Home Assignment-26 (CST-26) · Home Assignment-26 (CST-26) Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472 (2) Complete Syllabus Test

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INSTRUCTIONS :

(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only

1. A body of mass m slides down an incline andreaches the bottom with a velocity v. If the samemass were in the form of a ring which rolls downthis incline, the velocity of the ring at bottom wouldhave been

(1) v (2) 2v

(3) 2v (4) 2

5v

2. For given progressive wave the displacement

equation is y = 10sin(30t–x

7

), the value of wave

speed is

(1) 210 m/s (2) 420 m/s

(3) 105 m/s (4) 300 m/s

3. A particle performs uniform circular motion with anangular momentum L. If the frequency of particle’smotion is doubled and its Kinetic energy is halved,then angular momentum will be

(1) 2 L (2) 4 L

(3) L2 (4) L

4

4. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodesis formed between two atoms having a distance

1.210A between them. The wavelength of the

standing wave is

(1) 1.21 Å (2) 2.42 Å

(3) 6.05 Å (4) 3.63 Å

5. A small body of mass 0.10 kg is executing SHMof amplitude 1.0 m and period 0.20 s. Themaximum force acting on it is

(1) 98.596 N (2) 985.96 N

(3) 100.20 N (4) 76.23 N

6. Two trains are moving towards each other atspeeds of 20 m/s and 15m/s relative to the ground.The first train sounds a whistle of frequency600 Hz. The frequency of the whistle heard by apassenger in the second train before the trainmeets is (the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s):-

(1) 600 Hz

(2) 585 Hz

(3) 645 Hz

(4) 666 Hz

PHYSICS

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST-26Code-A

Home Assignment-26 (CST-26)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

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Complete Syllabus Test - 26

7. A particle executing SHM of amplitude 4 cm andT = 4sec. The time taken by it to move frompositive extreme position to half the amplitude is

(1) 1 sec (2)13 sec

(3)23 sec (4)

32

sec

8. Internal forces can change:-

(1) the linear momentum but not the Kineticenergy.

(2) the Kinetic energy but not the l inearmomentum.

(3) linear momentum as well as Kinetic energy.

(4) Neither the linear momentum nor the Kineticenergy.

9. A uniform spring of force constant K is cut into twopieces, the length of which are in the ratio 1 : 2.The ratio of the force constants of the shorter andthe longer piece is

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 7 : 8

10. A block of mass m moving at a speed v collideswith another block of mass 2 m at rest. The lighterblock comes at rest af ter the collision. Thecoefficient of restitution for the collision is

(1) 2 (2) 12

(3) 0.2 (4) 0.8

11. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes half

in one minute. The amplitude after 3 minutes 1x

times the original. The value of x is

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 9 (4) 12

12. A particle is placed at the point A on a frictionlesstrack ABC as shown in figure. It starts from restfrom A. The speed of particle when it reaches B is(g = 10 m/s2)

1m

A

0.5mB

(1) 10 m/s (2) 2 m/s

(3) 3 m/s (4) 10 m/s

13. The potential energy of a spring when stretched by4 cm is V. When stretched by 20 cm, its potentialenergy will be

(1) 25 V (2) 125 V

(3) 20 V (4) 120 V

14. A -ray photon is emitted

(1) after ionization of an atom

(2) due to conversion of a neutron into a proton inthe nucleus

(3) after de-excitation of a nucleus

(4) due to conversion of a proton into a neutron inthe nucleus.

15. In a meter bridge, the null point is found at adistance of 25 cm from A. If now a resistance of10 is connected in parallel with S, the null pointoccurs at mid point of AB. The value of R is

R SA B

(1) 6.67 (2) 1.67

(3) 2.67 (4) 4.67

16. A radioactive element X converts into anotherstable element Y. Half life of X is 2 hr. Initially onlyX is present. After time ‘t’ the ratio of atoms of Xand Y is found to be 1 : 4, then ‘t’ (in hours) is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) Between 4 and 6 (4) 6

17. Resistance of wire AB is 2000 and resistance ofvoltmeter is 1500 . If sliding contact is in themiddle of wire AB, then reading of voltmeter will be

A B

16Volt

V

(1) 3 V (2) 6 V

(3) 10 V (4) 8 V

18. A metallic sphere with an internal cavity weighs60gm in air and 20 gm in water. If the density ofthe metal is 3 gm/cm3, then the volume of thecavity is

(1) 15 cm3

(2) 20 cm3

(3) 25 cm3

(4) 30 cm3

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19. Resistance of a galvanometer is G. If a seriesresistance R is connected with coil then its voltagerange is 0–V. If we want voltage range 0–2V, thenthe additional series resistance to be connectedwith above series combination is(1) 2 R (2) R + G(3) 2 R + G (4) G

20. Surface tension of a liquid is due to(1) Gravitational force between molecules(2) Intermolecular force of electrical origin(3) Adhesive force between molecules(4) Cohesive force between molecules

21. A parallel plate capacitor with air between plateshas a capacitance of 8 F. If distance betweenplates is reduced by half, and the space betweenthem is filled with a substance of dielectricconstant 6, the new value of capacitance will be(1) 96 F (2) 6 F(3) 50 F (4) 10 F

22. A cylindrical vessel is filled with water upto heightH. A hole is bored in the wall at a depth h from thefree surface of water for maximum range, thenvalue of h is

(1) H4 (2) H

2

(3) 3H4 (4) H

23. A capacitor of capacitance C with charge CV3q

is connected as shown in figure. Calculate thetotal heat dissipated on closing the switch(S).

–q +q

S V

(1) 29 CV2 (2) 8

9 CV2

(3) 23 CV2 (4) 1

3 CV2

24. Current through the conductor PQ in the givendiagram is

2m/s1m 2

P

Q

B=2T

(1) 2A from P to Q (2) 2A from Q to P(3) 4A from P to Q (4) 4A from Q to P

25. A sinusoidal a.c. current passes through aresistance R in LCR series circuit. If phasedifference between supplied voltage and suppliedcurrent is and peak value of supplied current isI0, then power dissipated in the circuit is

(1) 20R cos (2) 2

0R /2

(3) 20R (4)

20R cos

2

26. Current in inductor of inductance 2 mH is decreasedby 3 A from initial value of 5 A in 4 sec, theninduced emf in the inductor is(1) 1 mV (2) 2 mV(3) 1.5 mV (4) 3 mV

27. Current in A.C circuit is i = i1sint + i2cost. It’srms value is

(1) 1 2i i2

(2) 21 2i i

2

(3)2 21 2i i

2

(4)2 21 2i i2

28. A magnet of length l having magnetic moment M.Now it is bent to form a semicircle, then its newmagnetic moment will be

(1) M (2)M2

(3)2M

(4)2 2M

29. A point charge Q is placed in uniform electric field

1 2E E i E j at position having coordinates (a,b).The work done in moving charge Q to a pointhaving coordinate (c,d) from (a,b) is(1) Zero(2) [E1(c – a) + E2(d – b)]Q(3) (E1ac + E2bd)Q(4) (E1c + E2d)Q

30. In the figure given below, the magnetic induction atpoint O is

r O

I

(1) 0

4 r (2) 0 0

4r 2 r

(3) 0 0

4r 4 r

(4) 0 0

4r 4 r

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31. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other asshown. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 30°on one of them. The ray after reflection falls onsecond mirror and finally retraces its path. Thencalculate the value of

30°

(1) 60° (2) 45°(3) 30° (4) 4°

32. Two charged particles M and N are projected withsame velocity in a uniform magnetic field, then Mand N are respectively

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

M N

(1) An electron and a proton(2) A deutron and a proton(3) A deutron and an electron(4) A proton and -particle

