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(APU AND AIRCRAFT GENERAL) COCKPIT L PACK R PACK CABIN
APU AIR COLDER A COLD HOT COLD HOT I STOP STOP
R MAN MAN AUTO RAM AIR APU AIR PACK SD AVNCS FAN
L ENG R ENG
1 2 PULL/TURN APU AGENT 3 MASTER START
AGENT DISCH
1) How does the APU prevent an overload conditions and maintains generator output?
The APU will automatically cutback air output.
2) True or false. The APU supply pneumatics air conditioning and electric during flight operation?
FALSE THE APU air switch must be off during flight unless the APU is required to assist in starting an engine.
3) When staring engines with the APU, what is the position of the air condition back switches?
Off
4) What is the max start time for the APU in the start mode?
120 second (2 minute).
5) What is the function of the APU (ECU) electronic controll unit?
staring
stopping
Speed coverning.
6) When will the APU auto shutdown?
APU fire
over speed
OFF OFF
ON
OVRDON ON
OVRD
ONAPU FIR
DISCH
LOW
7) If APU OIL PRESS LO or APU FAULT is displayed on EAD alert, what will hapen to the APU?
In flight the APU will continue to run, it will shutdown 10 minute after landing.
8) What does the APU colder switch do?
It closes the turbine nozzle shutoff valve to provide colder air but at reduced volume.
9) Explain the function of the APU RAM door?
APU doors (powered pay dc motor) GROUND FLIGHT
TOW FLUSH DOORS OPEN IF APU RUNNING OPEN IF APU RUNNING
RAM DOOR OPEN DURING:
1) ENGINE START
2) L OR R PACKS IS ON
OPEN FOR HIGH ALTTUDE AND
GENERATOR PERFORMANCE.
RAM DOOR WILL RETRACT TO PREVENT DOOR STRIKING THE RUNWAY WHEN:
1) APU MASTER SWITCH OR
2) APU AIR SWITCH IS OFF.
10) What will happen when you pull the APU fire handle?
APU goes to emergency shutdown.
Fire extinguishing is armed.
APU generator failed is de-energized.
APU fuel valve closes
11) If an APU fault alert is displayed, what is the first step in the procedure when on the ground?
Push the APU master switch to the off position.
12) If only dc power is available, which fuel pump must be used to start the APU?
The start pump.
13) How long will the APU continue to operate after pushing the APU master switch to the off position?
60 second cool down period.
14) Fuel is normally supplied to the APU from which fuel tank?
Right main tank.
15) If an APU alert is dispelled in flight, what is the correct procedure for immediately shutting down the APU?
Pull, but do not rotate the fire handle.
16) If AC power is available, which fuel pump may be used to start the APU?
One of the right mains or the center tank pumps.
17) When starting the APU, which position must the BAT switch be in?
On position.
18) If an APU fault alert is displayed in flight and no crew action is taken, when will the APU automatically shut down?
10 minute after landing.
19) At what temperature should the APU AIR COLDER be selected?
24C or higher.
20) What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
FL 350.
21) When will the wing landing lights retract automatically?
When single engine fail wing landing lights will extinguish and retract automatically when landing gear is retracted after take off or go-around.
22) When does the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING signs illuminate regardless of the switch position?
When ever cabin altitude exceeds 10.000 feet.
23) Where does waste water from the lavatory wash basin drain?
Through the heated drain mast.
24) When the THUNDRSTORM LT switch is in the on position, what occurs?
Individual lighting controls are bypassed and all cockpit flood lights increase to maximum intensity.
25) Where is cabin lights controlled from?
The forward and aft attendant panel and the cockpit.
26) How is the portable water tank normally pressurized?
By the pneumatic air system.
27) Which switches control the emergency lights?
The emergency lights switch on the forward cabin attendant’s panel and the EMER LTS switch on the overhead
Panel.
NO SEAT SMOKE BELTS
OFFAUTO
ON
28) What is (EIS) system for and what is it consist off?
The (EIS) Electronic instrument system, displays alerts on the CRTs. And it consist of:
Master warning and caution lights
EAD (Engine and alert display)
SD (system display)
SCP (system control panel)
29) What is the computer that drives the Du and display data to the display units?
There are three computers that drive the display unit and provide data
VIA1 and VIA 2 tow versatile integrated avionics units.
DCU and one data concentrator unit.
30) How many alerts level we have?
Four alert level 3,2,1,0 .
31) When is level 3 alert inhibited during takeoff?
From V1 to 400 feet RA but no longer than 25 seconds
Except engine fire only master warning light are inhibited at V1.
32) When is level (2 or 1) alert inhibited during takeoff?
At throttle advance or 80 knots or V1-20 knots, to 400 Feet RA or in flight for 25 second.
Or to 1000 Feet pressure altitude above airport or in flight for 120 second.
33) When is level ( 0 ) alert inhibited during takeoff?
Level ( 0 ) alerts are not inhibited .
34) When is level ( 3 ) alerts inhibited during landing?
Level ( 3 ) are not inhibited during landing.
35) When is level ( 2 or 1 ) alerts inhibited during landing ?
From 1000 Feet pressure altitude above field elevation to 80 Knots Ground speed, but no longer than 120 second.
36) When is level ( 0 ) alerts inhibited during landing ?
They are not inhibited during landing.
37) When will the takeoff warning sound?
1) STAB not in the green band. 5) SPOILERS is not armed
2) FLAPS in not in the takeoff position. 6) AUTOBRAKE ARMED & AUTOSPOILERS NOT ARMED.
