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Many concepts from biology, chemistry, and physics can be applied to the activities in a dental office.
The current practice of adding antibiotics to products such as soap and bandages
could cause A. more resistant bacteria to evolve B. only strong bacteria to be destroyed C. all bacteria to quickly become immune D. all bacteria to be destroyed before humans can develop immunity to them
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-A3.10k 52.6 52.6 2.9 11.3 33.1 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Staff in a dental office should be vaccinated so that they will be protected against infection if they are accidentally exposed to hepatitis B.
Events Involved in an Immune Response to a Hepatitis B Vaccination
1 Memory T cells are produced. 2 Helper T cells activate B cells. 3 Hepatitis B antigens enter the body. 4 B cells secrete antibody molecules.
Numerical Response
. The order in which the events numbered above occur in an immune response is
_____, _____, _____, and _____. (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-A2.3k 71.7 3241 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 1 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
A dental assistant accidentally pokes her finger with a needle, and her finger starts
bleeding. Soon the bleeding stops. The blood components responsible for clotting blood are
A. platelets B. macrophages C. red blood cells D. killer (cytotoxic) T cells
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-A1.4k 90.6 90.6 4.7 4.4 0.3 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Numerical Response . When fermentable carbohydrates are left in the mouth, bacteria in the mouth
produce an acid with a pH of 5.200. This acid can lead to tooth decay. The hydronium-ion concentration [H3O+(aq)] of this acid is _________ × 10–6 mol/L.
(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-B1.3s 58.3 6.31 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 2 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Mercury is one component of the type of amalgam that is used to fill dental cavities. Mercury is associated with the environmental problem of
A. smog formation B. global warming C. ozone depletion D. biomagnification
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-B2.6k 71.8 4.5 5.7 17.9 71.8 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Some Structures of the Circulatory System 1 Vein 2 Artery 3 Venule 4 Arteriole
Numerical Response
. After anesthetic enters a capillary, the sequence in which the anesthetic flows
through the structures listed above is _____, _____, heart, _____, and _____. (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-A1.3k 31.2 3124 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 3 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
According to the Brønsted–Lowry principle, acid strength is a measure of the A. tendency of an acid to react with indicators B. ease with which acid molecules donate protons C. number of hydrogen atoms in an acid molecule D. number of dissolved acid molecules in a solution
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-B1.1k 48.8 10.7 48.8 31.3 9.2 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Two indicators that would be yellow if they were added to fluoride gel that has a
pH of 3 are A. methyl violet and orange IV B. methyl red and methyl violet C. orange IV and bromocresol green D. bromocresol green and methyl red
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-B1.2s 73.2 13.0 6.0 73.2 7.7 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 4 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) is a disinfectant that has a strong odour and can corrode some metals. Which WHMIS symbol should be used as a warning label on a container of bleach?
A. B.
C. D.
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-B3.1s 93.3 1.3 2.4 93.3 3.0 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Some dental equipment uses AC electricity and some uses DC. The basic
difference between AC and DC is that AC A. uses high voltage, whereas DC uses low voltage B. uses low voltage, whereas DC uses high voltage C. has electron flow that changes direction, whereas DC has electron flow in
only one direction D. has electron flow in only one direction, whereas DC has electron flow that
changes direction
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-C1.8k 69.5 12.3 8.6 69.5 9.4 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 5 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The principle that explains how light is transmitted along fibre-optic cables is A. total internal reflection B. polarization C. diffraction D. refraction
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C2.4k 50.6 50.6 15.1 8.5 25.9 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Numerical Response
. Dental X-rays have a wavelength of approximately 1.10 × 10–10 m. The frequency
of dental X-rays is ______ × 1018 Hz. (Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-C2.1s 67.2 2.73 or 2.72 June 2005 Diploma Examination Numerical Response
. An X-ray machine contains a transformer that steps up the primary voltage
of 220 V to 90.0 kV. If the number of turns on the primary coil is 20, then the number of turns on the secondary coil is ___________ × 103 turns.
(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-C1.3s 54.9 8.18 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 6 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.
Lighting Circuit in a Dental Clinic
Lamp III
Lamp I
Lamp II100 V
If the circuit above draws 10.0 A of current, then the total resistance of the circuit
will be A. 10.0 Ω B. 9.09 Ω C. 3.33 Ω D. 0.100 Ω
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C1.3s 80.8 80.8 1.7 8.6 8.8 June 2005 Diploma Examination
If the resistance in a circuit is halved and the voltage is kept constant, the power
consumed will be A. one-quarter of what it was B. one-half of what it was C. twice as much as it was D. four times as much as it was
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C1.6k 30-C1.3s
59.7 7.8 27.3 59.7 5.1 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 7 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Many scientific concepts and principles can be applied to a greenhouse setting.
Panes of glass in a greenhouse are coated with a substance that blocks ultraviolet
radiation from entering the greenhouse. The effect of this glass coating is similar to the effect of
A. solar wind in space B. curtains on windows C. clouds on a sunny day D. ozone in the upper atmosphere
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-C2.3k 82.9 0.7 8.9 7.4 82.9 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next question. A greenhouse operator crossed a tomato plant that bears yellow fruit with a tomato plant that bears red fruit. When the resulting 258 seeds were planted, 126 grew into plants with yellow fruit and 132 grew into plants with red fruit.
Which of the following Punnett squares represents this cross?
A. B.
C. D.
CC CC
Cc Cc
C
c
C
C
Cc Cc
Cc Cc
C
c
C
c CC Cc
Cc cc
C
c
c
C
Cc Cc
cc cc
c
c
c
C
Science 30 8 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-A3.2k 60.6 10.7 60.6 7.8 20.9 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Three processes––meiosis, mitosis, and fertilization––occur when tomatoes
reproduce sexually. Starting with the process that produces sex cells, the order in which the three processes occur is
A. mitosis, fertilization, and meiosis B. meiosis, mitosis, and fertilization C. meiosis, fertilization, and mitosis D. fertilization, meiosis, and mitosis
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-A3.1k 45.3 15.0 16.2 45.3 23.3 June 2005 Diploma Examination
The function of a cell’s genes is to A. transport oxygen throughout the cell B. program the production of proteins C. produce energy for the cell D. engulf antigens
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-A3.2k 84.4 6.3 84.4 6.6 2.7 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 9 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Because tomato plants grow best in slightly acidic soil, they should be grown in soil with a pH of approximately
A. 1.3 B. 5.9 C. 7.0 D. 8.4
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-B1.2k 82.9 5.5 82.9 4.6 6.9 June 2005 Diploma Examination
A greenhouse operator noticed that a large amount of blue-green algae was
growing in the damp areas where fertilizer had been spilled. An example of a similar situation is
A. increased growth in a forest affected by global warming B. improved crop production as a result of the greenhouse effect C. excessive growth of aquatic weeds in the warm water discharged from a
power plant D. excessive growth of aquatic weeds in an area where waste from a sewage
treatment plant is discharged
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-B3.1k 68.8 3.5 2.5 25.2 68.8 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 10 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following equation to answer the next question.
Cellular Respiration Reaction Equation
C6H12O6(s) + 6 O2(g) → 6 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(l) + energy
A reaction that produces the same products as does cellular respiration is the A. formation of esters B. neutralization of an acid C. process of photosynthesis D. combustion of fossil fuels
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-B1.8k 53.5 4.0 4.9 37.7 53.5 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 11 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following structural formulas to answer the next question.
