. C4 plants can tolerate saline conditions due to

(1) Occurrence of organic acids (2) Absence of photorespiration

(3) Presence of PEP synthetase enzyme (4) Presence of PEP carboxylase enzyme

Sol. Answer (1)

It tolerates due to accumulation of organic acids.

31. Which group of plants are not benefitted by CO2 fertilisation effect?

(1) Plants requiring 3 ATP per CO2 fixation (2) Plants with Kranz anatomy

(3) Plants having high rate of photorespiration (4) Plants having single carboxylation

Sol. Answer (2)

C4 plants have low CO

2 compensation point and presence of organic acid in bundle sheath cells.

32. Identify the reaction for which the C4 plants require some extra ATP molecules in comparison to C

3 plants

(1) Conversion of PEP to OAA (2) Conversion of Pyruvate to PEP

(3) Conversion of Malate to Oxaloacetate (4) Conversion of PEP to Malate

Sol. Answer (2)

During conversion of pyruvate to PEP.

(Photorespiration)

33. In photorespiration, release of CO2 occurs in

(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Peroxisomes (4) Glyoxisome

Sol. Answer (1)

CO2 release in mitochondria.

34. Photorespiration occurs

(1) During day time

(2) In C3 plants

(3) In co-operation with chloroplasts, peroxisomes and mitochondria

(4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Photorespiration occurs during presence of light in C3 plants.

35. During photorespiration, phosphorylation as well as oxidation both occurs in

(1) Centrosome (2) Peroxisome (3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast

Sol. Answer (4)

Phosphorylation and oxidation occur in the chloroplast during photorespiration.

SECTION - C


1. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis? [NEET-2018]

(1) ATP (2) NADH (3) Oxygen (4) NADPH

Sol. Answer (2)

ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light reaction, while NADH is a product of respiration process.



2. Phosphonol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in [NEET-2017]

(1) C3 plants (2) C

4 plants (3) C

2 plants (4) C

3 and C

4 plants

Sol. Answer (2)

PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2 acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C

4 plants

like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc.

3. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?

[NEET-2017]

(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05% can enhance CO

2 fixation rate

(3) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C

4 plants have much lower

temperature optimum

(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher yield

Sol. Answer (3)

In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher temperature due to increased photorespiration.

C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase enzyme,

which is sensitive to low temperature.

4. The process which makes major difference between C3 and C

4 plants is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Glycolysis (2) Calvin cycle (3) Photorespiration (4) Respiration

Sol. Answer (3)

Photorespiration is present in C3 plants but absent in C

4 plants.

5. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of

photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following

physiological groups would you assign this plant? [NEET-2016]

(1) Nitrogen fixer (2) C3

(3) C4

(4) CAM

Sol. Answer (3)

C4 plants are special, they tolerate higher temperatures, they lack photorespiration and have greater productivity

of biomass.

6. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of [NEET-2016]

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously

(4) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport

Sol. Answer (3)

Emerson performed photosynthetic experiment on chlorella. He provided monochromatic light of more than 680

nm and observed decrease in rate of photosynthesis known as red drop.

Later he provided synchronised light of 680 nm and 700 nm and observed increase in rate of photosynthesis,

known as enhancement effect.

This experiment led to discovery of two photosystems. - PS II and PS I.

7. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in [NEET-2016]

(1) Antennae complex (2) Stroma

(3) Lumen of thylakoids (4) Inter membrane space

Sol. Answer (3)

Proton concentration is higher in the lumen of thylakoid due to photolysis of water, H+ pumping and NADP

reductase activity in stroma.



8. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of the following pairs of

elements is involved in this reaction? [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Magnesium and Chlorine (2) Manganese and Chlorine

(3) Manganese and Potassium (4) Magnesium and Molybdenum

Sol. Answer (2)

9. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Rhodospirillum (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Ulva

Sol. Answer (1)

10. A process that makes important difference between C3 and C

4 plants is AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Photosynthesis (2) Photorespiration (3) Transpiration (4) Glycolysis

Sol. Answer (2)

It affects C3 plants

11. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Chloroplast, – mitochondria, – peroxisome

(2) Chloroplast, – vacuole, – peroxisome

(3) Chloroplast, – Golgibodies, – mitochondria

(4) Chloroplast, – Rough endoplasmic reticulum, – Dictyosomes

Sol. Answer (1)

Photorespiration completed in three cell organells i.e., chloroplast, peroxysome and mitochondria.

12. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts

(2) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts

(3) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts

(4) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts

Sol. Answer (4)

In C4 plants bundle sheath cells are characterised by presence of thick walls, without intercellular space and

having large numbers of chloroplast.

13. CAM helps the plants in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Reproduction (2) Conserving water (3) Secondary growth (4) Disease resistance

Sol. Answer (2)

Plants are extreme xerophytes.

14. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Alga (2) Bryophyte (3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm

Sol. Answer (1)

Melvin calvin used radioactive 14C in algal photosynthesis studies.



15. C4

plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Lower rate of photorespiration

(2) Higher leaf area

(3) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells

(4) Presence of thin cuticle

Sol. Answer (3)

Large number of chloroplast present in C4 plants.

16. Read the following four statements, a, b, c and d and select the right option having both correct statements.

Statements:

a. Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only.

b. Only PS I is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation.

c. Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2

d. Stroma lamellae lack PS II as well as NADP.

Options : [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) B and D (2) A and B (3) B and C (4) C and D

Sol. Answer (1)

(A) is wrong because Z schemes requires PS II also (C) is wrong as NADP reductase is not there in cyclic

phosphorylation.

17. Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Potato (2) Wheat (3) Sugarcane (4) Mustard

Sol. Answer (3)

C4 plants, bundle sheath cells Kranz anatomy.

18. Study the pathway given below :

Transport

B

Fixation byCalvin cycle

CO2

C acid3

C acid4

C acid4

C acid3

HCO3

–

Phosphoenolpyruvate

A

Atmospheric CO2

Plasmamembrane

Cell wall

Mesophyllcell

Plasmo-desmata

Bundle sheath

cell

Transport

C

In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated ?




A

Decarboxylation

Fixation

Fixation

Carboxylation

B

Reduction

Transamination

Decarboxylation

Decarboxylation

C

Regeneration

Regeneration

Regeneration

Reduction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (3)

Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration

A B C

OAA Pyruvate PEP

19. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Oscillatoria (2) Rhodospirillum (3) Chlorobium (4) Chromatium

Sol. Answer (1)

Oscillatoria Example of oxygenic photosynthesis, others are anoxygenic.

20. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) ATP and NADPH (2) ATP, NADPH and O2

(3) ATP (4) NADPH

Sol. Answer (3)

ATP form during cyclic photophosphorylation.

21. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Light-dependent reaction enzymes (2) Ribosomes

(3) Chlorophyll (4) Light-independent reaction enzymes

Sol. Answer (2)

22. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C

3 plants because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) They have more chloroplasts

(2) The CO2 compensation point is more

(3) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase

(4) The CO2 efflux is not prevented

Sol. Answer (1)

Having large number of chloroplast and absence of photorespiration.

23. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO

2 fixation occurs in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Guard cells (2) Epidermal cells (3) Mesophyll cells (4) Bundle sheath

Sol. Answer (3)

PEP OAA Malic acid in mesophyll cells.

24. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Ferredoxin (2) Cytochrome - b (3) Cytochrome - f (4) Quinone

Sol. Answer (4)

PS II Quinone



25. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:


(1) Quinone (2) Cytochrome (3) Iron-sulphur protein (4) Ferredoxin

Sol. Answer (1)

26. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO

2 fixation occurs in the cells of:


(1) Epidermis (2) Mesophyll (3) Bundle sheath (4) Phloem

Sol. Answer (2)

In mesophyll cells, CO2 reacts with PEP and form malic acids.

27. In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Ferredoxin (2) Cytochrome (3) Plastocyanin (4) An iron-sulphur protein

Sol. Answer (4)

Fe-S Complex

P680

P700

Pheophytin

PQ

Cyt b6

FeS complex(4Fe-4S)

NADP reductase

Ferredoxin(2Fe-2S)

Cyt f

Plastocyanin

CYCLI

C

Light PS IPS IILight

NADP+

NADPH

Non-cyclic phosphorylation

Z-scheme

28. During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria

(2) Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

(3) Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

(4) Stroma of chloroplasts

Sol. Answer (2)

Chloroplast RUBP RuBisCo

O2

Phosphoglycolate + PGA



29. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO

2 levels because :


(1) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products

(2) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase

(3) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells

(4) RuBisCO in C4 plants has higher affinity for CO

2

Sol. Answer (2)

The primary acceptor of CO2 is PEP, catalysed by PEP carboxylase.

30. As compared to a C3 plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one

molecule of hexose sugar by C4 plants : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 0 (4) 12

Sol. Answer (4)

31. Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) 400 - 700 nm (2) 450 - 950 nm (3) 340 - 450 nm (4) 500 - 600 nm

Sol. Answer (1)

During photosynthesis PAR is 400-700 nm.

32. Chlorophyll-a molecule at its carbon atom 3 of the pyrrole ring II has one of the following

(1) Carboxylic group (2) Magnesium (3) Aldehyde group (4) Methyl group

Sol. Answer (4)

In the pyrrole ring II at 3 position there is methyl group.

33. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher

plants?

(1) Blue and green (2) Green and red (3) Red and violet (4) Violet and blue

Sol. Answer (4)

Carotenoids absorbed middle part of visible spectrum mainly violet and blue light.

34. During light reaction of photosynthesis, which of the following phenomenon is observed during cyclic

phosphorylation as well as non-cyclic phosphorylation?

(1) Release of O2

(2) Formation of ATP

(3) Formation of NADPH (4) Involvement of PS I & PS II pigment systems

Sol. Answer (2)

ATP synthesized in both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

35. NADPH2 is generated through

(1) Photosystem II (2) Anaerobic respiration (3) Glycolysis (4) Photosystem I



Sol. Answer (4)

P680

P700

Pheophytin

PQ

Cyt b6

FeS complex(4Fe-4S)

NADP reductase

Ferredoxin(2Fe-2S)

Cyt f

Plastocyanin

CYCLI

C

Light PS IPS IILight

NADP+

NADPH

Non-cyclic phosphorylation

Z-scheme

36. The first step for initiation of photosynthesis will be

(1) Photolysis of water

(2) Excitement of chlorophyll molecules due to absorption of light

(3) ATP formation

(4) Glucose formation

Sol. Answer (2)

During light reaction first of all excitation of chlorophyll molecules occurs due to absorption of light.

37. Which pigment system is inactivated in red drop?

(1) PS-I and PS-II (2) PS-I (3) PS-II (4) None of these

Sol. Answer (3)

PS-II, because its reaction centre is P680

.

38. In photosynthesis, energy from light reaction to dark reaction is transferred in the form of

(1) ADP (2) ATP (3) RuDP (4) Chlorophyll

Sol. Answer (2)

In light reaction, light energy is converted into ATP.

39. Which of the following absorb light energy for photosynthesis?

(1) Chlorophyll (2) Water molecule (3) O2

(4) RuBP

Sol. Answer (1)

Light energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments. i.e., chlorophyll

40. How many electrons, protons and photons are involved in the lysis of water to evolve one molecule of oxygen?

(1) 4e–, 4H+ & 4 photons (2) 4e–, 4H+ & 8 photons (3) 2e–, 2H+ & 8 photons (4) 2e–, 2H+ & 4 photons

Sol. Answer (2)

2 28 Photons2H O 4H O 4e



41. The primary acceptor, during CO2 fixation in C

3 plants, is

(1) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) (2) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuDP)

(3) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) (4) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP)

Sol. Answer (2)

In C3 plants, CO

2 acceptor is RuDP.

42. What will be the number of Calvin cycles to generate one molecule of hexose?

(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 6

Sol. Answer (4)

In one cycle, one molecule of CO2 reduced.

DHAP RUBP

Carbon compound

So six cycle will be required for one hexose.

43. For assimilation of one CO2 molecule, the energy required in form of ATP and NADPH

2 are

(1) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH2




Sol. Answer (3)

In C3 plants, 3 ATP and 2 NADPH

2 required during fixation of one CO

2.

44. Which one of the following represents photophosphorylation ?

(1) ATPAMPADPenergyLight (2) ATPPOInorganicADP

energyLight

4

(3) ATPPOInorganicADP 4 (4) ATPPOInorganicAMPenergyLight

4

Sol. Answer (2)

Photophosphorylation means synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.

45. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is

(1) Malic acid (2) Oxaloacetic acid

(3) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (4) Phosphoglyceraldehyde

Sol. Answer (3)

3 PGA is first stable product in C3 plants.

46. Bundle sheath cells

(1) Are rich in RuBisCo (2) Are rich in PEP carboxylase

(3) Lack RuBisCo (4) Lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase

Sol. Answer (1)

Bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCo.

Here C3 cycles occur.



47. Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics?

(1) Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation

(2) Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry

(3) Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

(4) Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum

Sol. Answer (4)

Maize is a C4 plant having closed vascular bundles i.e., cambium absent.

48. Presence of bundle sheath is a characteristic of

(1) Xerophytic plants (2) Members of the grass family

(3) C4 plants (4) C

3 plants

Sol. Answer (3)

Distinct bundle sheath present in C4 plants.

49. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells

(1) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange (2) Have large intercellular spaces

(3) Are rich in PEP carboxylase (4) Have a high density of chloroplasts

Sol. Answer (4)

Large number of chloroplast present in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants.

50. The CO2 fixation during C

4 pathway occurs in the chloroplast of

(1) Guard cells (2) Bundle sheath cells (3) Mesophyll cells (4) Spongy parenchyma

Sol. Answer (3)

C4 pathway occurs in the mesophyll cells.

51. In C4 plants, CO

2 fixation is done by

(1) Sclerenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma and hypodermis

(3) Mesophyll cells (4) Guard cells

Sol. Answer (3)

In C4 plants, start in mesophyll cells.

52. In C4 plants, CO

2 combines with

(1) Phosphoenol pyruvate

(2) Phosphoglyceraldehyde

(3) Phosphoglyceric acid

(4) Ribulose monophosphate

Sol. Answer (1)

PEP OAA Malic acid

CO2



53. Which is the first CO2 acceptor enzyme in C

4 plants?

(1) RuDP carboxylase (2) Phosphoric acid

(3) RuBisCo (4) PEP carboxylase

Sol. Answer (4)

PEP carboxylase in the mesophyll cells.

54. Which pair is wrong?

(1) C3-Maize

(2) C4-Kranz anatomy

(3) Calvin cycle-PGA

(4) Hatch and Slack cycle – OAA

Sol. Answer (1)

Maize is C4 plant.

55. In sugarcane plant, 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid. Which of the enzyme that fixes CO

2?

(1) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase

(2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase

(3) Ribulose phosphate kinase

(4) Fructose phosphatase

Sol. Answer (2)

PEP carboxylase

56. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration ?

(1) Ist oxidation in chloroplast

(2) It occurs in day time only

(3) It is a characteristic of C4 plants

(4) It is a characteristic of C3 plants

Sol. Answer (3)

Photorespiration is characteristic of C3 plants.

57. ‘The law of limiting factors’ was proposed by

(1) Leibig (2) Hatch and Slack (3) Blackman (4) Arnon

Sol. Answer (3)

Blackman proposed the law of limiting factor.

58. Maximum absorption of light occurs in the region of

(1) 1000 - 1200 nm (2) 1500 – 2000 nm (3) 400 - 700 nm (4) 700 – 900 nm

Sol. Answer (3)

PAR → visible region, 400 – 700 nm



59. The rate of photosynthesis is higher in

(1) Very high light (2) Continuous light (3) Red light (4) Green light

Sol. Answer (3)

Maximum photosynthesis occurs in red light.

60. Plants adapted to low light intensity have

(1) Larger photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants

(2) Higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun plants

(3) More extended root system

(4) Leaves modified to spines

Sol. Answer (1)

Number of chlorophyll molecules increases to compensate low light intensity.

SECTION - D


1. A : In C4 plants, chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells are granal.

R : PS II is mostly found in appressed part of granum.

Sol. Answer (4)

In Bundle sheath cells PS II absent which implies agranal chloroplast.

2. A : Dark reactions of photosynthesis are temperature controlled processes.

R : Most of the reactions are enzymatic in nature.

Sol. Answer (1)

Enzyme reactions are controlled by temperature.

3. A : Dark acidification occurs in CAM plants.

R : Organic acids are decarboxylated during night.

Sol. Answer (3)

Dark acidification is reaction occurs in Night and organic acid like malic acid is decarboxylated during day.

4. A : Assimilatory power in photosynthesis is generated in ETS occuring in thylakoid membrane.

R : They are needed for CO2 reduction and RuBP regeneration.

Sol. Answer (2)

ATP produced is required for carrying out different metabolic activities, biosynthetic reaction taking place in

stroma, responsible for fixation of CO2 and synthesis of sugar.

5. A : Light harvesting complexes (LHC) on thylakoid membrane broaden the range of light absorption.

R : They transfer e– to reaction centre.

Sol. Answer (3)

Antenna molecules transfer electron to Reaction Centre.



6. A : For every CO2 molecule entering C

3 cycle, three molecules of ATP and two NADPH are required.

R : Cyclic photophosphorylation takes place to meet the difference in number of ATP.

Sol. Answer (2)

Cyclic photophosphorylation is needed to meet difference in number of ATP but no correlation with Ist

statement.

7. A : Carotenoids protect plant from excessive heat and prevent photooxidation of chlorophyll.

R : Carotenoids enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilised for photosynthesis.

Sol. Answer (2)

Carotenoids provide protection to chlorophyll from nascent oxygen.

8. A : Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis depend directly on presence of light.

R : Both ATP and NADPH are not essential for assimilation of CO2 to carbohydrates.

Sol. Answer (4)

Dark reaction is not depend directly on the light. ATP and NADPH is essential for CO2 fixation.

9. A : Most of the photosynthesis takes place in the blue and red region of spectrum.

R : Action spectrum shows the amount of energy of different wavelength of light absorbed by pigments.

Sol. Answer (3)

Action spectrum depicts the magnitude of a response of biological system to light as function of wavelength.

For e.g., action spectrum of photosynthesis can be constructed from measurements of O2 evolution at

different wavelengths.

10. A : Tropical plants are more efficient in CO2 utilization.

R : C3 plants ensure that RuBisCO functions as carboxylase minimising oxygenase activity.

Sol. Answer (2)

At high CO2 concentration RuBisCO enzyme acts as carboxylase enzyme.

� � �


SECTION - A


(Introduction)

1. Breakdown of complex molecules to yield energy takes place in

(1) Cytoplasm and mitochondria (2) Chloroplast

(3) Cytoplasm and plastids (4) Mitochondria and chloroplast

Sol. Answer (1)

Cytoplasm and mitochondria in eukaryotes

Glycolysis in cytoplasm

Kreb cycle in mitochondria

2. Respiration involves breaking of_______ bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading

to release of considerable amount of energy.

(1) C — C (2) C — O (3) C — H (4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (1)

C — C bonds of glucose break during respiration.

3. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

(1) Respiration is purely a catabolic process

(2) Reduction of food results in the release of energy

(3) Chemical energy is broken down during respiration to release energy

(4) Fungi can make their own food and derive the energy by respiration

Sol. Answer (3)

Energy release during respiration due to breaking of chemical bonds.

4. Respiration is seen in

(1) Non green cells only

(2) Non green cells in light only

(3) All living cells both during day and night

(4) All cells, except the photosynthetic cells during day

Sol. Answer (3)

Respiration is continuous process occurs in all the living cells.

Chapter 11

Respiration in Plants

Solutions

50 Respiration in Plants Solutions of Assignment


5. The compounds that are subjected to biological oxidation are called _______ in which ______ is the most

common.

(1) Respiratory substrate, carbohydrate (2) Respiratory substance, protein

(3) Respiratory organic substances, fats (4) Respiratory substrate, protein

Sol. Answer (1)

Carbohydrate is most prefreable respiratory substrate.

6. Which of the following substances can undergo oxidation and release energy?

(1) Inorganic acids (2) Organic food (3) Organic acid (4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (4)

Organic food and organic acid undergoes a catabolic process to release energy.

(Do Plants Breathe?)

7. Choose the incorrect option for why plants can get along without respiratory organs as plants, unlike animals,

have no specialized organs for gaseous exchange.

(1) Respiration rate is faster than animals in roots, stems and leaves

(2) O2 released during photosynthesis is utilized for respiration

(3) Loose packing of parenchyma cells in leaves, stems and roots facilitates respiration

(4) There is very little transport of gases from one plant part to another

Sol. Answer (1)

In plants, respiration rate is slower than animals.

8. In floating respiration substrate used is/are

(1) Carbohydrate only (2) Fat and carbohydrate

(3) Fat and protein (4) Carbohydrate and protein

Sol. Answer (2)

When respiratory substrate is fat and carbohydrate, known as floating respiration.

9. Those organism which cannot use oxygen for growth and are even harmed by its presence, are known as

(1) Obligate aerobes (2) Aerotolerant anaerobes

(3) Facultative anaerobes (4) Obligate anaerobes

Sol. Answer (4)

These are organism which cannot live in O2 presence.

10. Facultative anaerobes

(1) Cannot use oxygen for growth and are even harmed by it

(2) Cannot use oxygen for growth, but tolerate the presence of it

(3) Are aerobes which can grow without oxygen

(4) Die when given aerobic condition

Sol. Answer (3)

Are aerobes which can live without oxygen i.e., they are not strictly anaerobic

11. What are the products of aerobic respiration?

(1) O2, H

2O and energy (2) CO

2 and energy only

(3) CO2, H

2O and energy (4) H

2O and CO

2 only

Sol. Answer (3)

6 12 6 2 2 2C H O 6O 6CO 6H O 686 kcal

51Solutions of Assignment Respiration in Plants


12. Maximum energy can be obtained from oxidation of which respiratory substrate

(1) Fat (2) Proteins (3) Carbohydrates (4) Organic acid

Sol. Answer (1)

Maximum energy present in fats.

(Glycolysis)

13. Common step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration are

(1) EMP pathway (2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle

(3) Acetyl CoA formation (4) Citric acid cycle

Sol. Answer (1)

i.e., Glycolysis, after that fate of pyruvic acid is decided.

14. Which of the following pathway was given by Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas?

(1) Glycolysis (2) Acetyl CoA formation step

(3) Krebs cycle (4) Pentose phosphate pathway

Sol. Answer (1)

Embden, Meyerhoff and Parnas i.e., EMP pathway

15. Glycolysis occurs in

(1) All living cells (2) Only eukaryotic cells (3) Nerve cells (4) Only muscle cells

Sol. Answer (1)

All living cells in the cytoplasm.

16. All are true about glycolysis, except

(1) Oxygen independent pathway

(2) It produces one pyruvic acid molecule from each glucose

(3) It occurs in the cytoplasm of cell

(4) It can operate by using both glucose and fructose

Sol. Answer (2)

No - One pyruvic acid from half molecule of glucose / we can say two pyruvic acid from one molecule of

glucose.

17. In EMP pathway, hexose sugar splits into two molecules of triose sugar by the catalytic activity of

(1) Phosphofructokinase (2) Aldolase (3) Dehydrogenase (4) Transphosphorylase

Sol. Answer (2)

Aldolase

2Molecule

Glucose G 6 P F 6 P F 1, 6 P Triose phosphate.

18. Interconversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate is catalysed by which enzyme?

(1) Phosphotriose isomerase (2) Phosphohexose isomerase

(3) Phosphoglyceromutase (4) Triose kinase

Sol. Answer (1)

Phosphotriose

Isomerase(G 3 P) (DHAP)

Triose phosphate Triose phosphate

��⇀�↽��



19. Reducing power NADH + H+ is produced during conversion step of glycolysis.

(1) 3-phosphoglyceric acid to 2-phosphoglycerate

(2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid

(3) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol pyrurvate

(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvic acid

Sol. Answer (2)

Glucose

HexokinaseADP

ATP

G – 6 – P

Phosphofructokinase

phosphofructokinase

ADP

ATP

F – 6 – P

F – 1, 6 – bP

Aldolase

G – 3 – P phosphotriose

DHAPisomerase

NADPH

NAD+

PGAL dehydrogenase

(1, 3 bisphos acid)

Triose bisphosphate

2ATP

2ADPTransphosphorilation

(1, 3 - PGA)

Triose bisphosphate

(3 – PGA)Mutase

2 – PGA

Enolase

PEP

ATP

ADP PyruvateKinase

Pyruvic acid

2 ×

20. Which enzyme of glycolysis is also called as pacemaker enzyme?

(1) Hexokinase

(2) Enolase

(3) Phosphofructokinase

(4) Pyruvate kinase

Sol. Answer (3)

Phosphofructokinase is called pacemaker enzyme.