3) SLATS are not in the takeoff position. 7) AUTOBRAKE is not armed & AUTOSPOILERS armed
4) PARKING BRAKE is on.
38) When is the landing warning sound?
1) LANDING GEAR not down.
2) FLAPS are not in landing. 3) SPOILERS not arm.
39) When does the voice recorder system start recording, and how long does it records?
The (VCR) continuously record the last 2 hours of cockpit sounds and communication any time there is
Electrical power on the right radio bus.
40) How do you test the (VCR) system?
By pushing the TEST button and it will perform a self test,
A successful test is indicated by illumination of the STATUS light for one second.
42) When does the (DFDR) Digital flight data recorder system operates?
1-Flight RCDR switch is in NORM
2-Parking brake is released
3-either fuel switch is on.
43) How long will the (DFDR) store data information?
25 hours of flight operation.
44) What is the power source for the VOICE RECORDER?
The right radio bus.
45)
COCKPIT VOICE RECORDER MICROPHON MONITER
TEST
STATUS HEADPHONE
INOP
DCX-TIE
L DC R DC
L BUS TIE R BUS TIE
L AC R AC
L GEN APU EXT R GEN
EMER PWR
RESET RESET RESET
ARM
OFF ON BAT GALLEY
1) What does the EXTERNAL POWER AVIL light mean?
The voltage and frequency limits are satisfied.
2) What will happen when you place the EMER PWR switch to on position?
The flowing are powered from the BATTERY:
The BAT BUS, the BAT DIRECT BUS,
Emergency AC, EMERGENCY DC, and the DC TRANSFER BUS.
3) How long will the BAT power last when AC power is not available?
45 minute.
4) When will the automatic emergency power activation be inhibited?
When both fuel switches are in the off position.
5) When can the APU or the EXTERNAL power the GROUND SERVICE BUS?
When the Right Generator BUS is not powered.
6) What is the minimum BAT Volts?
25 Volts.
7) How many generator-reset attempts are allowed?
One.
Closed
ClosedOFF
ClosedOFF
AvailOFF
AvailOFF
OFF OFF
OFF OFF
OFF ON
8) Which component provides protection function to the left and right generation and distribution system?
The (EPCO) Electrical power control unit.
9) What does the EPCU automatically close to satisfy power requirements?
BUSTIE relays.
10) When does the battery provide power to the DC TRANSFER BUS?
When DC power is not available.
11) When a bus DC TRANSFER off condition occurs, what systems are not available?
Fire detection and protection.
12) What is the normal and the alternate source for the following items?
ITEMSNORMAL SOURCE
ALTERNATE SOURCE
AC EMR L AC BUS R AC BUS OR THE INVERTER FROM THEBAT
DC EMR L DC BUS R DC BUS OR BAT
GROUND SERVES (GS) R AC BUS APU OR EXT POWER
DC TRANSFER (DCXFR) L DC BUS TR#2 (WHENAPU OR EXT IS POWERING GROUND SERVICE BUS)
L DC BUS L TRs R DC VIE THE DC X-TIE SWITCH
R DC BUS R TRs L DC VIE THE DC X-TIE SWITCH
BATTERY AC EMR & DC EMR & DC TRANSFER BUS
13) In flight with only one electrical power source for the GALLEY, how is the GALLEY power affected?
It is not powered.
14) What will happen when you select the DCX-TIE to close?
You will close the DC cross-tie relay and connects the left and the right DC buses.
15) What buses will be powered when you select the BAT switch to ON before normal AC connection?
The BAT will power the following:
1- BAT DIRECT BUS 2- BAT BUS 3- AC EMER
4- DC EMER 5- DC XFR.
16) In the (TIE FEED FAULT) alert massage procedure, Why we shutdown the right engine after landing?
To prevent draining the battery. Since the battery well be powering the AC EMR& DC EMR& DC TRANSFER
BUS.
FADEC MODE IGN
L ENG R ENG
E
N ENG START
G N1 SYNC L R
1) Where does the engine EPR data measured from?
From EEC (Electronic engine controls)
2) When is the EEC powered?
Power is provided to the EECs when the Electrical EMER PWR selector is on the ARM or the ON position.
3) Where does the EEC channels receives data from?
Throttle position
Total air pressure
Total air temperature
TAT
Pressure altitude
N1, N2 , and EGT.
4) List six function controlled by the EEC?
Ignition
Fuel ON/OFF valve
Start valve
Reverses
Engine acceleration and deceleration limits
EPR
5) What limit do you have on the engine if you are operating in the N1 mode?
Full throttle will cause the EEC to control the engine to over rated thrust 100% N1, but EGT is not monitored.
SELECT
ALTN
SELECT
ALTN
OVRD
ON
6) What will happen if you select the N1 SYNC switch to ON position?
Normally the engine are operating in EPR SYNC mode (the left EEC matches its EPR command to the right EEC)
But when N1 switch is selected, the left N1 is matched to the right N1.
7) What is (ATR) system and how does it works?
ATR is Automatic thrust restoration system
It is a feature that increases thrust after a thrust cutback on take off in the event of an engine failure,
The throttles will unclamp and move to reach TOGA EPR limit.
8) When (ATR) is armed?
FD is in the takeoff mode
The airplane is above 350 Feet RA
Thrust cutback has been preformed or throttles are manually retarded.
9) When ATR is activated?
It is activated when :
1) A difference of 65psi burner pressure between engines
2) A difference of 14-16% of N1
3) The airplane vertical speed decreases to less than zero for 5 second.