1
3
2
4
H – C
H
H
––
– OH H – C
H
H
––
H
H
––
– C – Cl
H – C
H
H
–
– C
– – C
H
–
= C – C
H
HH
H ––
– H=O
OH–
–
Numerical Response
. Match each of the structural formulas numbered above with its chemical family
name listed below. Alcohol __________ (Record in the first column) Carboxylic acid __________ (Record in the second column) Hydrocarbon __________ (Record in the third column) Halide __________ (Record in the fourth column) (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-B2.1k 71.4 1432 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 12 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Energy sources and uses are of concern to scientists throughout the world.
Which of the following graphs represents the world’s use of energy over the last
century?
Ene
rgy
use
Time (years)
Ene
rgy
use
Time (years)
B.A.
D.C.E
nerg
y us
e
Time (years)
Ene
rgy
use
Time (years)
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-D1.1k 82.2 13.0 82.2 4.6 0.2 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 13 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The main reason that governments fund research and that researchers strive to improve efficiencies in electricity-generating technologies is to
A. ensure optimal global use of energy with minimal environmental impact B. ensure that the use of non-renewable resources continues to increase C. maximize environmental change at a minimum cost D. maximize the use of nuclear energy
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-D1.3k 89.6 89.6 5.1 3.9 1.4 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Use the following graph to answer the next question.
Types of Energy Consumed in Canada
Natural gas30%
Nuclear energy11%
Hydro-electricity
11%
Coal11%
Wood
Oil32%
5%
Of the types of energy consumed in Canada, fossil fuels account for approximately A. 40% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-D1.3s 65.2 10.8 10.7 65.2 13.3 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 14 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next two questions.
Some Energy-Conversion Devices I Generator II Biogas digester III Diesel engine IV Solar panel V Nuclear reactor
In the list above, a device that is used to convert mechanical energy into electrical
energy is numbered A. I B. II C. III D. V
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-D2.3k 94.6 94.6 1.1 1.9 2.4 June 2005 Diploma Examination
In the list above, a device that uses fossil fuels as input energy is numbered A. II B. III C. IV D. V
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-D2.3k 81.8 8.6 81.8 3.6 6.0 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 15 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Which of the following types of power causes the least environmental impact when used to generate electricity?
A. coal power B. solar power C. hydro power D. nuclear power
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-D1.5k 85.5 0.7 85.5 11.2 2.4 June 2005 Diploma Examination
A major environmental concern related to the burning of coal to produce electricity
is the emission of A. SO2(g) and NOx(g) B. ground-level ozone C. nitrates and phosphates D. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-B1.8k 30-B2.5k
65.2 65.2 3.3 15.2 16.2 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 16 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following equation to answer the next question.
Butane Combustion Reaction Equation
4 10 2 2 213C H (g) O (g) 4 CO (g) 5 H O(g)2+ → +
Numerical Response
. For each mole of butane burned, the quantity of energy released
is _______ × 103 kJ. (Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-D2.3s 28.6 2.66, 2.65, 2.88, 2.87 June 2005 Diploma Examination The original energy source of tidal energy and the original energy source of
coal-fired electrical energy are, respectively, A. the Sun’s magnetic field and the Sun’s gamma radiation B. the Sun’s gravitational field and the Sun’s gamma radiation C. the Sun’s magnetic field and the Sun’s electromagnetic radiation D. the Sun’s gravitational field and the Sun’s electromagnetic radiation
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-D2.3k 30-D2.12k
52.1 5.1 34.2 8.5 52.1 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 17 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Some Electrical Energy Sources
I CANDU Reactor II Wind Generator III Coal-Burning Power Plant IV Geothermal Power Plant V Hydroelectric Power Plant VI Tidal Power Plant
Of the energy sources listed above, two that depend on gravitational forces
are sources A. I and III B. II and IV C. IV and V D. V and VI
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-D2.2k 30-D2.13k
84.6 1.4 7.1 6.8 84.6 June 2005 Diploma Examination
All sources of energy must go through conversions in order to yield electrical
energy for consumption. The type of energy used to generate electricity in both a coal-burning plant and a hydroelectric plant is
A. nuclear B. thermal C. chemical D. mechanical
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-D2.10k 58.3 3.0 29.0 9.5 58.3 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 18 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
A balanced nuclear reaction equation that represents the reaction that occurs in a
fission reactor, such as the CANDU reactor, is A. 2 2 3
1 1 2H H He+ →
B. 2 2 1 31 1 0 2H H Hen+ → +
C. 235 1 1 92 14192 0 0 36 56U 3 Kr Ban n+ → + +
D. 235 1 1 93 14192 1 1 36 56U 3 Kr Bap p+ → + +
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-D2.5k 52.9 6.0 33.3 52.9 7.8 June 2005 Diploma Examination
One of the most powerful arguments against increasing the use of nuclear energy
involves the risks associated with A. acid deposition B. global warming C. photochemical smog D. radioactive substances
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-D1.5k 81.5 6.4 9.3 2.8 81.5 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 19 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Four Types of Energy
1 Solar 2 Electrical 3 Kinetic 4 Thermal
Numerical Response
. The sequence in which the types of energy listed above are converted in a wind
turbine is ______, _______, ______, and ______. (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-D2.3k 58.8 1432 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Use the following equations to answer the next question.
Three Energy-Producing Reaction Equations
1 2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(g)
2 H2O(l) → H2O(s)
3 2 2 0 41 1 0 2H H Heγ+ → +
Numerical Response
. Listed in order from the reaction that produces the least energy per mole of
reactant to the reaction that produces the greatest energy per mole of reactant, the reactions represented by the equations above are __________, __________, and __________. least
(Record all three digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
greatest
Objective Difficulty
(% correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-D2.11k 58.0 213 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 20 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question. An experiment is designed to measure the efficiency of different photovoltaic cells in providing electricity.
Variables in the Experiment 1 Amount of electric current 2 Intensity of sunlight 3 Type of solar panel 4 Angle of light striking the panel
Numerical Response
. Match each of the variables listed above with the type of variable listed below. Manipulated __________ (Record in the first column.) Responding __________ (Record in the second column.) Controlled __________ (Record in the third column.) Controlled __________ (Record in the fourth column.) (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-D2.3s 38.2 3124, 3142 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 21 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Astronomers observe objects in space and draw conclusions about them.
The composition of a star can be determined by observing the A. size of the star B. spectrum of the star C. brightness of the star D. distance of the star from Earth
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-C2.9k 62.2 6.2 62.2 25.3 6.3 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next question. The following nuclear reaction equation represents the fusion reaction that occurs in the Sun.
+1 0 41 1 24 H 2 He energye→ + +
Which of the following statements describes the fusion reaction represented by the
equation given above? A. The reaction consumes energy. B. Mass is conserved in the reaction. C. The mass of the products is greater than the mass of the reactants. D. The mass of the reactants is greater than the mass of the products.