33. A concave and convex lens have the same focallength of 20 cm and are put into contact to forma lens combination. The combination is used toview an object of 5 cm length kept at 20 cm fromthe lens combination. As compared to the object,the image will be(1) Magnified and inverted

(2) Reduced and erect(3) Of the same size and erect(4) Of the same size and inverted

34. An ideal gas is made to expand from an initialvolume V to a final volume 4 V through threedifferent thermodynamic processes as shown infigure. Process 1 is adiabatic, 2 is isothermal and3 is isobaric. If U1, U2 and U3 denotes thechange in internal energy of the gas in the threeprocesses respectively, then

P

V4V

12

3

(1) U1 >U2 >U3

(2) U1 <U3 <U2

(3) U1 <U2 <U3

(4) U3 <U1 <U2

35. The final image formed in compound microscopewill be(1) Virtual, erect, magnified(2) Virtual, inverted, magnified(3) Real, erect, magnified(4) Real inverted, diminished

36. 0.1 m3 of water at 80°C is mixed with 0.3 m3 ofwater at 60°C. The final temperature of the mixtureis(1) 65°C (2) 70°C(3) 60°C (4) 75°C

37. The readings of ammeter A1 and A2 in the givendiagram wil l be (neglect the resistance ofammeters)

A1

A2

2V

10

10

(1) Zero, Zero (2) Zero, 0.1 A(3) 0.1 A, Zero (4) Zero, 0.2 A

38. The rate of dissipation of heat by a black body attemperature T is Q. For another body attemperature 2T and emissivity 0.25, the rate ofdissipation of heat will be(1) 16 Q (2) 4 Q(3) 8 Q (4) 4.5 Q

39. Two spheres of mass m and M are situated in airand the gravitational force between them is F. Thespace around the masses is now filled with aliquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force willnow be(1) 3 F (2) F(3) F/3 (4) F/9

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40. Identify the gate in given diagram

A

B

Y

(1) OR (2) NOR(3) XOR (4) XNOR

41. A man of mass 80kg stands on a weighing scaleplaced in a lift moving upwards with a uniformacceleration of 5 m/s2. Taking g = 10 m/s2, thereading on the weighing scale should be(1) Zero (2) 40 kg(3) 80 kg (4) 120 kg

42. A thief goes on a straight road in a jeep with aspeed of 9 m/s. A policeman follows him on amotorcycle with a speed of 10 m/s. If theinstantaneous distance between the jeep andmotorcycle is 100 m, then after how much time willthe policeman catch the thief ?(1) 19 sec (2) 10 sec(3) 100 sec (4) 90 sec

43. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planetB. A man can jump to a height of 2 m on thesurface of A. The height of jumps by the sameperson on the planet B is

(1)29 m (2) 18 m

(3) 6 m (4)23 m

44. A body is projected at such an angle that thehorizontal range is five times of its maximumheight attained. the angle of projection withhorizontal is(1) tan–1(4) (2) tan–1(4/5)

(3) 45° (4) tan–1(5/4)45. A particle starts from rest and has velocity Kt after

time t. The distance travelled in first t s is

(1) Kt2 (2) 2Kt2

(3) Kt (4)2Kt

2

46. 2 2 3 1

2 2 2

2 2 2 3

N 3H 2NH KN O 2NO K

1H O H O K2

The equlibrium constant for the reaction will be

3 2 252NH O 2NO 3H O2

K

(1)3

1 3K KK2

(2)3

2 3

1

K KKK

(3) 2 3

1

K KKK

(4)32 3

1

K KKK

47. When the following ether reacts with HO

(1) Phenol is produced(2) Iodobenzene is produced(3) Both (2) and (3)(4) No reaction occurs

48. A suitable method to separate mixture of glyceroland spent-lye is(1) Distillation(2) Steam distillation(3) Distillation under reduced pressure(4) Sublimation

49. The correct intermediate and product for thefollowing reaction respectively are

(1)

HOHOH

A : , B :

COOH

(2)

CHCl2

A : , B :

CHO

(3)

HC (OCrOHCl )2 2

A : , B :

CHO

(4)

CCl3

A : , B :

COOH

CHEMISTRY

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50. Which of the following is most appropriate forpreparation of Aniline?

(1) Hoffmann Bromamide degradation reaction

(2) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

(3) Stephen reduction

(4) Schotten Baumann reaction

51. IUPAC name of the following compound is

HC C – CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2

(1) hex-1-en-5-yne

(2) hex-5-en-1-yne

(3) hex-1-yn-5-ene

(4) hex-5-yn-1-ene

52. Among the following which is the product formedwhen 2-methylpropanal undergoes aldol reactionfollowed by heating ?

(1)

OH

OH

(2)

O OH

H

(3)

O

H

(4)

OH

53. Which of the following pairs of compounds isisostructural and isoelectronic?

(1) 4 4XeF , BrF

(2) 2 2NH , H S

(3) 2 2CO , NO

(4) 2 2Cl , CO

54. H C2 CH2

Br Br

KOH(alcohol) A NaNH2

(excess) B

H+

2CH Cl 3

C

DHg /20% H SO (aq)2+

2 4 E

Which of the following statements is correct for theabove reaction sequence ?

(1) A is alkyne (2) C is acetylene

(3) D is alkylhalide (4) E is aldehyde

55. Which of the following cities is not a part of Tajtrapezium ?

(1) Delhi (2) Agra

(3) Mathura (4) Bharatpur

56. Which one of the following is the most acidic?

(1) H3C – C CH (2) CH3COOH

(3) CH3 – OH (4) CH3SO3H

57. The gas which will not change the colour ofacidified KMnO4 is

(1) SO2 (2) H2S

(3) CO2 (4) HCl

58. Which one is the correct order of acidity ?

(1) Picric acid > formic acid > benzoic acid >acetic acid

(2) Formic acid > benzoic acid > acetic acid >picric acid

(3) Benzoic acid > formic acid > acetic acid >picric acid

(4) Picric acid > benzoic acid > formic acid >acetic acid

59. The concentration of calcium ion in a saturatedsolution of Ca3(PO4)2 is 3 × 10–6mol–1. What isthe solubility product of Ca3(PO4)2 ?

(1) 3.24 × 10–28 (2) 1.08 × 10–28

(3) 1 × 10–30 (4) 2.4 × 10–28

60. CH3—CC—CH3 and CH2=CH—CH=CH2 are

(1) Metamers

(2) Position isomers

(3) Chain isomers

(4) Functional group isomers

61. Which of the following regarding nucleophile isincorrect ?

(1) Nucleophile may have (–)ve charge

(2) Nucleophile cannot be neutral

(3) Benzene can act as a nucleophile

(4) A Bronsted base can act as nucleophile

62. Which one is a correct statement ?

(1) Phosphorus have a vacant p-orbital

(2) The circumference of nth Bohr’s orbit is nwhere is de-Broglie wavelength

(3) Bohr’s orbit obeys Heisenberg uncertaintyprinciple

(4) Photo electric effect illustrates the wavenature of electron.

