Home Assignment – 10 · Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456 Instructions : (i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle

(1)

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. The physical quantity “Absorbed dose index” has the

SI unit of

(1) Becquerel (2) Henry

(3) Siemens (4) Gray

2. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle moving

in a straight line is as shown. Particle starts from

rest. Time ‘t’ when the velocity again becomes zero

is

t(s)

a(m/s )2

0 1 2

2

(1) 3 s

(2) 2 3 s

(3) 2 2 s

(4) 2 6 s

3. A rocket is fired vertically up with net acceleration of

5 m/s2. After 10 second the fuel got exhausted.

Maximum height from the ground upto which the

rocket goes is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 200 m (2) 325 m

(3) 375 m (4) 425 m

4. A boy is standing in a lift moving upwards with

constant acceleration. The boy throws a ball

vertically up with initial velocity u with respect to the

lift and it reaches his hand just after time t. The

upward acceleration of the lift is

(1)2u

gt (2)

ug

t

(3)2u

gt (4)

ug

t

5. A projectile is thrown up with initial speed u making

angle with the horizontal. It reaches the maximum

height H. If maximum height is to be doubled then

initial speed of throw for same angle is

(1) u (2) 2u

(3) 4u (4) 2u

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Instructions :

(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on

Answer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.

Home Assignment – 10

16/07/2020

(2)

Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020

6. In the figure shown, the block of mass 10 kg is kept

on rough horizontal floor. Coefficient of friction

0.4 and acceleration due to gravity

g = 10 m/s2. A horizontal force of 70 N is applied

at one end of the block. Which of the following

values of force F on the other end will make the

block move?

10 kg70 N

F

= 0.4

(1) 20 N (2) 40 N

(3) 60 N (4) 100 N

7. A block of mass m = 5 kg is kept on rough

horizontal disc at a distance 2 m from the centre as

shown. The coefficient of friction between the block

and the disc is = 0.8. If the disc is under uniform

circular motion then its angular speed just above

which the block will start sliding is

2 m

(1) 0.25 rad/s (2) 0.5 rad/s

(3) 1 rad/s (4) 2 rad/s

8. In the arrangement shown, the coefficient of friction

between the block B(mass = 10 kg) and the

horizontal floor is = 0.4. If the mass of the hanging

block A is 10 kg then the acceleration of the blocks

is (pulley and string are ideal and g = 10 m/s2)

B

A

(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2

(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2

9. A force moves a block of mass 4 kg on horizontal

smooth surface such that the position x of the block

as a function of time t is given as x = t3. Here x is

in metre and t is in second. Work done by the force

in first three second is

(1) 729 J (2) 162 J

(3) 486 J (4) 1458 J

10. Potential energy U of a body as a function of

position x is given as U = 3

27 6x x . Here U is

in joule and x is in meter.

The value of position x where the system is in

equilibrium is

(1) 3 m (2) –3 m

(3) 27 m (4) Both (1) & (2)

11. A block of mass m1 moving with speed u undergoes

head-on elastic collision with another mass m2 at

rest. The fraction of energy transferred by m1 to m

2

is

(1)

2

1 2

2

1 2

m m

m m

(2)

2

1 2

2

1 2

m m

m m

(3) 1 2

2

1 2

2mm

m m (4) 1 2

2

1 2

4mm

m m

12. A block of mass m falls vertically on a horizontal

floor of coefficient of restitution e = 0.8. The fraction

of energy lost during collision is

(1) 0.64 (2) 0.80

(3) 0.20 (4) 0.36

13. A boy of mass 40 kg is standing at one end of a

floating boat of mass 200 kg. The boat is 6 m long.

If the boy moves to the other end of the boat then

the distance moved by the boat with respect to the

fixed ground is

(1) 6 m (2) 5 m

(3) 2 m (4) 1 m

14. A uniform wooden plank of mass 30 kg is kept on

two supports X and Y as shown. The length of the

plank is L. Reaction force applied by Y as shown is

(g = 10 m/s2)

X Y

L

4

(1) 100 N (2) 150 N

(3) 200 N (4) 250 N

15. A block of mass 1 kg is moving along a line X + Y

= 5 at a speed 2 2 m/s. If x and y are in meter

then the angular momentum (in kg-m2/s) of the mass

about origin is

(1) 5 (2) 5 2

(3) 10 (4) 10 2

16. A hollow sphere of mass m and radius R is kept on

a rough horizontal surface. It is hit hard so that it

starts sliding with initial speed v. Its velocity of

centre of mass when it starts pure rolling is

(1)2

5

v

(2)3

5

v

(3)5

7v (4)

3

5v

(3)

Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10

17. Assume that a planet is rotating round the sun in an

elliptical orbit having the sun at one of the foci. If the

eccentricity e of the elliptical orbit is 0.5 then the

ratio of maximum to the minimum speed of the

planet around the sun is

(1) 1

(2) 0.5

(3) 2

(4) 3

18. If the atmospheric pressure is P and adiabatic

exponent is then isochoric bulk modulus of

elasticity of an ideal gas is

(1) P (2) P

(3) Zero (4) Infinity

19. Which of the following values of Reynold’s number

will make the liquid flow through a cylindrical tube

turbulent?

(1) 100 (2) 500

(3) 700 (4) 4000

20. Two cylindrical rods each of length L are joined in

parallel. Their thermal conductivity are k1 and k

2.

Their circular area of cross-section are A and 2A

respectively. The equivalent coefficient of thermal

conductivity is

(1)1 2

2

k k(2)

1 22k k

(3)1 2k k (4)

1 22

3

k k

21. An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process

a b as shown on pressure-volume (p – v) diagram.