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-D2.7k 38.4 12.4 12.4 36.7 38.4 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 22 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
A certain type of electromagnetic radiation produced by violent explosions in space has a wavelength of 1.00 × 10–13 m. This type of electromagnetic radiation can be detected by equipment at the
A. Chandra X-ray Observatory B. Algonquin Radio Observatory C. Space Infrared Telescope Facility D. Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-C2.1k 74.5 3.4 5.8 16.3 74.5 June 2005 Diploma Examination
The main difference between gravitational fields and electric fields is that A. gravitational field strength depends on mass, but electric field strength does not B. gravitational fields are both repulsive and attractive, but electric fields are
neither C. the constant for gravitational fields is very large compared with the constant
for electric fields D. gravitational field strength depends on the distance between objects, but
electric field strength does not
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C1.3k 64.6 64.6 9.2 6.2 19.9 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 23 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
In 1983, a group of astronomers observed a slight wobble in the motion of a faint star in the Milky Way and suspected that a planet was responsible. The wobble was caused by the interaction of the star’s
A. cosmic field with the planet’s cosmic field B. electric field with the planet’s electric field C. magnetic field with the planet’s magnetic field D. gravitational field with the planet’s gravitational field
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-C1.2k 57.8 2.9 5.8 33.4 57.8 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Jupiter has a mass of 1.90 × 1027 kg and a radius of 7.01 × 107 m. The gravitational
field strength of Jupiter at its surface is A. 25.8 N/kg
B. 1.81 × 109 N/kg
C. 4.90 × 1028 N/kg
D. 3.43 × 1036 N/kg
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C1.3s 59.6 59.6 21.0 11.8 7.3 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 24 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question. Telescopic information shows that light from a quasar bends as it passes a brown dwarf star.
Quasar EarthBrowndwarf star
light
The immense mass of a brown dwarf star causes the light that reaches Earth from
the quasar to be i and focused in a manner similar to that of light striking a ii lens. The statement above is completed by the information in row
Row i ii A. reflected convex B. refracted convex C. reflected concave D. refracted concave
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A B C D
Notes
30-C2.4k 46.2 10.4 46.2 10.0 33.2 June 2005 Diploma Examination
Science 30 25 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Cancer is a complex disease that can affect many of the body’s systems. Many technologies can be used in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with cancer.
Ultrasound waves with a frequency of 2.5 × 104 Hz can be used to determine the
presence of tumours. If the speed of an ultrasound wave is 450 m/s, then its wavelength is
A. 1.8 × 10–2 m B. 56 m C. 1.1 × 104 m D. 6.7 × 105 m
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C2.1s 70.8 70.8 18.5 8.8 1.6 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Magnetic resonance imaging machines (MRI), which can be used in the diagnosis
of cancer, produce a very strong magnetic field. Which of the following diagrams represents the direction of a magnetic field?
S
N
S
N
S
N
A.
S
N
B. C. D.
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C1.2k 38.0 38.0 0.4 58.6 2.9 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 26 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Chemotherapy weakens the body’s immune system by reducing the concentration of a component of blood. The blood component that is reduced in concentration as a result of chemotherapy is
A. plasma B. platelets C. red blood cells D. white blood cells
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-A1.4k 71.8 9.6 7.6 10.8 71.8 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next question. The flu vaccine may be given to people with cancer to boost their weakened immune system.
Four Components of the Immune System 1 B cell 2 Cytotoxic (killer) T cell 3 Memory T cell 4 Suppressor T cell
Numerical Response . Match each of the components of the immune system numbered above with its
function as described below. Use each number only once.
Shuts down immune response _____ (Record in the first column.) Creates future immunity _____ (Record in the second column.) Produces antibodies _____ (Record in the third column.) Destroys foreign invaders _____ (Record in the fourth column.)
(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-A2.3k 82.6 4312 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 27 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The main health concern associated with a weakened immune system is A. decreased clotting time B. increased reflex reaction time C. decreased respiratory capacity D. increased susceptibility to infection
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-A1.4k 92.7 2.3 0.6 4.3 92.7 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Cobalt-60 is sometimes used in the treatment of cancer. When cobalt-60 decays, it
produces beta particles. A nuclear equation that represents this decay is A. 60 0 60
27 1 28Co e Ni−+ →
B. 60 0 6027 1 28Co e Ni−→ +
C. 60 4 6427 2 29Co He Cu+ →
D. 60 4 5627 2 25Co He Mn→ +
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A B C D
Notes
30-D2.6k 59.9 16.6 59.9 10.1 13.3 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 28 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Four Parts of the Circulatory System 1 Right ventricle 2 Right atrium 3 Vena cava 4 Pulmonary artery
Numerical Response
. During chemotherapy, a drug is injected into a vein in the patient’s arm.
The sequence in which the drug moves through the four parts of the circulatory system listed above is _____, _____, _____, and _____.
(Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-A1.3k 46.0 3214 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 29 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The circulatory and immune systems work together as a complex unit.
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.
Capillary Bed
Blood flow
Interstitial fluid
Tissuecells
Red bloodcell
IIIIIIII
Which of the following substances diffuses through cell membranes from the area
labelled I on the diagram above to the area labelled II? A. starch B. hemoglobin C. carbon dioxide D. DNA segments
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-A1.4k 50.2 7.8 39.1 50.2 2.9 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 30 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.
Section of a Blood Vessel
Surroundingmuscle contracted
Surroundingmuscle relaxed
Valveopen
Valveclosed
Valve openValve closed
Blood propelled forwardby muscle contractions
Back pressure due tocontractions of atria,contractions of muscles,and, possibly, gravity
The type of blood vessel depicted in the diagram above is A. a vein B. an artery C. a capillary D. an arteriole
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-A1.3k 61.1 61.1 26.0 8.1 4.7 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Insulin-dependent diabetes is thought to be caused by an autoimmune reaction to
the body’s insulin-producing cells. In this form of diabetes, the body produces A. antibodies against insulin-destroying cells B. antibodies against insulin-producing cells C. antigens against insulin-destroying cells D. antigens against insulin-producing cells
Science 30 31 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-A2.3k 55.7 16.7 55.7 9.1 18.5 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Principles of genetics can be used to explain the inheritance of characteristics.
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.
A Cell and a DNA Molecule
12
43
Gene
Chemical bases
CytosineAdenine
DNAmoleculeCell
Numerical Response
. Match each of the components of the cell and each of the components of the DNA
molecule that are numbered on the diagram above with its name, as listed below. Thymine _____ (Record in the first column.) Guanine _____ (Record in the second column.) Chromosome _____ (Record in the third column.) Nucleus _____ (Record in the fourth column.) (Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-A3.4k 73.8 3421 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 32 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next three questions. Albinism, which is the lack of pigmentation in skin, hair, and eyes, is determined by a recessive allele (a). Normal pigmentation is governed by a dominant allele (A).
Five Possible Genotype Combinations of Parents 1 Two homozygous dominant parents 2 Two homozygous recessive parents 3 One heterozygous parent and one homozygous dominant parent 4 One heterozygous parent and one homozygous recessive parent 5 Two heterozygous parents
Numerical Response
. The sets of parents listed above that could produce a child who has normal
pigmentation are those numbered _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-A3.1s 30-A3.2k
71.7 1345 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Which of the following crosses would provide the greatest probability for
albinism in the offspring? A. AA × aa B. Aa × Aa C. Aa × aa D. Aa × AA
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-A3.1s 83.2 3.1 5.2 83.2 8.6 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 33 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
When a couple with normal pigmentation produce an offspring with albinism, it can be assumed that
A. nondisjunction in the female parent produced the dominant allele B. nondisjunction in the male parent produced the dominant allele C. both parents were heterozygous D. both parents were homozygous
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-A3.2k 63.1 11.7 10.8 63.1 14.4 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Every facet of our lives involves principles of science and technology. These principles are incorporated in the daily operation of a health and beauty spa.