10) When ATR is disengaged?
Engine surge is detected in both engine
Engine surge is detected with engine failure in the other engine
Engine surge is detected after ATR is activated
11) At what N2 % does the start switch light extinguishes and returns to OFF position?
43 %
12) When does the EEC auto-abort ENG start?
Hot start , Hung start , NO N1, Ignition failure , EEC control of igniter/starter valve lost
Engine surge, EGT failure.
13) When does the EEC auto-abort deactivate?
In flight, N2 is at idle, During BATTERY start, and when Engine ignition switch is in the OVRD position.
14) When are the thrust reverse control signals send to the EEC?
When weight is sensed on the main wheels
Throttles are in reveres position
N2 is 6.7% or more.
15) In the event of an engine fire, when will the fuel switch light extinguished.
When the respective fuel switch is placed off.
16) What does a red “REV” message on the EAD mean?
The reverse lever is pulled through the aft détente and engines are in emergency reverse.
17) What is the normal oil pressure?
80-370 psi. Pressure between 60 and 79 psi shall be tolerated only for completion of the flight.
18) What is the MAX oil TEMP?
155 C.
19) What is the MAX transit oil TEMP allowed for 15 minute?
165 C
20) What is the MAX EGT start on ground?
635 C
21) What is the MAX continuous EGT?
610 C
21) During engine start, at what N2 are the fuel switch moves to ON?
MAX motoring.
22) During landing, at what IAS should the reverse lever be moved toward idle détente?
80 Knots.
23) Before shutdown what is the recommended time to run the engine at Idle?
5 minute.
24) After initial fuel flow indication, how much time should be given for EGT to rise?
20 second.
25) What are the minimum and the maximum oil Quantity?
Minimum is 5 quarts and maximum is 27 ½ quarts.
(FIRE PROTECTION)
1) What will happen when Engine fire handle is pulled?
Silence the aural warning
Actuates the generator shutoff switch
Shut off engine fuel at both the main tank and the engine
Shut off HYD pump
Close the pneumatic cross feed valve
Arm fir-extinguishing agent.
2) During ENG/APU fire check with battery only, what indications are received?
Engine and APU fire lights and aural warnings.
3) How many fire bottles are installed on the airplane for extinguishing engine and APU fires?
Three.
4) What are the indications for an engine fire?
Fire handles illumination, Fire bill and Aural warning sound.
5) How does the crew determines the fire extinguisher agent have been discharged?
The associated agent low light illuminates and the fire agent low alert is displayed on the EAD.
6) How is the fire extinguisher activate in the lavatory?
Temperature activated.
7) What is the normal position for the loops switches before a fire test?
All loop switches to both.
AGENT AGENT DISCH DISCH
FIRE FIRE FAULT TEST BELL OFF TEST
AGENT 1LOW
AGENT 2LOW
L
ENG
FIRE
PULL
R
ENG
FIRE
PULL
ENG FIRE DET SYSAPU
LOOPS A
BOTH
L ENG B R ENG LOOPS LOOPS A A BOTH BOTH B B
8) What is the first action before accomplishing a fire test?
Verify the master caution and the master warning lights are extinguished.
9) If the APU auto shutdown due to fire, but the APU fire extinguisher fail to discharge, what will you do?
Pull the APU fire handle, then discharge the agent.
9) What bus powers the fire protection and detection?
DC transfer BUS.
L ENG R ENG
X FEED ALTN FUEL BURN
1) When will the fuel level low alert is displayed on the EAD?
When either main thank reach 1135 Kg.
2) When will the center fuel pressure low alert is inhibited?
When flaps are extended approximately 6 degrees or greater.
3) What is the difference between AC boost pumps and the START pump?
The AC pumps are protected by thermal switch that will remove all electrical
Power from the pump when over heat condition is detected.
The DC START pump dos not have over heat protection, but it is cooled by the fuel in the right main tank.
4) What is the power source of the DC START pump?
From the DC transfer bus.
5) What is the (RTT) system for and how does it work?
It helps prevent the formation of wing ice during icing condition.
This system returns some of the fuel that routed through the fuel/oil heat exchanger to the inboard corner of the main
Tanks where icing most likely accrues.
When the main tank is full, the fuel is vented into the center tank.
6) How the aircraft can be fueled if AC power is not available?
Only the left and the right main tanks can be fueled by gravity through the over wing fuel caps.
7) What is the ALT FUEL burn switch for?
L ENG R ENG
X FEED ALTN FUEL BURN
OFF
OFF
OFF OFF
OFF
OFF
OFF
ON
B
(AFB) The alternate fuel burn switch it helps preventing wing ice formation by burning fuel in the main tanks earlier than normal schedule, this creates an air pocket between the cold fuel and the upper wing surface.
Center tank fuel is consumed to approximately 1360 Kg
Main tank fuel is consumed to approximately 1815 Kg
Then the remaining center tank fuel is used
Finally, the remaining main tank fuel is used until landing.
8) What is the total fuel weight in all tanks.
17740 Kg.
9) What is the max and the min fuel temp?
Max 50 C. Min –46.6 C.
10) When is the LAT FUEL UNBAL alert displayed in the EAD?
When main tank fuel differ by more than 680 Kgs
11) What crew action is required when a center tank pump has failed?
Push the failed center tank fuel pump switch to the OFF position.
12) How do you exit the fuel system test function?
Push the fuel system button.
13) Where is the total useable fuel weight displayed?