The work done by the gas during this process.

a b

p

v

(1) First decreases then increases

(2) First increases then decreases

(3) Continuously increases

(4) Continuously decreases

22. For a simple harmonic oscillator of mass m = 10 kg

and amplitude A = 2 m the variation of potential

energy U as a function of displacement x from mean

position is as shown. The time period of oscillation

in second, is

30 J

U

10 J

0–A A

x

(1) (2) 2

(3)2

(4) 4

23. It has been observed that velocity of longitudinal and

transverse mechanical waves in this earth are

8 km/s and 5 km/s respectively. If the time interval

between P-wave and S-wave as noted by a

seismograph is 1 minute then the distance of

epicentre of earthquake from the seismograph is

(1) 800 km (2) 400 km

(3) 200 km (4) 600 km

24. Choose the correct statement

(1) Two positively charged bodies always repel each

other

(2) Attraction between two bodies means they are

oppositely charged

(3) Point charged do not experience electrostatic

induction

(4) All of these

25. The capacitance of each capacitor C in the network

shown in 60 F. The equivalent capacitance between

points a and b is

C

C C

Ca b

(1) 45 F (2) 80 F

(3) 60 F (4) 240 F

(4)


26. Two conducting spheres have radii R1 = 0.5 m and

R2 = 1 m. Each of them has 300 C charge on its

surface. If the spheres are joined by a conducting

wire then the amount of charge transferred from one

body to the other is

(1) 100 C (2) 50 C

(3) 150 C (4) 200 C

27. A cylindrical metal rod of length L and cross-sectional

area S is joined to an EMF source. The drift speed

of electrons in the rod is v. If this rod is replaced by

another rod of length 2L and cross-sectional area 2S

then drift speed of electrons in the new rod will be

(1)2

v

(2) v

(3) 2v (4) 4v

28. We prefer to make standard resistance of

(1) Tungsten (2) Nichrome

(3) Aluminium alloy (4) Manganin

29. In the network shown, the resistance between two

adjacent junctions is R. Equivalent resistance

between point a and b is

R

R

R

R R

R

R

RR

R

R

R

R

RR

a

b

(1)7

6

R(2)

5

6

R

(3)7

3

R(4)

5

3

R

30. Imagine that you are sitting in a room in which a

uniform magnetic field B exists. An electron comes

from your front in horizontal plane and gets deflected

to your left. The direction of B in this room is

(1) To your right (2) To your left

(3) Vertically upward (4) Vertically downwards

31. If e, m and h represent electronic charge, mass of

electron and Plank’s constant respectively then

Bohr’s magneton is represented as

(1)eh

m(2)

2

eh

m

(3)4

eh

m(4)

4eh

m

32. Magnetic susceptibility is small and negative for

(1) Diamagnetic substances

(2) Paramagnetic substances

(3) Ferromagnetic substances

(4) All of these

33. Two induction coils of coefficient of self induction 3 mH

and 6 mH are connected in series. Their mutual

induction is absent. The equivalent inductance is

(1) 2 mH (2) 9 mH

(3) 4 mH (4) 18 mH

34. In the circuit shown, resistance/reactance of R, L

and C are 40 , 80 and 50 respectively. The

supply emf is 250 V, 50 Hz AC. The RMS current

flowing in the circuit is

250 V, 50 Hz

R L C

(1) 5 2 A (2) 5 A

(3)5

A2

(4) 10 A

35. If A, B, C & D denote UV rays, microwaves, rays,

and X-rays respectively then the correct order of their

frequencies is

(1) A > B > C > D (2) C > D > A > B

(3) D > C > B > A (4) D > C > A > B

36. The refractive indices of glass prism for red, yellow

and violet colours are 1.79, 1.795 and 1.805

respectively. The dispersive power of this prism is

approximately

(1) 0.019 (2) 0.042

(3) 0.074 (4) 0.092

37. On a plane mirror a transparent beaker is kept

having water 4

3

upto depth of 8 cm. An object

is kept at a height of 10 cm above water surface.

How much distance behind the mirror is the image

of the object formed?

(1) 16 cm (2) 14 cm

(3) 12 cm (4) 18 cm

38. An astronomical telescope has an objective of focal

length 100 cm and eye piece of focal length 5 cm.

Maximum magnification of this telescope is

(1) 20 (2) 21

(3) 22 (4) 24

(5)


39. In a Young’s double slit experiment in front of one of

the slits a thin transparent sheet of thickness t and

refractive index is inserted. The entire fringe pattern

will be shifted by a distance (d – separation between

slits ; D - distance of screen from the slits and

– wavelength of light used)

(1) 1 tD

(2)

1 D

d

(3) 1 tD

d

(4)

1 td

D

40. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential

V is plotted against applied frequency f for three

different materials A, B and C as shown. Which of

the following materials has largest threshold

wavelength?