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63. The correct order of C – O bond length is thefollowing complexes is

26 6 6 6

a b c d

[Fe(CO) ] , [Mn CO ] , [Cr CO ], [V CO ]

(1) a > b > c > d (2) a < b < c < d(3) a > c > b > d (4) a < c < b < d

64. Match the compound or ions of phosphorous incolumn I with the shape in column II and asign thecorrect code

Column-I Column-II

(a) 4PCl (i) Trigonal planner

(b) 6PCl (ii) Pyramidal

(c) PF3Cl2 (iii) Octahedral(d) PCl3 (iv) Tetrahedral

(v) Trigonalbipyramidal

(a) (b) (c) (d)(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)(2) (iv) (iii) (v) (i)(3) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)(4) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii)

65. The species having a bond angle of 90° is(1) ClF3 (2) SF4

(3) SF6 (4) BrF5

66. The correct increasing order of basic strength forthe following compounds is

NH2N NH2

NO2

(1) (2) (3)(1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 3 > 2 > 1(3) 2 > 1 > 3 (4) 3 > 1 > 2

67. Which of the following options is correct ?(1) In the preparation of SO3 in lead chamber

process, heterogeneous catalyst is used(2) Pt is used as catalyst in Haber’s process

(3) Cu2CO H HCHO

(4) Glucose Diastase 2C2H5OH + 2CO2

68. A gas is heated using 700 J heat in container fittedwith a movable piston keeping a constant pressureof 1atm. The volume of gas changes from 2.5 to7. The change in enthalpy of gas in Joules will be(1) 454 J (2) 245.5 J(3) 1154.5 J (4) 700 J

69. A container at 127°C contains 10N2 at pressure1 atm in excess solid. The container fitted with amovable piston. What will be the maximum volumeof N2 when the reaction reaches equlibrium at127°C?

33 2 p2

Ba N s Ba(s) 3N (g) K 64 atm

(1) 2 (2) 2.5

(3) 5 (4) 10

70. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Amylopectin is water soluble

(2) Vitamin B12 is water insoluble

(3) Glycine is an essential amino acid

(4) Maltose is a reducing sugar

71. The mechanism of a hypothetical reaction

2 2 2A 2B 2AB is as follows.

2

2

2 2

A 2A fast2A B 2AB slow2AB B 2AB fast

The order of the reaction is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 1.5 (4) 2.5

72. Which of the following oxyacids of S has S – Slinkage ?

(1) H2S2O8 (2) H2S2O7

(3) H2S2O3 (4) All of these

73. Which of the following species have same bondorder and magnatic nature ?

(1) C2, O2 (2) B2, O2

(3) C2, 22N (4) 2

2N , O2

74. Among the following the correct option is

(1) T3+ is more stable than T+

(2) Pb2+ converts to Pb4+ during discharge of leadbattery

(3) Pb2+ converts to Pb4+ during charging of leadstorage battery

(4) Pb2 + 2 Pb4 is spontaneous

75. Aspirin is an

(1) Antibiotic (2) Antihistamine

(3) Antiseptic (4) Analgesic

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76. For a given reaction H° and S° respectively are13818 R mol–1 and 18.424 R K–1 mol–1. G° for thereaction at 300 K is (in kJ)(1) 68.93 (2) 16.83(3) 402.34 (4) 203.82

77. The vapour pressure of 0.1 molal KCl solution willbe increased by(1) Adding KCl(2) Adding AgNO3

(3) Adding water(4) Decreasing temperature

78. Which of the following concentration terms is noteffected by temperature ?(1) Molarity (2) Normality(3) Mole fraction (4) Mass by volume

79. The correct statement regarding [NiCl4]2– is(1) dsp2 hybridisation, square planar(2) sp2d hybridisation, square planar(3) sp3 hybridisation, tetrahedral(4) dsp3 hybridisation, trigonal bipyramidal

80.

Br

NO2

NaOH/ A, Identify A, and predict the

type of reaction

(1)

NO2

and cine substitution

(2)

OH

NO2

and cine substitution

(3)

OH

NO2

and substitution via addition-elimination

(4)

OH

NO2

and substitution via elemination

addition

81. Which of the fol lowing is a -bondedorganometallic complex?

(1) Grignard reagent (2) Zeise’s salt

(3) Tetraethyllead (4) Haemoglobin

82. Choose the wrong statement

(1) Neptunium can have +7 oxidation number

(2) Lanthanoids have complicated magnetic nature

(3) Gadolinium (III) has f 8 configuration

(4) Eu2+ is reducing in nature

83. The element with Z = 116 will belong to which ofthe following family/group?

(1) Boron family

(2) Carbon family

(3) Nitrogen family

(4) Oxygen family

84. In a first order reaction 8 mole of reactantbecomes 0.5 mole in 69.3 min. What is thespecific rate constant of the reaction is

(1) 4 × 10–2s–1

(2) 2 × 10–2s–1

(3) 6.66 × 10–4s–1

(4) 6.66 × 10–3s–1

85. Which of the following ions has highest mobility inwater ?

(1) Cl– (2) CH3COO–

(3) OH– (4) 24SO

86. The emf of the following cell will be increased by,Zn | Zn(NO3)2(0.1M) || Ag(NO3) (0.2 M) | Ag

(1) Adding Ag

(2) Adding HNO3

(3) Adding Zn

(4) Adding AgNO3

87. Which is a correct statement ?

(1) ZnS shows schottky defect

(2) FeO shows metal excess defect

(3) NaCl shows F-center defect

(4) When Si is doped by Ga n-typesemiconductor is produced

88. Which of the following metals is purif ied bydistillation ?

(1) Ti (2) Zn

(3) Pb (4) Si

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89. 0.1m aqueous solution of NiCl2. 6NH3 showsfreezing point of – 0.558°C. What is the freezingpoint of 0.1m solution of NiCl2·4NH3 if both thecomplexes are octahedral?(1) – 0.186°C(2) – 0.372°C(3) – 0.558°C(4) – 0.744°C

91. Identify the organism that shows the followingcharacteristics(a) Zygotic meiosis(b) Causes red tide of the sea(c) Mesokaryon organisation(d) Whirling whip(1) Spirullina

(2) Gymnodinium

(3) Melosira

(4) Trichodesmium

92. Select the mismatched pairFruits Edible parts

(1) Cashew nut Cotyledons(2) Mango Fleshy mesocarp(3) Almond Mesocarp(4) Apple Fleshy thalamus

93. Identify the stages of cell cycle in which thefollowing events occur(a) Duplication of most of the organelles(b) Duplication of centrioles(c) Synthesis of tubulin proteins

(A) (B) (C)(1) G2 phase G1 phase M phase(2) S phase M phase G0 phase(3) M phase Interphase G1 phase(4) G1 phase S phase G2 phase

94. Match the following columns and select thecorrect option.

Column-I Column-II(a) Mg2+ (i) Alcohol

dehydrogenase(b) Mo (ii) RuBisCO(c) Zn2+ (iii) Photolysis of water(d) Mn2+ (iv) Nitrogenase

(1) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iii)(2) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii)(3) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(i)(4) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iv)

95. In C4 plants, what is the number of carbon atomsin(a) Primary CO2 acceptor(b) Primary CO2 fixation product

(a) (b)(1) 5 3(2) 3 4(3) 3 5(4) 4 3

96. Leading strand does not require which enzymeduring DNA replication ?(1) Primase (2) DNA polymerase I(3) DNA polymerase III (4) Ligase

97. Statement A : Shuttles do not occur inprokaryotesStatement B : NADH2 molecules produced duringglycolysis can directly enter the mitochondria(1) Only A is correct(2) Only B is correct(3) Both A and B are correct(4) Both A and B are incorrect

98. Find the direction of water flow in the given system

OP = 6 atmTP = 2 atm DPD = 1 atm

OP = 18 atmTP = 8 atmA

B C

(1) A C (2) B C

(3) C A (4) A C

99. All the given plants are dioecious, except(1) Papaya (2) Date palm(3) Marchantia (4) Coconut

BOTANY

90. When SO2 passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 andCl2 respectively it will behave as(1) Oxidising agent in both the cases(2) Reducing agent in both the cases(3) Oxidising agent and reducing agent

respectively(4) Reducing agent and oxidising agent

respectively

(10)


100. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen grain(1) Exine of the pollen grain has prominent

apertures celled germ pores wheresporopollenin is absent

(2) Inner wall of the pollen grain is called intine(3) Pollen grains are generally spherical in shape(4) In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen is shed at

three celled stage101. The pure line round seeded pea plant was crossed

with wrinkled seeded pea plant. The plants in F1

generation will be (i) and it can be explained

by (ii) .