21. During cellular respiration, number of ATP used during conversion of glucose into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

Sol. Answer (2)

Glucose

ATP ADP

G – 6 – P F – 6 – P

ATPADP

F – 1, 6 – bisP

(Fermentation)

22. Choose correct option w.r.t. anaerobic respiration

(1) The first oxidation step occur in mitochondria

(2) All reactions occur in the cytoplasm

(3) They require oxygen only at one step

(4) First step of eaction occur in cytoplasm then in mitochondria

Sol. Answer (2)

If aerobic It requires mitochondria. else all will occur in cytoplasm.

23. Products of anaerobic respiration are

(1) Ethyl alcohol and lactic acid only (2) Ethyl alcohol and CO2 and metabolic H

2O

(3) Ethyl alcohol, metabolic H2O, CO

2 and lactic acid (4) Ethyl alcohol, CO

2 or lactic acid

Sol. Answer (4)

Pyruvic acid alcoholic

Ferm

entation

O2

Lactic acid

C H OH + CO + Energy2 5 2

C H O + Energy.

Lactic acid3 6 3

24. End product of anaerobic respiration is

(1) Phosphoglyceric acid (2) Pyruvic acid

(3) Lactic acid (4) Glyceraldehyde phosphate

Sol. Answer (3)

During anaerobic respiration, the end product is ethyl alcohol, lactic acid etc.

25. After glycolysis, first step of ethyl alcohol fermentation requires

(1) Dehydrogenation (2) Decarboxylation (3) FAD reduction (4) Mn+2 acceptance

Sol. Answer (2)

2CH CO COOH3

Pyruvic acid

decarboxylase2CH CHO + 2CO

3 2

Pyruvic acid



26. Concentration of alcohol in a sugar solution inoculated with yeast after which yeast gets killed is

(1) 13% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 20%

Sol. Answer (1)

Yeast posion themselves to death when concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%.

27. Cramps are formed during vigorous exercise, it is due to production of _____ in muscles.

(1) Acetyl coenzyme A (2) Ethyl alcohol (3) Lactic acid (4) Acetic acid

Sol. Answer (3)

During vigorous exercise, O2 , anaerobic pathway is adopted by cell, produces lactic acid.

28. Identify the product marked by (i) & (ii) in the following pathway

3-phosphoglyceric acid

(i)

(ii)

Pyruvate

NAD+

NADH + H+

(1) (i) 2-phosphoglycerate; (ii) Acetyl CoA (2) (i) Phosphoenol pyruvate; (ii) Ethyl alcohol

(3) (i) Phosphoenol pyruvate; (ii) Citric acid (4) (i) Phosphoenol pyruvate; (ii) Acetyl CoA

Sol. Answer (2)

Pathway of anaerobic respiration.

(Aerobic Respiration)

29. Which enzyme is required for the following conversion ?

Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+

(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (2) Phosphoglucomutase

(3) Pyruvate oxidase (4) Pyruvate carboxylase

Sol. Answer (1)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex enzyme.

30. Number of acetyl CoA formed from one molecule of glucose is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6

Sol. Answer (2)

One Glucose 2 Pyruvic acid

Pyruvic dehydrogenase

2 Acety-CoA

31. Connecting link between glycolysis and TCA cycle is

(1) Link reaction (2) EMP pathway (3) ETC (4) Citric acid cycle

Sol. Answer (1)

Link reaction or transition reaction is connecting link between glycolysis and TCA cycle.



32. How many carbon atoms are present in Acetyl CoA?

(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3

Sol. Answer (1)

CS CoA O

CH3

33. Which of the following product is formed by Krebs cycle?

(1) Acetyl CoA (2) ADP (3) ATP (4) NAD+

Sol. Answer (3)

ATP and NADH are formed by Krebs cycle.

34. Citric acid is formed in Krebs cycle by the combination of oxaloacetate with

(1) OAA (2) Acetyl CoA

(3) Malic acid (4) Pyruvic acid

Sol. Answer (2)

OAA + Acetyl CoA Citric acid

35. The enzymes of Krebs cycle where NADH + H+ are produced are

(1) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, succinate dehydrogenase and malic dehydrogenase

(2) Succinate thiokinase, succinate dehydrogenase and aconitase

(3) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, -ketoglutaric dehydrogenase, malic dehydrogenase

(4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, -ketoglutaric dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase

Sol. Answer (3)

Acetyl – coA(2C)

H O2

Citric acid(6C)

H O2 Aconitase Fe

2+

Cis-Aconitic acid

Isocitrate

(6C)

(6C)

isocitratedehydrogenase

Mn2+

NADPH+

NAD

Oxalosuccinic acid

-Ketoglutaric acid

CO2

(6C)

Succinyl-CoA4(C)

Succinic AcidGTP succinate

GDP thiokinaseCoA

H O2

Succinatedehydrogenase

FADH2

FAD

Fumeric acid

FumeraseH O2

Malic acid

OAA(4C)

NAD

NADPH+

CO2 -Ketoglutaric

dehydrogenaseCoA

NAD NADPH+

K

R

E

B

C

Y

C

L

E

Malic dehydrogenase

(5C)

H O Aconitase Fe2

2+

Citrate synthase



36. How many molecules of CO2 are released during two turns of Krebs cycle?

(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3

Sol. Answer (3)

Acetyl – coA(2C)

H O2

Citric acid(6C)

H O2 Aconitase Fe

2+

Cis-Aconitic acid

Isocitrate

(6C)

(6C)


Mn2+

NADPH+

NAD

Oxalosuccinic acid

-Ketoglutaric acid

CO2

(6C)

Succinyl-CoA4(C)


GDP thiokinaseCoA

H O2


FADH2

FAD

Fumeric acid

FumeraseH O2

Malic acid

OAA(4C)

NAD

NADPH+

CO2

-Ketoglutaric dehydrogenase

CoA

NAD NADPH+

K

R

E

B

C

Y

C

L

E

Malic dehydrogenase

(5C)

H O Aconitase Fe2

2+

Citrate synthase

Since two CO2 in one turn thus 4 CO

2 in two turn.

37. What is the net gain in a Krebs cycle?

(1) 1 FADH2, 2 NADH

2 and 1 ATP (2) 2 FADH

2, 2 NADH

2 and 2 ATP

(3) 1 FADH2, 3 NADH

2 and 1 ATP (4) 1 FADH

2, 6 NADH

2 and 2 ATP

Sol. Answer (3)

In one turn of Krebs cycle 3NADH2, 1ATP and 1FADH

2 are produced.

38. Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the formation of

(1) FADH2 FAD (2) FAD FADH

2

(3) NAD NADH + H+ (4) NADH + H+ FADH2

Sol. Answer (2)

Succinate dehydrogenase

2FAD FADH

39. Where does ETS occur in our body?

(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondrial matrix

(3) Inner mitochondrial membrane (4) Outer mitochondrial membrane

Sol. Answer (3)

ETS occurs in inner membrane of mitochondria.

40. How many complexes are involved in electron transport in mitochondria?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5

Sol. Answer (3)

Complex-I, Complex-II, Complex-III, Complex-IV



41. Complex which transfers electrons of FADH2 to ETS is

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

Sol. Answer (2)

Electrons from FADH2 to ETS are transferred by Complex II

42. Last acceptor of electrons is _____ in ETS which give electrons to oxygen.

(1) Cyt c1

(2) Cyt c (3) Cyt a – a3

(4) Cyt bc1

Sol. Answer (3)

Complex-IV (Cytochrome C oxidase) Contains two copper centers.

(CuA and Cu

B) and cytochrome a and Cyt a

3.

43. Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents from

(1) NAD+ (2) FADH2

(3) NADH + H+ (4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (4)

FADH2 and NADH + H+ i.e., electron from complex-I and II reaches to ubiquinone.

44. Mobile electron carrier in ETS in mitochondrial membrane is

(1) Complex I (2) Cyt c (3) Cyt a – a3

(4) Cyt bc1

Sol. Answer (2)

Cyt c is mobile electron carrier in ETS.

45. Protons for the formation of ATP first pass from

(1) F0 part (2) F

1 head piece (3) Cyt c (4) Complex II

Sol. Answer (1)

Outerside

ATP

Innermitochondiral

membrane

ADP Pi

Matrix

Innermembrane

part

2H+

F0

F1

46. How many ATP molecules are formed by oxidative phosphorylation from NADH produced during single Krebs

cycle?

(1) 6 (2) 18 (3) 30 (4) 9

Sol. Answer (4)

1 NADPH 3 ATP

3 NADPH 9 ATP



47. The efficiency of aerobic respiration is approximately

(1) 50% (2) 45% (3) 90% (4) 30%

Sol. Answer (2)

38 8.1100 45%

686

One glucose

38 ATP 8.1 kcal

One glucose stores – 686 kcal molecule

(Amphibolic Pathway)

48. Total energy obtained from 38 ATP is _____ kJ.

(1) 1298 (2) 1398 (3) 1292 (4) 1392

Sol. Answer (3)

38 ATP = 1292 kJ

1 ATP = 34 kJ/mol.

38 ATP = 34 × 38 = 1292 kJ/mol.

49. Intermediate common to proteins and carbohydrate oxidation is

(1) Pyruvate (2) Glycerol (3) Oxaloacetate (4) Succinate

Sol. Answer (1)

Glycerol form as a intermediate during protein and carbohydrate oxidation.

(Respiratory Quotient)

50. Which of these has R.Q. value more than one?

(1) Fat (2) Protein (3) Carbohydrate (4) Organic acids

Sol. Answer (4)

RQ value of malic acid – 1.33

Oxalic acid 4

SECTION - B


(Glycolysis)

1. Which of the given enzymes of glycolysis is required at the beginning of process?

(1) Hexokinase (2) Aldolase (3) Isomerase (4) Mutase

Sol. Answer (1)

HexokinaseGlucose G 6 P



2. Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate in respiration requires

(1) Hexokinase (2) Enolase

(3) Phosphofructokinase (4) Pyruvate kinase

Sol. Answer (3)

PhosphofructokinaseF 6 P F 1, 6 bP

3. How many redox equivalents are removed from two molecules of 3-PGAL?

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2

Sol. Answer (2)

Two from each 3-PGAL, thus total four from two molecule of 3-PGAL.

(Fermentation)

4. Select the statement which is not related to fermentation

(1) It accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose

(2) It gives only 2ATP as net for glucose degradation upto pyruvic acid

(3) NADH is oxidized slowly as compared to aerobic respiration

(4) ETS gives 11ATP for each Krebs cycle

Sol. Answer (4)

It is related to Kreb cycle not fermentation.

5. First step of ethyl alcohol fermentation requires

(1) Dehydrogenation (2) Decarboxylation (3) FMN (4) Zn2+

Sol. Answer (2)

2CH COCOOH3

Pyruvate

decarboxylase complex

2CH CHO + 2CO3 2

Decarboxylation

6. In alcohol fermentation, _____ of energy in glycose in released and not all of it is trapped as high energy bonds of

ATP.

(1) Less than 1% (2) More than 10%

(3) Less than 7% (4) More than 40%

Sol. Answer (3)

Net gain in alcoholic fermentation is 2 ATP.

(Aerobic Respiration)

7. Primary acceptor of TCA cycle is

(1) OAA (2) Acetyl CoA (3) Citric acid (4) Pyruvic acid

Sol. Answer (1)

OAA + Acetyl CoA Citric acid

8. In TCA cycle, how many reduced coenzymes are produced from one Acetyl CoA?

(1) 3 NADH2, 1 FADH

2(2) 2 NADH

2, 1 FADH

2(3) 4 NADH

2, 2 FADH

2(4) 5 NADH

2, 1 FADH

2



Sol. Answer (1)

Acetyl – coA(2C)

H O2

Citric acid(6C)

H O2 Aconitase Fe

2+

Cis-Aconitic acid

Isocitrate

(6C)

(6C)


Mn2+

NADH+

NAD

Oxalosuccinic acid

-Ketoglutaric acid

CO2

(6C)

Succinyl-CoA4(C)


GDP thiokinaseCoA

H O2


FADH2

FAD

Fumeric acid

FumeraseH O2

Malic acid

OAA(4C)

NAD

NADH+

CO2 -Ketoglutaric

dehydrogenaseCoA

NAD NADH+

K

R

E

B

C

Y

C

L

E

Malic dehydrogenase

(5C)

H O Aconitase Fe2

2+

Citrate synthase

9. 5C intermediate molecule in TCA cycle is

(1) Citric acid (2) Succinyl CoA (3) -ketoglutaric acid (4) Fumaric acid

Sol. Answer (3)

5C present in -ketoglutaric acid.