V

f

A B C

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) All have same

41. If potential energy of first excited state of hydrogen

atom is taken zero then kinetic energy of ground

state electron in the hydrogen atom is

(1) 13.6 eV

(2) 20.4 eV

(3) 3.4 eV

(4) 6.8 eV

42. A radioactive nuclei of mass M emits gamma ray of

wavelength . The recoil energy of the nuclei is

(symbols have usual meanings)

(1)hc

(2)

2

h

M

(3)2

22

h

M(4) Mc

43. Two radioactive substances X and Y have decay

constants 3 and respectively. Initially they have

same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of

nuclei of X to those of Y will be

3

1

e

after a time

interval

(1)3

2(2)

1

3

(3)2

3(4)

1

44. The input resistance of a CE amplifier is 5 k and

the load resistance is 20 k. If the current gain is

100 then mutual conductance of the transistor used

is

(1) 10–3 –1 (2) 2 × 10–3 –1

(3) 20 × 10–3 –1 (4) 50 –1

45. The truth table shown is the characteristic of

x

0

0

1

1

y

0

1

0

1

z

0

1

1

0

(1) NAND gate (2) NOR gate

(3) XOR gate (4) NOT gate

CHEMISTRY

46. Number of moles of carbon present in compound A

CH – COOH

CH – COOH

423 K

A

(1) 2 mol carbon (2) 3 mol carbon

(3) 4 mol carbon (4) 3.5 mol carbon

47. Total number of asymmetric centre in the following

compound will be

CH3

Cl

Cl

(1) One (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Zero

48. Total number of valence electrons present in 1 mol

of dry ice is (N0 = Avogadro number)

(1) 20 × N0

(2) 16 × N0

(3) 22 × N0

(4) 24 × N0

49. 280 ml of sulphur vapours at NTP weigh 3.2 g. The

molecular formula of the sulphur vapour is

(1) S (2) S2

(3) S4

(4) S8

50. Which shell would be the first to have g-subshell?

(1) 4th (2) 5th

(3) 6th (4) 7th

(6)


51. Consider the following statements/formula.

a.

182

n 2

2.18 10E z

n

J atom–1

b.total

1E PE

2

c. Number of revolutions per second = 1

3

E 2

h n

Correct statement/formula is/are

(1) a and b (2) b and c

(3) a and c (4) All are correct

52. Which of the following have negative value?

(1) o

2Cr/Cr

E (2) o

2Mn/Mn

E

(3) o

2Cu/Cu

E (4) o

2Ni/Ni

E

53. Minimum density in group 2 elements will be of

(1) Ca (2) Be

(3) Ba (4) Sr

54. Correct statements is/are

(1) pi-bond can be formed by hybridized orbital

(2) pi-bond is stronger than sigma bond

(3) C – C bond in ethane have 45% s-character

(4) All are correct

55. If the four tyres of car are filled to the same pressure

with N2, O

2, H

2 and Ne separately, then which one

will be filled first?

(1) N2

(2) O2

(3) H2

(4) Ne

56. One mol of H3PO

4 (assuming strong acid) to mixed

with 3 moles of NaOH. The enthalpy of neutralization

will be

(1) –57.1 kJ (2) 2 × –57.1 kJ

(3) 3 × –57.1 kJ (4) All are correct

57. The value of equilibrium constant of a reactiondepends on

(1) Pressure

(2) Concentration of reactants

(3) Temperature

(4) All of these

58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct forMaxwell’s distribution of molecular speed curve?

(1) Total area under the curve represent totalnumber of molecules

(2) Fraction of molecules having most probablespeeds decreases with increase in temperature

(3) Fraction of molecules having energy greater thanthreshold energy increases with increase intemperature

(4) All of these

59. Which of the following is correct for ideal solution?

(1) Hmix

= 0 (2) STotal

= +ve

(3) Vmix

= 0 (4) All of these

60. Which one of the following electrolytes is leasteffective for coagulation of the sol formed by addingFeCl

3 to excess of hot water?

(1) K3[Fe(CN)

6] (2) K

2CrO

4

(3) KBr (4) K2SO

4

61. Ethreshold

can never be

(1) > Er

(2) > Ep

(3) < Ep

(4) > ER as well as > E

p

62. A B C D ��⇀↽��

. If initially the concentration of

both A and B are equal but at equilibrium,concentration of D will be twice that of A. Equilibriumconstant of the reaction will be

(1)4

9(2)

9

4

(3)1

9(4) 4

63. pH of 0.05 M (CH3COO)

2Ca (pK

a = 4.74) is

(1) 5.13 (2) 8.87

(3) 7 (4) 11.30

64. Oxidation state of carbon in HCOOH will be

(1) +1 (2) +2

(3) –4 (4) 0

65. The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode atpH = 10 will be

(1) –0.59 V (2) 0.59 V

(3) 0.118 V (4) 0.059 V

66. Which is incorrect about silver plating?

(1) Anode - Pure Ag

(2) Cathode - Object to be electroplated

(3) Electrolyte - AgCN(aq)

(4) Electrolyte - AgNO3 solution

67. Which of the following is correct for K2Cr2O7?

(1) 6(Cr – O) bonds are equivalent

(2) Equivalent mass is M/6 in acidic medium

(3) Cr – O – Cr bond angle is more than O – Cr – O

(4) All are correct

68. Indicator used in iodometric titration is

(1) Phenolphthalein (2) Litmus

(3) Potassium iodide (4) Starch

69. Percentage strength of H2O2 sample having volume

strength 10 vol. will be approx.