(i) and (ii) would be respectively(1) Wrinkled seeded and Law of segregation(2) Round seeded and Law of dominance(3) Round seeded and Codominance(4) Wrinkled seeded and Law of dominance

102. “Pusa Swarnim” is a/an(1) Aphid resistant variety of Brassica(2) White rust resistant variety of Brassica(3) Shoot and fruit borer resistant variety of flat

bean(4) Hill bunt resistant variety of wheat

103. In STP(1) Primary treatment is a biological process(2) Flocs are anaerobic and autotrophic microbes(3) BOD measures the organic matter present in

the water(4) Activated sludge is the effluent of tertiary

treatment104. Humus is

(A) Dark coloured amorphous substance(B) Highly resistant to microbial action(1) Both A and B are correct(2) Both A and B are incorrect(3) A is correct but B is incorrect(4) A is incorrect but B is correct

105. Most important cause for biodiversity loss is(1) Over exploitation(2) Alien species invasions(3) Co - extinctions(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation

106. The international treaty to control the emission ofozone depleting substances is(1) Kyoto Protocol (2) Montreal Protocol(3) Bali Convention (4) Earth Summit

107. Which of the following is not related to the floralformula of Belladonna ?

(1) C A(5) (5) (2) G(2)

(3) (4) K(5)

108. (i) cambium forms complete, continuous but

wavy ring during secondary growth in (ii) .

Select the correct option for (i) and (ii)(1) (i) Vascular, (ii) Dicot Stem(2) (i) Cork, (ii) Dicot leaf(3) (i) Vascular, (ii) Dicot root(4) (i) Cork, (ii) Dicot root

109. Read the following statements w.r.t. prokaryotic celland select the correct option(i) Single envelope system is present(ii) Mesosome increases surface area(iii) The small circular DNA outside the genomic

DNA confers unique phenotype(iv) Contains pseudovaculoesThe correct one(s) is/are(1) Only (i)(2) Only (i) and (ii)(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)(4) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

110. Crossing over(1) Occurs in dyad stage of meiosis(2) Causes recombination between genes of

homologous chromosomes(3) Occurs after chiasmata formation in leptotene(4) Occurs in diplotene, the longest phase of

meiosis111. Loss of water in liquid phase from the margins of

leaves in many herbaceous plants is(1) Guttation(2) Transpiration(3) High temperature(4) Due to cohesion-tension property of water

molecules112. The essential element which maintains the

ribosome structure is also(1) Responsible for carbohydrate transloction(2) Needed during mitotic spindle formation(3) Constituent of ring structure of chlorophyll(4) Needed in the synthesis of auxin

(11)


113. Read the following statements

Statements-I : Water splitting complex is locatedon the inner side of the thylakoid membrane

Statements-II : During chemiosmosis, breakdownof proton gradient releases energy

(1) Both I and II are incorrect

(2) I is correct but II is incorrect

(3) I is incorrect but II is correct

(4) Both I and II are correct

114. The phytohormone which was first isolated fromhuman urine, shows

(a) Bolting effect

(b) Apical dominance

(c) Control of xylem differentiation

(d) Leaf senescence effect

(e) Ripening of fruit

(f) Initiation of rooting in stem cutting

(1) b, c and f (2) a, d, and e

(3) b, e and f (4) a, b and d

115. A man suffering from haemophilia maries a normalwoman without any history of haemophilia in herfamily. What percentage of their sons would beaffected ?

(1) 100% (2) 75%

(3) 50% (4) 0%

116. Study the given pedigree chart and choose thecorrect statement:

Parents

Generation 1

(1) The trait under study is dominant

(2) Both parents are homozygous for that trait

(3) The trait can be X-l inked recessive likehaemophilia

(4) The trait depicted is autosomal recessive likecystic fibrosis

117. If the dominant alleles of two gene loci produce thesame phenotype, whether inherited together orseparately, the 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is modified into

(1) 9 : 7 ratio

(2) 15 : 1 ratio

(3) 3 : 1 ratio

(4) 9 : 3 : 4 ratio

118. (i) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNArefered to as (A)

(ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referredto as (B) regulation

(iii) The secondary structure of tRNA looks like(C)

A B C(1) Minisatellite Positive L-Shaped(2) Micro-satellite Negative Inverted L-shaped(3) Minisatellite Negative Clover leaf(4) Micro-satellite Positive Clover leaf

119. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus isinduced by(1) Mutation breeding(2) Hybridisation(3) Selection(4) Polyploid breeding

120. Which of the following factors increases populationdensity more significantly i f new habitat iscolonised ?(1) Natality (2) Mortality(3) Immigration (4) Emigration

121. The natural reservoir for phosphorus is(1) Ocean (2) Rock(3) Atmosphere (4) Living organisms

122. The criteria for declaring a zone as hotspot ofbiodiversity is/area. High degree of endemismb. Slow habitat lossc. Less species richness(1) All a, b and c (2) a and b only(3) b only (4) a and c only

123. The exploring of molecular, genetic and species -level diversity for the products of economicimportance represents(1) Eutrophication(2) Biomagnification(3) Biofortification(4) Bioprospecting

124. Woese gave three domains of life based on(1) 16S rRNA genes sequence(2) Plasmid DNA genes sequence(3) 28S ribosomal RNA sequence(4) Types of ribosomes

(12)


125. Which of the following algae shows oogamy(1) Volvox (2) Cladophora(3) Spirogyra (4) Ulothrix

126. Which plant does not have root modification formechanical support?(1) Banyan (2) Rhizophora(3) Sugarcane (4) Maize

127. Find incorrect match(1) Endarch xylem – Stem(2) Exarch xylem – Root(3) Xylem fibre – Septate or aseptate(4) Xylem parenchyma – Thick walled

128. Regarding secondary growth in dicot stem, all ofthe following is true, except(1) Vascular cambium is more active towards inner

side(2) Primary and secondary phloem gradually get

crushed(3) Cells of medullary rays become meristamatic(4) Vascular cambium is completely secondary in

origin129. For recombination of genetic material in meiosis,

which of the following is not correct ?

(1) Occurs between non sister chromatids(2) Homologous chromosomes are involved(3) Non homologous chromosomes are involved(4) Enzyme recombinase is involved

130. What is the location of NADP reductase enzymeinvolved in production of NADPH + H+ ?(1) Stroma side of the thylakoid membrane(2) Mitochondrial matrix(3) Stromal lamella(4) Thylakoid lumen

131. Number of ovules in an ovary is more than one inall, except(1) Papaya(2) Mango(3) Orchids(4) Water melon

132. Find incorrect match(1) Polygenic inheritance – Kernel colour in

wheat(2) Pleiotropy – Single gene multiple

phenotypes(3) X body of Henking – One in 100% of

human sperms(4) Pedigree analysis – Mendelian traits

133. In bacteria, the process of transcription andtranslation is coupled, because ?(1) There is no seperation of cytosol and nuclear

material(2) Ribosome is attached to nuclear envelope(3) There is no energy requirement(4) There is no cytoplasm

134. What is the function of DNA ligase ?(1) It synthesises RNA Primer(2) It joins two stands of DNA(3) It unwinds DNA double strand(4) It cuts DNA strand

135. Find incorrect statement(1) In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major

conduit for energy flow(2) In terrestrial ecosystem, DFC is the major

conduit for energy flow(3) In nature, food chain always works in isolation(4) DFC and GFC are linked in nature