On the fuel synoptic
14) What is the indication for low pressure of either center tank fuel pump?
The CTR FUEL PRES LO alert displayed on the EAD and a failed pump indication on the synoptic.
15) What does the FUEL OFF SCHEDULE alert indicates?
Either main tank has low fuel while center tank has usable fuel.
16) When will the start pump symbol and the associated fuel lines display on the synoptic?
When the START pump switch is selected on.
17) When will the SEL CTR PUMPS OFF alert be displayed during normal fuel burn?
When center tank quantity is less than 225 Kgs for 3 ½ minutes.
18) Which tank will supply both engine and the APU with all of the pumps operating?
Center tank.
19) when testing the fuel system, which alerts should be displayed on the synoptic with start fuel pump on and the
Fuel cross-feed off?
INLET L FUEL PRESS.
1) What is the function of the flow control valve?
Limits the maximum air flow
Protect against overheating.
2) When will the PACK R/L OVERHEAT will be displayed on the EAD?
When the compressor discharge turbine inlet or supply duct temperature is excessive.
3) Where is the RAM AIR valve located?
The right AIR-condition system.
4) Which cargo compartment is heated, and from where does it take its heat?
The forward cargo compartment by venting heated air from the E&E compartment, plus it has a fan
And heater assembly to maintain the forward portion of the compartment above freezing.
5) What temp does the water separator regulate to?
1 C.
6) When is the 1 C control deactivated?
In COLD, HOT,STOP,and MAN position.
7) Where does the E&E compartment gets it’s cooling from?
From cockpit exhaust air.
8) Explain the function of the AVNCS FAN air on the ground and on flight?
L PACK R PACK COCKPIT CABIN AUTO AUTO
APU AIR COLDER
COLD HOT COLD HOT STOP STOP MAN MAN RAM AIR APU AIR AVNCE FAN
AUTO PACK SD
L ENG R ENG
OFF
ON
OVRD
ON
ON
OFF
OVRD
On ground: the AVNCS AIR FLO OFF alert is displayed only when there is a failure of the primary fan.
IN flight: failure of the primary fan causes the standby fan automatically operate.
Failure of both fans causes the AVNCS AIR FLO OFF alert to be displayed on the EAD.
9) What happen when the AVNCS FAN is placed on the OVERIDE?
The radio rack fan goes off
And the venture valve opens, and the air is exhausts overboard.
10) Where does the heat exchanger left and right air fans draw air from?
The left system fan draws air from the RAM AIR
The right system draws air from the tail compartment.
11) Does the heat exchanger fans operate on flight?
NO. Air is supplied through RAM air ducts.
12) When does the CABIN AIR recalculation fan operate?
It automatically operates after lift off.
And on ground when the temperatures between 7 C to 29 C.
13) What does the A-ICE MANF FAIL alert when its display on the EAD?
A burst ICE protection ducting.
14) What position should the pneumatic cross feed valves be in when starting engines?
Both valves open.
15) What does the air pneumatic provide air to?
1) Air condition 2) cabin pressurization
3) ICE protection 4) Engine starting
5) Potable water tank pressurization.
16) What does the AIR MANF L/R FAIL mean?
An over heat condition in the aft accessory compartment or in the pylons.
17) From what stage does the low pressure and high-pressure bleed air come ?
Low pressure from the 7th stage and high pressure from the 10th stage.
18) When does the bleed require high stage bleed air support?
Descent
Idle throttle setting
Ice protection requirements
Single bleed operation.
19) In the AUTO mode, when does the aircraft start to pressurize?
When the throttles are advanced for take off.
But if the aircraft is not air born within 60 seconds the cabin will depressurize.
20) What position must the CABIN ALT control lever be in to establish air condition on the ground?
AUTO and valve open.
21) What is the normal differential pressure? 7.77 psi +0.3 psi.
22) What is the MAX differential pressure? 8.07 psi.
23) What is the relief valve pressure? 8.32 psi.
24) When will the Packs auto shut down?
When excessive temperature is detected in the following:
- Compressor discharge - turbine inlet - supply duct.
25) How many outflow valve we have?
We have two outflow valves controlled by one actuator, they are mechanically interconnected to operate in the
Proper sequence.
A butterfly valve: controls pressurization at low differential pressure.
A nozzle valve : controls pressurization at high differential pressure.
26) What is the function of the outflow valve actuator?
It receives input from cabin pressure selector panel through either primary or standby during automatic
Pressurization and adjusts outflow butterfly and/or nozzle to maintain pressurization.
In manual pressurization it well declutched
1) Which of the cockpit windows are anti-iced and which are defogged only?
The pilot three windshields are anti-iced and defogged.
The clear view and the overhead window are defogged only.
2) What will be ANT-ICED when L/R ENG switches are on?
The ENG nose cowl, and fuselage strakes.
3) What will happen when you select L/R AIRFOIL ANTI-ICE?
Wing slat ANTI-ICE is accomplished (activation on flight only).
4) What will happen when you push the tail-de-ice?
The flow of heated air is diverted from the wing slats to the horizontal stabilizer for 2.5 minutes,
Then the flow automatically reverts back to the wing slat ducts.
5) When is the wing ice detection system activated?
On ground only.
6) What does the wing ICE-DCT reset switch do?
It reset the system and remove alert message. But the system will not reset if ice remain on the sensor.
7) When is the FOD (foreign object damage) alert message in the EAD is inhibited?
Five seconds after both throttles are advanced to the takeoff power,
And in flight.
