II. DIGESTIV SYSTEM

TESTS

General data

1. CS The organ represent:

a) a structure made up by three layers

b) a hollow element

c) a part of the body built by complex of tissues integrated to realize the common functions

d) a parenchymatous formation located in abdominal cavity

e) a formation constituted by epithelium, vessels and nerves

2. CS The visceral apparatus is considered:

a) The organs of different systems with diverse structure involved in performing some

functions.

b) the organs of neck region

c) the organs located in the lesser pelvis

d) the organs realized protective function

e) the organs located at the border between thoracic and abdominal cavities

3. CS The primary gut is developed from:

a) ectoderm

b) mesoderm

c) endoderm

d) dermatome

e) myotome

4. CS From which embryonic layer is developed the primary intestine :

a) entoderm

b) ectoderm

c) sclerotome

d) mesoderm

e) splanhnopleura

5. CM The Viscera represents:

a) the organs localized in abdominal cavity

b) the systems of organs realized the connection of the body and external environment

c) the organs and system of organs located in body’s cavities which realized the metabolic

functions to sustain the life

d) the complex of organs from abdominal and pelvic cavities

e) the complex of organs from thoracic cavity

6. CM According by structure the organs are divided in:

a) serous

b) parenchymatous

c) glandular

d) epithelial

e) hollow

7. CM Name two functions of the organic stroma:

a) secretory

b) trophic

c) hematopoietic

d) metabolic

e) sustaining

8. CM The hollow organs distinguish the following layers:

a) mucous

b) submucous

c) muscular

d) membranous

e) serous

9. CM The mucous coat of the hollow organs has three :

a) adventitia

b) muscularis mucosae

c) epithelial layer

d) subserous foundation

e) proper lamina

10. CM The adventitia or serous realized:

a) connection to neighbor organs

b) connection to cavity`s walls

c) form the cavities for organs

d) form the ligaments

e) connection between organs of thoracic and abdominal cavities

11. CM The striped muscles exist in following organs of the digestive system:

a) duodenum

b) vermiform appendix

c) pharynx

d) esophagus

e) straight intestine

12. CM The primary serous layers of embryo are:

a) somatopleura

b) ectoderm

c) splanchnopleura

d) mesoderm

e) endoderm

13. CM From primary ventral mesentery is developed:

a) the falciform ligament of the liver

b) the round ligament of the liver

c) the coronary and triangular ligaments

d) the lesser omentum

e) the mesentery of the transverse colon

14. CM The serous coats of the body are:

a) peritoneum

b) pleura

c) adventitia of the hollow organs

d) pericardium

e) tunica vaginalis testis

15. CM Which following structures are developed from primary dorsal mesentery:

a) mesentery of the small intestine

b) lesser omentum

c) greater omentum

d) mesocolon transversum

e) coronary ligament of the liver

16. CM The portions of the primary mesentery are attached to stomach :

a) ventral mesogastrium

b) mesentery

c) mesosalpinx

d) mesorectum

e) dorsal mesogastrium

17. CM From umbilical loop of the primary gut are developed :

a) stomach

b) duodenum

c) jejunum

d) ileum

e) colon

18. CM The abdominal cavity is divided in:

a) peritoneal cavity

b) supramesocolic storey

c) inframesocolic storey

d) retroperitoneal space

e) omental bursa

19. CM which of following organs are emplaced in retroperitoneal space:

a) duodenum

b) kidneys and adrenal glands

c) ureters

d) pancreas

e) aorta and inferior vena cava

20. CM For digestive tube we distinguish next parts:

a) superior or cranial

b) injestive

c) inferior or caudal

d) digestive

e) ejestive

21. CM The injestive part of the digestive tube is constituted by:

a) stomach

b) esophagus

c) duodenum

d) pharynx

e) mouth

22. CM The digestive part of the digestive tube includes:

a) small intestine

b) esophagus

c) stomach

d) coecum

e) sigmoid colon

23. CM The ejestive part of the digestive tube is formed by followed organs :

a) ileum

b) coecum

c) esophagus

d) ascendant and transverse colon

e) descendent, sigmoid colon and rectum

24. CM The anatomic antireflux device of the esophago-gastric junction is constituted by :

a) phreno-esophagian membrane (Laimer-Bertelli)

b) intraabdominal pressure

c) His angle

d) cardiac valve of the stomach

e) gastro-esophagian muscular ring

25. CM The structure of the full organs include:

a) hilum

b) cist

c) lobes

d) segments

e) lobules

26. CM Position of the organs depend on:

a) intraabdominal pressure

b) age

c) constitutional type

d) gender

e) the special modality of attachment of organs to posterior abdominal wall

27. CM Name the possible types of position of the organs:

a) dolichoviscerosis

b) antiviscerosis

c) visceroptosis

d) posteroviscerosis

e) visceronorma

28. CM Visceroptosis and dolichoviscerosis are dependent on:

a) fixation of viscera to posterior wall of the abdominal cavity

b) diastasis of the rectus abdominis muscles

c) gender

d) the morphological particularities of the rectus abdominis muscles and white line

e) the constitutional type

29. CM the role of sphinctero-valvular apparatus const in:

a) prevent the entrance of the air

b) prevent the reflux

c) regulate the movement in single direction

d) form one barrier of protection of the digestive tube segment with different functions

e) regulate the secretion

30. CM The primary gut is constitutes by :

a) superior or cranial intestine

b) proenteron

c) metenteron

d) inferior or caudal intestine

e) mesenteron

31. CM From pharyngeal portion of the primary gut are developed:

a) liver

b) jejunum

c) mouth

d) pharynx

e) esophagus

32. CM From foregut are differentiated :

a) pharynx

b) esophagus

c) pancreas

d) liver

e) stomach

33. CM From foregut is differentiated the epithelium of:

a) pharynx

b) posterior part of the oral cavity

c) esophagus

d) thyroid gland

e) sublingual and submandibular glands

34. CM From midgut are developed:

a) jejunum

b) pancreas

c) ileum

d) coecum

e) duodenum (partly)