136. Match the following parts of a nephron with theirfunctions

A. PCT (i) Reabsorption ofwater only

B. Descending limb of (ii) Reabsorption ofHenle’s loop salt only

C. Ascending limb of (iii) FacultativeHenle’s loop water reabsorption

D. DCT (iv) 100% reabsorption ofglucose, aminoacids etc.

Select the correct option from the following

A B C D

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

ZOOLOGY

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137. Study the following statements and choose thecorrect optionA. ADH secretion is triggered when osmolarity of

body fluids is above than normal.B. ADH inhibits H2O reabsorption from DCT.(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct(2) Only statement A is correct(3) Both Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect(4) Only statement B is correct

138. Match the items in column-I with those incolumn-II

Column-I Column-IIA. Coxal gland (i) PheretimaB. Malpighian tubule (ii) PeriplanetaC. Nephridia (iii) SpiderD. Uricotelism (iv) Land snail

(v) DugesiaChoose the correct option

A B C D

(1) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (v) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

139. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted toa structure called A , which secrete mainly

B , Fill in the blanks with correct optiondesignated as A and B.(1) A) Corpus albicans : B) Progesterone(2) A) Corpus luteum : B) Estrogen(3) A) Corpus albicans : B) Estrogen(4) A) Corpus luteum : B) Progesterone

140. Which of the following statement is correct aboutthe origin and evolution of man ?(1) Neanderthal man gradually evolved into Homo

sapiens(2) Variation in sperm mitochondiral DNA gives

valuable evidence of origin of human races(3) Prehistoric cave art developed about 18000

years ago(4) Australopithecus is the direct ancester of

modern day apes141. Which of the following statement is incorrect

regarding Lecithin ?(1) It is an important membrane phospholipid(2) Glycerol is absent in it(3) It is a compound lipid(4) It is amphipathic in nature

142. Consider the following information regarding aprotein structureA. Fibrous proteinB. Abundance of hydroxyproline and prolineC. Forms right handed triple helixIdentify the protein which satisfies all of the above(1) -keratin (2) Myoglobin(3) Fibroin (4) Collagen

143. Select the correct statement(1) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the

atmospheric pressure during exhalation(2) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is decreased

in case of emphysema(3) During forceful exhalation, only diaphragm and

external intercostal muscle undergocontraction

(4) Internal intercostal muscle plays major roleduring normal inspiration

144. Non competitive inhibition differs from competitiveinhibition in, that(1) Inhibitor competes with substrate for the active

site(2) Inhibitor increases Km to reduce enzyme

activity(3) Inhibitor reduces Vmax without changing Km

(4) Increased substrate concentration withdrawsinhibitory effect

145. Select the correct sequence of events in theprocess of fertilizationA. CapacitationB. Acrosome reactionC. Agglutination reactionD. Influx of Na+ in eggE. SyngamyF. Cortical ReactionG. Fast block to polyspermy(1) A – C – B – D – G – F – E(2) C – B – A – E – G – F – D(3) A – B – C – D – F – G – E(4) B – A – D – G – F – C – E

146. Which of the following strategy is employed in thedesign of steroidal centraceptive pill like Mala-D?(1) Asynchronization between ovulation and

implantation(2) Negative feedback effect of steroid hormone on

gonadotropin(3) Modulation of estrogen receptor on uterus(4) Positive feedback of progesterone to increase

cervical mucus

(14)


147. Which of the following is a correct statement?(1) According to MTP Act, 2017, MTP can be

done upto 28 weeks of gestation period(2) Copper IUDs are frequently inserted to stop

ovulation(3) Copper containing IUDs supress sperm

motility and their ability to fertilize egg(4) Amniocentesis detects postnatal biochemical

and chromosomal abnormalities148. Select the STI caused by virus.

(1) AIDS (2) Gonorrhoea(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Chancroid

149. Which of the following can’t be considered as adifference between cartilage and bone?(1) Cartilage matrix is pliable but bone matrix is

non-pliable(2) Cartilage is avascular but bone is vascular(3) Chondrocytes present singly in lamellae

whereas multiple osteocytes are present inclusters in a single lacuna

(4) Carti lage growth is unidirectional incomparison to bidirectional growth of bone

150. A set of proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice, is(1) Trypsin, pepsin, chymotrypsin(2) Trypsin, amylopsin, carboxy peptidase(3) Aminopeptidase, lipase, chymotrypsin(4) Carboxypeptidase, trypsin, chymotrypsin

151. Match the items given in column-I with those incolumn-II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II(a) CCK-PZ (i) Stimulates gastric

secretion and motility(b) Enterogastrone (ii) Stimulates

Brunner’s gland torelease mucus

(c) Gastrin (iii) Contraction of gallbladder to releasebile

(d) Duocrinin (iv) Inhibits gastricsecretion and motility

a b c d(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

152. Which of the following is not considerd as aresult of convergent evolution ?(1) Australian marsupials and placental mammals(2) Evolution of marsupial diversity from a single

ancestor(3) The wings in birds, bat and insects(4) The flippers in penguins and dolphins

153. The act of inbreeding(1) Increases the rate of mutation and

heterozygosity(2) Usually seen between distantly related breeds,

not sharing common anscestors in plantkingdom

(3) Tends to decrease homozygosity, diseasesusceptibility and exposure of recessive genes

(4) Increases the proportion of homozygousindividual in a population

154. Select the incorrect match(1) LSD = Psychedelic agents produce

hallucinations(2) Amphetamines = Induce alertness and

wakefulness(3) Cannabinoids = Known for their effects on

gastrointestinal system only(4) Morphine = Used as analgesics clinically

155. Clumping typically due to antigen-antibody reactionis known as(1) Autoimmunity(2) Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity(3) Agglutination(4) Allergy

156. Consider the following statements and choosecorrect option.A. Cattle breeds can be improved by

superovulation and embryo transferB. Superovulation in high milk yielding cows is

induced by hormonal injection(1) Both statements are correct(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is

incorrect(3) Both statements are incorrect(4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is

correct157. Given below are four statements pertaining to

separation of DNA fragments using gelelectropheresis. Identify the option with incorrectstatements onlya. Separation of DNA fragments is based on its

intrinsic chargeb. Ethidium bromide is added to agarose gel to

stain DNAc. Higher the gel percentage, lesser would be the

mobility of a given DNA fragmentd. After gel electrophoresis, DNA bands can be

observed in visible wavelengths of light(540 nm)

(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d)(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)

(15)


158. In the production of Flavr-Savr tomato, which of thefollowing strategy is employed ?(1) Over expression of polygalacturonase enzyme

under a strong promoter(2) Insertion of cry I Ab gene which acts against

pests(3) Knock down of polygalacturonase expression

by using RNAi technique(4) Increased production of calcium-pectate to

delay ripening by gene addition159. Match the following genera with their respectively

phylum(a) Dugesia (i) Mollusca(b) Wuchereria (ii) Arthropoda(c) Nautilus (iii) Platyhelminthes(d) Palaemon (iv) AschelminthesSelect the correct option:

a b c d(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

160. Presence of Eucoelom and metamericsegmentation first-appeared in which phylum?(1) Arthropoda (2) Aschelminthes(3) Annelida (4) Echinodermata

161. Which of the following statements regardingPeriplaneta is incorrect?(1) External genitalia or gonapophyses present

only in male cockroach(2) Anal cerci is a segmented structure present in

both sexes(3) Phallic gland is present in male cockroach(4) Malpighian tubule is present at the junction of

midgut and hindgut162. When the body is moving in swirling motion as in

case of a joyride, the sense of rotationalacceleration is provided by(1) Crista ampullaris (2) Organ of Corti(3) Macula (4) Otolith organ

163. If Na+ – K+ ATPase pump is functional, which ofthe following is most likely to happen?(1) More Na+ outside the axoplasm(2) More Na+ inside the axoplasm(3) Less K+ inside the axoplasm(4) Equal amounts of Na+ and K+ outside the

axoplasm

164. Which of the following set of functions is notprovided by epinephrine and nor epinephrine?(1) Increase alertness, pupilary di lation,

piloerection, Sweating(2) Increase heart beat, strength of heart

contraction, rate of respiration(3) Increase glycogenolysis, lipogenesis, broncho-

constriction, goosebumps(4) Increase glycogenolysis, inhibit gastric

secretion and pancreatic secretion, piloerection165. Small radiolabelled oligonucleotide capable of

recognizing desired complementary sequence isknown as(1) Primer (2) Probe(3) cDNA (4) RFLP

166. Which of the following restriction endonucleaseproduce blunt ends?(1) EcoRI (2) Sma I(3) Pst I (4) Bam HI

167. If gene of interest is inserted in lac Z region of apUC8 vector then recombinant colonies will appear

(A) in color in agar medium containing

(B) .