10. Number of total ATP generated in TCA cycle per Acetyl CoA molecule is

(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 24

Sol. Answer (2)

1 NADH 3 ATP × 3 9 ATP

1 FADH2 2 ATP 2 ATP

1 GTP / ATP 1 ATP

12 ATP

11. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA occurs when

(1) Succinic acid changes to fumaric acid (2) Fumaric acid changes to malic acid

(3) Succinyl CoA changes to succinic acid (4) Oxalosuccinic acid changes to -ketoglutaric acid

Sol. Answer (3)

Acetyl – coA(2C)

H O2

Citric acid(6C)

H O2 Aconitase Fe

2+

Cis-Aconitic acid

Isocitrate

(6C)

(6C)


Mn2+

NADPH+

NAD

Oxalosuccinic acid

-Ketoglutaric acid

CO2

(6C)

Succinyl-CoA4(C)

Succinic Acid

GTP succinate

GDP thiokinaseCoA

H O2


FADH2

FAD

Fumeric acid

FumeraseH O2

Malic acid

OAA(4C)

NAD

NADPH+

CO2 -Ketoglutaric

dehydrogenaseCoA

NAD NADPH+

K

R

E

B

C

Y

C

L

E

Malic dehydrogenase

(5C)

H O Aconitase Fe2

2+

Citrate synthase



12. Mineral activator needed for the enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase of TCA cycle is

(1) Fe (2) Mg (3) Mn (4) Cu

Sol. Answer (3)

Mn acts as activator by enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase.

13. Fumarase enzyme converts

(1) Succinic acid to malic acid (2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid

(3) Fumaric acid to malic acid (4) Fumaric acid to citric acid

Sol. Answer (3)

14. Substrate level phosphorylation does not occur in which of the following reaction of aerobic respiration?

(1) 1, 3-diPGA 3-PGA (2) 3-PGA 2-PGA

(3) PEP Pyruvate (4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid

Sol. Answer (2)

Substrate level phosphorylation Direct transfer of a phosphate group from a substrate molecule to ADP to

form ATP.

There is no such transfer from 3PGA – 2PGA. In the phosphate group reshuffling is done here from

3rd position to 2nd position.

15. A Krebs cycle intermediate as raw material for chlorophyll production is synthesised after

(1) Condensation (2) Substrate level phosphorylation

(3) Hydration (4) Oxidative decarboxylation

Sol. Answer (4)

-Ketoglutaric acid Succinyl Co-A

Raw material for chlorophyll synthesis

16. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Krebs cycle

(1) Occurs in cytoplasm and mitochondria in the absence of O2

(2) Favoured by coenzyme NADP+

(3) Intermediate products contain four, five and six carbon atoms

(4) Substrate molecule is a 3C compound

Sol. Answer (3)

4, 5, 6 carbon atomes in intermediate product.

For e.g., Malic acid (4C), Oxalosuccinic acid (6C), -Ketoglutaric acid (5C).

17. Connecting link between respiration (TCA cycle) and protein synthesis is

(1) Citric acid (2) -ketoglutaric acid (3) Succinic acid (4) Fumaric acid

Sol. Answer (2)

Raw material for amino acid synthesis.



18. The correct sequence in Krebs cycle is

(1) Oxaloacetic acid -ketoglutaric acid Isocitric acid

(2) Oxaloacetic acid Isocitric acid -ketoglutaric acid

(3) -ketoglutaric acid Isocitric acid Oxaloacetic acid

(4) Isocitric acid -ketoglutaric acid Oxaloacetic acid

Sol. Answer (4)

In Krebs cycle citric acid converted into -ketoglutaric acid then oxaloacetic acid.

19. ATP generated by 1 NADH2 and 1 FADH

2 are respectively

(1) 3, 2 (2) 2, 3 (3) 3, 5 (4) 5, 3

Sol. Answer (1)

20. The complex concerned with oxidative phosphorylation in inner mitochondrial membrane is

(1) Complex IV (2) Complex V (3) Complex III (4) Complex II

Sol. Answer (2)

ATP synthase

21. Mobile electrons carriers in ETS in mitochondrial membrane are

(1) PQ, PC (2) CoQ, Cyt c (3) PQ, Cyt c (4) PC, CoQ

Sol. Answer (2)

CoQ and Cyt c are mobile electro carriers.

22. Total number of ATP produced through ETS only from one molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate in aerobic respiration is

(1) 14 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 16

Sol. Answer (1)

1 molecule of 3 PGA 1 molecule of pyruvic acid

releases Link reaction and Kreb cycle

4 NADPH+

& 1 FADH2

These molecules will enter ETS and produces ATP.

Now, 1 NADPH+ at most

3 ATP × 4 12

1 FADPH2

2 ATP × 1 2

14 ATP

23. Slow oxidation of NADH occurs in

(1) Fermentation (2) Aerobic respiration

(3) Dicarboxylic acid cycle (4) PPP

Sol. Answer (1)

Lactic acid fermentation.



24. Which one of the following is incorrect statement for mitochondrial ETC and oxidative phosphorylation?

(1) Enzyme complex I accepts electrons and H+ from NADH and FADH2

(2) Passage of protons through the channel is coupled to the catalytic site of the F1 for ATP production

(3) Cytochrome-c is a mobile protein attached to outer surface of inner membrane

(4) 6H+ passes through F0 from intermembrane space to the matrix down the electrochemical proton gradient to

produce 3ATP

Sol. Answer (1)

Complex I (NADH Dehydrogenase) it accepts only from NADPH. Complex II receives it from FADH2.

25. NADH2 generated in glycolysis produces ATP in ETS in presence of O

2. In absence of O

2, this NADH

2

functions as

(1) Oxidising agent (2) Phosphorylating agent (3) Reducing agent (4) Carboxylating agent

Sol. Answer (3)

Act as reducing agent in absence of O2.

26. A false statement regarding cytochrome c-oxidase complex in ETS in mitochondria is

(1) Receives electrons directly from ubiquinone

(2) Capable of reducing O2

(3) Extend across the thickness of inner mitochondrial membrane

(4) Contains Fe & Cu both

Sol. Answer (1)

Receives electrons directly from ubiquinone via cyt bc1 to cyt c.

i.e., UQ cyt bc1 cyt c

27. In prokaryotic cells, number of ATP generated from one glucose molecule is

(1) 36 (2) 38 (3) 34 (4) 32

Sol. Answer (2)

38 ATP produced from one molecule of glucose.

28. Mark the incorrect statement.

(1) Breaking of C – C bonds of complex organic molecules by oxidation cells leading to the release of a lot of

energy is called cellular respiration

(2) Initial stage of cellular respiration takes place in cytoplasm

(3) Incomplete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules

of CO2

(4) TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with OAA and H2O to yield citric acid

Sol. Answer (3)

Incomplete oxidation results in alcoholic/ Lactic acid fermentation.

29. Transfer of yeast cells from anaerobic to aerobic condition will

(1) Decrease sugar breakdown (2) Decrease CO2 evolution

(3) Increase CO2 evolution (4) More than one option is correct

Sol. Answer (4)

Decrease sugar breakdown and decrease CO2 evolution.

30. Inhibition of sugar breakdown due to the presence of O2 under anaerobic condition is called

(1) Pasteur effect (2) Warburg effect (3) Crabtree effect (4) Kutusky effect

Sol. Answer (1)

In anaerobic respiration, rate of respiration decreases in the presence of oxygen, known as Pasteur effect.



31. Common molecule formed from all food stuffs during aerobic respiration is

(1) Glucose (2) PGAL (3) Pyruvic acid (4) Acetyl CoA

Sol. Answer (4)

All the food stuffs converted into Acetyl CoA because Kreb's cycle starts from Acetyl CoA.

32. From the oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (fatty acid), the number of ATP molecules gained as net

are

(1) 131 (2) 129

(3) 38 (4) 142

Sol. Answer (2)

Palmitic acid C16

H32

O2.

C6H32

O2 8 CH

3CoSCoA + 7 FADH

2 + 7 NADH + 7 H+

8 CH3Co.S.CoA 16 CO

2 + 8 FADH

2 + 24 NADH + 8 – P + 24 H+

Sum : C16

H32

O2 16 CO

2 + 15 FADH

2 + 31 NADH + 8 – P + 31H+

15 FADH2 15 × 2 ATP = 30

31 NADH

131

31 × 3 ATP = 93

8 ATP Substance level = 8phosphorylation

2 ATP’s are consumed in process to form acyl CoA

129 net yield.

33. Location of SDH enzyme of Krebs cycle in plants is

(1) Plasma membrane (2) Inner mitochondrial membrane

(3) Cytoplasm (4) Matrix

Sol. Answer (2)

Succinate dehydrogenase present on inner mitochondrial membrane.

(Respiratory Quotient)

34. The value of RQ when the respiratory substances are poor in oxygen is

(1) Zero (2) Infinity

(3) Greater than one (4) Less than one

Sol. Answer (4)

Less than one e.g., in fats and proteins.

35. Arrange the RQ value of following respiratory substrates in ascending order

(a) C4H

6O

5

(b) C6H

12O

6

(c) C18

H36

O2

(d) Succulents (night)

(1) (c), (b), (d) & (a) (2) (d), (c), (b) & (a)

(3) (b), (c), (a) & (d) (4) (c), (b), (a) & (d)

Sol. Answer (2)

Succulents > C18

H36

O2

> C6H

12O

6 > C

4H

6O

5



SECTION - C


1. Which of these statements is incorrect? [NEET-2018]

(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix

(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol

(3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane

(4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

Sol. Answer (3)

Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner mitochondrial membrane.

2. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? [NEET-2018]

(1) It functions as an enzyme.

(2) It functions as an electron carrier.

(3) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

(4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

Sol. Answer (2)

In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron carrier.

3. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle? [NEET-2017]

(1) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+

(2) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2

(3) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised

(4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid

Sol. Answer (4)

Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA (2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid (6C).

4. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and

proteins? [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Glucose-6-phosphate (2) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

(3) Pyruvic acid (4) Acetyl CoA

Sol. Answer (4)

Acetyl CoA is common to fat, carbohydrate and protein catabolism.

5. Oxidative phosphorylation is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP

(2) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP

(3) Addition of phosphate group to ATP

(4) Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation

Sol. Answer (4)

Oxidative phosphorylation uses energy of oxidation-reduction of substrate to generate ATP.



6. Cytochromes are found in [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Lysosomes

(2) Matrix of mitochondria

(3) Outer wall of mitochondria

(4) Cristae of mitochondria

Sol. Answer (4)

Cytochromes involved in ETS, present on the cristae of mitochondria.

7. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Aerobic respiration in plants

(2) Aerobic respiration in animals

(3) Alcoholic fermentation

(4) Lactate fermentation

Sol. Answer (4)

CO2 not evolved during Lactic acid fermentation.

8. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

[NEET-2013]

(1) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (2) Pyruvic acid

(3) Acetyl CoA (4) Glucose-6-phosphate

Sol. Answer (3)

Acetyl CoA form, from all the food stuffs.

9. The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows

represent net reactants or products

glucose Pathway A 2 Pathway B Pathway C67

11

128

1 5 109

43

Arrows numbered 4,8 and 12 can all be [NEET-2013]

(1) ATP (2) H2O (3) FAD+ or FADH

2(4) NADH

Sol. Answer (1)

Pathway - A Glycolysis

Pathway - B Kreb 4/8/12 ATP

Pathway - C ETS 2 Pyruvic acid

9, 10 FADH2 , NADH

3 NADH



10. Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the

membrane

(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth

(C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous

(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living state also in soil

How many of the above statements are right? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One

Sol. Answer (1)

A and D, because in dicot stem cambium not arise from pericycle. In Gloriosa - epiphylous, while in Petunia- epipetalous.

11. The energy releasing metabolic process in whichsubstrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor

is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Photorespiration (2) Glycolysis (3) Fermentation (4) Aerobic respiration

Sol. Answer (3)

During fermentation, substrate oxidised without an external electron acceptor.

12. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Parabolic (2) Amphibolic (3) Anabolic (4) Catabolic

Sol. Answer (2)

i.e., both catabolism and anabolism.

13. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Malate (2) Malonate (3) Oxaloacetate (4) - ketoglutarate

Sol. Answer (2)

14. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

is formed because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondiral membrane toward adenosine diphosphate

(ADP)

(2) High energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins

(3) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space

(4) A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane

Sol. Answer (4)

Due to accumulation of protons, proton gradient form across the inner membrane.

15. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of:


(1) Nucleic acids (2) ATP in small stepwise units

(3) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (4) Sugars

Sol. Answer (2)

All cell are in need of energy obtained from ATP.



16. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner

mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:


(1) Succinate dehydrogenase (2) Lactate dehydrogenase

(3) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (4) Malate dehydrogenase

Sol. Answer (1)

Succinate dehydrogenase present on inner mitochondrial membrane.

17. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete

oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO2 and H

2O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in

the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Two (2) Thirty (3) Fifty seven (4) One

Sol. Answer (3)

For maximum ATP, we take efficiency 100%

686x 57.1

12 i.e., 57 ATP molecules

18. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed

from ADP? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A (2) Electron transport chain

(3) Glycolysis (4) Krebs cycle

Sol. Answer (2)

ETS

10 NADH & 1 FADH2

enters ETS

10 × 3 2 × 2

30 4 for one molecule of glucose

Total 34/36

34 or 32 from ETS

19. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on :


(1) Proton gradient (2) Accumulation of K ions

(3) Accumulation of Na ions (4) Membrane potential

Sol. Answer (1)

20. Glycolysis

(1) Takes place in the mitochondria

(2) Produces no ATP

(3) Has no connection with electron transport chain

(4) Reduces two molecules of NAD+ for every glucose molecule processed

Sol. Answer (4)



Glucose

HexokinaseADP

ATP

G – 6 – P

Phosphofructokinase

phosphofructokinase

ADP

ATP

F – 6 – P

F – 1, 6 – bP

Aldolase

G – 3 – P phosphotriose

DHAPisomerase

NADPH

NAD+

PGAL dehydrogenase

(1, 3 bisphos acid)

Triose bisphosphate

2ATP

2ADPTransphosphorilation

(1, 3 - PGA)

Triose bisphosphate

(3 – PGA)Dismutase

2 – PGA

Enolase

PEP

ATP

ADP PyruvateKinase

Pyruvic acid

2 ×

21. The first phase in the breakdown of glucose, in animal cell, is

(1) Fermentation (2) Krebs cycle (3) Glycolysis (4) E.T.S.

Sol. Answer (3)

Glycolysis is first phase in both plants and animals.

22. At the end of glycolysis, six carbon compound ultimately changes into

(1) Ethyl alcohol (2) Acetyl Co-A (3) Pyruvic acid (4) ATP

Sol. Answer (3)

One molecule of glucose Two molecule of Pyruvic acid.

23. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by

(1) ATP (2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

(3) NAD+ (4) Molecular oxygen

Sol. Answer (3)

NAD + 2e– + 2H+ NADH + H+



24. The organism used for alcohol fermentation, is

(1) Aspergillus (2) Saccharomyces (3) Pseudomonas (4) Penicillium

Sol. Answer (2)

Saccharomyces i.e., Yeast

25. Which of the following products are obtained by anaerobic respiration from yeast?

(1) Beer and wine (2) Alcohols (3) CO2

(4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Beer, wine, alcohols and CO2.

26. The end products of fermentation are

(1) O2 and C

2H

5OH (2) CO

2 and acetaldehyde

(3) CO2 and O

2(4) CO

2 and C

2H

5OH

Sol. Answer (4)

Alcoholic fermentation

Pyruvate decarboxylase

3 3 22CH COCOOH 2CH CHO 2CO

Alcohol3 2 5dehydrogenase

2CH CHO 2NADH 2H 2C H OH 2NAD

27. During the formation of bread, it becomes porous due to release of CO2 by the action of

(1) Yeast (2) Bacteria (3) Virus (4) Protozoans

Sol. Answer (1)

Yeast causes fermentation.

28. In alcohol fermentation

(1) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor

(2) Triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor

(3) There is no electron donor

(4) Oxygen is the electron acceptor

Sol. Answer (1)

Pyruvate decarboxylase

3 3 22CH COCOOH 2CH CHO 2CO

Alcohol3 2 5dehydrogenase

2CH CHO 2NADH H 2C H OH 2NAD

29. Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft and spongy because of

(1) Absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphere (2) Fermentation

(3) Cohesion (4) Osmosis

Sol. Answer (2)

During fermentation, CO2 evolved.



30. In Krebs cycle, the FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of

(1) Fumaric acid to malic acid (2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid

(3) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid (4) -ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA

Sol. Answer (2)

Acetyl – coA(2C)

H O2

Citric acid(6C)

H O2 Aconitase Fe

2+

Cis-Aconitic acid

Isocitrate

(6C)

(6C)


Mn2+

NADPH+

NAD

Oxalosuccinic acid

-Ketoglutaric acid

CO2

(6C)

Succinyl-CoA4(C)


GDP thiokinaseCoA

H O2


FADH2

FAD

Fumeric acid

FumeraseH O2

Malic acid

OAA(4C)

NAD

NADPH+

CO2 -Ketoglutaric

dehydrogenaseCoA

NAD NADPH+

K

R

E

B

C

Y

C

L

E

Malic dehydrogenase

(5C)

H O Aconitase Fe2

2+

Citrate synthase

31. Which of the following is the key intermediate compound linking glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?

(1) Malic acid (2) Acetyl CoA (3) NADH (4) ATP

Sol. Answer (2)

Pyruvic acid from glycolysis

Link reactionPyruvic acid Acetyl CoA

Acetyl CoA Enters Krebcycle

32. In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and the same thing ?

(1) Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle (2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle

(3) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle (4) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle

Sol. Answer (2)

TCA and Citric acid cycle

other names for Kreb’s cycle.

TCA because many intermediate have 3 carboxyl groups.

CAC because of formation of citric acid in the first step of cycle.

Kreb Scientist Hans Kreb who first elucidated it in flight muscles of pigeon.



33. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

(1) Intermembrane space (2) Matrix

(3) Outer membrane (4) Inner membrane

Sol. Answer (1)

Proton accumulate between outer and inner membrane.

34. The ultimate respiratory substrate, yielding maximum number of ATP molecules, is

(1) Glycogen (2) Ketogenic amino acid

(3) Glucose (4) Amylose

Sol. Answer (3)

Glucose is the ultimate respiratory substrate.

35. When one molecule of ATP is disintegrated, the amount of energy liberated is

(1) 1.8 kcal (2) 38 kcal (3) 8.15 kcal (4) 4.5 kcal

Sol. Answer (3)

1 ATP 8.15 kcal

36. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is

(1) Cyt. b, c, a3, a (2) Cyt. c, b, a, a

3(3) Cyt. a

3, a, b, c (4) Cyt. b, c, a, a

3

Sol. Answer (4)

Electron transfer from Cyt b to Cyt c then Cyt a and Cyt a3.

37. The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplast and mitochondria is explained by

(1) Chemiosmotic theory (2) Munch’s hypothesis (mass flow model)

(3) Relay pump theory of Godlewski (4) Cholodny-Went’s model

Sol. Answer (1)

ATP synthesis explained by P.Mitchel through chemiosmotic theory.

38. Net gain of ATP molecules, during aerobic respiration, in heart cells is

(1) 40 molecules (2) 48 molecules

(3) 36 molecules (4) 38 molecules

Sol. Answer (4)

Malate Aspartate shuttle

39. How many ATP molecules will be produced in muscles by aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 36 (4) 34

Sol. Answer (3)

Glycerol – 3 Phosphate shuttle



40. Plants, but not animals, can convert fatty acids to sugars by a series of reactions called

(1) Photosynthesis (2) Krebs cycle (3) Glycolysis (4) Glyoxylate cycle

Sol. Answer (4)

Glyoxysome present in plants for glyoxylate cycle.

41. Pasteurization is a process, which means heating of drinks. It is carried out, at what temperature and for

how much duration?

(1) 70°C and 60 minutes (2) 80°C and 30 minutes

(3) 120°C and 60 minutes (4) 60-70°C and 30 minutes

Sol. Answer (4)

Pasteurization occurs at 60–70 °C for 30 minutes.

SECTION - D


1. A : 2, 4 DNP is an uncoupling agent of ETS.

R : It is soluble in lipids.

Sol. Answer (2)

2 : 4 DNP allows electron transport but prevent ATP synthesis i.e., un coupler.

2. A : In PPP (HMS), complete oxidation of one glucose molecule would produce 6CO2 molecules and 12 NADPH

2

molecules.

R : It occurs in cytoplasm and chloroplast, in presence of O2.

Sol. Answer (2)

In PPP, 12 NADPH2 produced at the place of NADH

2.

3. A : RQ of maturing fatty seeds is > 1.

R : Fats are preferred energy fuels.

Sol. Answer (3)

Glucose is preferred energy fuel

4. A : In cellular respiratory ETS electron movement is a downhill journey.

R : Electrons move from high redox potential to low redox potential.

Sol. Answer (3)

Electrons move from low to high redox potential.

5. A : Succinyl CoA is the precursor of pyrrole group containing compounds.

R : Succinyl CoA is an intermediate of TCA cycle.

Sol. Answer (2)

Succinyl CoA is the precursor of chlorophyll.



6. A : Fat breakdown yields fatty acids and glycerol.

R : Glycerol enters glycolysis through serine formation.

Sol. Answer (3)

Fats Fatty acids and glycerol

DHAP

G – 3 – P Pyruvic acidAcetyl CoA

Krebs cycle

7. A : Four ATP molecules are produced directly during glycolysis.

R : Substrate level phosphorylation occurs at two steps for a glucose broken down in mitochondrial matrix.

Sol. Answer (3)

Substrate level phosphorylation occurs during Kreb cycle at one step only.

8. A : Fermentation stops when alcohol in sugar solution is about 13%.

R : Saccharomyces cerevisiae are killed and zymase in not formed.

Sol. Answer (1)

Yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 %.

9. A : Cytochrome c is the peripheral protein.

R : It is found attached on the perimitochondrial space side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Sol. Answer (1)

Cyt c is a peripheral protein because it found attached on perimitochondrial space side of inner mitochondrial

membrane.

10. A : Tricarboxylic acid cycle is an amphibolic pathway.

R : A number of TCA cycle intermediates are used in various catabolic reactions only.

Sol. Answer (3)

TCA intermediates are not used in various catabolic reaction only. But in anabolic reactions also. TCA is

amphibolic because them is catabolism and anabolism.

� � �


SECTION - A


(Growth)

1. Which of the following structures show unlimited growth in plants?

(1) Leaves (2) Flowers (3) Fruits (4) Roots

Sol. Answer (4)

Roots, stems show continuous, indeterminate growth due to presence of apical meristem.

Leaves, fruits, flowers show closed, determinate growth due to intercalary meristem.

2. Growth of an organ is defined as

(1) Infinite increase in size (2) Irreversible increase in size

(3) Reversible increase in size (4) Infinite and reversible increase in size

Sol. Answer (2)

Organs show limited growth and growth is irreversible.

3. Which type of cells have the capacity of self perpetuation?

(1) Meristematic cells (2) Companion cells (3) Sieve cells (4) Parenchyma cells

Sol. Answer (1)

These cells are in state of continuous division i.e, they are capable of self perpetuation, have power to

continue indefinitely through division.

4. Plant growth is unique in being

(1) Closed (2) Unlimited (3) Diffuse (4) Limited

Sol. Answer (2)

Plants show indeterminate or unlimited growth, throughout their, life. Hence, we say that plant growth is unique

in being unlimited.

5. Increase in the girth of plant is known as/done by

(1) Primary growth (2) Apical meristem (3) Intercalary meristem (4) Secondary growth

Sol. Answer (4)

Increase in girth is secondary growth.

Increase in height is primary growth.

Chapter 12

Plant Growth and Development

Solutions

76 Plant Growth and Development Solutions of Assignment


6. Which parameter is used to measure the growth in flat organs like leaves?

(1) Increase in dry weight (2) Increase in cell size

(3) Increase in surface area (4) Increase in length

Sol. Answer (3)

The parameter is used for measuring growth in flat organs like leaves are surface area.

7. Which of the following is difficult to measure directly?

(1) Increase in protoplasm content (2) Increase in surface area

(3) Increase in dry weight (4) Increase in volume

Sol. Answer (1)

Increase in protoplasm content is difficult to measure, while surface area, volume and dry weight measurement

are easy.

8. Deposition of new materials inside the cell wall of cells starts in

(1) Meristematic phase (2) Reproductive phase (3) Maturation phase (4) Elongation phase

Sol. Answer (4)

During this phase cell elongates due to deposition of new materials inside cell wall of cell.

9. Which phase of a sigmoid curve explains the initial phase of growth when growth rate is very slow?

(1) Log phase (2) Lag phase (3) Stationary phase (4) Maturation phase

Sol. Answer (2)

Starting or initial phase.

10. ______ curve is obtained for cells in culture.

(1) J-shaped (2) Linear (3) V-shaped (4) S-shaped

Sol. Answer (4)

S-shaped curve.

Exponential

Lag

Stationary

Time

Growth

11. A Leaf of 20 cm2 grows 5 cm2 per hour and B Leaf of 25 cm2 grows 5 cm2 per hour

The relative growth rate of leaf A and B respectively is

(1) 25% and 20% (2) 20% and 25% (3) 50% and 100% (4) 25% and 50%

77Solutions of Assignment Plant Growth and Development


Sol. Answer (1)

25% & 20%

5100

20 5

10025

25% 20%

Relative growth rate = Growth per unit time

100Intial size

12. What happens to the growth of roots during water logging conditions?

(1) Growth is accelerated (2) Growth is inhibited

(3) Growth remains constant (4) First growth is accelerated and then stops

Sol. Answer (2)

Oxygen deficiency occurs due to water logging, thus growth is inhibited.

13. Which of the following is not a function of water in plants?

(1) It is responsible for cell elongation (2) It maintains the turgidity of cells

(3) It acts as a source of energy (4) It provides medium for enzymatic activities

Sol. Answer (3)

It is not producing energy. It helps in maintaining turgidity, cell elongation and in enzymatic activities.

14. Which abiotic factor is not essential for early growth of the plant but growth is sustained only in its presence?

(1) Water (2) Oxygen (3) Nutrients (4) Light

Sol. Answer (4)

Abiotic means non-living. Light is not required for early growth but growth will continue only in its presence.

Water, nutrients, oxygen are required for early growth.

15. Which factor determines the direction of movement of main root and stem?

(1) Oxygen (2) Gravity (3) Temperature (4) Nutrients

Sol. Answer (2)

Root is positive geotropic while stem is negative geotropic.

(Differentiation, Dedifferentiation and Redifferentiation)

16. Examples of lateral meristems are

(1) Phellogen and collenchyma (2) Vascular cambium and phellem

(3) Vascular cambium and cork cambium (4) Xylem and cork cambium

Sol. Answer (3)

These are structures which appear later in the life of a plant.

17. Tracheids do not collapse under extreme tension due to the presence of

(1) Strong, elastic lignocellulosic secondary cell wall (2) Thick, cellulosic primary cell wall

(3) Thin, elastic, cellulosic primary cell wall (4) Thick, hard suberised secondary cell wall



Sol. Answer (1)

Because tracheids have made themselves strong, elastic etc by process of differentiation i.e., specialised for

particular function.

18. Cork, secondary cortex and secondary xylem are formed through

(1) Dedifferentiation (2) Redifferentiation (3) Differentiation (4) Obliteration

Sol. Answer (2)

Cork, secondary cortex and secondary xylem all are secondary structure formed from dedifferentiated cell by

redifferentiation and are responsible for secondary growth.

19. Which of the following is formed after dedifferentiation?

(1) Secondary phloem (2) Secondary cortex

(3) Parenchyma (4) Interfascicular vascular cambium

Sol. Answer (4)

(Development)

20. The ability of a plant to follow different pathways and produce different structures in response to environment

is known as

(1) Heterophylly (2) Plasticity (3) Efficiency index (4) Vernalisation

Sol. Answer (2)

21. Heterophylly means

(1) The appearance of different forms of leaves on the same plant species

(2) The appearance of same form of leaves on different plants

(3) The appearance of same form of flowers on different plants

(4) The appearance of different forms of fruits on the same plant

Sol. Answer (1)

Presence of more than one type of leaves on the same plant is called heterophylly.

(Plant Growth Regulators)

22. Plant growth regulators (PGRs) are

(1) Simple organic substances of different chemical composition

(2) Complex organic substances of different chemical composition

(3) Simple and complex organic substances of same chemical composition

(4) Small organic substances of same chemical composition

Sol. Answer (1)

PGRs are simple organic substances of different chemical composition.

23. Which type of phytohormone is made up of indole compounds?

(1) Zeatin (2) ABA (3) Auxin (4) Gibberellins

Sol. Answer (3)

Indole 3-acetic acid - IAA

Indole butyric acid - IBA



24. Two synthetic auxins are

(1) IAA and IBA (2) 2, 4-D and NAA (3) IAA and NAA (4) 2, 4-D and IBA

Sol. Answer (2)

2, 4-D i.e., 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid

NAA i.e., Napthalene acetic acid are produced artificially.

25. Which phytohormone promotes falling of old leaves whereas inhibits falling of young leaves?

(1) ABA (2) Cytokinin (3) GA (4) Auxin

Sol. Answer (4)

Auxin hormone prevent falling of young leaves but promotes falling of old leaves.

26. Which auxins are used in diluted form to produce parthenocarpic fruits?

(1) IAA and IBA (2) 2, 4-D and IBA (3) NAA and GA (4) 2, 4-D and IAA

Sol. Answer (1)

IAA and IBA used in parthenocarpy.

Parthenocarpic i.e., seedless fruits are produced by using diluted form of IAA and IBA e.g., tomato.

27. Which of the following auxin is widely used as weedicide?

(1) IAA (2) IBA (3) 2, 4-D (4) NAA

Sol. Answer (3)

It is used to remove unwanted weeds/plants, having broad leaves.

28. Which of the following is not a function of gibberellic acid?

(1) Bolting (2) Delayed senescence (3) Seed germination (4) Ripening

Sol. Answer (4)

Ethylene do ripening

29. Apical dominance is stimulated by auxin whereas it is inhibited by

(1) Ethylene (2) ABA (3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinin

Sol. Answer (4)

Cytokinine is antagonistic to auxin.

30. Phytohormones responsible for cell division in callus are ______ and ______.

(1) ABA and cytokinin (2) Gibberellin and ethylene

(3) Auxin and cytokinin (4) Ethylene and cytokinin

Sol. Answer (3)

Auxin stimulates root formation and cytokinin promotes shoot formation during morphogenesis.

31. Which phytohormone is synthesised in ripened fruits?

(1) ABA (2) Auxin (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene

Sol. Answer (4)

It causes ripening of fruits.

32. Which of the following is incorrect about ethylene?

(1) Promotes root hair formation

(2) It is natural and derivative of carotenoids

(3) It increases the number of female flowers

(4) It causes synchronisation of flowering and fruit set in pineapples



Sol. Answer (2)

Ethylene synthesized from methionine.

33. Select a correct match

(1) GA3 – Early seed production in conifers. (2) Cytokinin – Synchronise fruit set in pineapples.

(3) Auxin – Overcomes senescence. (4) Ethylene – Seed maturation and development

Sol. Answer (1)

In conifers, GA3 induced the early seed production.

34. Which of the following phytohormone is a derivative of carotenoids?

(1) Auxin (2) ABA (3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin

Sol. Answer (2)

ABA - It is derivative of carotenoids, precursor of ABA is violaxanthin.

35. Match the following (Column - I with Column II)

Column I Column II

a. Ethephon (i) GA

b. Terpene (ii) Ethylene

c. Zeatin (iii) Natural auxin

d. IAA (iv) Cytokinin

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Sol. Answer (2)

Ethephon (source of ethylene) Ethylene

Terpene GA (derivative of terpenes)

Zeatin Cytokinin

I AA Natural auxin

36. Match the following (Column - I with Column II)

Column I Column II

a. Weedicide (i) GA3

b. Bolting (ii) Cytokinin

c. Thinning of cotton (iii) Ethylene

d. Lateral shoot growth (iv) 2, 4-D

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

Sol. Answer (2)

Weedicide Auxin i.e., 2, 4, D

Bolting GA

Thining of cotton Ethylene

Lateral shoot growth Cytokinin (Stimulate shoot formation)



37. Dormancy of seeds is broken by ethylene whereas it is induced by

(1) Abscisic acid (2) Auxin (3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellic acid

Sol. Answer (1)

Dormancy of seeds is induced by abscisic acid.

38. The plant hormone which closes the stomata in stressful conditions is

(1) Cytokinin (2) GA (3) Auxin (4) ABA

Sol. Answer (4)

To prevent transpiration in stressfull condition.

39. Both ethylene and ABA are responsible for

(1) Promoting the abscission of leaves and fruits (2) Inducing dormancy of seeds

(3) Stimulation of apical dominance (4) Ripening

Sol. Answer (1)

Ethylene and ABA causing shedding of leaves and fruits, flowers.

40. _________ is a period when growth and development is temporarily stopped.

(1) Dormancy (2) Abscission (3) Senescence (4) Vernalisation

Sol. Answer (1)

It is the condition of seed when it is unable to germinate inspite of availability of all environmental condition

suitable for germination.

(Photoperiodism)

41. Florigen results in conversion of

(1) Reproductive bud Vegetative bud (2) Shoot apex Flowering bud

(3) Root apex Reproductive bud (4) Vegetative bud Lateral shoot

Sol. Answer (2)

Florigen is a hormonal substance responsible for flowering, it migrates from leaves to shoot apices for inducing

flowering.

42. Which type of plants can blossom throughout the year?

(1) Long day plants (2) Short-long day plants (3) Short-day plants (4) Day neutral plants

Sol. Answer (4)

Day neutral plants i.e., no correlation between exposure to light and flower production.

43. Which of the following is an example of short day plant?

(1) Tobacco (2) Sugarbeet (3) Wheat (4) Radish

Sol. Answer (1)

Tobacco is a short day plant.

44. Most of the winter flowering plants belong to

(1) Short long day plants (2) Long day plants (3) Short day plants (4) Day neutral plants

Sol. Answer (3)

As sunlight duration is less during winters.



45. Cucumber and tomato are the examples of

(1) Day neutral plants (2) Short day plants (3) Long day plants (4) Long short day plants

Sol. Answer (1)

In cucumber and tomato flowering occurs throughout year i.e., day neutral plants.

46. The site of preception of light in plants for flowering is

(1) Stems (2) Roots (3) Leaves (4) Fruits

Sol. Answer (3)

During flowering stimulus recevied by leaves.

47. The hormonal substance which migrates from leaves to shoot apices to induce flowering is

(1) Dormin (2) Zeatin (3) Kinetin (4) Florigen

Sol. Answer (4)

Florigen is a hypothetical hormone.

(Vernalisation)

48. Some plants like sugarbeet and cabbage required low temperature for flowering. This phenomenon is called

(1) Photoperiodism (2) Parthenocarpy (3) Vernalisation (4) Abscission

Sol. Answer (3)

Low temperature treatment given to seeds to induce flowering.

49. Which of the following is incorrect about vernalisation?

(1) It prevents precocious reproductive development (2) It is observed in winter variety of wheat

(3) Flowering is stimulated by low temperature (4) It is the resting stage of seeds

Sol. Answer (4)

Vernalization is not the resting stage of seeds.

50. During vernalisation, the stimulus of low temperature is perceived by

(1) Stem apex (2) Leaves (3) Roots (4) Bark

Sol. Answer (1)

During vernalisation, the stimulus of low temperature is perceived by shoot apex of the plants.

SECTION - B


(Growth)

1. Growth in plant organs is

(1) Qualitative and extrinsic (2) Quantitative and intrinsic

(3) Qualitative and intrinsic (4) Quantitative and extrinsic

Sol. Answer (2)

Organs made up different tissues inside the plant body.

2. The growth in plants differs from growth in animals in

(1) Being localized and indefinite (2) Being indefinite

(3) Having indefinite lifespan (4) Having definite lifespan



Sol. Answer (1)

Growth in plant is unlimited, indeterminate and indefinite.

3. Find out the correct statement(s).

(a) Growth in plants is internal/intrinsic and open ended

(b) Formation of cellular materials is called real or protoplasmic growth

(c) Plant growth is diffused only during the early embryonic stage

(1) Only (a) & (b) (2) (b) only (3) Only (b) & (c) (4) (a), (b) & (c)

Sol. Answer (4)

(Differentiation, Dedifferentiation and Redifferentiation)

4. Find odd one w.r.t. differentiation

(1) Loss of nucleus in sieve (2) Death of protoplasm in tracheary elements

(3) Callus formation (4) Lignification in vessels

Sol. Answer (3)

Mass of undifferentiated cells.

5. Which of the given is/are examples of differentiation?

(1) Loss of nucleus and perforations in some sieve tube members

(2) Lignin deposition in tracheids and vessels

(3) Differential wall thickening in guard cells

(4) More than one option is correct

Sol. Answer (4)

Permanent change in structure, biochemistry, size and physiology of cell is called differentiation.

(Development)

6. Larkspur, Ranunculus and cotton plants are similar in the presence of

(1) Developmental heterophylly (2) Plasticity

(3) Environmental heterophylly (4) Homospory

Sol. Answer (2)

Plasticity : Ability of plant to follow different pathways in response to environment to form different kinds of

structures.

(Plant Growth Regulators)

7. If an etiolated stem could be first saturated with auxin by spraying and then exposed to a streak of light from

one side, it will

(1) Bend towards the light (2) Bend away from the light

(3) Grow straight upwards (4) Be prevented from growing

Sol. Answer (1)

Auxin causes phototropic response.

8. Which is not a physiological effect of auxins?

(1) Cell elongation (2) Development of parthenocarpic fruits

(3) Prevention of abscission of leaves and fruits (4) Reversal of genetic dwarfism



Sol. Answer (4)

It is shown by Gibberellins.

9. The direction of the transport of auxins is

(1) Polar in basipetal (2) Polar in acropetal

(3) Through xylem (4) Through phloem

Sol. Answer (1)

Auxin movement is polar, it is basipetal in stem.

10. Pruning of tea plants is done to discard the effects of

(1) GA3

(2) Auxin (3) Cytokinin (4) ABA

Sol. Answer (2)

To get rid of apical dominance we do trimming of tea plant.

11. Which of the following hormone is weak organic acid having unsaturated ring structures and derived from amino

acid?

(1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin (3) Gibberellins (4) Ethylene

Sol. Answer (2)

Tryptophan is the amino acid from which auxin is derived.

12. Specific property attributed to GA is

(1) Shortening of genetically tall plants (2) Elongation of genetically dwarf plants

(3) Rooting of stem cuttings (4) Promotion of leaf and fruit fall

Sol. Answer (2)

Gibberellines promote the internodal elongation

13. The plant hormone which is basic in nature?

(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins (3) Cytokinin (4) Abscisic acid

Sol. Answer (3)

Cytokinin is basic in nature while auxin, gibberelliness and abscisic acid are acidic in nature.

14. Delay of senescence or Richmond Lang effect is a physiological effect of

(1) IAA (2) CK (3) GA (4) C2H4

Sol. Answer (2)

Richmond-Lang effect A dramatic effect of cytokinins to postpone senescence in plant tissues.

15. Shelf life of vegetables and cut flowers can be increased by commercial application of

(1) Cytokinin (2) AMO1618 (3) Cyclocel (4) Phosphon-D

Sol. Answer (1)

Cytokinin acts as overcoming of senescence.

16. The phytohormone combination which is the key regulator of cell differentiation and morphogenesis is

(1) Cytokinin & IAA (2) IAA & ABA (3) IAA & GA3

(4) Cytokinin & Gibberellin

Sol. Answer (1)

Auxin and Cytokinin hormones help in morphogenesis.



17. Cytokinins are said to be antiageing hormone because they delay the senescence by

(1) Controlling mobilisation of resources (2) Controlling protein synthesis

(3) Decreased morphogenesis and high respiration (4) Both (1) & (2)

Sol. Answer (4)

Cytokinin helps in delay of senescence by mobilisation of resources and control of protein synthesis.

18. Number of female flowers can be increased by application of

(1) IAA (2) C2H4

(3) CK (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

IAA, C2H4, CK all increases the number of female flowers.

19. Triple response is shown by hormone

(1) Ethylene (2) CK (3) 2, 4-D (4) GA3

Sol. Answer (1)

Triple response include inhibition of elongation, promotion of lateral growth and swelling.

20. CH2 = CH

2 is mainly responsible for

(1) Formation of internode (2) Formation of nodes

(3) Ripening of fruits (4) Formation of internodes

Sol. Answer (3)

Ethylene is helpful in ripening of fruits.

21. The hormone which can replace long days and low temperature requirement for flowering in some plants is

(1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin (3) Vernalin (4) Ethylene

Sol. Answer (1)

Gibberelline hormone acts as substitute of vernalisation.

22. Gibberellin mediate amylase formation during germination of cereal grains is inhibited by

(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene (3) Gibberellins (4) Cytokinins

Sol. Answer (1)

Abscisic acid is antagonistic to gibberelline.

23. Select an incorrect match

(1) Tryptophan - Auxin

(2) Methionine - Ethylene

(3) tRNA - Cytokinin

(4) Violaxanthin - GA3

Sol. Answer (4)

GA3 —— Acetyl CoA

24. Which is not true for abscisic acid?

(1) Acts as antitranspirant (2) Synthesized in chloroplast from carotenoids

(3) Increases stress tolerance in plants (4) Induces epinasty of leaves and flowers

Sol. Answer (4)

Epinasty induces by ethylene.

25. Which hormone stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to

various kinds of stresses?

(1) ABA (2) Cytokinin (3) GA3

(4) Auxin



Sol. Answer (1)

It acts as antitranspirant.

26. Match the following

Column I Column II

a. Auxin (i) Root hair formation

b. Cytokinin (ii) Seed development

c. Ethylene (iii) Xylem differentiation

d. ABA (iv) Nutrient mobilisation

(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

Sol. Answer (4)

27. Condition of suspended growth due to external environmental conditions is called

(1) Dormancy (2) Rest (3) Quiescence (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (3)

It is the condition of a seed when it is unable to germinate because conditions for germination are not

available.

28. Seed dormancy in tomato seeds is due to

(1) Impermeable seed coat (2) Immature embryo

(3) Presence of ferulic acid in pulp (4) Abscisic acid in pulp

Sol. Answer (3)

In tomato, seed dormancy occurs due to presence of ferulic acid in pulp.

29. Which of the given event does not happen during seed germination?

(1) Emergence of radicle (2) Increase in rate of respiration

(3) Hydrolysis of stored polysaccharides and proteins (4) Photosynthesis by cotyledons

Sol. Answer (4)

Photosynthesis absent in cotyledons.

(Photoperiodism)

30. For flowering, critical dark period should always be exceeded in

(1) Long day plants (2) Short day plants (3) Day neutral plants (4) All type of plants

Sol. Answer (2)

They require light below critical light / photoperiod.

31. Which of the following statements does not characterize photoperiodism?

(1) Mediated by florigen hormone

(2) Conversion of shoot apex into reproductive apex

(3) Red light is stimulatory in SDP, LDP and DNP for flowering

(4) Photoperiodic stimulus is perceived by mature leaf

Sol. Answer (3)

Photoperiodic induction : The photoperiod-regulated process that occurs in the leaves resulting in the trans-

mission of floral stimulus to shoot apex is collectively as photoperiodic induction. Number of photoperiodic

induction varies from plants to plants. i.e., duration of light and dark period.



32. Hypothetical 'florigen' could be produced prematurely in long day plant by exposing it to

(1) Shortening light period (2) Red light during night

(3) Extending dark period (4) Far red light

Sol. Answer (2)

Since for long day plants fr

r

P1

P . Now day length does not have direct effect on buds but it causes leaves

to mature a hormone that moves from leaves to buds i.e., florigen in presence of red light Pr converted into

Pfr.

33. All given statements are correct w.r.t. photoperiodism, except

(1) Discovered by Garner and Allard in a variety of tobacco

(2) Stimulus is received by young leaves

(3) Florigen is the hypothetical hormone produced in response to stimulus

(4) Florigen is transported to bud through phloem

Sol. Answer (2)

Very young leaves and senescent leaves are often infective or at least less effective than mature leaves.

34. Which of the following pair is mismatched?

(1) Triticum aestivum - LDP (2) Zea mays - DNP

(3) Glycine max - SDP (4) Raphanus sativus - SLDP

Sol. Answer (4)

Radish is LDP.

(Vernalisation)

35. Which is not a requirement of vernalisation?

(1) Aerobic condition (2) Moisture (3) Low temperature (4) Differentiated tissues

Sol. Answer (4)

Vernalisation occurs at meristematic tissue.

SECTION - C


1. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of [NEET-2017]

(1) Cytokinins (2) Ethylene (3) Auxins (4) Gibberellic acid

Sol. Answer (3)

Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall.

NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit drop in Citrus.

2. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs

of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots? [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) IAA and gibberellin (2) Auxin and cytokinin

(3) Auxin and abscisic acid (4) Gibberellin and abscisic acid

Sol. Answer (2)

Auxins and cytokinin induce development of root and shoot in a culture medium (respectively).



3. Phytochrome is a [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Flavoprotein (2) Glycoprotein (3) Lipoprotein (4) Chromoprotein

Sol. Answer (4)

Photochrome is a blue-green pigment which absorb red and far red light. It is a coloured protein i.e.

chromoprotein.

4. The avena curvature is used for bioassay of [NEET-2016]

(1) Ethylene (2) ABA (3) GA3

(4) IAA

Sol. Answer (4)

Bioassay - It is a quantitative and qualitative test used to determine the nature and function of a biochemical by

using living material e.g., Avena curvature test used as bioassay for auxins.

5. Auxin can be bioassayed by [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation (2) Avena coleoptile curvature

(3) Hydroponics (4) Potometer

Sol. Answer (2)

6. Typical growth curve in plants is [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Parabolic (2) Sigmoid (3) Linear (4) Stair-steps shaped

Sol. Answer (2)

In plants typical growth curve is sigmoid.

7. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side, to bend toward the source of light as it

grows? [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there

(2) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis

(3) Green plants seek light because they are phototropic

(4) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster

Sol. Answer (1)

Auxin accumulated towards dark side and increase cell elongation, then bending occurs.

8. A few normal seedings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white-

coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Mutated (2) Embolised (3) Etiolated (4) Defoliated

Sol. Answer (3)

Yellowing of leaves due to absence of light is known as etiolation.

9. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as stress hormone? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Abscissic acid (2) Ethylene (3) GA3

(4) Indole acetic acid

Sol. Answer (1)

Synthesis of abscisic acid stimulated by drought and other adverse condition, thus it is called stress hormone.



10. Dr.F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a

bending when placed on one side of freshly - cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment?

[AIPMT-2014]

(1) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin

(2) It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances

(3) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin

(4) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins

Sol. Answer (2)

Growth Auxin

Growth Auxin

11. During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by [NEET-2013]

(1) Cytokinin (2) ABA (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene

Sol. Answer (3)

GAEmbryo Aleurone layer -Amylase, Proteases

Seed germinates ATP Sugar Starchy endosperm

12. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants?


(1) Apical dominance (2) Flowering (3) Closure of stomata (4) Fruit elongation

Sol. Answer (2)

In the presence of light, florigen migrates from shoot to buds for inducing flowers.

13. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Zeatin (2) Ethylene (3) ABA (4) IAA

Sol. Answer (3)

ABA is Anti GA.

i.e., ABA works opposite to GA.

14. Vernalisation stimulates flowering in [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Zamikand (2) Turmeric (3) Carrot (4) Ginger

Sol. Answer (3)

Vernalisation occurs in annual and biennial plants like wheat, cabbage, carrot etc.

15. Photoperiodism was first characterised in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Cotton (2) Tobacco (3) Potato (4) Tomato

Sol. Answer (2)

By Garner and Allard Found that they can flower only if plants were exposed to number of short days.



16. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (3) Phytochrome (4) Cytokinins

Sol. Answer (1)

Auxin move from illuminated site to dark site.

17. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Thermotaxis (2) Thigmotaxis (3) Thigmonasty (4) Thigmotropism

Sol. Answer (4)

18. One of the commonly used plant growth hormone is tea plantations is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Ethylene (2) Abscisic acid (3) Zeatin (4) Indole-3-acetic acid

Sol. Answer (3)

19. Root development is promoted by [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Abscisic acid (2) Auxin (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene

Sol. Answer (4)

Root development is a function of ethylene.

20. One of the synthetic auxin is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) IAA (2) GA (3) IBA (4) NAA

Sol. Answer (4)

21. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Indole-3-acetic acid (2) Gibberellic acid (3) Abscisic acid (4) Indole butyric acid

Sol. Answer (3)

Abscisic acid acts as derivative of carotenoids.

22. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is

indicated in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Floral parts (2) Vessels and tracheid differentiation

(3) Leaf abscission (4) Annual plants

Sol. Answer (3)

Ageing Shedding

23. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Petunia (2) Lemna (3) Tobacco (4) Cotton

Sol. Answer (3)

Photoperiodism observed in tobacco by Garner and Allard.

24. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) IAA (2) GA (3) ABA (4) 2, 4 – D

Sol. Answer (2)

First this hormone was discovered in rice seedling, in which some plants were tall and some were dwarf, due

to fungi Gibberella fujikuroi and called this disease "Bakane" (foolish seedling disease).



25. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Autonomic movement of growth (2) Autonomic movement of locomotion

(3) Autonomic movement of variation (4) Paratonic movement of growth

Sol. Answer (1)

Autonomic movement of growth A Plant movement that results from internal growth changes and is

independent of changes in external environment.

26. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) IAA – Cell wall elongation (2) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure

(3) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall (4) Cytokinin – Cell division

Sol. Answer (3)

ABA promotes abscission.

27. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) 660 nm (2) 720 nm (3) 620 nm (4) 640 nm

Sol. Answer (1)

660 nm

r fr730 nm

P P��⇀�↽��

28. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock

(2) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

(3) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

(4) It releases wound hormones

Sol. Answer (2)

29. Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called :


(1) Scarification (2) Vernalization (3) Chelation (4) Stratification

Sol. Answer (4)

Low temperature treatment of seed for germination is called stratification.

30. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) -amylase (2) Lipase (3) Protease (4) Invertase

Sol. Answer (1)

31. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause

decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?


(1) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll

(2) Frequent irrigation of the crop

(3) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer

(4) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5-trichlorophenoxy acetic

acid

Sol. Answer (3)

Cytokinin will delay senescence, promotes cell division and fertilizers will make the soil fertile.



32. The ability of the venus flytrap to capture insects is due to : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Chemical stimulation by the prey

(2) A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant

(3) Specialized “muscle-like” cells

(4) Rapid turgor pressure changes

Sol. Answer (4)

33. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout

the year by application of

(1) IAA, IBA (2) NAA, 2, 4-D (3) Phenyl acetic acid (4) Cytokinin

Sol. Answer (2)

Auxin induces flowering in pineapple and litchi

34. If the growing plant is decapitated, then

(1) Its growth stops (2) Leaves become yellow and fall down

(3) Axillary buds are inactivated (4) Axillary buds are activated

Sol. Answer (4)

Due to presence of auxin at tip axillary bud are unable to develop into leaves, i.e., apical dominance but if

we remove tip then they can develop.

35. The movement of auxin is largely

(1) Centripetal (2) Basipetal (3) Acropetal (4) Both (1) & (3)

Sol. Answer (2)

From tip to base.

36. 2, 4-D is an effective

(1) Rodenticide (2) Wormicide (3) Fungicide (4) Weedicide

Sol. Answer (4)

2, 4-D is an auxin used to remove unwanted plants with crops.

37. Which one among the following chemicals is used for causing defoliation of forest trees?

(1) Malic hydrazide (2) 2, 4-D (3) AMO-1618 (4) Phosphon D

Sol. Answer (2)

2, 4-D is used as weedicides.

38. If the apical bud has been removed then we observe

(1) More lateral branches (2) More adventitious buds

(3) Plant growth stops (4) Flowering stops

Sol. Answer (1)

Loss of apical dominance.

39. Which of the following prevents the fall of fruits?

(1) GA3

(2) NAA (3) Ethylene (4) Zeatin

Sol. Answer (2)

Auxin prevents abscision.



40. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone

(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Ethylene (4) Abscissic acid

Sol. Answer (1)

Precursor : Tryptophan require Zn2+ for its synthesis.

41. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(1) Stationary phase (2) Senescent phase (3) Lag phase (4) Exponential phase

Sol. Answer (4)

The growth rate is maximum in exponential phase.

42. Gibberellic acid induces flower

(1) In short day plants under long day conditions (2) In day-neutral plants under dark conditions

(3) In some gymnospermic plants only (4) In long day plants under short day conditions

Sol. Answer (4)

GB

AnthesinFlorigen

Under short day condition GB will be deficient but anthesin is sufficient, so if we provide GB then it

induces flower.

43. Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber?

(1) Gibberellin (2) IAA (3) ABA (4) Zeatin

Sol. Answer (1)

Gibberellin breaks the dormancy and promote germination.

44. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to

(1) Indole acetic acid (2) Cytokinins (3) Gibberellins (4) Ethylene

Sol. Answer (3)

Shows process of bolting, causes stem elongation in rosette plants.

45. Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissues that are

(1) Senescent (2) Dividing rapidly (3) Storing food material (4) Differentiating

Sol. Answer (2)

Cytokinins are synthesized in rapidly dividing cells.

46. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by

(1) High auxin : cytokinin ratio (2) High cytokinin : auxin ratio

(3) High gibberellin : auxin ratio (4) High gibberellin : cytokinin ratio

Sol. Answer (2)

Auxin1 Root

Cytokinin

CY1 Shoot

Auxin



47. Coconut milk factor is

(1) Auxin (2) A Gibberellin (3) Abscissic acid (4) Cytokinin

Sol. Answer (4)

Coconut milk also has cytokinin.

48. Which combination of gases is suitable for fruit ripening?

(1) 80% CH4 and 20% CO

2(2) 80% CO

2 and 20% O

2

(3) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO

2(4) 80% CO

2 and 20% CH

2

Sol. Answer (3)

Ethylene causes fruits ripening

49. Which hormone is responsible for fruit ripening?

(1) Ethylene (2) Auxin (3) Ethyl chloride (4) Cytokinin

Sol. Answer (1)

Ethylene is fruit ripening hormone.

50. ABA is involved in

(1) Shoot elongation (2) Increased cell division (3) Dormancy of seeds (4) Root elongation

Sol. Answer (3)

ABA is growth inhibitor.

51. Hormone responsible for senescence

(1) ABA (2) Auxin (3) GA (4) Cytokinin

Sol. Answer (1)

Growth inhibiting hormone.

52. By which action a seed coat becomes permeable to water?

(1) Scarification (2) Stratification (3) Vernalization (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (1)

Removal of seed coat or weakening of seed coat is called scarification.

53. The response of different organisms to the environmental rhythms of light and darkness is called

(1) Vernalization (2) Photoperiodism (3) Phototaxis (4) Phototropism

Sol. Answer (2)

The effect of light duration for flowering is known as photoperiodism.

54. Which plant is LDP?

(1) Tobacco (2) Glycine max (3) Mirabilis jalapa (4) Spinach

Sol. Answer (4)

Spinach is long day plants.



55. Proteinaceous pigment which control the activities concerned with light

(1) Phytochrome (2) Chlorophyll (3) Anthocyanin (4) Carotenoids

Sol. Answer (1)

Phytochrome is the photoreceptor pigment.

56. One set of the plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in

the other set night phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did not produce flower. Under which one of

the following categories will you place other set of plant?

(1) Long day (2) Darkness neutral (3) Day neutral (4) Short day

Sol. Answer (4)

Short day plant are actually long night plant, when night phase was interrupted by flash of light, it did not

produce flower.

57. What will be the effect on phytochrome in a plant subjected to continuous red light?

(1) Phytochrome synthesis will increase (2) Level of phytochrome will decrease

(3) Phytochrome will be destroyed (4) First (2) then (1)

Sol. Answer (4)

In continuous red light Pr gets converted to P

fr i.e., P

r level decreasing, at same time P

fr synthesis increases.

58. The pigment, that absorbs red and far red light in plants, is

(1) Phytochrome (2) Carotene (3) Xanthophyll (4) Cytochrome

Sol. Answer (1)

Red light

r frFar red light

P P��⇀�↽��

59. Phytochrome becomes active in

(1) Red light (2) Green light (3) Blue light (4) None of these

Sol. Answer (1)

Red light

r frP P��⇀

↽��

60. The viability of seeds is tested by

(1) Safranin (2) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols

(3) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (4) DMSO

Sol. Answer (3)

2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride is a white salt which gives a colourless solution in water. In living cells,

it gets hydrated to red formazan. Accordingly the red staining of seed endosperm or embryo indicate viability

of seed.

61. The twinning of tendrils around a support is a good example of

(1) Phototropism (2) Chemotropism (3) Nastic movements (4) Thigmotropism

Sol. Answer (4)

It is growth with respect to touch, enables roots to grow around obstacles and is responsible for ability of shoots

of climbing plants to wrap around other structures for support.



62. The closing and opening of the leaves of Mimosa pudica is due to

(1) Seismonastic movement (2) Chemonastic movement

(3) Thermonastic movement (4) Hydrotropic movement

Sol. Answer (1)

Seismonastic movement

Diffused movement

Response to non-directional shock stimulus; e.g., when lightly struck / shaken.

SECTION - D


1. A : If a plant is kept horizontally, auxin accumulates on lower surface.

R : Displacement of statoliths and other cell organelles to lower surface modifies the translocation pattern of

auxin.

Sol. Answer (1)

At tip of each root there are cells that contain membrane bound starch grain called statoliths Gravity sensor

in plants.

2. A : Only bud, or embryo can be vernalized.

R : Vernalization requires dividing cells.

Sol. Answer (1)

Bud, embryo has dividing cells.

3. A : Phytochrome, a protein, has regulatory function.

R : Various morphogenetic processes are regulated by it.

Sol. Answer (1)

Phytochrome is a protein, regulates. Flowering in short day and long day plants.

4. A : Auxins treatment cause acidification of cellwall and help in cell elongation.

R : Loosening of cell wall microfibrils occurs.

Sol. Answer (1)

Auxin makes Cell wall Acidic

Enzyme (Epansin)

diluted (low pH)

breaks H-bondsCellulosenetwork

Looser up

New cell material

Elongation of cell



5. A : Cytokinins are anti ageing hormones.

R : They cause changes in osmotic potential by increasing the volume of mature cells.

Sol. Answer (2)

Cytokinins delay the senescence i.e., antiageing hormone and increase the mobilisation of elements.

6. A : Gibberellic acid increases the yield of malt from barley grain.

R : Gibberellins stimulate the synthesis of amylase, protease and other hydrolytic enzymes for mobilisation of

reserve food.

Sol. Answer (1)

EmbryoGA

Aleurone layer

Hydrolytic enzymes

( - amylase)Starchy endosperm

SugarATPSeed germination

Enzyms

MaltoseBeer(Malt)

7. A : 2, 4-D is widely used by farmers in agricultural and horticultural practices.

R : Flowering in most plants can be initiated by using high concentration of Auxin.

Sol. Answer (3)

2, 4D to remove weeds.

Florigen flowers

8. A : Cytokinin along with the auxin are required for morphogenesis.

R : More cytokinin to auxin ratio promote root initiation during micropropagation.

Sol. Answer (3)

Cytokin

Auxin ratio promotes shots and roots.

Cytokin Auxin1 Shoot, 1 Root

Auxin Cytokin

9. A : Seeds do not sprout when ABA is overcome by Gibberellins.

R : GA inhibits protein and RNA synthesis.

Sol. Answer (4)

Seeds/buds sprout only when ABA is overcome by gibberellins. ABA inhibits protein and RNA synthesis.

10. A : Soyabean and sugarbeet flower when they are exposed to a photoperiod shorter than critical period.

R : Most of winter flowering plants are LDP.

Sol. Answer (4)

Soyabean Short day plant.

Sugerbeet – Long day plant.

Winter flowers – SDP.

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