8) When will both wings ANTI-ICE and tail DE-ICE be commended on during approach for landing and icing conditions?
After selecting flaps 40 degrees.
ANTI-ICE L ENG R ENG L - AIR FOIL - R
WING ICE DET
WINDSHLD TAIL RESET
ANTI-ICE DEFOG
TEST
ON ON
ONOFF
ONON
9) Where are the pneumatic cross-feed valve levers positioned when airfoil ANTI-ICE is required?
Open.
10) What should the wind SHLD ANTI-ICE and DEFOG switches indicates prior leaving the airplane?
OFF and dark.
11) When operating for extended periods on the ground in icing condition, what should be done with the engine
Every 15 minutes?
Run each engine up to a minimum of 50% N1.
12) What does the A- ICE MANF fail alert indicate?
An ANTI-ICE manifold has failed or ruptured and an over temperature condition is detected near the manifold.
13) What should be done prior to turning airfoil ANTI-ICE of in flight?
Initiate and complete the tail DE-ICE procedure.
14) When should tail DE-ICE be initiated during approach for landing in icing condition?
Approximately one minute prior to extension of landing flaps.
15) When is the wing ice detection system is functional?
On the ground only.
16) When tail DE-ICEING is required and often should it be cycled?
Every 20 minutes.
17) When ICE condition are anticipated after takeoff, when should air foil ANTI-ICE be selected on?
Prior starting the takeoff roll.
18) When the electrical resistance ANTI-ICE heating system is energized?
When moving the METER SEL&HEAT out of the OFF position.
19) When selected during cockpit preparation, which air data sensor displays a zero reading on the heater cur meter?
RAT probe.
METER SEL & HEAT AUX F/O PITOT RUD CAPT LIM
OFF STALL PROBE RAT PROBE R R L STATIC
0 10
1) What is the power source for the AUX pump?
L AC BUS.
2) What is the minimum speed when operating manual rudder control?
135 KIAS.
3) What is the purpose of the reservoir quantity reference line?
Aids in monitoring system leakage.
4) When is the HYD L FAIL or HYD R FAIL alert displayed on the EAD?
When a HYD system cannot be pressurize.
5) During a HYD right quantity low condition when can the system be pressurized for landing?
When any HYD fluid remains.
6) What are the things that cannot be recovered hydraulically if you lose the right system?
Landing gear ( recovered by the emergency gear extension handle)
Right nose wheel cylinder steering. (recovered by the left nose wheel cylinder with limited turns to the left)
Out board flight spoilers
Rudder ( recovered by manual Rudder)
Ventral stairway ( recovered by manual operation, extension only)
Right thrust reverses. ( accumulator pressure available)
MACH TRIM COMP
YAW DAMP HYD CONT OFF ELEV ON
OVRD
L SYS XFER PUMP R SYS AUX PUMP
HY L ENG PUMP R ENG PUMPD
ON
OFF OFF
ON
OFF
OFF
7) What are the things that cannot be recovered hydraulically if you lose the left system?
Left nose wheel cylinder steering ( recovered by the right cylinder with limited turn to the right)
Inboard flight spoilers
Pylon flap
Left thrust reverser. (accumulator pressure available)
8) What message is displayed on the synoptic if a HYD fluid over heat condition is detected?
TEMP HI.
9) During cockpit preparation, what is the first step prior to checking the HYD control panel?
Call up the HYD synoptic page.
10) When landing with no HYD pressure, what position should the AUTO BRAKE selector be in?
OFF.
11) When landing with no HYD pressure, what position should the GND PROX WARN switch be in?
FLAP OVRD.
12) Why are the AUXILIARY and the TRANSFER PUMP activated prior to take off?
To provide an additional source of HYD pressure if an engine fail during takeoff.
13) How is a pump low-pressure condition displayed on the synoptic?
The letter P is displayed next to the pump.
14) What is the purpose of the transfer pump?
It mechanically provides pressure from an operating source to a UN pressurized system.
1) What is the function of the (ACU) auxiliary control unit?
It provide automatic control and monitoring of flight control function, like:
1- ELEV load feel 2- Horizontal stabilizer in motion detector
3-ELEV HYD power control 4- Rudder stop limiter
5- Rudder hook monitor. CONTROL TAP
ANTI-FLOAT TAP
GEARED TAP
2) What are the function of the, Control Tap, Gear Tap, Anti-float Tap?
CONTROL TAP: Hydraulically locked in the feared position with the ELEV powered
In manual the control columns operate the control taps and the taps aerodynamically position the ELEV.
GEAR TAP: They deflect in the proper direction to aerodynamically assist in moving the ELEV.
ANTI-FLOAT TAP: They are geared to the Horizontal stabilizer , they deflect fully downward when the
Stabilizer trims more than 12 degrees nose up to improve longitudinal trim in forward CG.
3) What will happen if the ELEV cables is severed?
The standby cables loop system provides ELEV control using or manual power.
4) What is the input for the ACU to control the load feel mechanism for the ELEV?
1- Air speed 2- Pitot pressure 3- Stabilizer movement 4- flap position.
5) What will happen when you select the HYD CONT ELEV switch?
It removes HYD power from the elevator.
6) What are the nose strakes for?
To inherence directional stability during high angle of attack.
7) What is the use of the Rudder throw limiter?
It is provided to protect the empennage from overload.
8) How is the Rudder throw limiter operates?
By RAM air pressure from a pitot tube located on the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer.
It uses speed and horizontal stabilizer position and flaps to restrict or UN restrict Rudder movement.