Identify [A] and [B] correctlyA B

(1) Blue Tetracycline(2) White Tetracycline(3) Blue Ampicillin(4) White Ampicillin

168. Choose the incorrect statement(1) Hepatic portal system bring blood from

digestive system to liver(2) Renal portal system is well developed in

pisces and amphibians(3) First heart sound is produced at the onset of

ventricular diastole(4) High level of Na+ and K+ in the ECF decreases

heart rate169. Match the following enzymes with their functions

A B(a) Restriction (i) Thermostable

endonuclease polymerase usedin primer extension

(b) Reverse transcriptase (ii) Breaksphosphodiesterbonds

(c) Alkaline phosphatase (iii) Used to producecDNA from mRNA

(d) Taq polymerase (iv) Prevents self-ligation of plasmids

(16)


(1) a – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), d – (i)(2) a – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), d – (i)(3) a – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (i), d – (iv)(4) a – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), d – (i)

170. Which of the following statement regarding nodaltissues of heart is incorrect?(1) SA node has the highest rate of depolarization(2) Action potential of SA node is triggered by

opening of K+ channel(3) Parasympathetic nervous system can

decrease the rate of heart beat(4) Sympathetic nervous system increase the rate

of heart beat171. Which of the fol lowing diseases results in

increased susceptibi li ty of bone f racture inpostmenopausal woman ?(1) Osteoarthritis (2) Osteomalacia(3) Gout (4) Osteoporosis

172. Match the following joints with the bones involvedan select the correct option(a) Saddle joint (i) Between Atlas

and occipitalcondyle

(b) Cartilaginous joint (ii) Between Atlasand Axis

(c) Pivot Joint (iii) Between carpaland metacarpal ofthumb

(d) Condyloid joint (iv) Between Adjacentvertebrae ofvertebral column

(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

173. Which of the fol lowing is not a function ofthyroxine?(1) Regulate BMR (basal metabolic rate)(2) Calorigenic effect(3) Support Erythropoiesis(4) Regulate 24 hr diurnal rhythm of body

174. What is the mechanism of action of FSH hormone?(1) It binds with membrane bound receptors and

produce cAMP as the second messenger(2) FSH can enter the cell cytosol since it is lipid

soluble(3) It regulates gene expression by the interaction

of hormone receptor complex with genome(4) It binds with intranuclear receptors in nucleus

instead of cytoplasm

175. Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leadsto(1) Elevation of Ca+2 in blood plasma(2) Increased deposition of Ca+2 in kidney tubules(3) Hypoparathyroid tetany(4) Renal calculi

176. Which of the following statement regarding MTP(Medical termination of pregnancy) is incorrect?(1) Nearly 45-50 million MTP are performed in a

year all over the world(2) Govt. of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some

strict conditions to avoid its misuse(3) It is a process to get rid of unwanted

pregnancy intentionally before full term(4) MTP is relatively unsafe during 1st trimester

upto 12 weeks of pregnancy177. Wuchereriasis is a mosquito borne disease.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding it.(1) Also termed as Elephantiasis(2) Also known as Filariasis and transmitted

through infected Culex mosquito(3) Parasite usually live in large blood vessels

such as aorta(4) Genital organs are also affected, resulting in

gross deformities178. Which of the following points is unimportant for

Bee-keeping?(1) Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees(2) Selection of suitable location for keeping the

beehives(3) Catching and hiving of swarms(4) Keeping beehives in crop field during non

flowering season increases pollination efficiency179. Bacillus thuringiensis produce protein that is toxic

for following insects pair except:(1) Tobacco budworm; corn borers(2) Army worm; bollworm(3) Beetles; corn borers(4) Scorpions; bollworm

180. Which of the following points is not true for cancer?(1) Cancer may be caused due to hyperactivation

of protooncogene(2) Cancer cells have negligible telomerase activity(3) MRI is very useful to detect cancer(4) UV-rays cause DNA damage leading to

neoplastic transformation

(17)


1. (3)2. (1)3. (4)4. (1)5. (1)6. (4)7. (3)8. (2)9. (2)10. (2)11. (2)12. (1)13. (1)14. (3)15. (1)16. (3)17. (2)18. (2)19. (2)20. (4)21. (1)22. (2)23. (2)24. (2)25. (2)26. (3)27. (3)28. (3)29. (2)30. (3)31. (3)32. (4)33. (3)34. (3)35. (2)36. (1)

37. (4)38. (2)39. (2)40. (3)41. (4)42. (3)43. (2)44. (2)45. (4)46. (2)47. (4)48. (3)49. (3)50. (1)51. (1)52. (2)53. (3)54. (2)55. (1)56. (4)57. (3)58. (1)59. (2)60. (4)61 (2)62. (2)63. (2)64. (3)65. (3)66. (1)67. (3)68. (4)69. (2)70. (4)71. (2)72. (3)

73. (4)74. (3)75. (4)76. (1)77. (3)78. (3)79. (3)80. (3)81. (2)82. (3)83. (4)84. (3)85. (3)86. (4)87. (3)88. (2)89. (1)90. (2)91. (2)92. (3)93. (4)94. (2)95. (2)96. (4)97. (1)98. (3)99. (4)100. (4)101. (2)102. (2)103. (3)104. (1)105. (4)106. (2)107. (1)108. (3)

109. (4)110. (2)111. (1)112. (3)113. (4)114. (1)115. (4)116. (4)117. (2)118. (3)119. (1)120. (3)121. (2)122. (1)123. (4)124. (1)125. (1)126. (2)127. (4)128. (4)129. (3)130. (1)131. (2)132. (3)133. (1)134. (2)135. (3)136. (1)137. (2)138. (4)139. (4)140. (3)141. (2)142. (4)143. (2)144. (3)

145. (1)146. (2)147. (3)148. (1)149. (3)150. (4)151. (1)152. (2)153. (4)154. (3)155. (3)156. (1)157. (1)158. (3)159. (2)160. (3)161. (1)162. (1)163. (1)164. (3)165. (2)166. (2)167. (4)168. (3)169. (2)170. (2)171. (4)172. (3)173. (4)174. (1)175. (3)176. (4)177. (3)178. (4)179. (4)180. (2)

ANSWERS

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COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 26

(1)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

HINTS

OF

Home Assignment-26 (CST-26)

PHYSICS

1. mgh = 21mv2 for sliding body..

v 2gh

mgh = 2 21 1mv I2 2

for rolling body

2

2

2ghvK1r

vv2

2. 30VK

7

m/s = 210 m/s

3. L = mvr = mr2 = mr2 ...(i)

Now E = 22

1 2EI I2

L = 2E

4. N NA N A

l

1.21 Å

5. Using Fmax = m2A

6. Using 0

s

V Vf fV V

=340 15600340 20

666 Hg

7. Using –1 –12 11 x xt sin sinA A

8. Theory9. Using KL = constant

10. Using 2 1

1 2

V VeU U

and 1 1 2 2 1 1 2 2M U M U M V M V

11. Using – t0A A e

12. Using conservation of energy,UA + KA = UB + KB

mg (1) + 0 = 2B

1 1mg mv2 2

13. Using 21U Kx2

14. Theory

15. Initially, R 25S 75 ...(i)

After 10 is connected R 10 5 505 10 50

...(ii)From (i) and (ii), R = 6.67

16. Theory

(2)

17. 16v

1000 1000

1500

Rnet = 1600

I = 16 1

1000 100

Reading of voltmeter = 1600

100 = 6V

18. Volume of metal =408 = 5 cm3

Loss of weight of sphere in water = 40 – 20 = 20gm.