(1) 3% (2) 6%

(3) 10% (4) 90%

(7)


70. Total number of position isomers of C3H6 will be

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) Zero

71. For the following conversion

C H2 2

S

Fe-pyrite

NH /3 Fe tube,

A

B

C

Correct option is

(1) B is pyrrole (2) C is toluene

(3) A, B, C are aromatic (4) Both (1) & (3)

72. In Kjeldahl’s method, the nitrogen is estimated byknowing the equivalent of

(1) N2 formed (2) NH

3 formed

(3) NO2 formed (4) N

2O3 formed

73. When phenol reacts with PCl5, major product formed is

(1) o-Chlorophenol (2) p-Chlorophenol

(3) Triphenyl phosphate (4) Picric acid

74. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by

(1) Fittig’s reaction (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction

(3) Kolbe’s reaction (4) Wurtz’s reaction

75. In glycerine

(1) One primary –OH group is present

(2) One tertiary –OH group is present

(3) Two secondary –OH groups are present

(4) One secondary –OH group is present

76. Which of the following alkyl halide is most reactivein Williamson’s synthesis for preparation of ether?

(1) Br (2) Br H

(3) Cl (4) Br

77. In the reaction

NaNH /liq. NH2 3

OCH3

Cl

A

(Major)

The major product A is

(1)

OCH3

NH2

(2)

OCH3

NH2

(3)

OCH3

Cl

(4)

OCH3

NH2

78. Which of the following have maximum boiling point?

(1) n-Butane (2) Propan-1-ol

(3) Propan-1-al (4) Propanone

79. Benzaldehyde reacts with NH3 to form

(1) Benzaldehyde ammonia

(2) Urotropine

(3) Hydrobenzamide

(4) Ammonium chloride

80. Reagent A will be

CCH

3

O

HO

Reagent 'A'CH – CH

2 3

HO

(1) Zn-Hg/HCl

(2) H2N – NH

2/OH(–), (CH

2OH)

2

(3) H2/Ni

(4) NaBH4

81. For the following reactions, the correct statement is

H C – CH – CH = CH3 2

CH3

(i) H SO2 4

(ii) H O2

(i) B H /THF2 6

(ii) H O2 2

(i) Hg(OOCCH )3 2

(ii) NaBH4

A

B

C

(1) B is rearranged product

(2) A is formed by carbocation intermediate

(3) A, B, C can be distinguished by Victor Meyer’s

test

(4) Both (2) & (3)

82. Aniline is insoluble in water and possesses low

vapour pressure. It can be purified by

(1) Vacuum distillation (2) Crystallisation

(3) Chromatography (4) Steam distillation

83. Reaction of R – CONH2 with Br

2/KOH gives R – NH

2

as the main product. The intermediate involved in

this reaction is

(1) R – N = C = O (2) R – NH – Br

O

(3) R – NH – Br (4) R – C – N – Br

O

Br

84. Which of the following cannot reduce Fehling

solution?

(1) HCOOH (2) H3C – COOH

(3) HCHO (4) H3C – CHO

(8)


BOTANY

85. Benzene diazonium chloride forms orange red dye

with

(1) Phenol (2) Nitrobenzene

(3) Cyanobenzene (4) All of these

86. Maximum oxidising power will be of

(1) HClO (2) HClO2

(3) HClO3

(4) HClO4

87. The products when Mg react with SO2 is/are

(1) MgO (2) MgSO4

(3) Sulphur (4) Both (1) & (3)

88. Which of the following have maximum melting point?

(1) HF (2) HCl

(3) HBr (4) All have same m.p.

89. F3C – CH = CH

2 + HBr Product

For the above conversion, product follow

(1) Markovnikov’s rule (2) Anti Markovnikov’s rule

(3) Saytzeff’s rule (4) Hoffmann’s rule

90. Paramagnetic character is observed in

(1) (2) O2

(3) Na – liq. NH3

(4) All of these

91. A higher category with assemblage of sweet potato

and potato family and exhibiting a few similar

characters; is equivalent to

(1) Felidae and Canidae

(2) Poales and Muscidae

(3) Sapindales and Primata

(4) Insecta and Diptera

92. Find correct match w.r.t. taxonomical aids

Column I Column II

a. Serve as quick (i) Museum

referral system

b. Collection of (ii) NBRI

preserved plants &

animal specimens

c. Ex-situ conservation (iii) Herbaria

of plants

d. Information on (iv) Manuals

any one taxon

(v) Monographs

(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (4) a(v), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

93. Select correct option w.r.t. the given organisms

Nitrosomonas Yeast Agaricus SpirogyraMethanococcus Chlorella Porphyra SelaginellaAnabaena

, , , ,

, , , ,

A – All are placed in two kingdoms in Linnaeus

system

B – All are accommodated into two kingdoms in

Haeckel’s system

C – They are placed into four kingdoms in

Whittaker’s system

D – All are unified into kingdom plantae in two

kingdom system

(1) B & C (2) B, C & D

(3) A, B & C (4) All are correct

94. Cellulose is present in the cell wall of

a. Euglena

b. Chrysophytes

c. Gymnodinium

d. Plasmodium

e. Albugo

f. Neurospora

(1) b, c & e

(2) a, c & f

(3) b, c, e & f

(4) All except a

95. Branched, septate and predominant dikaryotic

mycelium is present in

(1) Sac fungi

(2) Club fungi

(3) Algal fungi

(4) Imperfect fungi

96. Artificial system of classification was not acceptable

because

(1) It was based on vegetative characters only

(2) It was based on natural affinities among the

organisms

(3) It gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual

characteristics

(4) It considered reproductive characters that were

more easily affected by environment

(9)


97. Select the correct statement for the given diagram

AB

(1) A – Chlorophyceae, non-jacketed sex organs,

motile male gamete

(2) B – Sulphated hydrocolloids, Fucoxanthin,

Diplontic life cycle

(3) A – Oogamous, Monoecious, Phycobilins

(4) B – Chlorophyll c, Laminarin, Two unequal

lateral flagella

98. Selaginella differs from conifers in

(1) Having sporophytic plant body

(2) Presence of heterospory and strobilus

(3) Life cycle pattern

(4) Absence of vessels and sieve tube

99. Inflorescence with basipetal arrangement of flowers is

characteristics of _______ family which is also

characterised by ______.