A (RHM) Rudder hook monitor verifies that the primary limiter is in the proper position.
9) What does ELEV trim motor MACH TRIM use?
The alternate trim motor.
10) What motor trims does the AUTO PILOT use longitudinal trim?
The ALT TRIM.
11) What will happen when you select the stabilizer trim (red guarded) switch to STOP?
Brake applied to prevent horizontal stabilizer movement.
12) Explain the operation of the YAW DAMP switch in the OFF,ON,and OVRD?
In the OFF position : autopilot engage YAW damper operation is provided
Autopilot disengaged YAW damper is not provided
In the ON position: YAW damper operation is provided with autopilot engaged or disengaged.
In the OVRD: YAW damper operation is inhibited with autopilot engaged or disengaged.
13) How many degrees of flight spoilers when they are in the full EXT position?
6 degrees per notch, to a maximum of 35 degrees.
14) When does the in-flight spoiler’s lockout mechanism works?
When the flaps are extended 8 degrees or greater.
15) When is the spoilers deployed alert displayed on the EAD?
the airplane on the ground
SPD BRK lever stowed and any spoiler’s panel is EXT more than 10 degrees +/-2.
16) What is the MAX speed with MACH TRIM inoperative?
.80 MACH.
17) What are the restrictions for using the speed brakes?
1- do not use it in flight with flaps extended.
2- do not use it with landing gear extended.
3- do not use it beyond ground spoilers position.
18) During cockpit preparation what reading should the stabilizer be positioned to?
The computed longitudinal trim reading.
ALT LONG TRIM
NOSE DN
NOSE UP
MACH TRIM COMP
HYD CONT ELEV YAW DAMP OFF ON OVRD
OVRD
OFF
OFF
STABILIZER TRIM
STOP
NORM
19) What is the indication for a flap slat disagreement?
The SLAT DISAG alert displayed on the EAD.
20) What is the MAX flaps that can be used with a float spoiler?
28 degrees.
21) What is the input for the stall protection system?
1- Angle of-attack
2- Horizontal stabilizer
3- Flap/slat position transmitter.
22) Explain how the post stall recovery system (STICK PUSHER) works?
It keeps forward pressure on the control columns until either the angle of attack drops below stick shaker onset.
23) How can you deactivate the post stall recovery system?
By pushing either of the STICK PUSHER PUSH TO INHIBT glareshield switches.
24) When is the post stalls recovery system (STICK PUSHER) inhibited?
During decreasing performance wind shear warning.
25) Explain how the AUTOSLATS system works in stall conditions?
If slats are in the MID position ( flap/slat handle is set to 0 to 13 degrees) and air speed is 240 Knots or less,
And either of the two stall warning system detects an approach-to-stall,
The slats extend automatically from the mid to the extended position. When the approach-to-stall condition is
Ceases, the slats retract automatically to the mid position.
26) When does the AUTO SLAT system automatically commence a self-test?
On ground whenever takeoff flaps/slats are first selected.
27) What is the pylon flaps for?
It provides increase aircraft nose-down pitching in the event of a deep stall. The surfaces move from neutral
Position to fully deployed.
28) How do you deactivates the pylon flaps system in a stall?
By moving the control column forward.
29) Explain the function of the RUDDER HYD CONT lever in the PWR and MAN position?
PWR: the RUDDER tab is locked in the faired position and HYD pressure is powering the RUDDER.
MAN: the RUDDER tab is unlocked to aerodynamically assist in moving the rudder.
STALL
STICKPUSHERPUSH TOINHAPIT
WNDSHR
WNDSHR
30) When is the takeoff warning activated?
1- Flap/Slat handle is not in the takeoff position. 2- Slat is not extended.
3- Stabilizer is not in the green-band. 4- SPD BRK not retracted
5- Parking break is set 6-SPD BRK lever is armed when autobrakes are not selected
7- Autobrake is selected and SPD BRK lever not arm.
31) What is the function of the pitot tube located in the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer?
To provide pitot pressure to operate the RUDDER throw limiter.
1) What holds the landing gears in the up position in case you loss HYD pressure?
The nose gear: Is held by an overcenter linkage.
The main gears: It is held up by the gear doors.
2) What will happen to the landing gears when you pull the emergency gear extenuation handle?
The nose gear: the overcenter links will release mechanically.
The main gears : the main gear doors latches will be released.
3) Where is the ground shift mechanism located?
It is mounted on the nose gear strut.
4) What is the function of the ground shift mechanism?
When the nose gear strut is not compressed it will do the following:
1- disengages the rudder pedal noseweel steering mechanism,
2- Hydraulically center the nosewheel for retraction
3- Retract the landing gear handle release button
4- Actuates the tow ground control relays for ground/flight mode operation.
5) How is the nose gear doors operate?
There are two forward doors and two aft doors and they operate mechanically by movement of the nose gear
During extenuation and retraction.
6) How does the main gear doors operates?
The inboard doors are hydraulically operated, and can be mechanically released and opened on the ground.
The outboard doors are mechanically operated.
7) What is the MAX travel of the noseweel steering by the steering wheel and the rudder pedals?
82 degrees and 13 degrees.
8) When will the landing gear warning horn sounds and when it can be silenced?
1- Landing gear is not down and locked with either or both throttles are near idle and air speed is less
Than 240Knots, (“warning can be silenced”)
2- landing gear is not down and locked with flaps beyond 26 degrees (“warning cannot be silenced”).
9) When will the brake overheat alert be displayed on the EAD?