Now, upward thrust = loss of weight

V × 1 × g = 20 g V = 20 cm3

19. V = 1g (R + G)2V = 1g (R + G + R) R = R + G

20. Theory

21. Using C = 0 rAd

22. R = 2 H h

2gh. 2 n H ng

maximising, we get Hn2

for Rmax.

23. Using Ui + Wbattery = Uf + Heat

2

2

CV1 4CV 13 V CV Heat2 C 3 2

Heat = 89 CV2

24. Bv i = B v 4

r 2

2A from Q to P using Lenz’s law.

25. <P> = VrmsIrmscos =2

2 0rms

I RRI . .ZZ 2

26. Using induceddiLdt

27. i = 2 21 2i i sin t

So, ir.m.s = 2 21 2i i

2

28. M = m(2R) = M M 2M2R 2.

29. Using 1 2ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆW qE dr Q E i E j c a i d b j

1 2W Q E c a E d b

30. B

= B

due to semi-circular current + B

due to semi-infinite straight current carrying conductor

= 0 0I I4r 4 r

31. By geometry, 60 + 90 + = 180 = 30°

32.mRq

and proton particle

m mq q

33.eq 1 2

1 1 1 1 1 0f f f 20 20

feq = or Peq = 0

image will be of same size and erect.

34. By first law of thermodynamics, Q = U + W

W3 > W2 > W1 and T3 > T2 > T1

U3 > U2 > U1

35. Theory

36. Tf =6 6

60.1 1000 1 10 80 0.3 1000 1 10 60

0.4 1 10 1000

= 65°C

37. Reading of A1 is zero because diode is reverse

biased. Reading of A2 = 2

10 = 0.2A

38. 4H T

4

14

2

H 1 T 1H 40.25 (2T)

H2 = 4Q

(3)

39. For remains same because gravitational force isindependent of medium.

40. Y = A A B B A B

= A A B B A B

= A A B B A B

= A A AB B A B B

= AB AB XOR Gate

41. N = M(g+a) = 80 (10+5) = 1200N 120 kg

42. By Relative motion, 100 = (10 – 9)t t = 100 sec

43. gAhA = gBhB A B B

B A

g h h9g h 2

hB = 18 m

44. R = 4Hcot 5H = 4H cot cot=54

tan = 45 or = tan–1

45

45. V = Kt ds Ktdt

ds = Kt dtt

s = ds = k tdt = 2Kt

2

CHEMISTRY

46. Equation 3 2 252NH O 2NO 3H O2

can be

obtained by :

Reversing equation (i), multiplying equation (iii) by3 and adding equation (i), (ii), (iii)

32 3

1

1 K K KK

47. Neither SN1 nor SN2 take place after protonationof ether oxygen.

50. In case of Gabriel-Pthalimide synthesis, C6H5—Xlike substrates can not be used. So aniline cannot be synthesised.

51. In case of alkenyne, multiple bond should get thepriority, irrespective of double or triple. When thereis a tie, the tie-braker is double bond.

53. XeF4 and BrF4– both are square planar but not

iso-electronic.

54.CH2 CH2

Br Br

alc. KOH

NaNH2

(excess)CH = CH2

Br

HC CNa

H

HC CH2CH — Cl3

CH — C C – CH3 3

CH — C C – CH3 3

H

OH

CH — C – CH — CH3 2 3

O

55. This question is linked to environmental pollution.

56. Sulphoric acid is stronger than acetic acid.

57. CO2 does not reduce acidified KMnO4

58. Acid PKa

Picric Acid 0.3

Formic acid 3.75

Benzoic acid 4.20

Acetic acid 4.75

59. Ksp for this bi-trivalent sparingly solublesubstance is 108S5, where S is the solubility ismoles/L.

62. Photoelectric efflect illustrates particle nature oflight.

63. When the metal is in the –ve oxidation state,back donation from metal to CO increases.Consequently C — O bond order decreases andC — O bond length increases. As metalbecomes more and more +ve, it’s tolence forincoming electron increases and it back donatesless.

(4)

91. All the given features are of Dinoflagellates andGymnodinium is one of its example. But Spirulinaand Trichoderma are Cyanobacteria whileMelosira is a diatom.

92. Edible part of almond is seed not mesocarp.

93. Synthesis of RNA, protein and most of theorganelles duplication occurs in G1 phase. DNAreplication, synthesis of histone protein andcentriole duplication occurs in S-phase. Synthesisof tubulin protein, duplication of mitochondria,chloroplast and Golgi bodies occurs in G2 phase.

BOTANY

64. 4PCl Tetrahedral

6PCl Octahedral

PF3Cl2 Trigonalbipyramidal

PCl3 Trigonal Pyramidal65. ClF3 - Bent T-shaped

SF4 - See-saw (bond angle 89°)SF6 - Regular Octahedral

66. Two methyl groups on ‘N’ atom raise it’s basicity.67. In the lead-chamber process, NO (g) is used as

catalyst.68. At constant pressure, Q = H69. Kp = PNL

PNL = 4 atm.P1V1 = P2V2

10 × 1 = 4 × V2

V2 = 2.5L70. Maltose, Lactose, Glucose, Fructose, Monnose,

Allose, Galactose, all are reducing sugars exceptSucrose.

71. From slow step : R = K [A]2 [B2]To replace [A], which is not a reactant, apply Lawof equilibrium to step - 1.

Keg

2

2

AA

So, R = K Keq [A2] [B2]74. Equation for discharging.

Pb(s) + PbO2 (s) + 2H2SO4 (aq) 2PbSO2 (s) +2H2O (l)

Equation for charging reaction:2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O (l) 2H2SO4 (aq) + PbO2 (s)

+ Pb (s)

76. G H T S

G = 13818R – 300 × 18.424R

G = 68.93 KJ77. Addition of water will make the solution more

dilute.79. Cl– is a weak field ligand for Ni2+ and forms a

tetrahedral complex.80. The raction is an example of SArN2 mech.84. According to first order

In o

t

N KtN

In 8 K 69.3 60

0.5

K = 6.66 × 10–4 sec–1

85. After H+, OH– is the second fastest moving ion inwater.

86. Emf = E°cell –2

22

Zn0.0591log2 Ag

89. The first set of data will help you to find Kf, whichyou will use in the next calculation.First complex is [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2. So ‘i’ is ‘3’

f fT iK m

0.558 = 3 × Kf × 0.1

Kf = C1.86m

Next complex is [Ni(NH3)4Cl2] and i is ‘1’.

fT = 1 × 1.86×0.1 = 0.186

or, Tf = –0.186°C90. K2Cr2O7 changes to Cr2(SO4)3 and Cl2 changes to

Cl–.

94. Mg2+ is an activator of RuBisCO. MO as acomponent of nitrogenase enzyme during nitrogenmetabolism. Zn2+ acts as an activator of alcoholdehydrogenase. Mn2+ acts as an activator duringphotolysis of water.

95. In C4 plants, the primary CO2 acceptor isphosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) which is a threecarbon compound and Oxaloacetic acid (OAA) isthe primary CO2 fixation product which is a four-carbon compound.

96. Leading strand does not require ligase enzymebecause it is the continuous strand. Ligase is

(5)

108. The vascular bundles arrangement in dicot root isradial so its cambium is completely secondary inorigin. At the time of secondary growth, strips ofcambium formation occurs from below the primaryphloem and above the primary xylem whichresults the wavy cambium ring formation.

109. (i) In prokaryotic cell, single envelope system ispresent because here exceptplasmamembrane, no other membranebounded cell organelles present.

(ii) Mesosome is the invagination of plasmamembrane which increases the surface areaof cell.

(iii) Presence of plasmid in some prokaryotesconfers unique phenotype.

(iv) True water vacuole with tonoplast is absent inprokaryotes.

110. During crossing over, exchange of geneticmaterial occurs between non-sister chromatids ofhomologous chromosome during pachytenesubstage of prophase of meiosis I.

111. If root pressure is high and rate of transpiration islow, then loss of water occurs in the form of liquiddroplets f rom the margins of leaves calledguttation. It occurs through the pore calledhydathodes.

112. Magnesium is essential for both the processeslike ribosome binding process during proteinsynthesis and as a centre component of the ringstructure of chlorophyll.

113. I. Water splitting complex is associated with PSIIand located on the inner side of thylakoidmembrane. It releases protons and oxygenwithin the thylakoid lumen after splitting ofwater.

II. During the process of chemiosmosis, break-down of proton gradient or diffusion of protonback across the membrane releases enoughenergy to activate ATP synthase enzymewhich catalyses the ATP formation.

114. Auxin was first isolated from human urine.115. Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive trait where

the affected X-chromosome of father will go todaughter not to son directly (criss-cross inheritance)

Xhy × XX(Haemophilic father) (Normal mother)

XhX XhX XY XY(carrier daughters) (Normal sons)

116. Here the trait transmission occurs f romheterozygous or carrier parents to offspring. Alsowe can see the skip of generation and affected

required to join the okazaki fragments of laggingor discontinuous strand.

97. Shuttles are required for the entry of glycolyticenergy (NADH2) inside mitochondria.Statement A : Prokaryotes does not havemitochondria, so they do not have shuttle system.Statement B : Direct entry of Cytosolic NADH2molecule inside mitochondria is not possiblebecause inner mitochondrial membrane is notpermeable to NADH2 but it can reduce anothermolecule that can cross the membrane.

98. DPD = OP – TP and flow of water occurs fromcell with lower DPD to higher DPD.

99. Coconut is a monoecious plant in which bothmale and female flowers present on the sameplant body.

100. In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen is shed attwo celled stage.

101. According to law of dominance, in a monohybridcross, the expression of only one of the traits(dominant trait) will occur in F1 generation whilein F2 generation both the traits will express.

102. ‘Pusa Swarnim’ or ‘Karan Rai’ is a white rustresistant variety of Brassica whose developmentoccurs by hybridisation and selection.

103. BOD is the amount of oxygen that would beconsumed if all the organic matter in one litre ofwater were oxidised by bacteria. The greater theBOD of waste water, more is i ts pollutingpotential.

104. Humus is the decomposed form of detritus. It isdark, amorphous, slightly acidic and consist ofless decomposed organic matter which is rich incellulose, lignin, tanin, resin etc.

105. Most important cause for biodiversity loss ishabitat loss and fragmentation because whenpeople cut down trees, fill a wet land, plough agrassland or burn a forest, the natural habitat ofa species is changed or destroyed. Thesechanges can kill or force out many plants, animalsand microorganisms as well as disrupt complexinteractions among the species.

106. Regarding the deleterious effects of the ozonedepletion, Montreal protocol was signed atMontreal (Canada) in 1987 (effective in 1989) tocontrol the emission of Ozone-depletingsubstances (ODS).

107. Stamens of Belladonna (Solanaceae) are free(Polyandrous). The correct formulla is

K C A (5 ) (5) 5 (2)GO+

(6)

137. Increased osmolarity of body fluids stimulatesrelease of ADH. It stimulates water reabsorptionin DCT and collecting duct.

152. Evolution of Australian marsupials is an exampleof divergent evolution, as they evolved from acommon ancestor.

162. Crista ampullaris detects rotational movements.167. Insertion of exogenous DNA into the lac Z region

of pUC8 causes inactivation of lac Z gene so-galactosidase is not produced. In absence ofthis enzyme the chromagenic substance (X-gal,white in colour) remains as such.

ZOOLOGY

children’s from unaffected parents. These are thecharacters of autosomal recessive trait.

117. An intergenic interaction of Duplicate genes willgive 15 : 1 ratio instead of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. Examples.In fruit shape of Capsella bursa pastori, a crossbetween triangle shape fruit and top shaped fruitwill give all triangle shaped fruit in F1 generationbut in F2 generation it will give both triangle andtop shape fruit with ratio 15 : 1.

118. (i) VNTR or minisatel l i te is a small DNAsequence of 0.1 to 20 kb in size. Itssequence is arranged tandemly in many copynumbers.

(ii) The Lac-operon is switched off whenrepressor protein of regulatory or inhibitorygene binds to operator gene.

(iii) The secondary structure of tRNA shows thepresence of four loops which is seems to bethe appearance of a clover leaf.

119. A resistant variety of mung bean has developedagainst yellow mosaic virus by mutation breeding.

120. Under normal condition, population density willincrease if the number of natality and immigrationis more than number of mortality and emigration.But in special condition as in newly colonizedhabitat, immigration contributes more significantlyto population growth.

121. Phosphorous is a part of sedimentary cyclewhose reservoir pool is earth’s crust orlithosphere or rock.

122. Hot spots are the richest and the most threatenedreservoirs of plant and animal life on earth. Veryhigh level of species richness, high degree ofendemism and slow habitat loss are the criteriafor the selection of hot spots.

123. Bioprospecting is exploring molecular, genetic andspecies-level diversity for products of economicimportance.

124. Based on the sequence of 16S ribosomal RNAgenes, Woese cluster the six kingdom of life into3 domains of life i.e. Bacteria, Archaea andEukarya.

125. Volvox, Fucus, Polysiphonia etc. showsoogamous type of reproduction where small,motile or non-motile male gamete fuses withlarge non-motile female gamete.

126. In Rhizophora, modified roots or pneumatophoresare grow vertically upward and helps in respirationto get oxygen.

127. Xylem parenchyma are l iv ing, thin-walled,cellulosic structure and helps in radial conductionof water.

128. Intrafascicular cambium is primary in origin whileinterfascicular cambium is secondary in origin.

129. Recombination of genetic material occursbetween non-sister chromatids of homologouschromosomes.

130. NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stromaside of the thylakoid membrane. It removesprotons from stroma which is necessary for thereduction of NADP+ to NADPH + H+.

131. Mango is a drupe with single seed or ovule.132. According to Henking, X-body is present in only

50% of the human sperms.133. In bacteria, because of the absence of nucleus,

here DNA or its genetic material present freelyinside cytoplasm.

134. Ligase is a specif ic enzyme used in DNAreplication. It joins the newly formed DNA strandstogether by catalyzing the formation ofphosphodiester bond.

135. In nature, linear food chains are seldom existsbecause every organism has alternate source offood. Single animal may be eaten by differentanimals. So many food chains interconnected toform food web.

168. First heart sound is produced at the onset ofventricular systole, due to closure of AV valve.

170. Action potential of SA node is produced inresponse to spontaneous influx of Na+ throughleaky channels.

173. Diurnal rhythm is under control of melatoninhormone from pineal gland.

174. FSH is protein hormone, hence act throughmembrane bound or extracellular receptor.

175. Low PTH leads to low blood Ca2+ and henceparathyroid tetany.

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