35. CM From hindgut are differentiated:

a) rectum

b) coecum

c) descendent colon (partly)

d) cloaca

e) ileum

36. CM The anatomical iliocecal device is constituted by:

a) lips of ilicecal valve

b) the valve of vermiform appendix

c) ileocecum

d) the junction "T"-shape of ileum with cecum

e) the transversal position of ileocecal fissure

37. CM During disturbance of process of fixation organs to posterior abdominal wall can

appear the following abnormalities with exception:

a) the presence of ascending mesocolon

b) the presence of descending mesocolon

c) mobile duodenum

d) Meckel`s diverticulum

e) common mesentery

38. CM The Viscera represent:

a) organs localized in abdominal cavity

b) the systems of organs which realized the connection to external environment

c) the organs and complex of organs located in body cavities and performing necessary

function to maintain the life

d) a complex of organs from abdominal and pelvic cavities

e) the complex of organs from thoracic cavity

Oral Cavity. Tongue

39. CS In the thickness of the cheeks is embedded next muscle:

a) masseter

b) mylohyoideus

c) buccinator

d) orbicularis oris

e) geniohyoideus

40. CS In oral vestibule is located:

a) glossoepiglotic folds

b) parotid papilla

c) sublingual caruncles

d) incisive papilla

e) lingual tonsil

41. CS Name muscles which take part in formation of the oral floor:

a) mm. digastrici

b) m. stilohyoideus

c) m. mylohyoideus

d) m. genioglossus

e) m. palatoglossus

42. CS At edentate persons we establish:

a) microcheilia

b) ortohcheilia

c) opistocheilia

d) procheilia

e) macrocheilia

43. CS The Uvula has the main purpose:

a) separate the rhynopharynx from buccopharynx during swallowing.

b) facilitate the passage of alimentary bolus.

c) contribute in phonation .

d) participate for sucking .

e) delay the descent of the mandible in vertical position of the body.

44. CS Inspecting the pharyngeal isthmus and ask the patient to pronounce the sound „a”

we observe that uvula deviate to left. Which muscle could be injured?

a) m. uvulae.

b) m. tensor veli palatini.

c) m. levator veli palatini.

d) m. palatoglossus.

e) m. palatopharyngeus.

45. CS In deglutition the nasopharynx is separated by buccopharynx by action of:

a) m. uvulae.

b) m. tensor veli palatini.

c) m. levator veli palatini.

d) m. palatoglossus.

e) m. palatopharyngeus.

46. CM The inferior wall (floor) of the oral cavity is constitute by:

a) mm. genioglosses.

b) diaphragm of mouth.

c) sublingual region.

d) tongue.

e) hypoglossal muscles.

47. CS In reference to styloglossus muscle function:

a) flattened the tongue

b) get off the tongue

c) pull the tongue behind and up

d) pull the tongue behind and down

e) narrowed the tongue

48. CS In reference to hyoglossus muscle function:

a) pull the tongue behind and down

b) narrowed the tongue

c) flattened the tongue

d) get off the tongue

e) pull the tongue behind and up

49. CM The oral cavity:

a) is located in inferior part of the facial skull

b) constitute the initial portion of the digestive system

c) by choanae communicate to nasopharynx

d) communicate to pharynx by pharyngeal vestibule

e) is delimitate bilateral by arches of the teeth

50. CM The oral cavity poses the following walls:

a) superior – palate

b) inferior – oral floor

c) bilateral – cheeks

d) anterior – lips

e) posterior – pharyngeal vestibule

51. CM When jaws are closed proper oral cavity communicate to oral vestibule by:

a) pharyngeal vestibule

b) interdentar spaces

c) rima oris

d) retromolar space

e) does not communicate

52. CM between lips and neighbor formation we distinguish the next grooves:

a) nazolabial

b) geniolabial

c) palatoglossus

d) palatopharyngeal

e) mentolabial

53. CM In the proper oral cavity are located next structures:

a) glossoepyglotic folds

b) parotid papilla

c) sublingual caruncles

d) incisive papilla

e) lingual tonsil

54. CM In oral vestibule are opened:

a) excretory canals of the buccal glands

b) excretory canals of the labial glands

c) excretory canal of the parotid gland

d) small excretory canals of the sublingual glands

e) excretory canal of the incisive gland

55. CM regarding to oral vestibule:

a) In resting represent the horseshoes shape capillary space.

b) when jaws are closed connected communicate to oral cavity by retromolar and interdental

spaces.

c) reflected from one wall to other the mucosa coat made up superior and inferior grooves.

d) using strings of the lips each vestibular groove is divided in separate halves.

e) the clinical significance vestibular grooves is small.

56. CM In reference to lips:

a) presents musculocutaneus folds

b) inside are lined by serous coat

c) the thickness is constitute the orbicularis oris muscle

d) passed one in other by labial commissures

e) delimit the oral gap

57. CM In reference to lips:

a) between lips and neighbor structures there are no obvious limits.

b) inferior lips is separated from by mentolabial groove.

c) superior lips is separated laterally by nasolabiogenian groove.

d) by both sides superiorly lips are separated from checks by geniolabial groove.

e) nasolabial groove separate the superior lip from nasal region.

58. CM Using inspection in the buccal vestibule it is possible to exam:

a) frenulum of the upper lip

b) frenulum of the lower lip

c) superior and inferior vestibular grooves

d) glossoepiglottic folds

e) parotid papilla

59. CM Using inspection in proper oral cavity it is possible to exam:

a) palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds

b) lingual tonsil

c) palatine tonsil

d) parotid papilla

e) frenulum of the tongue

60. CM Using inspection on palate it is possible to find:

a) openings of palatine glands excretory canals

b) palatine suture

c) incisive papilla

d) greater palatine orifice

e) palatine transverse folds

61. CM The inlet of auditory tube is open by action of:

a) m. tensor veli palatini

b) m. salpngopharyngeus

c) m. levator veli palatini

d) m. palatopharyngeus

e) m. palatoglossus

62. CM In deglutition the nasopharynx is separated from buccopharynx by action of:

a) m. uvulae

b) m. tensor veli palatini

c) m. levator veli palatini

d) m. palatoglossus

e) m. palatopharyngeus

63. CM The oral cavity of newborn posses next 3 criteria:

a) the dimensions are reduced

b) palatum molle is short

c) alveolar processes are well developed

d) interdentar spices are wide

e) mucous membrane of the plate form the slight transversal folds

64. CM The closing of the fauces is realized by action of next muscles:

a) m. uvulae

b) m. levator veli palatini

c) m. tensor veli palatini

d) m. palatoglossus.

e) m. palatopharyngeus.