When breaks temperature exceeds 540 C.
10) What is the MAX temperature to set the parking brake?
500 C.
11) When does the ANT-SKID system is deactivated?
1-The landing gear handle is not in the down detent
2-Parking brake is set
3-ANTI-SKID system switch is OFF
4-low taxi speed, approximately 10 knots
5- IRUs failure.
12) What will happen when you set the parking brake?
When you pull the parking brake knob, this will mechanically opens the brake control valves and closes
The ANTI-SKID lines in both HYD systems.
13) How can you manually disarm the ABS system during landing?
1-Disarm the ARM/DISARM switch
2-By depressing either or both brake pedals
3-When either or both throttles are advanced beyond 22 degrees
4-When flaps are raised to less than 26 degrees.
(Landing mode is inhibited if throttles are above 22 degrees)
14) What mode will the ABS system initiate if a takeoff is rejected above 90 Knots?
MAX brake is applied immediately without any time delay.
15) What activates the Auto brake system?
When spoilers are deployed either automatically or manually with the
Throttles retarded, and brake paddles released.
16) What is the function of the auto brakes when selected to LAND MINor MED?
When spoilers are deployed after landing brakes are applied with MINor MED
Force. 3 second time delay for nose gear touch down.
17) What is the function of the auto brakes when selected to LAND MAX?
When spoilers are deployed after landing brakes are applied with MAX force. 1 second time delay for spoilers.
ANTI-SKID
SYS TEST CKT
OFF
PRESS
A B STO TEST
ARM
DISARM
LAND
MIN MED
OFF MAX
T.O.
AUTO BRAKE
18) How can the main landing gear visually inspected?
Use the periscope located in the cabin floor.
19) If the normal method for extending the gears have fail, what is used to extend the landing gear?
Emergency gear extension lever.
20) How can the ground mechanics deactivate the nose gear steering for manual towing?
A manual operated bypass valve is provided to deactivate the steering.
21) What is the MAX landing gear extension speed?
300 Knots 0.7 MACH.
22) What is the MAX speed for gear retraction?
250 knots recommended 230 Knots.
23) What is the minimum brake pressure to set the barking brake?
1200 psi.
24) What is the MAX gear load limit vertical speed?
600 fpm.
1) Where does the emergency lights get there power from?
The lights are powered by rechargeable batteries that supply power for approximately 15 minute when
Fully charged.
2) When will the exterior emergency evacuation light illuminates?
When the over wing exit doors are removed.
3) Explain the function of the emergency light in the OFF, ARMand ON?
OFF: prevents emergency lights from illuminating, but can be overridden
From the forward attendants panel. (Emergency battery is being charged)
ARM: normal flight position, lights will come on automatically
If EMER DC BUS is not powered. (Emergency battery is being charged)
ON: all emergency lights will illuminates. (Emergency lights are not charging).
4) How many emergency exit doors are on the aircraft?
8 doors.
5) Operation of the galley service door and the slid is identical to what other door?
The forward passenger entrance door.
6) In the crew OX bottle indicator, what kind of pressure do you read?
It indicates oxygen cylinder pressure, whether shutoff valve is open or closed.
7) In the oxygen gage located on the aft overhead panel, what kind of pressure do you read?
Oxygen line pressure.
8) If automatic mask deployment fails, what alerts is displayed on the EAD?
No masks.
9) When OX is flowing to the masks what color is the indication on the flow indicator?
Yellow.
10) What is the purpose of the mask release levers?
To inflate the mask harness.
11) Which signs in the cabin illuminate automatically when cabin altitude exceeds 10.000 feet?
The NOSMOKING and the FASTENSEAT BELTS sign.
EMER LT OFF
ARM
ON
PSI 1000 20 FULL
CYLINDER
OXY LINE
PRESS
12) Where are the escape lines located?
A above the aft of both clear view windows.
13) Which handle when used deploys the tail cone?
Emergency exit handle.
14) Which system provides power to the aft stairway?
The right system.
15) What is the time limits when operation the forward stairway?
3 minutes between cycles (one extension and retraction)
To a maximum 6 cycles in 18 minutes, then 45 minutes cooling.
16) How many HALON extinguishers are installed in the airplane?
Three.
17) How many water extinguishers are installed in the airplane?
Two.
18) How many megaphones are installed in the airplane?
Two.
1) What is the input of the DFGC (Digital flight guidance computer)?
1-CADC
2-VHF NAVIGATION (VOR/LOC)
3-IRS
4-FMS
5- RADIO ALTIMETER
6- and sensors of airplane system.
3) When do you have ALFA SPD in the FMA thrust window?
When the auto throttle is in SPD SEL or MACH SEL mode and the readout value is less than the safe minimum
Air speed for the existing slat/flap configuration.
4) When do you have FLAP LIM or SLAT LIM in the FMA thrust mode window?
When the auto throttle is in SPD SEL or MACH SEL mode and the readout value exceeds the design limit
Air speed for that existing flap/slat configuration.
5) What is the input for the (GPWS) ground proximity warning system?
1-Radio altimeter 2-CADC
3-IRU # 1 4-Flap and landing gear sensors 5-and VOR/LOC/GS receiver.
5) What will happen when you select the (GPWS) switch to FLAP OVRD?
It will inhabit warning when landing less than normal landing flaps (28/40).
6) When will the ND clock elapsed flight time start, and when will it reset?
It starts at left off, and stops 30 seconds after landing. It will reset when any V speed is entered in the FMS.
7) What will happen when you select the FD CMD selector to both on 1?
Normally DFGC-1 provides flight director pitch, roll data to VIA-1. And DFGC-2 to VIA-2.
When you select to both on 1, DFGC-1 provide FD pitch and roll data to VIA units.
8) What will happen when you select the CADC selector to BOTH ON 2?
Normally captains DUs (1-2-3) receive data from CADC 1 and first officers DUs(4-5-6)
Receive data from CADC 2. When you select to BOTH ON 2 captain and F/O DUs receive data from CADC 2.
9) What will happen when you select the EIS source selector to BOTH ON 1?
Normally VIA-1 provides display for captain DUs and VIA-2 for F/O DUs.
When you select to BOTH ON 1, VIA-1 provides display for both captain and F/O.
10) What will happen when you select the FMS selector to BOTH on 2?
Normally AFMC-1 uses information from DFGC-1.and AFMC-2 from DFGC-2.
When you select to BOTH ON 2. AFMC-1and AFMC-2 use information from DFGC-2.
FD CMD EIS NORM NORM BOTH BOTH BOTH BOTH ON 1 ON 2 ON1 ON 2
CADC FMS NORM NORM BOTH BOTH BOTH BOYH ON 1 ON 2 ON 1 ON 2
IRS MODE SELECT NAV NAV ALN ATT ALN ATT
OFF OFF
ALIGNALIGN
11) What does the (IRS) provides?
It provides attitudes, heading and navigation information for the ND & PFD,
It consists of two IRU controlled by a single IRS control panel.
12) What does the IRS # 2 provides?
Attitudes, heading and navigation information for the ND & PFD and also provides information to the
Flight data acquisition unit of the flight recorder and stabilization of the weather radar.
13) What is the function of the IRS system?
It is to initiate the IRUs to align the airplane reference axis to local vertical.
14) How long will the backup battery supply IRU#2?
30 minute.
15) When will the IRU aural warning sound?
An aural warning will sound if the airplane is on ground and IRS control panel mode selector
Is in ALN, NAV or ATT, fuel switches is off and AC busses are not powered.
16) What will happen when the IRU mode selector is rotated to OFF position?
The affected IRU will enter a 3-second time delay before powering down.
The 3-second delay provides time to reset the selector in the event the selector had been rotated to off inadvertently.
At the end of 10 second the system is completely de-energizes.
17) What will happen when the mode selector is rotated to NAV position?
IRS alignment begins. The align light will illuminate steady and the ON BATTERY light will illuminate for
Approximately 15 seconds.
18) How long does the IRS complete full alignment?
The IRS will complete alignment in a minimum of 2 ½ minutes at the equators to a maximum of 10 minutes
At 60 to 70 degrees latitude.
19) When will the ALGIN light flashes in the IRU mode select panel
IRS MODE SELECT NAV NAV ALN ATT ALN ATT
OFF OFF
FULT FULT
ON BATON BAT
BAT FAIL BAT FAIL
1- if the airplane present position is not entered into the MCDU before the end of the alignment time period.
2- Difference by more than one degree from the last stored position. (The message RE ENTER IRS POSITION will
be displayed on the MCDU)
20) When will the FAULT light illuminate in the IRU mode select panel?
IRU power failure
(If two consecutive identical position were entered into the MCDU but do not compare closely enough to
the internally computed position, the ALIGN and FAULT light will illuminate steady).
21) When will the ON BATTERY light illuminate?
When the back up battery power is being used.
22) When will the BATTERY FAIL light illuminate?
The back up battery power is inadequate (21 DC) to sustain IRS operation during back up battery operation.
23) In the TCAS system what is RA mains?
(RA) resolution advisory: when the threat airplane is about 25 second from the (CPA) closest point of approach.
24) How many type of RA do you have?
There are two type of RAs: 1-corrective RAs change in vertical speed
2-preventive RAs not to change vertical speed.
25) In the TCAS system what does TA means?
(TA) traffic advisories: it represent airplanes that are about 40 seconds from (CPA)
In this mode there is no requirement of change or monitor VS, but a visual acquisition of
The threat airplane is required.
26) When is all TCAS voice warning inhibited?
1-below 1000 feet AGL +/- 100 feet
2-during wind shear guidance 3-GPWS warning.
27) In the TCAS mode, what is the range of the asterisk ring (*), and when it will appear?
It is a two-mile rang ring. And it will appears when TCAS mode is selected on the MSP and the range is 10NM.
28) What does the following samples in the TCAC system mean?
Intruder airplane about 25 second from (CPA) closest point of approach.
Intruder airplane about 40 second from (CPA).
Any traffic within 6 NM and +/- 1200 feet vertically.
Any traffic within TCAS display range.
29) When is the (PWS) Predictive windshear detection activated?
It is automatically activated for all RADAR modes selected including OFF.
And the airplane is below 2300 feet RA. Cockpit alerts are generated when below 1200 feet AGL.
21) How many (PWS) alert do you have? (Explain).
We have three alert :
1-Warning alert: windshear located within +/-25 degrees of airplane heading to 1.5NM.
(Waning is inhibited above 100 Knots until reaching 50 feet AGL)
2-Caution alert: windshear located outside the warning alerts but within +/-25 degrees up to3NM.
(warning is inhibited above 100Knots until reaching 50 feet AGL)
3-Advisory Alert: windshear located outside the warning and the caution alert regions but within +/-40 degrees
Up to 5NM. (Advisory is only displayed on the ND).
FLIGHT OPERATION TRAINING