(1) Mustard, parietal placentation

(2) Pea, vexillary aestivation

(3) Brinjal, epipetalous stamens

(4) Petunia, zygomorphic flowers

100. Consider the following structures.

a. Tendril in pumpkin

b. Defensive organ in Citrus and Opuntia

c. Tendril in garden pea

d. Storage root in Asparagus

(1) a & c are modified stem

(2) b is modified leaf

(3) a & b are homologous structure

(4) d is modified adventious root

101. Fruit of mango

(1) Is simple and fleshy developed from inferior ovary

(2) Is aggregate and fleshy that developed from

superior ovary

(3) Is simple and fleshy that developed from

monocarpellary superior ovary

(4) Is drupe with outer hard and stony pericarp

102. Living flexible or elastic tissue

(1) Is always present as homogeneous layer below

epidermis

(2) Has thickened cell wall at corner due to

deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin

(3) Constitutes hypodermis in dicots and monocots

(4) Provides mechanical support to the fruit walls of

nut

103. Consider the given statements

A – The ground tissue system mainly consists of

simple as well as complex tissue

B – In dicot root, the limiting layer of stele has thick

walled parenchymatous cells

C – A large number of scattered vascular bundles

are surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle

sheath in monocot stem

(1) All are correct (2) A & C are correct

(3) Only A is incorrect (4) Only C is incorrect

104. Redifferentiated structure in stelar region with dark

brown colour due to deposition of organic

compounds is

(1) Secondary phloem (2) Phelloderm

(3) Sapwood (4) Heartwood

105. The total number of peripheral microtubules bundles

in the flagella of Chlamydomonas cell is

(1) 18 (2) 36

(3) 40 (4) 27

106. Select correct match w.r.t. cell organelles and their

function/enzymes activity.

Column I Column II

a. Glycolate oxidase (i) Mitochondria

b. Gluconeogenesis (ii) Peroxisome

c. -Oxidation of fats (iii) Glyoxysome

d. Proteases (iv) Ribosome

(v) Lysosome

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

107. Movement of chromosomes to spindle equator is

preceded by

(1) Separation of chromatids

(2) Clustering of chromosomes at opposite spindle

poles

(3) The complete disintegration of the nuclear

envelope

(4) Movement of centrioles towards opposite pole

(10)


108. In which of the following stage of meiosis, bivalent

chromosomes first time clearly appears as tetrads?

(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene

(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene

109. Which of the following equation is correct for a turgid

cell?

(1)w s= (2) w s p

= – (– )

(3) s p= (4)

s w<

110. Deficiency symptoms like chlorosis, inhibition of cell

division and delayed flowering are commonly caused

by

(1) Mg, Mn, Zn (2) Cu, Ca, Mg

(3) N, S, Mo (4) Mo, Mn, Zn

111. Chemiosmosis does not require

(1) A membrane (2) A proton pump

(3) Oxysomes (4) ATPase

112. Total number of reduced coenzymes produced in

mitochondrial matrix from one glucose is

(1) 4 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2

(2) 8 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2

(3) 10 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2

(4) 5 NADH + H+ & 1 FADH2

113. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. given diagram.

(1) It is shown by all cells, tissues and organs of a

plant

(2) Both division and differentiation occur

simultaneously

(3) It occurs at constant rate

(4) Gives linear curve when growth plotted against

time

114. A heterozygous pea plant for height, colour of flower

and shape of seed was hybridised with pure line

dwarf plant with violet and wrinkled seed. What is

the probability of getting plants with tall, violet and

wrinkled traits?

(1) 25% (2) 50%

(3) 12.5% (4) 62.5%

115. Find odd one out w.r.t. quantitative inheritance

(1) Kernel colour in wheat

(2) Corolla length in tobacco

(3) Human skin colour

(4) Eye colour in Drosophila

116. Sickle cell anaemia is classical example of

(1) Point mutation by transition

(2) Point mutation by transversion

(3) Gene mutation by deletion of nucleotide

(4) Gene mutation by insertion of nitrogen base

117. Chromosomal constitution AA + XXY represents

(1) Female sex in fruitfly

(2) Male sex in fruit fly

(3) Klinefelter male with one barr body in humans

(4) More than one option is correct

118. Read the following statements and select correct

option

a. Dinucleotide are linked by 5 – 3 phosphodiester

linkage

b. The base pairing confers stability of DNA helix

c. A typical nucleosome has 68 nm long DNA helix

d. The replication is continuous on DNA template

with polarity 5 3

(1) a, b & c (2) b & c

(3) a & d (4) a & b

119. Which of the following process occurs in template

independent manner?

(1) HnRNA synthesis

(2) Capping

(3) Tailing


120. Constitutive gene of lac operon is

(1) i-gene (2) z-gene

(3) Promotor (4) Operator

121. Select correct match.

Column I Column II

a. ESTs (i) Microsatellite

b. Split gene (ii) Minisatellite

c. VNTR (iii) Exons

d. SSR (iv) Sequence annotation

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

(11)


122. Which one of the following is post-fertilisation event?

A - Megaspore Embryo sac

B - Pollination

C - Definitive nucleus PEN endosperm

D - Nucellus Perisperm

(1) A & C (2) B & D

(3) C & D (4) B & C

123. Development of zygote depends on the life cycle of

an organism. Zygote undergoes mitosis in

organisms with

A. Haplontic life cycle

B. Diplontic life cycle

C. Haplo-diplontic life cycle

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct

(3) Both B & C are correct

(4) Both A & C are correct

124. During microsporogenesis, each cell of the

sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Microspore tetrad

(3) Microsporocyte

(4) Archesporial cell

125. Select incorrect match.

(1) Pollen grains with –Entomophily

mucilage covering

(2) Genetically self but –Monoecious

functionally cross pollination

(3) Flowers often have –Anemophily

single ovule in each ovary

(4) Floral reward as providing –Amorphophallus

safe place to lay eggs

126. In the most common type of endosperm

development, the PEN undergoes

(1) Successive nuclear division

(2) Successive cellular division

(3) Free nuclear division followed by centripetal

cytokinesis


127. A tetraploid male plant is crossed with a diploid

female plant which forms embryo sac aposporously.