65. CM Concerning the external shape of the tongue

a) Made up by tip, body and root

b) the body is separated from root by V-shape terminal line

c) the foramen coecum is placed behind of terminal line

d) median groove of the body continues in the root too

e) sublingual caruncle is located on the tongue back

66. CM The extrinsic muscles of the tongue are:

a) m. longitudinalis superior et inferior

b) m. stiloglossus

c) m. hyoglossus

d) m. genioglossus

e) m. palatoglossus

67. CM The intrinsic muscles of the tongue are:

a) m. verticalis

b) m. transversus

c) m. stylopharyngeus

d) m. palatopharyngeus

e) m. longitudinalis superior et inferior

68. CM During of inspection of the back of tongue we can observe:

a) glossoepiglottic folds

b) lingual frenumlum

c) sublingual folds

d) sublingual caruncle

e) papillae vallatae

69. CM The longitudinal septum of the tongue:

a) separate he tongue in two symmetrical halves

b) separate the muscles of both halves

c) is stretched vertically in medial plan

d) the superior margin does not reach the mucous of the back of tongue

e) no answers are correct

70. CM Regarding to lingual tonsil

a) is emplaced in tonsil sinus

b) is located behind of terminal line

c) constitute a agglomerates of lymphoid tissue

d) with ages become more prominent

e) is a component of lymphoid ring

71. CM Which lingual papillae contain the taste buds:

a) filiform

b) conical

c) fungiform

d) vallate

e) foliate

72. CS Which muscles keep the tongue in its own place:

a) m. hyoglossus

b) m. palatoglossus

c) m. genioglossus

d) m. transversus

e) m. styloglossus

73. CM The tongue of the newborn posses the next criteria:

a) is wide, short and thick

b) it is more mobile

c) surpass the limits proper oral cavity and reach the vestibule

d) papillae lingual are well prominent

e) the lingual tonsil is subdeveloped

74. CM Concerning the lips and tongue frenulums:

a) represent the mucous fold

b) besides of mucous coat contain the smooth muscles

c) in the thickness of them are embedded blood vessels and nerves

d) all can be explored by inspection

e) are different one to the by coloration.

75. CM Concerning external shape of the:

a) contain the oral and pharyngeal segments or body and root.

b) the segments of the tongue are separated one by othe by V-shape line

c) the foramen coecum is located behind the terminal line of tongue

d) median groove of the body continues in the root too.

e) the mucosa of the tongue back of both segments of the tongue is similar

Teeth. Salivary Glands

76. CS Indicate the incorrect affirmation regarding to teeth:

a) each tooth poses from one up to tree roots

b) the tooth root is conic in shape and located in dental alveoli

c) the tooth root is ends with apex that hold a minute hole

d) the tooth cavity is lined by periodontium

e) in tooth cavity is located dentar pulp

77. CS The base matter of the tooth is constituted by :

a) cement

b) dentin

c) dental enamel

d) dental pulp

e) tooth cavity

78. CS At 2,5 years old children are absent:

a) incisive teeth

b) canine teeth

c) molar teeth

d) premolar teeth

e) all are present

79. CS Which affirmation regarding teeth eruption is correct:

a) first erupt superior medial incisive

b) first erupt inferior medial incisive

c) first erupt superior canine

d) first erupt inferior molars

e) first erupt superior molars

80. CS Which enumerated criteria are not characteristic for incisors:

a) the crown is flat

b) possess the single root with conical shape

c) on masticator surface exist two tubercles

d) the crown of superior incisors is wider then lower one

e) the root of inferior incisors is compressed bilaterally

81. CS Which enumerated criteria are not characteristic for premolars:

a) are located beneath of canine

b) each dental arch possess fore premolars

c) the occlusion surface possess two tubercles

d) has double root

e) in crossed section the crow is round or oval

82. CS Which enumerated affirmations concerning the teeth are incorrect:

a) there are built by crown, neck and root

b) are connected in alveoli by gomphosis

c) the function is to cut, tear and crumble the food

d) the roots are connected by periosteum

e) the chemical and physical features are similar to bones

83. CS One of affirmation is not related to sublingual gland:

a) elaborate a mucous secret

b) is located on the superior surface of the mylohyoid muscle

c) leak the serous secret

d) the duct of the gland opens in sublingual papilla

e) its prominence form the sublingual fold

84. CM the tooth crown has next faces :

a) lingual

b) palatine

c) vestibular

d) occlusive

e) contact

85. CM We distinguish next types of teeth :

a) decidual

b) permanent

c) incisive

d) molar

e) premolar

86. CM For canine teeth are characteristic next criteria :

a) the crown is conic with sharp tip

b) has a single conic root narrowed bilaterally

c) cutting margin is narrow and forms a crest

d) root of the inferior canine is shorter that the superior ones

e) sometimes the inferior canines could have double root

87. CM Three next statements are correct for molars:

a) its dimension decreases in anterio-posterior direction

b) on the triturate surface there are 3 - 5 tubercles

c) inferior molar possessed 3 roots, the superior 2 roots

d) its crown is cuboid in shape

e) its dimensions increase in anterio-posterior direction

88. CM Select three correct statements concerning permanent teeth eruption:

a) the teeth eruption of girls are little early than boys

b) three molars erupt at age 12 - 26 years

c) first erupt the 2nd

premolars being succeed by 2nd

molars

d) first erupt the 1st inferior molars I, being succeed by medial incisor

e) first erupt the superior canines

89. CM Regarding to salivary glands of the oral cavity:

a) are divided in large and small salivary glands

b) the small one are embedded in the thickness of the mucous or submucous

c) the small glands has no ducts and leak the secret into blood stream

d) the most numerous are palatine and labial glands

e) produce the serous, mucous and mix secret

90. CM Which following characters are related to large salivary glands:

a) are paired

b) are located in the oral cavity

c) posed ducts that open in the oral cavity

d) depend on secret type there are: serous, mucous and mix

e) labial, palatine and lingual glands are representatives of this

91. CM For parotid gland there are characteristic 3 next criteria enumerated below:

a) it has regular shape and it is mucous type

b) it is located in submandibular fossa

c) it is soft and lobular structure

d) the duct of the gland (Stenon) is opened in oral vestibule

e) at the exteriorly is covered by connective tissue capsule

92. CM 4 next criteria are characteristic for submandibular gland:

a) it is a alveolar-tubular gland and eliminate its mix secret

b) is located in submandibular triangle

c) it is adherent to superficial layer of the cervical fascia

d) the duct of the gland is opened vestibule

e) it is covered by thin layer of connective tissue capsule

93. CM In reference to salivary glands of children:

a) at newborn are well developed

b) developed intense starting to 2nd month during first 2 years s

c) at newborn are underdeveloped

d) the duct of parotid gland is opened at the level of superior 1st molar

e) the cheeks at children are bulging due to of developed parotid gland

Pharynx and esophagus

94. CS Concerning the pharynx

a) the mucous of all levels is lined by stratified squamous non-cheratinized epithelium

b) is separated to esophagus by plane passed throw C4

c) in the composition of the wall there are skeletal and smooth muscles

d) mucous of the nasopharyngx are has the same coloration with laryngopharynx

e) the components of lymphoid pharyngeal ring (Waldeyer) are derivatives of the

pharyngeal mucous coat

95. CM the pharyngeal muscles:

a) are built by skeletal muscular fibers

b) contain skeletal and smooth muscles arranged uniform

c) are 5 in amount, where 3 of them are circular and 2 are longitudinal

d) constrictor muscles form along on posterior median line of pharynx the pharyngeal suture

(raphe pharyngis)

e) longitudinal muscles of the pharynx are named also as elevators

96. CS Which affirmations regarding newborn pharynx are incorrect:

a) superior part of the pharynx is high and wide, the inferior one is short and narrow

b) inferior margin is located at the level of intervertebral disc between C3 and C4

c) the length of the pharynx is cca 3 cm

d) pharyngeal tonsil protrude anteriorly

e) the components of lymphoid ring Pirogov-Waldeyer are well developed

97. CS All affirmations referred to esophagus are right, with one exception:

a) It has 3 portions

b) At newborn has 10-12 cm in length, at adult – 25-30 cm

c) It is crossed from right to left by descendent aorta

d) pierce the abdominal cavity by esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

e) contain 3 narrowing places – cricoid, bronchoaortic and diaphragmatic

98. CS Indicate the correct affirmations referred to esophagus:

a) it has cervical, thoracic and abdominal portions

b) the muscular layer of the esophagus contain skeletal and smooth muscular fibers arrange

uniform

c) skeletal musculature is located only in lower part of the esophagus

d) smooth musculature is located only in upper part of the esophagus

e) all affirmations are right

99. CS Which enumerated layers are not characteristic for cervical portion of the

esophagus:

a) mucous

b) submucous

c) muscular

d) serous

e) adventitia

100. CS Which affirmation does not fit for new born esophagus:

a) it has 10 –12 cm in length

b) it has are more evident pharyngeal narrowing

c) beginning of the esophagus located at the level CIII and CIV

d) muscular layer is better developed

e) mucous layer contain less glands

101. CM which affirmation are not correct regarding for palatine tonsil:

a) represent a conglomerate of lymphoid tissue with elongated – oval shape

b) occupy the superior part of the tonsil fossa

c) its surface is loge a lot of crypts

d) lateral surface face to laryngeal wall

e) the internal carotid artery is located 1,0 - 1,5 cm far posterior of tonsil

102. CS One enounce regarding pharynx is false:

a) it is located in the head and neck regions

b) it is place where digestive and respiratory ways are crossed

c) laterally to pharynx is located vasculo-nervous bundle of the neck

d) in front the pharynx opens into oral and nasal cavities

e) is separated fro spine by prevertebral space

103. CM Endopharynx communicate to:

a) auditory tube.

b) trachea.

c) nasal cavity.

d) oral cavity.

e) tympanic cavity.

104. CM Select and note the correct affirmations regarding to pharynx:

a) starts at the skull base

b) at the level of C6 - C7 passes in esophagus

c) passes in the esophagus at the level C6 - Th1

d) laterally are located vasculo-nervous bundle of the neck

e) its posterior wall contact directly to vertebral bodies

105. CM Which below affirmations regarding to pharynx are incorrect

a) is separated from prevertebral fascia by retropharyngeal space

b) its length is 18 - 20 cm

c) it is located behind of nasal, oral and laryngeal cavities

d) its length is 12 - 14 cm

e) at the level of C-8 - Th-1 passes in esophagus

106. CM Pharynx communicate to:

a) esophagus

b) tracheae

c) nasal cavity

d) oral cavity

e) tympanic cavity

107. CM The pharyngeal muscles :

a) it is composited by skeletal muscular fibers.

b) tontain smooth muscles and skeletal fibers arranged uniform.

c) total number is 5, where 3 are circular and 2 are longitudinal.

d) each constrictor muscle of the pharynx contain 4 portion, named depend to elements of its

starting.

e) longitudinal muscles of the pharynx are named elevators.

108. CM Which affirmations regarding to esophagus are incorrect:

a) in adult the length is about 25 - 30 cm

b) in child the length is about 10 - 12 cm

c) starts at the level of Th8 - Th9

d) contain only smooth muscles

e) it is finished at he level of Th XI - XII

109. CM In reference to esophageal topography:

a) it is started at he level of C4 - C6

b) passes in stomach at the level of L1 - L2

c) it is arrange in front of spine and respect its curvatures

d) cervical part of the esophagus is located in front of trachea

e) in both sides of the esophagus there are located recurrent nerves and common carotid

arteries

110. CM The anatomical narrowing are:

a) passage of pharynx to esophagus

b) where esophagus cross aortic arch

c) at crossed place with left bronchi

d) where passed throw diaphragm

e) passage of esophagus to stomach

111. CM Indicate the physiologic narrowing of the esophagus:

a) passage of pharynx to esophagus

b) where esophagus cross aortic arch

c) at crossed place with left bronchi

d) where passed throw diaphragm

e) passage of esophagus to stomach

112. CM Regarding to esophagus:

a) it is open in esophagus at level Th XII

b) its cervical segment is located behind of trachea

c) in posterior mediastinum in front of it is located pericardium

d) possess the muscular tunica formed by single continuous layer of skeletal muscle arranged

longitudinally

e) mucous folds appeared in child a t2-3 years old

113. CM Regarding to esophagus:

a) at the Th IV level where it contacts the arch of aorta there is a dilatation

b) lower then Th V passes to the right side of aorta, later from left side

c) before piercing diaphragm it is in front of aorta

d) at the level of esophageal orifice of diaphragm, has in front left vagus nerve, and behind

the right one

e) at the level of passing in stomach the circular layer of muscle form the physiological

sphincter

114. CM The lympho-epithelial ring of the pharynx (Pirogov-Waldeyer) include next tonsils:

a) palatine

b) lingual

c) tube

d) laryngeal

e) pharyngeal

115. CM Concerning to palatine tonsil in child:

a) in newborn it is large

b) it is well seen , but covered by palatoglossus fold

c) at the end of first year clearly protrude from tonsilar fossa

d) achieve maximal development at 15-16 years

e) maximal development correspond to 5 - 6 years old

Regions of abdomen, abdominal and peritoneal cavities. The Stomach

116. CS Regarding to anterior abdominal wall. The incorrect affirmations:

a) it is divided in 3 levels

b) division is done by linia bicostarum and bispinarum

c) hypogastrium is subdivided in pubic, right and left hypochondriac regions

d) the vertical lines which separate abdomen are traced along of lateral margins of rectus

abdominis muscle

e) rectum is projected in pubic region

117. CS All affirmation regarding stomach are correct except on:

a) anterior wall is orientated forward and little up.

b) posterior wall is orientated backward and toward right

c) lesser curvature is orientated up and right.

d) greater curvature is orientated down and left.

e) on lesser curvature is located angular notch.

118. CS In relation to the peritoneum the stomach take the position:

a) intraperitoneal

b) extraperitoneal

c) mesoperitoneal

d) retroperitoneal

e) there are no any report to peritoneum

119. CS The stomach is connected by neighbor organs by next ligaments, exepted one:

a) hepatogastric

b) gastroduodenal

c) gastrocolic

d) gastrolienal

e) gastrophrenic

120. CS Stomach with shape as hook is representative for next constitutional type:

a) dolichomorph

b) brachiomorph

c) mesomorph

d) female

e) old person

121. CS In stomach we distinguish next parts:

a) lesser curvature

b) grater curvature

c) cardia

d) pyloric ostium

e) cardiac ostium

122. CS The muscular layer of the stomach consist on din 3 layers:

a) externally - circular circular, middle - longitudinal, internally - oblique

b) externally - oblique, middle - circular, internally - longitudinal

c) externally - longitudinal, middle - circular, intern - oblique

d) intern - circular, middle - longitudinal, extern - oblique

e) the orientation on fibers is different in all layers

123. CS For newborn stomach are correct next affirmation, excepted one:

a) its capacity about 50 ml

b) cardiac ostium is located at level Th8 - Th 9

c) the thickness of muscular layer achieve maximal development at 5 years old

d) pyloric orifice is located at level Th11 - Th12

e) all affirmations are correct

124. CS In reference to topography of the stomach, incorrect affirmations:

a) cardiac orifice is located slight to left at the level Th10 - Th11

b) pyloric orifice is located to right side of vertebras Th12 - L1

c) lesser curvature is faces forward and up

d) grater curvature is faces downward and to left

e) pyloric orifice is faces to right and backward

125. CM The space position of organ is characterized by:

a) syntopy

b) stereotopy

c) skeletotopy

d) ortotopy

e) holotopy

126. CM The stomach size is determined by:

a) age

b) gender

c) alimentary behavior

d) constitutional type

e) hereditary factors

127. CM Stomach is closed to:

a) transverse colon

b) spleen

c) diaphragm

d) right kidney and adrenal gland

e) left lobe of liver

128. CM For stomach are characterized next parts:

a) cardiac

b) pyloric

c) body

d) fundus

e) duodenal

129. CM Which affirmations are not correct in topography of stomach:

a) the ¼ part located in left hypochondriac region and ¾ in epigastric region

b) the ¼ part located in epigastric region and ¾ in left hypochondriac region

c) cardiac orifice is located at the level Th10 - Th11

d) pyloric orifice is located at the level Th12 - L1 (left margin)

e) pyloric orifice is located at the level Th12 - L1 from right

130. CM The anterior wall of the stomach contact:

a) left lobe of the liver

b) diaphragm

c) transverse colon

d) caudate lobe of the liver

e) anterior abdominal wall

131. CM The posterior wall of the stomach contact to:

a) transverse colon and its mesentery

b) spleen

c) it is separated by pancreas by omental bursa

d) contact directly left kidney adrenal gland

e) it is in rapport with diaphragm

132. CM The mucous layer of the stomach forms:

a) gastric folds

b) villi

c) gastric arias

d) gastric foveae

e) pyloric valve

133. CM In the stomach wall there are next layers:

a) adventitia

b) serous

c) subserous

d) muscular

e) mucous

134. CM Regarding to shape of the stomach in alive person:

a) as horn

b) ampullar

c) as hook (hamat)