Use the following information to answer the next question.
The bulbs used in tanning beds produce ultraviolet radiation. Ultraviolet radiation has enough energy to damage skin cells. Most of the damage done by ultraviolet radiation occurs when nucleic acid molecules in the cells absorb radiation in the range of 260 nm to 270 nm.
Ultraviolet radiation has more energy than visible light because ultraviolet
radiation has a A. larger amplitude B. higher frequency C. longer wavelength D. greater speed of transmission
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-C2.2k 79.4 5.2 79.4 12.7 2.6 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 34 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question. When hair is combed, it sometimes becomes charged.
Diagram I
+– +– +
– +–
+–– –
––
–
+++
+ +
+
+ ++ +
+
+++ +
– ––
––
– ––
––
Diagram II
Diagram III Diagram IV
+– +– +
– +–
+–
Of the strands of hair depicted above, the pair that would attract each other is
illustrated in diagram i and a pair that would repel each other is illustrated in diagram ii .
The statement above is completed by the information in row
Row i ii A. I II B. I IV C. II III D. II I
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-C1.2k 76.5 7.8 7.9 76.5 7.8 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 35 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
An electric razor, a hair dryer, and a curling iron are connected in parallel at a hairstylist’s station. Which of the following schematic diagrams shows this particular circuit?
A. B.
C. D.
120 V
AC
120 V
AC
120 V
AC
120 V
AC
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C1.3s 89.3 89.3 1.8 1.2 7.7 January 2006 Diploma Examination
The colour of the heated coil in a hair dryer is orange. As the coil cools slightly,
the colour will become A. yellow B. green C. blue D. red
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-C2.2k 52.1 38.4 1.9 7.6 52.1 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 36 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are no longer used as propellants in hair spray
because they A. cause the leaching of heavy metals from bedrock B. contribute to ozone depletion C. cause the corrosion of metals D. contribute to acid deposition
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-B2.5k 90.4 1.4 90.4 1.9 6.2 January 2006 Diploma Examination
A hairstylist has a hair dryer and a curling iron turned on. The appliances act as resistors in parallel. Which of the following equations can be used to calculate the total resistance in this circuit?
A. T 1R R R= + 2
2 B. T 1R R R= =
C. T 1
1 1 12R R R= +
D. T 1 2
1 1 1R R R= =
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-C1.6k 88.4 8.0 1.3 88.4 2.3 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 37 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The motor in an electric razor operates on 6.6 V. The razor is plugged into a 120-V electrical outlet. Inside the razor, the voltage is decreased by
A. a voltmeter B. an ohmmeter C. a step-up transformer D. a step-down transformer
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-C1.9k 79.4 6.3 6.2 8.1 79.4 January 2006 Diploma Examination
A curling iron operates on 120 V and has a power rating of 16 W. The resistance
of the curling iron is A. 1.1 × 10–5 Ω B. 0.13 Ω C. 2.3 × 102 Ω D. 9.0 × 102 Ω
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-C1.3s 54.9 4.6 27.4 13.1 54.9 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Because of the placement of mirrors around a salon, clients are able to view
their hairstyles from different perspectives. The clients see their hair because light A. reflects from the mirrors B. refracts from the mirrors C. is absorbed by the mirrors D. is polarized by the mirrors
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C2.4k 82.0 82.0 13.5 2.0 2.4 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 38 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The properties of different chemicals are analyzed in laboratories and used in the development of products.
Use the following information to answer the next two questions.
A lab technician performed the following tests on four solutions and recorded the results in the table below.
Tests Performed on Unlabelled Solutions
Solution Test
1 2 3 4 Dissolves in H2O(l)
Conducts electricity
Blue litmus no change no change red no change Red litmus no change no change no change blue
Numerical Response
. Match each of the solutions numbered above with the name of a chemical that it
could be, as given below. Sodium hydroxide, NaOH(aq) _____ (Record in the first column.) Sodium chloride, NaCl(aq) _____ (Record in the second column.) Glucose, C6H12O6(aq) _____ (Record in the third column.) Hydrochloric acid, HCl(aq) _____ (Record in the fourth column.) (Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-B1.2k 36.6 4123 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 39 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Which of the following tests would help to distinguish among the four solutions listed above, but would be inappropriate to use for safety reasons?
A. Biological oxygen demand test B. Turbidity test C. Taste test D. pH test
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-B1.1s 89.7 1.9 1.3 89.7 7.1 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next three questions.
Sorbitol and xylitol are both used as artificial sweeteners. Isobutyl propanoate is used as rum flavouring in many candies.
H
C
–
CH – H––
OH
C
–
C–
H
C
–
C–
OH
C
–
C–
H
C
–
OH
–
C–
–
OH
–
H
–
OH
–
H
–
OH
–
H
Sorbitol
OH
C
–
CH – –
H
C
–
C–
OH
C
–
C–
H
C
–
C–
OH
C
–
H–
–
H
–
OH
–
H
–
OH
–
H
Xylitol
Isobutyl Propanoate
H
C
–
H
–
CH – –– C C–
H
C
–
O– C– C
H
–
C–
–
H
–
H
H – C – H
–
H
=
O–
H
H–
H
–C
–
H
The functional group present in both sorbitol and xylitol is A. a ketone B. an alcohol C. an aldehyde D. a carboxylic acid
Science 30 40 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-B2.1k 82.7 5.6 82.7 5.3 6.5 January 2006 Diploma Examination
The functional group present in isobutyl propanoate is A. a carboxylic acid B. an aldehyde C. a ketone D. an ester
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-B2.1k 54.4 11.4 9.3 24.8 54.4 January 2006 Diploma Examination
The chemicals that react to form isobutyl propanoate are A. sorbitol and xylitol B. isobutanol and propanol C. isobutanol and propanoic acid D. isobutanoic acid and propanoic acid
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-B2.2s 30-B2.1k
56.0 9.1 26.1 56.0 8.7 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 41 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Human activities such as wastewater treatment and farming have an impact on the environment.
Which of the following rows describes the nitrate ion, phosphate ion, and
dissolved oxygen concentrations of an unpolluted river?
Row
Nitrate Ions [NO3
–(aq)] Phosphate Ions
[PO43–(aq)]
Dissolved Oxygen [O2(aq)]
A. low low low B. low low high C. high high high D. high high low
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-B3.3s 68.2 18.0 68.2 5.3 8.4 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next question. During the final stage of wastewater treatment, water is exposed to ultraviolet radiation. Bacteria are destroyed by ultraviolet radiation when deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in bacteria absorbs ultraviolet radiation.
The bacteria die likely as a result of A. mutations in their genes B. a breakdown in the cell membrane C. a disruption in their immune system D. an overacceleration of the respiratory system
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C2.1k 37.9 37.9 48.0 9.0 5.1 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 42 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next two questions.
One of the waste gases produced at a wastewater treatment plant is methane. The combustion of methane, represented by the balanced chemical equation below, is an important process that provides energy for the operation of the treatment plant.
Combustion of Methane
CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g)
The energy released when one mole of methane undergoes combustion is A. 560.0 kJ B. 802.3 kJ C. 836.3 kJ D. 951.9 kJ
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-D2.3s 43.4 18.5 43.4 27.0 10.6 January 2006 Diploma Examination
It is better to burn methane rather than release it into the atmosphere because
methane A. is a powerful greenhouse gas B. destroys a large amount of ozone C. significantly contributes to acid deposition D. effectively blocks the passage of ultraviolet radiation
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-D2.4k 51.6 51.6 21.5 21.1 5.6 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 43 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Numerical Response . A technician at the wastewater treatment plant performs a titration of 137 mL of
3.00 mol/L hydrochloric acid using a 1.50 mol/L solution of sodium hydroxide. The volume of sodium hydroxide, measured in mL, required to completely neutralize the hydrochloric acid is __________ mL.
(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-B1.3s 48.8 274, 0.27 January 2006 Diploma Examination In a river, increased algal growth would likely occur i from a wastewater
treatment plant because at such a location, there would likely be an increased concentration of ii .
The statement above is completed by the information in row
Row i ii A. upriver phosphates and nitrates B. downriver phosphates and nitrates C. upriver methane D. downriver methane
Percentage of students selecting
(*correct answer)
Objective Difficulty
(% correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-B3.1k 30-B3.3s
76.4 11.6 76.4 2.6 9.4 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 44 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The pH of effluent from a particular wastewater treatment plant is 8.0. This pH is equal to a hydronium-ion concentration [H3O+(aq)] of
A. 1 × 10–8 mol/L B. 8 × 10–1 mol/L C. 8 × 101 mol/L D. 1 × 108 mol/L
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D
Notes
30-B1.3s 70.1 70.1 6.2 10.3 13.3 January 2006 Diploma Examination
After a rainstorm, the pH of water in a river is slightly lowered because rainwater
contains dissolved carbonic acid. The concentration of hydronium ions [H3O+(aq)] in the rainwater is less than the concentration of carbonic acid [H2CO3(aq)] in the rainwater because H2CO3(aq) is a
A. strong acid and does not completely dissociate B. weak acid and does not completely dissociate C. strong acid and completely dissociates D. weak acid and completely dissociates
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-B1.2k 41.8 21.3 41.8 14.8 22.0 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 45 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Chemical Equation for Buffering Action
H2O(l) + HCO3–(aq) H3O+(aq) + CO3
2–(aq)
Which species in the equation above are Brønsted–Lowry acids? A. H3O+(aq) and H2O(l)
B. H2O(l) and CO32–(aq)
C. H3O+(aq) and HCO3–(aq)
D. HCO3–(aq) and CO3
2–(aq)
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-B1.1k 48.8 17.5 8.8 48.8 24.9 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 46 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Some Processes and Their Associated Environmental Problems 1 The burning of garbage produces persistent pollutants. 2 The cooling of steam in power plants produces thermal pollution. 3 The combustion of fossil fuels releases NOx(g) and SO2(g) into the
atmosphere. 4 The release of sewage increases organic matter in water bodies.
Numerical Response
. Match each of the processes numbered above with the test listed below that could
be used to measure the extent of the associated environmental problem. Use each number only once.
pH test _____ (Record in the first column.) Measurement of dioxin levels _____ (Record in the second column.) BOD test _____ (Record in the third column.) Measurement of temperature _____ (Record in the fourth column.) (Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-B1.8k 30-B2.3k
22.8 3142 January 2006 Diploma Examination
The agricultural practice of spraying crops with pesticides is comparable to the
medical practice of administering antibiotics. In which of the following rows are the individual components of this comparison correctly matched?
Row Bacterium would
correspond to Antibiotic would
correspond to Patient would correspond to
A. insect pest pesticide crop B. pesticide crop insect pest C. crop insect pest pesticide D. insect pest crop pesticide
Science 30 47 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-B3.1k 72.1 72.1 6.1 11.9 9.8 January 2006 Diploma Examination
An environmental technician monitoring a river from the shore noticed that the
water in the river appeared to be knee-deep, but when she measured the depth of the water, it was actually deeper. This phenomenon is explained by the fact that light is
A. reflected off the bottom of the river and then refracted as it leaves the surface
of the water B. refracted from the bottom of the river and then reflected as it leaves the
surface of the water C. reflected off the bottom of the river and then polarized by the surface of
the water D. polarized by the bottom of the river and then reflected as it leaves the surface
of the water
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-C2.4k 42.4 42.4 40.5 10.3 6.7 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 48 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Using energy wisely requires taking into consideration the interaction of science, technology, and the environment.
A type of pollution associated with both coal-fired power plants and nuclear power
plants is A. acid deposition B. thermal pollution C. particulate pollution D. photochemical smog
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D
Notes
30-D2.10k 58.3 25.0 58.3 5.4 11.3 January 2006 Diploma Examination
What mass of fuel must be converted in a nuclear reaction in order to
produce 8.60 × 109 J of energy? A. 9.56 × 10–8 kg B. 14.3 kg C. 28.7 kg D. 7.74 × 1026 kg
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A* B C D
Notes
30-D2.3s 36.2 36.2 14.1 36.4 13.1 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 49 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following diagram to answer the next two questions.
Nuclear Reaction
1
3 236
4 92
2
U U 92
36
141
56
Kr
Numerical Response
. Match each boxed number on the diagram above with its appropriate label
listed below. 235 _____ (Record in the first column) 92 _____ (Record in the second column) Neutron _____ (Record in the third column) Barium _____ (Record in the fourth column) (Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-D2.5k 88.9 3412 January 2006 Diploma Examination The reaction above represents a i reaction and would normally
occur in ii . The statement above is completed by the information in row
Row i ii A. fusion nature B. fission nature C. fusion a CANDU reactor D. fission a CANDU reactor
Science 30 50 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D*
Notes
30-D2.5k 30-D2.8k
64.0 5.0 7.4 23.5 64.0 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Use the following list to answer the next two questions.
Sources of Energy 1 Biomass 2 Coal 3 Moving water 4 Natural gas 5 Nuclear isotopes 6 Ocean tides 7 Wind
Numerical Response
. The four renewable sources of energy listed above are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-D2.4k 76.5 1367 January 2006 Diploma Examination Two energy sources listed above that depend on the force of gravity are numbered A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 3 and 6 D. 5 and 7
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C* D
Notes
30-D2.13k 93.8 3.0 1.6 93.8 1.6 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 51 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
The average power transmitted by a typical cell phone is 0.25 W. If a person
makes a 10-minute call, the energy transmitted by the cell phone is A. 2.4 × 103 J B. 1.5 × 102 J C. 2.5 J D. 4.2 × 10–4 J
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B* C D
Notes
30-C1.3s 61.2 4.5 61.2 30.8 3.4 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Use the following information to answer the next question. Light bulbs convert electrical energy to light energy. Efficiencies for incandescent and compact fluorescent light bulbs are given in the table below.
Type of light bulb
Efficiency of conversion from electrical energy to light energy
(%) Incandescent 5 Compact fluorescent 75–80
If an incandescent light bulb and a compact fluorescent light bulb have equal
energy inputs, then the compact fluorescent light bulb will produce more A. heat B. light C. electricity D. movement
Percentage of students selecting (*correct answer)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct) A B C D
Notes
30-D2.3s 80.8 12.3 80.8 5.1 1.7 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 52 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question.
In order to ensure efficient operations, industries often measure the performance of the technological devices that they use.
Four Technological Devices 1 Transformer 2 Series circuit 3 Nuclear generator 4 Electrostatic scrubber
Numerical Response
. Match each of the technological devices listed above with the formula given below
that could be used to measure the device’s performance. RT = R1 + R2 + R3 + …Rn _____ (Record in the first column.)
ΔE = Δmc2 _____ (Record in the second column.)
p
s s=
N VN V
p _____ (Record in the third column.)
2=E rkqr _____ (Record in the fourth column.)
(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-C1.4k 30-C1.6k 30-C1.9k 30-D2.7k
82.4 2314 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 53 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Technologies 1 Fission reactors 2 Hydroelectric dam 3 Tidal dam 4 Combustion engine 5 Wind turbine 6 Biomass burner 7 Geothermal plant
Numerical Response
. The four technologies listed above that derive their potential energy from
radiant solar energy are numbered _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)
Objective
Difficulty (%
correct)
Correct answer
Notes
30-D2.3k 4.2 2456 January 2006 Diploma Examination
Science 30 54 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Short Answer Items (June 2005)
Use the following information to answer the first question. A farmer is considering the purchase of a new water heater.
Comparison of Two Water Heaters
Heater Maximum
Input Energy (J) Maximum
Output Energy (J) A 5.0 × 104 4.5 × 103 B 5.0 × 104 3.5 × 104
Short Answer––5%
Use the data given in the table above to determine which of the water heaters is more efficient. Show your work. ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................................
Science 30 55 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Use the following information to answer the first question. A farmer is considering the purchase of a new water heater.
Comparison of Two Water Heaters
Heater Maximum
input energy (J) Maximum
output energy (J) A 5.0 × 104 4.5 × 103 B 5.0 × 104 3.5 × 104
Short Answer––5%
Use the data given in the table above to determine which of the water heaters is more efficient. Show your work. Sample Response
3
4
Useful outputEfficiency of A 100%Total input
4.5 10 J 100%5.0 10 J9.0%
= ×
×= ×
×=
4
4
Useful outputEfficiency of B 100%Total input
3.5 10 J 100%5.0 10 J70%
= ×
×= ×
×=
Water heater B is more efficient.
Scoring Guide Short Answer Question Score Scoring Descriptions
4 Standard
of Excellence
The data is accurately analyzed and placed into a correct algorithm to correctly calculate the efficiency for both heaters. Accurate interpretations are made, based on an analysis of the data and are consistent with the results of the calculation.
The data is completely analyzed and placed into a correct algorithm to correctly calculate the efficiency for both heaters. Interpretations and conclusions are made, based on an analysis of the data, and are consistent with the results of the calculation.
3
The data is partially analyzed and used to describe the efficiency for both heaters. Interpretations and conclusions are made, based on an analysis of the data, and may be consistent with the results of the calculation.
2 Acceptable Standard
The data is incorrectly analyzed and used to describe the efficiency for both heaters. Interpretations and conclusions are flawed, and may not be based on an analysis of the data or the results from the calculation.
1
The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 0
Science 30 56 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Short Answer––5% (Jan 2006)
Complete the Concept Map for Energy Resources shown below by filling in the boxes with appropriate terms. There are many correct combinations.
Concept Map for Energy Resources
Energy Sources
Renewable
Oceantides
Non-Renewable
No thermal pollution
Benefits Benefits Risks or Costs
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Sample Response
Sample Scoring Guide for Short-Answer Question Score Scoring Descriptions
The response is complete and addresses the major points of the question. Relevant scientific, technological, and/or societal concepts and examples are identified and interrelationships are correct and explicit, reflecting thorough understanding and logical consistency of thought.
4 Standard of Excellence
The response is mostly complete and addresses the major points of the question. Relevant scientific, technological, and/or societal concepts and examples are identified and interrelationships are correct and reflect an appropriate level of understanding and logical consistency of thought.
3
2 The response is mostly complete and addresses the major points of the question.
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Relevant scientific, technological, and/or societal concepts and examples are identified and interrelationships are correct and reflect an appropriate level of understanding and logical consistency of thought.
Acceptable Standard
The response addresses few major points. Concepts are identified, but interrelationships are neither evident nor well understood. 1
The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 0
NR No Response
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Long Answer -1 (June 2005)
Use the following information to answer the next question. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis produces a toxin that kills insects. Scientists have removed from the bacterium the gene responsible for the production of the toxin and inserted it into crop plants, such as cotton and corn. Insects that feed on these genetically modified plants ingest the toxin. Farmers have begun to notice that some insects appear to be developing resistance to the toxin produced by the plants.
Long Answer––15%
1. a. Describe evidence that farmers could use to support the hypothesis that some
insects are developing a resistance to the toxin.
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Long-answer question 1 continues on the next page.
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b. A resistant male insect is crossed with a resistant female insect. Some of the offspring are not resistant. State whether the resistance trait is dominant or recessive, and give the reason for your decision. Draw a Punnett square or another type of diagram to illustrate the reasons for your decision.
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c. Explain the risks and benefits of using genetically modified crop plants. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. ................................................................................................................................................. .................................................................................................................................................
Long-answer question 2 begins on the next page.
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1. a. Describe evidence that farmers could use to support the hypothesis that some insects are developing a resistance to the toxin.
Sample Response The number of insects in their corn or cotton crops appears to be increasing, even with the use of Bt (genetically-modified) corn or cotton. The farmers may have observed a decrease in crop yield, possibly due to the interference of insects.
b. A resistant male insect is crossed with a resistant female insect. Some of the offspring are not resistant. State whether the resistance trait is dominant or recessive, and give reasons for your decision. Draw a Punnett square to illustrate the reasons for your decision.
Sample Response The experiment described includes the following attributes:
1. describes appropriate phenotypes for parents used in crosses (resistant or susceptible)
2. attributes appropriate genotypes to the phenotypes identified above (Since the experiment is to determine whether the allele is recessive or dominant, the insects studied may be heterozygous or homozygous for the condition; therefore, logical genotypes and phenotypes must be described.)
3. a means by which to allow for the parents selected to reproduce and the offspring to be studied (control of variables including interference of other insects, etc)
4. Punnett square (if shown) identifies two alleles for each parent relative to the trait. Punnett square used appropriately to predict possible outcomes for the cross of parents.
5. Identifies outcomes, and their interpretation which leads to a conclusion regarding whether the trait is dominant nor recessive.
c. Explain the risks and benefits of using genetically modified organisms, such as the crop plants described in the information above.
Sample Response Benefits: Decreases the use of conventional pesticides which may
• bioaccumulate/biomagnify, • affect other organisms than the target population. • Spread due to wind or precipitation patterns
Risks: Influence of the genetically modified version to the naturally occurring form can include
• loss of natural species (due to pollination from GMO crops)
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• decrease biodiversity of pest populations that are beneficial, and or other plant species
• concern over use sale of GMO foods
Scoring Guide Long Answer Question 1 Score Scoring Descriptions
A logical observation that supports the hypothesis and demonstrates the relationship between two variables is stated. An appropriate and practical design is presented of the testing of the hypothesis. Risks and benefits are thoroughly explained. Insightful and convincing arguments are used to support a decision or judgement, and a range of viewpoints is considered.
4 Standard
of Excellence
A logical observation that supports the hypothesis and identifies variables is stated. An appropriate and somewhat practical design is presented of the testing of the hypothesis. Risks and benefits are explained. Clear and logical arguments are used to support a decision or judgement, and alternative viewpoints are considered.
3
An appropriate observation that supports the hypothesis is stated. A generally appropriate and practical design with some omissions or errors is presented. Risks and benefits are listed. Logical arguments are used to support a decision or judgement. Polar points of view are considered.
2 Acceptable Standard
A poorly connected is stated. The design is incomplete, or an impractical procedure with major omissions or errors is presented. Few risks and benefits are listed. Poorly formed arguments are used to support a decision or judgement, and only one point of view is considered.
1
The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 0
Science 30 64 Exam Bank
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(Jan 2006) Use the following information to answer the next question.
Two students live in a community that is located by a river. Environmentalists in the community have speculated that because of increased development along the river, the water quality has declined.
Coal-firedpower plant
Current flow
Current flow
Current flow
Wind directionGolf
course
Sewagetreatment plant
Town
SampleA
SampleB
SampleD
A
B
C
DSample
C
The students took samples at points A, B, C, and D shown on the map. They performed an analysis of the water, conducted other tests, and obtained the following data.
Water-Analysis Data
Location
pH
Mercury level
(parts per billion)
Biological Oxygen Demand
(mg/L)
Invertebrates (aquatic worms,
leeches, snails)/m2 A 7.92 0.1 10 100 B 7.86 0.2 40 550 C 7.41 0.3 25 220 D 7.14 0.6 50 640
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Long Answer––15% 1. Use the data in the table to formulate a hypothesis about the possible source of
one pollutant in the river and its effect on water quality. State a reason for your hypothesis. Describe, in detail, an experiment that could be carried out to obtain further evidence to support your hypothesis. Explain how the results of the experiment would support your hypothesis.
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Science 30 66 Exam Bank
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Sample Response
Source of Pollutant Effect on Water Quality Reason
Golf course Increased BOD Use of fertilizers produces algal blooms
Note: increase in invertebrates is due to a decrease in dissolved oxygen
Coal-fired power plant
Decreased pH
Increased mercury levels
Acidic deposition from stack carried in direction of downstream sampling sites
Mercury from coal is carried in stack emissions and settles in water downstream because of wind patterns OR Leaching caused by acidic deposition
Town Increased BOD Untreated sewage or other wastes released into the river
Sewage treatment plant
Increased BOD Release of nutrients that produce increased growth of algae
Increase in water temperature caused by release of effluent will reduce dissolved oxygen in river water.
Note: increase in invertebrates is due to a decrease in dissolved oxygen
Experiment: Design would involve increased numbers of tests or variety of tests related to the pollutant identified, or improvement of the methods used (sampling protocols including use of quadrants, collecting samples from a range of depths, etc.). The experimental design should provide a logical approach to the collection of additional data for that pollutant and should target the hypothesized source for that pollutant.
Explanation: Responses will vary. Ideally, the additional data obtained can be used to pinpoint the source of the pollutant, exclude other possible sources or pollutants that may be possibly linked to the same problem, or define other aspects related to the pollutant and its source (concentration/amount of release).
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Sample Scoring Guide for Long-Answer Question Score Scoring Descriptions
The hypothesis demonstrates a correct cause-and-effect relationship about one pollutant and makes explicit reference to data listed on the data table provided. The response is complete and well-organized, and it reflects thorough development of a logical experiment to collect further evidence to support the hypothesis. The student correctly explains ways in which the additional data could be used to support the hypothesis stated.
4 Standard of Excellence
The hypothesis demonstrates a correct cause-and-effect relationship about one pollutant and makes reference to data listed on the data table provided. The response is mostly complete and organized, and it reflects correct development of a logical experiment to collect further evidence to support the hypothesis. The student correctly identifies ways in which the additional data could be used to support the hypothesis stated.
3
The hypothesis demonstrates a generally correct cause-and-effect relationship about one pollutant listed on the data table provided. The response is mostly complete, and it reflects reasonable development of a logical experiment to collect further evidence to support the hypothesis. The student identifies ways in which the additional data could be used to support the hypothesis stated.
2 Acceptable Standard
A hypothesis is stated, but may lack correct identification of causes and effects regarding one pollutant listed on the data table provided. The response is disorganized, and it produces a limited description of an experiment (major flaws may be evident, but the experiment is plausible). The student attempts to define ways in which the additional data could be used to support the hypothesis stated.
1
The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 0
NR No Response
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Long Answer -2 (June 2005) Long Answer––15%
2. Select one technology from the list below. Explain the scientific principles used to
make it work. Describe the impact of this particular technology on society and evaluate it by considering both the advantages and disadvantages of its use. Propose how it might be used in the future and identify what precautions or considerations might be necessary.
List of Technologies
– immunization against disease – pesticide use in agriculture – satellites that orbit Earth – nuclear energy production
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Science 30 69 Exam Bank
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Science 30 70 Exam Bank
Copyright © 2007, Alberta Education
Sample Responses Immunization:
Scientific Principle
The immune system is stimulated to respond to an antigen by exposure to either a less virulent form of the disease causing agent, the killed organism, or a chemical preparation that contains key molecules from the disease-causing agent to act as antigens.
Impact on Society
+ cost effective, simple means to prevent widespread occurrence of disease
– costs to develop some vaccines are high, possibility of problems with vaccines, immunity not permanent (boosters needed), increased survival increasing demands on some societies
Precautions/ considerations
quality of vaccine, availability to members of the population, side effects of the vaccine
Pesticides use in agriculture:
Scientific Principle
Chemicals can be applied to crops in order to reduce the ability of pests or other competing plants (weeds) to damage or reduce the crop yields through competition. Insecticides: chemicals can target the nervous system (acetylcholinesterase inhibitors) or other body systems. Those that target the nervous system affect the transmission of nerve impulses in some manner (at the synapse—release of neurotransmitter, breakdown of neurotransmitter) or in the reception of the signal (bind to receptors on dendrites). Herbicides: mimic molecules in the plant to shut down biochemical pathways.
Impact on Society
+ increase in crop yields due to reduced damage by pests or by increased competition
– many pesticides bioaccumulate and magnify in food chains or are either poorly broken down (which can be toxic to humans) or breakdown into other harmful molecules
– pests can quickly become resistant – application of pesticides to crop can be difficult (wind, other
conditions) – pesticide may effect organisms not initially targeted; similar for
herbicides Precautions/ considerations
to reduce exposure of other organisms to the pesticide/ herbicide and possible harmful effects
Satellites that orbit Earth:
Scientific Principle
Satellites use Earth’s gravitational field to remain in orbit and sensors (detectors) for various wavelengths of EMR to collect and relay information back to Earth. Radiation can be reflected (visible light, UV, microwaves) from Earth’s surface or emitted by Earth (infrared).
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Impact on Society
+ detailed knowledge about processes on Earth and space + information can be used to monitor or indicate changes to weather or
climate that are not detectable by other means + development of other technology and products initially designed for
space exploration by modified for other applications have benefited society
– costly to develop, construct, launch, and maintain Precautions/ considerations
to support their use requires continued commitment of money and other technology (computers, etc); safety for astronauts (if launched from shuttle)
Nuclear energy production:
Scientific Principle
Nuclear fission of unstable isotopes (e.g., ) results in the release of energy that can be converted into thermal energy, further converted into mechanical and electrical energy (via the use of a generator).
23592 U
Impact on Society
+ increased power availability + alternative to combustion technologies – nuclear waste – cost of development/construction to reduce impact of radiation
Precautions/ considerations
Both the development and maintenance of the plant to produce electricity is costly. The nuclear fuel must be mined and, in many cases, enriched, which exposes more people to radiation. A method to dispose (store) radiation should not lead to increased exposure to radiation in the near or long term. Longevity of the plant (40 years) and possible use for developing nuclear weapons are also issues of concern.
Scoring Guide Score Scoring Descriptions
The response is well organized and addresses all the major points of the question. The descriptions and/or explanations of the scientific principles and impact the technology has had on society are correct, well organized, and reflect thorough understanding. The response thoroughly evaluates the use of the technology by identifying both advantages and disadvantages possibly using a range of viewpoints and indicates a logical or consistent precaution or consideration for the use of the technology.
4 Standard
of Excellence
3
The response is organized and addresses most the major points of the question. The descriptions and/or explanations of the scientific principles and impact the technology has had on society are correct, organized, and reflect understanding. The response evaluates the use of the technology by identifying both advantages and disadvantages possibly considering alternative points of view and indicates a reasonable precaution or consideration for the use of the technology.
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The response addresses most the major points of the question. The descriptions and/or explanations of the scientific principles and impact the technology has had on society are identified, may be disorganized, but reflect correct understanding. The response attempts to evaluate the use of the technology by identifying either an advantage or a disadvantage and indicates a reasonable precaution or consideration for the use of the technology.
2 Acceptable Standard
The response addresses few of the major points of the question. The descriptions and/or explanations reflect poor understanding of the scientific principles and impact the technology has had on society. The response may identify either an advantage or a disadvantage, or indicates a reasonable precaution or consideration for the use of the technology but is unsuccessful in evaluating the use of the technology.
1
The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 0
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(Jan 2006) Long Answer––15%
2. Many technologies make use of electromagnetic radiation or fields. Choose one such technology, and explain how the technology works. Describe the properties of the electromagnetic waves or field that the technology uses. Explain some risks and benefits of using this particular technology.
Suggested technologies for your answer include
• electric motor • photovoltaic cell • fibre optics • remote-sensing device • generator • satellite communications • household circuitry • spectroscope • optical or radio telescope • transformer
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Responses may vary.
Electric motor How it works: converts electrical energy into mechanical energy (spinning axle)
Properties of EMR/fields employed: repulsion between the permanent magnet in the motor and the induced magnet created by the flow of current into the wire coil
Risks: heavy (due to magnets) Benefits: no emissions; quiet; adaptable to different devices
Fibre optics How it works: rays of visible light flow within a curved thread of material (glass) because of reflection off inner the surfaces; used in telecommunications and other design applications.
Properties of EMR employed: total internal reflection of visible light
Risks: expensive; signal can be disrupted
Benefits: increased capacity for signal transmission
Generator How it works: a spinning conductive coil within a magnet results in an induced current; used in the generation of electricity
Properties of EMR/fields employed: induction of an electric current as conductor cuts through field lines in the stationary magnet
Risks: mechanisms to produce spinning coil can use non-renewable resources and lead to extensive disruption of the environment
Benefits: usable energy (electrical) for transmission to populations in areas away from the natural resource; electrical energy can be transmitted with reasonable efficiency
Household circuitry
How it works: Electrically conductive material is drawn into wires that run throughout a home; at a variety of locations, electrical devices can be connected to the circuit and provided with a flow of current.
Properties of EMR/fields employed: magnitude of current and resistance; voltage (force on the flow of the electric current); in series and in parallel connections for devices into the circuit to ensure proper function
Risks: materials used for wires (higher resistance = increased heat, expansion, potential for short circuits and electrical fires)
Electrical energy can be harmful to humans (electric shock).
Benefits: Many technologies that use electrical energy can be used in the home to improve standard of living and lifestyle.
Optical or radio telescope
How it works: collects diffuse EMR, concentrates it, and focuses it on a detector
Properties of EMR employed: reflection or refraction (optical), or reflection only (radio)
Risks: high costs to construct and Benefits: increased knowledge of
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maintain (earthbound or space-based); few locations where they can be constructed and most effectively used
space, including the evolution of planets and changes in stars
Photovoltaic cell
How it works: Light excites electrons in doped silicon layers, causing the electrons to move and create an electric current.
Properties of EMR/fields employed: absorption, conversion of radiant energy into mechanical energy (moving electrons); electrons move toward regions of positive charge due to electrostatic attraction
Risks: expensive; suitable for local use only; requires constant reliable level of intensity of sunlight; power can only be produced at select times of the day
Benefits: no emissions; electrical energy produced can be stored or transformed
Remote-sensing device
How it works: detects EMR radiating from objects
Spectral lines collected provide identification of elements present or information about processes occurring at the source
Properties of EMR employed: absorption or emission of EMR (variety of types––depends on type of collector); reflection or refraction, depending on type of information collected and its interpretation
Risks: tends to be satellite or probe; expensive to construct, launch into space, and maintain in orbit
Benefits: improved knowledge about Earth or changes to areas of Earth not easily observed; opportunity to collect information on a large scale at one time or over a long time; commercial uses of information: mining, resource location, or scientific uses (investigation of climate change)
Satellite Communication
How it works: EMR (radio waves, microwaves) directed toward satellites in orbit that, in turn, direct signals toward other satellites or to other locations on Earth’s surface
Properties of EMR employed: type of EMR: radio waves, microwaves
emission, amplitude, or frequency; modulation; reflection (collection dishes); speed of EMR
Risks: high cost to establish networks (ground and satellites) and to maintain connection
Benefits: increased speed of transmission of signal; reduction in amount of materials used to maintain ground networks (transmission lines, undersea cables)
Spectroscope How it works: diffraction grating (series of closely spaced slits) diffracts EMR or prism refracts
Properties of EMR employed: diffraction, refraction, distinct wavelengths, or frequencies
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EMR into separate components (wavelengths)
Risks: few, but danger of damage to eyes from looking at bright objects
Benefits: information about matter and processes occurring within or near objects; ability to identify the composition or changes to the composition of matter
Transformer How it works: current in primary coil creates an induced magnetic field in iron core; current in secondary coil is induced by oscillating magnetic field
Properties of EMR/fields employed: induction; current to magnetic field to secondary current
Risks: Other forms of EMR can be produced during operation of transformers. PCBs were once used to regulate or prevent overheating.
Benefits: maintains reasonable and safe levels of current used in homes or in electrical devices; reduces risk of electric shock
Sample Scoring Guide for Long-Answer Question Score Scoring Descriptions
The response is complete and well-organized, and it reflects a thorough (not specific) understanding of the technology and the type of EMR or field used in its operation. The response includes correct and insightful risks and benefits of the technology.
4 Standard of Excellence
The response is mostly complete and organized, and it reflects an accurate understanding of the technology and the type of EMR or field used in its operation. The response includes a minimum of one correct and insightful risk and/or benefit of the technology.
3
The response is organized and it reflects an adequate understanding of the technology and the type of EMR or field used in its operation. The response includes a minimum of one convincing risk and/or benefit of the technology.
2 Acceptable Standard
The response is incomplete, disorganized, and reflects poor understanding of the technology and the type of EMR or field used in its operation. The response includes a minimum of one plausible risk and/or benefit of the technology.
1
The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 0
NR No Response
Science 30 77 Exam Bank
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