What will be the ploidy of embryo [A] and

endosperm [B]?

(1) A – 3n, B – 4n (2) A – 4n, B – 6n

(3) A – 4n, B – 4n (4) A – 3n, B – 6n

128. The exotic collection of wheat and rice which

became the basis of green revolution in India are

respectively

(1) Sharbati Sonora & Atomita II

(2) Kalyan Sona & Jaya

(3) Sonora 64 & IR-8

(4) Sonalika & Taichung Native-1

129. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Pusa Gaurav is improved variety of rape seed

mustard for resistance to white rust

(2) Pusa Sawani is improved variety of okra for

resistance to aphids

(3) Maize is generally deficient in lysine and

tryptophan

(4) SCP production increases environmental pollution

130. In STPs, the soil and small pebbles are removed by

(1) Sequential filtration in primary settling tank

(2) Sedimentation during primary treatment

(3) Sedimentation in aeration tank

(4) The action of aerobic microbes in aeration tank

131. A biological control being developed for use in the

treatment of several plant diseases is

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis

(2) Baculoviruses

(3) Chrysolina

(4) Trichoderma

132. The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating

examples of mutualism are found in

(1) Plant-Plant relationship

(2) Rhizobium-Legume relationship

(3) Plant-animal relationship

(4) Animal-animal relationship

133. During ecological succession the successional

series progress from

(1) Hydric to xeric

(2) Mesic to hydric

(3) Xeric to hydric

(4) Xeric to mesic

(12)


ZOOLOGY

134. Read the statements given below and select

appropriate option.

A. Species diversity decreases from equator

towards poles.

B. The relation between species richness and area

for a wide variety of taxa is always represented

by straight line

C. Extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid

fish in the lake Victoria was due to over

exploitation by man

(1) All are correct (2) A & C are correct

(3) B & C are incorrect (4) Only C is incorrect

135. Biomagnification of DDT leads to

(1) Its increased concentration in phytoplanktons

than fishes

(2) Increase in its concentration in birds

(3) Interferance with calcium metabolism which

causes thickening of egg shell


136. The diagram below shows how mutations in certain

genes can lead to cancer. Use the diagram to

answer the questions that follows:

Cancer

Oncogenes

Mutations

X Y

What do X and Y represent?

a. Mutagens

b. Carcinogens

c. Proto-oncogenes

d. Tumor suppressor genes

Options

X Y

Mutagen

Proto-oncogenes

Carcinogen

Proto-oncogenes

Carcinogens

Tumor suppressor genes

Proto-oncogenes

Carcinogens

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

137. How is the bacterial plasmid described after donor

DNA is inserted into the bacterium’s DNA?

(1) Vector DNA (2) Cloned DNA

(3) Plasmid DNA (4) Recombinant DNA

138. A functional ADA c-DNA can be introduced into the

lymphocytes of the patient kept in culture by using

(1) Cosmid (2) Plasmid

(3) Adenovirus (4) Geminivirus

139. Given below are four statements A to D. Choose the

option which clearly states, whether they are true or

false.

A. Mutation is a source of genetic variation.

B. If the allele frequency of R is 0.80, then the

allele frequency of r is 0.10.

C. Hugo de Vries on the basis of his work on

evening primrose, brought forth the idea of

mutation.

D. Mutations are random and directional while

Darwinian variations are small and directionless.

Options

A B C D

(1) T F T F

(2) T T T T

(3) T F F F

(4) T F T T

140. Assume that 6 out of 24 students have attached

earlobes. Calculate the allele frequency within this

gene pool and what percentage of individuals are

heterozygous?

(1) 25% (2) 50%

(3) 75% (4) 20%

141. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. drug,

source and its use?

Source Use

Pacific yew

Latex of

Synthetic analogue of acetylcholine

Atropa belladona

Papaver somniferum

Treat ovarian cancer, breast cancer and some types of lung cancer

To test the refractive index of eyes

Sedative and painkiller

Stimulant

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Drug

Taxol

Atropine

Morphine

Amphetamine

(13)


142. Complete the following analogy

Ectotherm : Reptiles : : Endotherm:

(1) Fishes (2) Insects

(3) Mammals (4) Amphibians

143. In birds the skin is dry without glands except the

preen at the base of the tail. What is the function of

this gland?

(1) To produce digestive enzymes

(2) To release scents that help to attract the prey

(3) To produce an oily substance used to condition

the feathers

(4) To control salt balance in the body

144. Which of the following has no effect on the rate of

enzyme catalysed reactions?

(1) Temperature

(2) pH

(3) Concentration of substrate and products

(4) Activation energy

145. A person with defective otolith sensory receptors

(1) Is deaf

(2) Has a difficult time in maintaining balance

(3) Cannot detect external temperature changes

(4) Has faulty sense of smell

146. Second messengers are activated in response to

(1) Steroid hormones

(2) Thyroxine

(3) Protein hormones like FSH

(4) Aldosterone

147. Which of the following is a direct method of gene

transfer?