d) bottom of sac

e) as long hook

135. CM "Area nuda" of the stomach is localized at:

a) lesser curvature

b) on anterior surface

c) in fundic region

d) grater curvature

e) no affirmation is correct

136. CM Which terms are used in description of the X-ray examination of the stomach

a) digestive sac

b) corpus

c) fundus

d) egested canal

e) all enumerated terms

Small Intestin

137. CS Select the affirmations correct regarding to duodenum:

a) it is located intraperitoneally

b) in its terminal portion a dilatation is called duodenal bulb

c) descendent portion in related to left kidney

d) superior portion is adherent to the stomach

e) here is opened the hepato-pancreatic ampulla

138. CS For duodenum there are characterized all affirmation excepted one:

a) has no mesentery and located retroperitoneal

b) passes in jejunum at the level L3 in right

c) in descendent portion it is opens the hepato-pancreatic ampulla

d) it grater papilla is located in inferior part of the longitudinal

e) above to grater duodenal papilla is located lesser one

139. CS Which indicated shape is more frequent meet:

a) as ring

b) as vertical loop

c) as horizontal loop

d) as horse- shoes

e) mobile duodenum

140. CS The bile flow out in duodenum by which duct:

a) common hepatic

b) cystic

c) segmentary duct

d) ductus choledocus

e) interlobular ducts

141. CS Select the correct affirmation regarding jejunum - ileum:

a) ileum is intense pink color

b) loops of jejunum are located superiorly and left

c) ileum wall is thicker

d) jejunum is thinner

e) jejunum is grey pink color

142. CM The small intestine possess next portions:

a) duodenum

b) ascendant part

c) descendent part

d) mesenterial intestine

e) horizontal part

143. CM At the small intestine we distinguish next portions:

a) duodenum

b) mesenterial intestine

c) jejunum

d) ileum

e) cecum

144. CM The descendent portion of the duodenum:

a) is developed from middle part of midgut

b) it is in front of left kidney

c) it is crossed by root of mesentery of the transverse colon

d) it is located in the right sit of spine

e) its length is 4 - 5 cm

145. CM The horizontal part of the duodenum:

a) is located at the level L-III

b) crossed by inferior vena cava

c) it is connected to diaphragm by m. suspensorius duodeni

d) contain longitudinal folds

e) it is located extraperitoneal

146. CM The ascendant part of the duodenum:

a) developed from midgut

b) abdominal aorta is located behind of it

c) initially are crossed by superior mesenteric vessels

d) contain longitudinal folds

e) it is finished with duodenojejunal flexure

147. CM The superior part of the duodenum:

a) starts left to sagittal median plane

b) constitutes the inferior margin of the epiploic orifice

c) it is located in front to portal vein

d) it is in report to quadrate lobe of liver

e) common bile duct opens in its anterior wall

148. CM Duodenum:

a) represent the first portion of the small intestine

b) its length is about 25 cm

c) surround the head of pancreas as in the loop

d) consist on 3 segments

e) each segment has duodenal papillae

149. CM Which next affirmations regarding to duodenal structure are nor correct:

a) mucous form the circular folds

b) longitudinal folds are located only in bulb

c) possess a longitudinal fold on medial wall of its descendent part

d) duodenal glands are emplaced in submucous

e) duodenal glands (Brunner) are emplaced in mucous

150. CM The difference between mucous layer of ileum and jejunum are:

a) form higher circular folds and more tight one to each other

b) it is pink color

c) contain aggregate lymphatic follicles (Peyer`s patches)

d) does not contain solitary lymphatic follicles

e) it is thicker

151. CM Jejuno-ileun:

a) represent mesenterial portion of the small intestine

b) is not separated by duodenum very clear

c) it has length about 5 - 6 m

d) form several loops (14 - 16)

e) starts at the duodenojejunal flexure and finishes at the ileocecal angle

152. CM Which elements of mucosa assurance the immune function:

a) endocrine cells

b) glandular cells

c) goblet cells

d) aggregate lymphoid follicles (Peyer`s patches)

e) solitary lymphoid follicles

The large intestine

153. CS Choose the variants which show the consecutively of the large intestine:

a) vermiform appendices, coecum, ascending colon, descending colon, transverse colon,

sigmoid colon, rectum

b) coecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

c) ascending colon, descending colon, transverse colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

d) descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

e) sigmoid colon, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, rectum

154. CS The vermiform appendices; incorrect affirmations:

a) starts from coecum

b) it is 8,6 cm in length

c) it is covered by peritoneum

d) has no mesentery

e) could possess diverse variants of position

155. CS Choose the correct variant:

a) cecum – mesoperitoneal position

b) ascending colon – intraperitoneal position

c) descending colon – mesoperitoneal position

d) sigmoid colon – extraperitoneal position

e) whole rectum - extraperitoneal position

156. CS The correct affirmations regarding vermiform appendices:

a) by its orifice opens into coecum

b) the origin of appendices is projected on anterior abdominal wall in Lanz`s mark

c) the top of appendices is located in then middle of line that connect the right iliac anterior

superior spine and umbilicus ( (Mac Burney`s mark)

d) it has mesoperitoneal position

e) usually could have retrocecal ascending position

157. CS The correct affirmations regarding descendent colon:

a) it is located in right lateral abdominal region

b) it is a continuation of the sigmoid colon

c) its medial side contacts the ileal loops

d) its position is intraperitoneal

e) its posterior surface is adherent to quadratus lumborum muscle and inferior pole of the left

kidney

158. CS The incorrect affirmations regarding sigmoid colon:

a) it is located in the left iliac fossa

b) continues in rectum at the level of sacroiliac joint

c) its position is mesoperitoneal

d) its length vitiates in range 15 and 67 cm

e) form two loops with different shape and size

159. CM The large intestine is different that small one by:

a) the lumen is larger

b) the length is shorter

c) the presence of teniae, haustrae and epiploic appendices

d) the presence of immobile segments

e) the presence of circular folds

160. CM The large intestine:

a) it has a length 1,5 - 2 m

b) its diameter is 5 - 8 cm

c) contain semilunar folds

d) its mucous contain intestinal vili

e) does not possess the submucous

161. CM Cecum; affirmation correct:

a) does not possess teniae

b) possess a short mesentery

c) it is covered by peritoneum

d) it is localized in right iliac fossa

e) in adult could take variety in positions

162. CM Rectum; affirmation correct:

a) whole anterior surface is wrapped by peritoneum

b) does not possess teniae

c) possess the epiploic appendices

d) it external tunica is peritoneum or adventitia

e) contain transversal folds built by mucous layer and circular smooth muscles

163. CM Correct affirmations regarding to cecum:

a) is emplaced lower then ileocecal junction

b) its posterior surface contact the transverse abdominal muscles

c) possess variable positions

d) it is located intraperitoneal

e) its length is 6 - 8 cm

164. CM Concerning to ascendant colon:

a) it is projected in left lateral abdominal region

b) finished with hepatic flexure

c) its length is 15 - 20 cm

d) posteriorly contact the lumbar quadratus and transverse abdominal muscle

e) medially contact to intestinal loops

165. CM Transverse colon:

a) is emplaced between hepatic and spleen flexures

b) its length is 50 cm

c) it continues with ascendant colon

d) due to mesentery is connected to posterior abdominal wall

e) at dolychomorphic individuals prolapsed in arch form mode as garland

166. CM Rectum; correct affirmations:

a) possess the are sacral and perineal flexures

b) in men the prostate is located behind it

c) in adult it is 20 - 25 cm

d) possess the dilatation named ampulla rectalis

e) its middle portion is located intraperitoneally

167. CM Rectum; incorrect affirmations:

a) in the region of anal canal its muscular circular layer form the anal intern sphincter

(voluntary)

b) the anal extern sphincter is formed by perineal muscles and is involuntary

c) in the region of anal canal its mucous coat form the anal columns

d) the depressions between anal columns are called anal sinuses

e) its inferior portion is located intraperitoneally

168. CM Functions of straight intestine:

a) storage

b) antianemic

c) metabolic

d) evacuation

e) hematopoietic

Liver, pancreas, spleen

169. CS Regarding to visceral surface of the liver. Indicate the incorrect affirmation:

a) the gastric impression is lodged on its left lobe

b) the renal impression is lodged on its right lobe

c) the duodenal impression is lodged on its caudate lobe

d) the papillary processes is lodged on its caudate lobe

e) the hepatic hilum faces in frontal plan

170. CS The gallbladder is emplaced:

a)in fossa vezicae felea on visceral surface of liver

b) between quadrate and caudate lobes

c) between layers of lesser omentum

d) between right and quadrate lobes

e) in hilum of the liver

171. CS The gallbladder; the incorrect affirmation:

a) it is composed by head, fundus and neck

b) its capacitate is about 150 ml

c) its neck continues with cystic canal

d) its mucous coat does not form folds

e) its bottom is projected at the level of costal arch crossed by right margin of straight

abdominal muscle

172. CS The hepatic triad includes:

a) central vein, sinusoid capillaries and bile canalliculus

b) interlobular vein, interlobular artery and interlobular bile canalliculus

c) hepatic vein, segmental artery and hepatic segmental duct

d) lobular vein, lobular artery and lobular duct

e) lobar artery, lobar duct, hepatic veins

173. CS The visceral surface of the liver carry the imprints of organs, excepted:

a) hepatic flexures the colon

b) stomach

c) duodenum

d) cardia of the stomach

e) right kidney and adrenal gland

174. CS On visceral surface of the liver we distinguish the next lobes, excepted:

a) square lobe

b) papilar lobe

c) right lobe

d) left lobe

e) caudal lobe

175. CS On visceral surface of the liver we distinguish the next lobes, excepted:

a) the fissure of the round ligament

b) the fissure of the venous duct

c) the groove of the inferior vena cava

d) hepatic hilum

e) bile hilum

176. CS The common bile duct, the incorrect affirmation:

a) it is located between layers of the hepato-duodenal ligament

b) passes anteriorly to the superior part of duodenum

c) it is situated to the right of common hepatic artery

d) it join the pancreatic duct to form hepatopancreatic ampulla

e) it is located in front of the epiploic foramen

177. CM The liver; the incorrect affirmation:

a) has no peritoneal layer

b) it is located in front of right kidney

c) it is located in right hypochondrium

d) occupy the whole subdiaphragmatic space

e) its color is red - brown

178. CM By afferent hilum of liver pass next:

a) portal vein

b) hepatic veins

c) proper hepatic artery

d) common bile duct

e) lymphatic vessels and nerves

179. CM In afferent hilum of liver enter next:

a) hepatic veins

b) portal vein

c) proper hepatic artery

d) nerves

e) lymphatic vessels

180. CM Throw efferent hilum of liver pass:

a) hepatic veins

b) portal vein

c) proper hepatic artery

d) nerves

e) lymphatic vessels

181. CM The hepatic lobule:

a) represent the morphofunctional unit of liver

b) its shape is prismatic

c) is separated one to each other by sinusoid capillaries

d) possess in the center a central vein

e) consist of plates formed by hepatocytes

182. CM The liver is fixed by next ligaments:

a) round of liver

b) falciform

c) coronary

d) right and left triangular

e) hepatophrenic

183. CM Indicate the intrahepatic bile ducts:

a) common hepatic duct

b) bile canalliculus

c) cystic duct

d) right and left hepatic ducts

e) interlobular canalliculus

184. CM The tubular systems of liver:

a) system of portal vein

b) system of hepatic veins

c) branches of hepatic artery

d) system of portal arteries

e) system of bile ducts

185. CM 4 functions of hepatic parenchyma:

a) detoxification

b) trophy

c) support

d) digestive

e) metabolic

186. CM The extrahepatic bile ducts:

a) common bile duct.

b) interlobular canalliculus.

c) right and left hepatic ducts.

d) common hepatic duct.

e) bile canalliculus.

187. CM Pancreas:

a) located behind of stomach

b) se developed from primer gut

c) is located mesoperitoneally

d) its head is enclosed in duodenal arch

e) its length is 14 - 18 cm

188. CM Pancreas:

a) possess a principal canal, which is opened in descendent portion of duodenum

b) its head contact posterior to right kidney

c) in front of its body pass the aorta and inferior vena cava

d) in 5 - 6 years old children it takes the shape of adult one

e) in adult its weight is about 80 grams

189. CM Pancreas as endocrine gland:

a) is represented by Langerhan`s islands

b) is located at periphery of organ

c) contain the Alfa and Beta cells

d) the Beta cells secrete insulin

e) from Langerhan`s islands start secondary excretory ducts of pancreas

190. CM 2 functions of pancreas:

a) exocrine

b) hematopoietic

c) protection

d) antitoxic

e) endocrine

191. CM The pancreatic alfa- and beta-cells produce:

a) pancreatic juice

b) bile

c) insulin

d) mucus

e) glucagon

192. CM Spleen; affirmations correct:

a) it is an organ belong to immune system

b) it is located right hypochondrium

c) its parenchyma contains red and white pulps

d) splenic trabeculae are connected to the fibrous capsule

e) it has a lobular structure in new-born

Peritoneum and extraperitoneal spaces

193. CS Determinate the correct affirmation regarding to peritoneal cavity:

a) is limited by abdominal cavity walls

b) present the a lamellar space situated between visceral layer and parietal of the peritoneum

c) contain all organs of abdominal cavity

d) in male communicate with external environment

e) in female present a closed sac

194. CS The median umbilical fold is determine on:

a) falx inguinalis

b) inferior epigastric artery

c) medial margins of straight abdominal muscles sheath

d) obliterated umbilical arteries

e) urachus

195. CS Which enumerate organs are not located in the supamesocolic storey peritoneal

cavity:

a) liver

b) stomach

c) kidney

d) spleen

e) abdominal portion of the esophagus

196. CS Pregastric bursa, incorrect affirmation:

a) at left side is delimited by falciform ligament

b) behind of the stomach

c) in front of anterior abdominal wall

d) superior of diaphragm

e) inside is located the left lobe of liver

197. CS The omental orifice transmits the omental bursa to:

a) pregastric bursa

b) hepatic bursa

c) right mesenteric sinus

d) left mesenteric sinus

e) right paracolic canal

198. CS At the inframesocolic storey we distinguish the next topographic structures with

exeption:

a) right paracolic canal

b) left paracolic canal

c) right mesenteric sinus

d) left mesenteric sinus

e) lienal recesses

199. CS Regarding to mesenteric root. Affirmations incorrect:

a) possess the oblique direction are from right up to left down

b) it light is about 17 - 18 cm

c) is orientated obliquely are from left up to right down

d) starts at the level left L2

e) separate the mesenteric right sinus from left one

200. CS Most mobile organs are located:

a) mesoperitoneally

b) retroperitoneally

c) extraperitoneally

d) intraperitoneally

e) all possess the same grade of mobility

201. CS The cavity of the body trunk is limitated by muscles and fascias is called:

a) retroperitoneal space

b) peritoneal cavity

c) abdominal cavity

d) abdomen

e) pelvic cavity

202. CM The functions of the peritoneum:

a) absorbtion

b) transudare (secretion)

c) biologic protection (barrier)

d) digestive

e) depositary of blood and fat

203. CM Lesser omentum:

a) is located between liver, stomach and duodenum

b) constitute a part of anterior abdominal wall of omental bursa

c) contain the portal vena

d) its developed from dorsal mesogastrium

e) its right margin constitute the anterior limit of omental orifice

204. CM name the limits of the supramesocolic storey:

a) lesser omentum

b) coronary ligament

c) diaphragm

d) mesentery of the transversal colon

e) gastrocolic ligament

205. CM In the supramesocolic storey there are 3 bursae:

a) lienal

b) hepatic

c) renal

d) pregastric

e) omental

206. CM The hepatic bursa is delimitate by:

a) anterior wall of abdomen

b) diaphragm

c) right lobe of the liver

d) falciform ligament

e) hepatogastric ligament

207. CM The omental bursa possess three recesses:

a) paracolic

b) superior omental

c) lienal

d) hepatic

e) inferior omental

208. CM The epiploic orifice (hiatus Winslow) is limited by:

a) superiorly - caudal lobe of the liver

b) inferiorly - superior part of the duodenum

c) anteriorly - parietal peritoneum that covered the aorta and inferior vena cava

d) posteriorly- hepatoduodenal ligament

e) all affirmation are correct

209. CM Regarding peritoneal recess which presents the risk in retroperitoneal hernia;

affirmations correct:

a) recesus duodenalis superior et inferior

b) recesus omentalis superior

c) recesus ileocecalis superior et inferior

d) recesuses retrocecales

e) recesus lienalis

210. CM Recesses (excavations) of lesser pelvic cavity:

a) recesus intersigmoideus

b) recesus vesicouterin

c) recesus rectouterin

d) recesus rectovesicals

e) recesus rectoprostatic

211. CM On the posterior surface of anterior wall of abdominal cavity there are next folds,

with exception:

a) median umbilical fold

b) rectouterine folds

c) medial umbilical folds

d) lateral umbilical folds

e) vesicouterine folds

212. CM The inner inguinal ring is located in:

a) right medial inguinal fossa

b) left medial inguinal fossa

c) supravesical fossa

d) right lateral inguinal fossa

e) left lateral inguinal fossa

213. CM 3 functions of the greater omentum due to which it could stop spreading the

infection:

a) absorbtion

b) excretion

c) capacity to glue the inflammatory surface

d) macrophage action of lymphatic ways

e) capacity of homeostasis

214. CM 4 portions of the intestine that possess mesentery:

a) duodenum

b) jejunum

c) ileum

d) transverse colon

e) superior portion of the rectum

215. CM The serous layer of the organs is represented by:

a) visceral layer of the pericardium

b) visceral pleura

c) parietal pleura

d) visceral peritoneum

e) visceral layer of vaginal tunic of the testis

216. CM Name 4 organs located mesoperitoneally:

a) liver

b) spleen

c) ascendant and descended colon

d) the meddle third of the rectum

e) full gallbladder

217. CM Organs located extraperitoneally:

a) liver

b) kidneys

c) duodenum

d) ureters

e) empty gallbladder