(1) Cosmid

(2) Chemical mediated gene transfer andelectroporation

(3) Plasmid

(4) YAC

148. Which type of cartilage is present at the tip of thenose and between the adjacent bones of thevertebral column respectively?

(1) Hyaline cartilage, white fibrous cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage, calcified cartilage

(3) Elastic cartilage, white firbrous cartilage

(4) Calcified cartilage, white fibrous cartilage

149. Ringworm disease is one of the most common

infectious diseases in man, caused by all, except

(1) Microsporum (2) Trichophyton

(3) Epidermophyton (4) Trichoderma polysporum

150. Find out the correct match

(1) Pancreas – Alpha cells of islets of

Langerhans secrete insulin

hormone

(2) Parathyroid – Secrete parathormone which

stimulates the movement of Ca2+

from the blood into bone

(3) Vasopressin – Stimulates diuresis

(4) Oxytocin – Acts on the smooth muscles of

the body and stimulates their

contraction

151. Tissue matching, blood group matching are essential

before undertaking any graft transport and even after

this the patient has to take immunosuppressant drugs

like A and B is responsible for the graft rejection.

One correct option for the blanks A and B is

(1) A – Histamine; B – Humoral response

(2) A – Cyclosporine; B – Humoral response

(3) A – Streptokinase; B – CMI

(4) A – Cyclosporine; B – CMI

152. Which of the following is a powerful technique to

identify genetic disorders? It is used to detect

mutations in suspected cancer patients too?

(1) ELISA

(2) PCR

(3) Radiography and MRI

(4) CT scanning

153. Virus infected cells secrete proteins called

interferons, which protect the non-infected cells from

further viral infection. Interferons are included in which

of the following barriers?

(1) Physical

(2) Cellular

(3) Cytokine

(4) Physiological

(14)


154. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Human protein (-1 antitrypsin) obtained from

transgenic animals is used to treat emphysema

(2) The first gene therapy was done for ADA

deficiency

(3) Toxoid vaccines provide us with passive immunity

(4) Golden rice is rich in vitamin A

155. Which of the following statement is correct aboutBt cotton often in news?

(1) The cry I Ac and cry II Ab is used to controlcotton bollworm, a coleopteran

(2) Bt toxin gene cry1Ab is used to control cottonbollworm

(3) It is high yielding resistant variety of cottonhaving resistance to the lepidopteran cottonbollworm developed by genetic engineering

(4) It is drought resistant variety of cotton developedby genetic engineering

156. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. differenthominid species, their brain size and characteristicfeatures?

Brain sizeCharacteristic

features

650–800 C.C

900 CC

1400 CC

1400 CC

They probably did not eat meat

Probably ate meat

Used hides to protect their body and buried their dead

They arose during ice age between 100,000 to 40,000 years back

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Hominid

Homo habilis

Homo erectus

Homo sapiens

Neanderthal man

Modern

157. In the table given below, are the methods of birthcontrol devices, along with their examples. Which ofthe following is incorrect match?

(1) Barrier method – Condoms, diaphragmscervical caps

(2) Copper releasing – Multiload 375, CuT, Cu7IUDs

(3) Steroid hormonal – Saheli, Mala N, Mala DPills

(4) Hormone releasing – LNG-20, ProgestasertIUDs

158. The control of bacterial pathogens by sulpha drugs,is an example of

(1) Competitive inhibition

(2) Non-competitive inhibition

(3) Allosteric inhibition

(4) Feedback inhibition

159. Which of the following events induce the completionof the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte?

(1) The contact of the sperm with zona pellucida

(2) Transport of the sperms to ampullary isthmicjunction

(3) The release of ovum from the ovary

(4) The secretions of acrosome which help thesperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovumthrough zona pellucida and plasma membrane.

160. What is the mechanism of action of estrogenhormone?

(1) It binds with ovarian, membrane bound receptorsand produces cyclic AMP or Ca2+ as the secondmessenger

(2) It binds with extra-cellular receptors andproduces cyclic GMP as the second messenger

(3) It regulates gene expression or chromosomefunction by the interaction of hormone receptorcomplex with genome

(4) Binds with extra-cellular receptors in ovarian cellmembrane and generates the second messengercyclic AMP

161. After successful in-vitro fertilization, the fertilised eggbegins to divide. Where is this egg transferred beforeit reaches the eight celled stage, and what is thistechnique called?

(1) Uterus, GIFT

(2) Fallopian tubes, ZIFT

(3) Fallopian tubes, GIFT

(4) Uterus, IUT

162. Which of the following plasma protein helps inosmotic balance?

(1) Fibrinogen (2) Globulins

(3) Albumin (4) Heparin

163. If the recombinant DNA is inserted within the codingsequence of lac Z gene, then the host cells whichcarry the recombinant DNA plasmid will form inthe presence of X-gal.

(1) Blue coloured colonies

(2) White colonies

(3) Do not grow

(4) Pink coloured colonies

164. Which of the following is incorrect match?

(1) Ammonotelic – Bony fishes, aquaticamphibians, crustaceans

(2) Ureotelic – Terrestrial amphibians

(3) Uricotelic – Reptiles, birds, landsnails and insects

(4) Nephridia – Amphioxus

(15)


165. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. the

following events and host which occurs in the life

cycle of Plasmodium vivax?

(1) Fertilisation – Stomach of mosquito/

vector

(2) Development of – RBCs of human beings

gametocytes

(3) Asexual reproduction – Liver cells/RBCs of

human beings

(4) Release of sporozoites– RBCs of human beings

166. Which one of the following statements is totally

wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while other

three are correct?

(1) In Ascidia the notochord is present only in larval

tail

(2) In Amphioxus notochord extends from head to

tail region and is persistent throughout the life

(3) Notochord is absent in non-chordates

(4) In Exocoetus, notochord is replaced by

cartilaginous vertebral column

167. Which of the following structures will help in

distinguishing male Periplaneta from female?

(1) Number of abdominal segments

(2) A pair of jointed filamentous structures called

anal cerci

(3) A pair of thread like anal styles

(4) Antennae

168. Tick the incorrect statement

(1) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme

carboxypeptidase

(2) Coenzymes NAD and NADP are nucleotides

and contain vitamin niacin

(3) Haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part of

active site of catalase and peroxidase

(4) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the

biosphere

169. Which of the following is correct match of the joint

and example?

(1) Between atlas – Pivot

and axis

(2) Between the pubic – Slightly movable

bones in the pelvic cartilaginous joint

gridle

(3) Between – Ball and socket

humerus and joint

glenoid cavity

(4) Carpal and – Gliding joint

metacarpal of

thumb

170. Choose the false statement w.r.t. Henle’s loop.

(1) Reabsorption in this segment is maximum

(2) Its descending limb is permeable to water but

almost impermeable to electrolytes so it is the

concentrating segment

(3) The ascending limb is the diluting segment

(4) It plays a significant role in the maintenance of

high osmolarity of interstitial fluid

171. In a resting membrane Na+ will diffuse from

(1) Inside to outside

(2) Outside to inside

(3) Outside to inside through voltage gated Na+ ion

channels

(4) Inside to outside through diffusion ion channels

172. Following is a diagrammatic representation of the

anatomy of a muscle fibre showing a sarcomere.

A B

C D

Use the following terms to label the structures in the

figure

A – band

I – band

H – zone

Z – line

Choose the correct option.

A B C D

(1) M-line H-zone A-band I-band

(2) Z-line H-zone A-band I-band

(3) Z-line I-band A-band H-zone

(4) Z-line H-zone I-band A-band

173. The reflex action in which there is ejection of stomach

contents through mouth is regulated by A present

in B of brain.

Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks A

and B.

(1) A – Vomit centre; B – Hypothalamus

(2) A – Satiety centre; B – Hypothalamus

(3) A – Hunger centre; B – Medulla

(4) A – Vomit centre; B – Medulla

(16)


174. In which of the following conditions the neurons

become depolarised without usual stimulus,

consequently, nerve and muscle action potential

arise spontaneously leading to muscle twitches,

spasms and convulsions?

(1) Osteitis fibrosa cystica

(2) Hypothyroidism

(3) Hypocalcemic tetany

(4) Grave’s disease

175. All the following statements are correct but one is

wrong. Which one is wrong?

(1) Menstruation occurs if the released ovum is not

fertilised. Lack of menstruation may be indicative

of pregnancy

(2) Normally 30 to 50 ml of blood is discharged

during menstruation

(3) Menstrual flow results due to breakdown of the

endometrial lining which forms liquid and comes

out through vagina. It does not clot

(4) After menopause the blood gonadotropins

decline markedly

176. Which of the following is the incorrect description of

a certain part of a normal human skeleton?

(1) Acromion process – Slightly elevated ridge

of scapula

(2) Floating ribs – 11th and 12th pairs of

ribs, which are not

connected ventrally to

the sternum

(3) Appendicular skeleton – It is made up of skull,

vertebral column,

sternum and ribs

(4) False ribs – The 8th, 9th and 10th

pairs of ribs which do

not directly articulate

with sternum but join

7th rib with the help of

hyaline cartilage

177. Origin of mammal like reptiles therapsids/synapsids

occurred in A period and their extinction occurred

in B period

(1) A – Carboniferous B – Jurassic

(2) A – Permian B – Jurassic

(3) A – Carboniferous B – Cretaceous

(4) A – Triassic B – Cretaceous

178. Which of the following is not a matching pair?

(1) Systemic heart– Left atrium and left ventricle in

the higher vertebrates

(2) Dup – Opening of semilunar valves at

the beginning of ventricular

systole

(3) Lubb – First heart sound due to

closure of AV valves at the

beginning of ventricular systole

(4) Q-wave – Marks the beginning of the

ventricular systole

179. Tick the false statements.

(1) Although radially symmetrical animals are

common in the ocean, all land animals are

bilaterally symmetrical

(2) Choanocytes in sponges trap food by filter

feeding and then ingest it

(3) Ctenophores, such as comb jellies, move by

cilia and have nematocysts to capture their prey

(4) Teredo or shipworm is one of the few bivalves

that does not filter feed

180. Following diagram indicates gas exchange in the

blood capillaries of the lungs and systemic

circulation.

Body tissues

AB

Pulmonaryvein

Pulmonaryartery

CO2 O2

CO2 O

2

CO2 O

2

Alveolus

CAlveolar air

What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in

vessel marked as A, pO2 in vessel B, pCO

2 in

alveolus marked as C

Options

A B C

pCO2

pO2

pCO2

in mm Hg in mmHg in mmHg

(1) 40 45 40

(2) 40 40 40

(3) 100 45 40

(4) 100 40 40

��

Edition: 2020-21

Documents

Home Assignment – 10 · Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456 Instructions : (i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle