Hindi PAPER CODE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER … · (i) Digestion and Absorption (ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and circulation (iv) Excretory Products and

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

PAPER CODE

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 02 - 04 - 2015

0 1 C M 3 1 4 2 4 0

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

INSTRUCTIONS ()

www.allen.ac.in

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

Hindi

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 1 & 2

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

1 4

(Phase - MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD, MLE, MLF, MLG, MAW, MAX & MAY)

PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units, Dimensions and

Measurement, Kinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a

plane), Laws of Motion and Friction, Work, Energy & Power and Circular

Motion, Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass, Rotational

Motion, Properties of matter and Fluid Mechanics, Thermal Physics-I (Thermal

Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer), Thermal Physics-II (Behavior of

Perfect Gases and KTG, Thermodynamics), Oscillations (SHM, damped and

forced oscillations & Resonance), Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect

CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, States of Matter :

Gases and Liquids, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium

& Ionic Equilibrium), Solid State, Solutions, Classification of Elements and

Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular, Structure,

Hydrogen, s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals), p–Block

Elements (Group - 13 & 14), p–Block Elements (Group - 15, 16, 17 & 18),

The d and f-block Elements

BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World :

(i) The living world, (ii) Biological Classification (iii) Plant Kingdom,

(iv) Animal Kingdom

Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :

(i) Morphology of Flowering plants (ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants

(iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach

Structure and Functions :

(i) Cell : The Unit of Life, (ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm)

(iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division

Plant Physiology :

(i) Transport in Plants, (ii) Mineral Nutrition

(iii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, (iv) Respiration in Plants

(v) Plant Growth and Development, Enzyme

Human Physiology :

(i) Digestion and Absorption (ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases

(iii) Body Fluids and circulation

(iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination

(v) Locomotion and Movement (vi) Neural Control and Coordination, Eye & Ear

(vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 02 - 04 - 2015

SYLLABUS – 1 & 2

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD,MLE, MLF, MLG, MAW, MAX & MAY)

Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015

H-1/37Kota/01CM314240

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. The resistance vR

i where V = 100 ± 5 volts

and i = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total errorin R :-(1) 5% (2) 7%

(3) 5.2% (4) 5

2%

2. Four persons K, L, M and N are initially at the

corners of a square of side of length d. If every

person starts moving, such that K is always

headed towards L, L towards M, M is headed

directly towards N and N towards K, then the four

persons will meet after :-

(1) d

vsec (2)

2d

vsec

(3) d

2vsec (4)

d

2vsec

3. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in

circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively their speeds

are such that they make complete circles in the

same time t. The ratio of their centripetal

acceleration is :-

(1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2

(3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2

4. If two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 rotating

about collinear axis passing through their centres

of mass and perpendicular to their plane with

angular speeds, 1 and 2 respectively in opposite

direction are made to rotate combinedly along

same axis, then the magnitude of angular velocity

of the system is :-

(1) 1 1 2 2

1 2

I + I

I + I

(2)

1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

I I

(3)1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

(4)

1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

5. A simple pendulum with length and bob of mass

m is executing SHM of small amplitude A. The

maximum tension in the string will be :-

(1) 2 mg (2) mg[1 + (A/)2]

(3) mg[1 + (A/)]2 (4) mg[1 + A/]

1. vR

i V = 100 ± 5

i = 10 ± 0.2 R (1) 5% (2) 7%

(3) 5.2% (4) 5

2%

2. K, L, MNd

K LL, M

M, NN, K

:-

(1) d

vsec (2)

2d

vsec

(3) d

2vsec (4)

d

2vsec

3. m1 m2 r1

r2

t

:-

(1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2

(3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2

4. I1 I2

1 2

:-

(1) 1 1 2 2

1 2

I + I

I + I

(2)

1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

I I

(3)1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

(4)

1 1 2 2

1 2

I I

5. m ASHM :-(1) 2 mg (2) mg[1 + (A/)2]

(3) mg[1 + (A/)]2 (4) mg[1 + A/]

Kota/01CM314240H-2/37

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015

6. L, C R

(1)1

RC(2)

R

L(3)

1

LC(4)

C

L

7. 5 m/s

10 sec 5 m/s

:-

(1)

(2) 1

2m/s2

(3) 1

2m/s2

(4) 1

2m/s2

8. 0.1 kg/m 10 N (m/x ) :-

(1) 10 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 15

9. 527°C

200 cm2 127°C

0.4

(= 5.67×10–8 J/m2 – s – k4) :-

(1) 108 (2) 168

(3) 174 (4) 192 10. T

mR m 2R :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

11. 0.4 0.6

U-

(= 60 )

(1) 0.51 (2) 1.02

(3) 1.53 (4) 2.04

6. If L, C and R represent inductance, capacitance

and resistance respectively, then which of the

following does not represent dimensions of

frequency :-

(1)1

RC(2)

R

L(3)

1

LC(4)

C

L

7. A particle is moving eastwards with velocity of

5 m/s. In 10 sec the velocity changes to 5 m/s

northwards. The average acceleration in this time

is :-

(1) Zero

(2) 1

2m/s2 toward north-west

(3) 1

2m/s2 toward north-east

(4) 1

2m/s2 toward north-west

8. The maximum tension which an inextensible ring

of mass 0.1 kg/m can bear is 10 N. The maximum

velocity in m/s with which it can be rotated is:-

(1) 10 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 15

9. A metal ball of surface area 200 cm2 and

temperature 527°C is surrounded by a vessel at

127°C. If the emissivity of the metal is 0.4, then

the rate of loss of heat from the ball is

(= 5.67×10–8 J/m2 – s – k4) :-

(1) 108 watt approx. (2) 168 watt approx.

(3) 174 watt approx. (4) 192 watt approx.

10. The time period of simple pendulum is T. Its bob

of radius R is hollow and of mass m. If the bob

is replace by another hollow bob of mass m and

radius 2R then the time period of the pendulum

will now be :-

(1) Less (2) More

(3) Remains unchange (4) None of these

11. Two capillaries of diameters 0.4 mm and 0.6 mm

form the two arms of a U-tube. If surface tension

of water is 60 dynes/cm, the difference between

the levels of the liquid in two arms of the U-tube

will be :-

(1) 0.51 cm (2) 1.02 cm

(3) 1.53 cm (4) 2.04 cm


H-3/37Kota/01CM314240

12. On a stationary sail-boat air is blown at the sails

from a fan attached to the boat, the boat will-

(1) remain stationary

(2) spin around

(3) move in a direction opposite to that in which

air is blown

(4) move in the direction in which the air is blown

13.///////////////////////////////////

200kg 300kg

Initially the spring shown in the fig. is in

compressed state and the horizontal surface is

rough. For which coefficient friction between the

two blocks and the surface is same. On releasing

the spring if the 200 kg block travels a distance

of 36 m before coming to rest then distance

travelled by 300 kg block is :–

(1) 43 m (2) 24 m (3) 16 m (4) 12 m

14. Which of the curves in figure represents the

relating between Celsius and Fahrenheit

temperatures :-

2 3

4 1

°C

°F

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

15. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic

oscillations in the same direction having equal

amplitude and same frequency. If the resultant

amplitude is equal to that of the individual

motions, what is the phase difference between

them ?

(1)6

(2)

3

(3)

4

(4)

2

3

16. Two wires, one of copper and the other of steel,

are of same length and cross section. They are

welded together to form a long wire. On

suspending a weight at its one end, increment in

length is found to be 3 cms. If Young's modulus

of steel is double that of copper, the increment

in steel wire will be :-

(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm

(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm

12.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13.///////////////////////////////////

200kg 300kg

200 36 m 300 :–(1) 43 m (2) 24 m (3) 16 m (4) 12 m

14.

:-

2 3

4 1

°C

°F

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

15.

(1)6

(2)

3

(3)

4

(4)

2

3

16.

3

(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm

(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm

Kota/01CM314240H-4/37


17. A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of

inclination , kept on the floor of a lift. When

the lift is descending with a retardation a, the

acceleration of the block relative to the inciline

is-

(1) (g + a) sin (2) (g – a)

(3) g sin (4) (g – a) sin

18. The position of center of mass of a non-uniform

rod of length L w.r.t one end whose mass per unit

length P varies as P = 2Kx

L where K is a constant

and x is the distance of any point from that end

is :–

(1) 3L

4(2)

1

4L (3)

K

L(4)

3K

L

19. The temperature of a body on Kelvin scale is

found to be x K. When it is measured by

Fahrenheit thermometer, it is found to be x°F, then

the value of x is :-

(1) 40 (2) 313

(3) 574.25 (4) 301.25

20. The differential equation of SHM for a particle

is given by a2

2

d x

dt

+ bx = 0. The ratio of the

maximum acceleration to the maximum velocity

of the particle is :-

(1)b

a(2)

a

b(3)

a

b(4)

b

a

21. Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform

cross-section ratio of the radius at entry and exit

end of the pipe is 3 : 2. Then the ratio of velocities

at entry and exit of liquid is :-

(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4

(3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1

22. A mass is suspended from the roof of a car by

a string. While the car has a constant acceleration

a, the string makes an angle of 60° with the

vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the value of a is-

(1) 10(3)1/2

m/s² (2)

1/ 2

10

3

m/s²

(3) 5 m/s² (4) 5(3)1/2

m/s²

17. a

(1) (g + a) sin (2) (g – a)

(3) g sin (4) (g – a) sin

18. L

P P = 2Kx

L K x

:–

(1) 3L

4(2)

1

4L (3)

K

L(4)

3K

L

19. x K

x°Fx :-

(1) 40 (2) 313

(3) 574.25 (4) 301.25

20.

a2

2

d x

dt

+ bx = 0

:-

(1)b

a(2)

a

b(3)

a

b(4)

b

a

21. 3 : 2 (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4

(3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1

22. a 60°

g = 10 2, a

(1) 10(3)1/2

² (2)

1/ 2

10

3

²

(3) 5 ² (4) 5(3)1/2

²


H-5/37Kota/01CM314240

23. A massive ball moving with speed v collides with

a tiny ball at rest having a mass very much smaller

than the mass of the first ball. The collision is

elastic, then immidiately after the impact, the

second ball will move with a speed approximately

equal to :–

(1) v (2) 2v

(3) v/2 (4)

24. Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest

specific heat ? The temperature v/s time graph is

shown :-A

B

C

Time (t)

Tem

per

ature

(T

)

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) All have equal specific heat

25. A uniform string of length L and mass M is fixed

at both ends under tension T. Then it can vibrate

with frequency given by the formula.

(1) 1 T

f = 2 ML

(2) 1 T

f = 2L M

(3) 1 T

f = 2 M

(4) 1 M

f = 2 LT

26. A force vector applied on a mass is represented

as ˆ ˆ ˆF 6i 8 j 10k

and accelerates with 1 m/s2.

What will be the mass of the body in kg.

(1) 10 2 (2) 20

(3) 2 10 (4) 10

27. A block takes twice as much time to slide down

a 45º rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down

a similar smooth plane. The coefficient of friction

is :

(1)3

4(2)

3

2

(3) 1

4(4)

1

3

23. v

:–

(1) v (2) 2v

(3) v/2 (4)

24. A, B C

:-

AB

C

(t)

(T)

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) 25. L M T

(1) 1 T

f = 2 ML

(2) 1 T

f = 2L M

(3) 1 T

f = 2 M

(4) 1 M

f = 2 LT

26. ˆ ˆ ˆF 6i 8 j 10k

1 m/s2

(1) 10 2 (2) 20

(3) 2 10 (4) 10

27. 45º

:-

(1)3

4(2)

3

2

(3) 1

4(4)

1

3

Kota/01CM314240H-6/37


28. A body of mass 2m at rest is split into two equal

parts by an internal explosion which generates

a kinetic energy E. If after the explosion, the parts

move in the same line, then what is their relative

speed ?

(1) E

M(2)

2E

M

(3) 4E

M(4) 0

29. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure

P and volume V are related as VPn = constant.

The bulk modulus of the gas in this process is :-

(1) nP (2) P1/n (3) P/n (4) Pn

30. An open pipe is suddenly closed with the result

that the second overtone of the closed pipe is

found to be higher in frequency by 100 Hz, than

the first overtone of the original pipe. The

fundamental frequency of open pipe will be :

(1) 100 Hz (2) 300 Hz

(3)150 Hz (4) 200 Hz

31. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed

of 720 km/h drops a food pocket, while flying at

a height of 396.9 m. the time taken by a food

pocket to reach the ground and its horizontal range

is (Take g = 9.8 m/sec2) :-

(1) 3 sec and 2000 m (2) 5 sec and 500 m

(3) 8 sec and 1500 m (4) 9 sec and 1800 m

32. A motorcyclist of mass m is to negotiate a curve

of radius r with a speed v. The minimum value

of the coefficient of friction so that negotiation

may take place safely, is-

(1) v2rg (2)

2v

gr

(3) 2

gr

v(4) 2

g

v r

33. A particle is moving along a straight line with

increasing speed. Its angular momentum about a

fixed point on this line :

(1) Goes on increasing

(2) Goes on decreasing

(3) May be increasing or decreasing depending

on direction of motion

(4) Remains zero

28. 2m E ?

(1) E

M(2)

2E

M

(3) 4E

M(4) 0

29. VPn = :-(1) nP (2) P1/n (3) P/n (4) Pn

30.

100 (1) 100 (2) 300 (3)150 (4) 200

31. 720 396.9g = 9.8 2 ) :-(1) 3 sec 2000 m (2) 5 sec 500 m

(3) 8 sec 1500 m (4) 9 sec 1800 m

32. m r

v

(1) v2rg (2)

2v

gr

(3) 2

gr

v(4) 2

g

v r

33.

:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-7/37Kota/01CM314240

34. On a new scale of temperature (which in linear)

and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling

points of water are 39°W and 239°W respectively.

What will be the temperature on the new scale,

corresponding to a temperature of 39°C on the

Celsius scale?

(1) 200°W (2) 139°W

(3) 78°W (4) 117°W

35. The intensity of sound after passing through a slab

decreases by 20%. On passing through two such

slabs, the intensity will decrease by :

(1) 50% (2) 40%

(3) 36% (4) 30%

36. The height y and the distance x along the

horizontal plane of a projectile on a certain planet

(with no surrounding atmosphere) are given by

y = (8t – 5t2) meter and x = 6t meter, where t is

in second. The velocity with which the projectile

is projected is :-

(1) 8 m/sec

(2) 6 m/sec

(3) 10 m/sec

(4) Not obtainable from the data

37. A ring of radius r and mass per unit length m

rotates with an angular velocity in free space.

The tension in the ring is :–

(1) zero (2) 1

2m

2r

2

(3) m2r

2(4) mr

2

38. If radius of earth suddenly contracts by half of its

initial value keeping mass constant, then what will

be the time period of rotation of earth about it axis.

(1) 6hrs (2) 12hrs

(3) 3hrs (4) hrs

39. Critical temperature can be difined as the:

(1) Temperature at which there is no motion

between the molecules

(2) temperature at which a gas is converted into

its liquid state

(3) temperature at which volume of gas becomes

zero

(4) temperature above which a gas cannot be

liquified no matter however high pressure

may be

34. W

(Freezing point)

(Boiling point) 39°W 239°W

39°C

?(1) 200°W (2) 139°W

(3) 78°W (4) 117°W

35. 20%

(1) 50% (2) 40%

(3) 36% (4) 30%

36. y x,y = 8t – 5t2 x = 6tt :-

(1) 8 m/sec

(2) 6 m/sec

(3) 10 m/sec

(4)

37. r m

eqä kd k' k esa :–

(1) zero (2) 1

2m

2r

2

(3) m2r

2(4) mr

2

38. (1) 6hrs (2) 12hrs

(3) 3hrs (4) hrs

39.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (Liquified)

Key Filling

Kota/01CM314240H-8/37


40. A siren blown in workshop emits waves of

frequency 1000 Hz. A car driver approaches the

workshop with velocity 90 km/hour then

frequency of sound heard by driver will be in Hz.:-

(speed of sound 332 m/s)

(1) 926 (2) 1076

(3) 1176 (4) 1000

41. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed 0 at

an angle of projection . From the same point and

at the same instant a person starts running with

a constant speed 0/2 to catch the ball. Will the

person be able to catch the ball ? If yes, what

should be the angle of projection :-

(1) Yes, 60° (2) Yes, 30°

(3) No (4) Yes, 45°

42. A uniform rod of mass m and length rotates

in a horizontal plane with an angular velocity

about a vertical axis passing through one end. The

tension in the rod at a distance x from the axis

is :–

(1) 1

2m

2x (2)

1

2m

22x

(3) 1

2m

2

x1

(4)

1

2

2m

(

2 – x

2)

43. A disc of mass 1 kg and radius 0.1 m is rotating

with angular velocity 20 rad/s. What is angular

velocity (in rad/s) if a mass of 0.5 kg is put on

the circumference of the disc ?

(1) 10 (2) 20

(3) 40 (4) 30

44. Certain substance emits only the wavelengths 1,

2, 3 and 4 when it is at a high temperature.

When this substance is at a colder temperature it

will absorb only the following wavelengths.

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 1

and 2

(4) 1,

2,

3 and

4

45. A person observes a change of 2.5% in frequency

of sound of horn of a car. If the car is approaching

forward the person & sound velocity is 320 m/s,

then velocity of car in m/s will be approximately

(1) 8 (2) 800 (3) 16 (4) 6

40. 1000

90

(= 332 m/s)

(1) 926 (2) 1076

(3) 1176 (4) 1000

41. 0

0/2

:-

(1) , 60° (2) , 30°

(3) (4) , 45°

42. m

x

:–

(1) 1

2m

2x (2)

1

2m

22x

(3) 1

2m

2

x1

(4)

1

2

2m

(

2 – x

2)

43. 1 kg 0.1 m 20 rad/s

0.5 kg (rad/s

?(1) 10 (2) 20

(3) 40 (4) 30

44. 1, 2, 3

4

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 1 2(4)

1,

2,

3 4

45.

2.5%

320 (1) 8 (2) 800 (3) 16 (4) 6

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question


H-9/37Kota/01CM314240

46. On reaction of 38.1 g iodine and 28.4 g chlorine,

mixture of ICl and ICl3 is obtained then total

number of moles after reaction will be :-

(1) 0.45 (2) 0.40

(3) 0.30 (4) 0.25

47. At 300 K temperature the standard heat of

formation of benzoic acid(s), CO2 (g) and H2O() are

–408, –393 and –286 KJ mol–1 respectively. At

constant pressure the heat of combustion for

benzoic acid will be :-

(1) –2629 KJ (2) –2751 KJ

(3) –2808 KJ (4) –3201 KJ

48. The boiling point of azeotropic mixture of two

liquids is lower than both component liquids

when :-

(1) Mixture shows positive deviation from

Raoult's law

(2) Mixture shows negative deviation from

Raoult's law

(3) Mixture shows no deviation from Raoult's law

(4) Mixture has very high mole fraction of solvent

49. Which of the following is not isoelectronic ?

(1) NO– (2) CN–

(3) N2 (4) O22+

50. Sodium peroxide which is a yellow solid, when

exposed to air become white due to the formation

of :-

(1) Na2O and O3 (2) NaO

(3) NaOH and Na2CO3 (4) NaOH and H2O2

51. Total number of atoms present in 1.5 gram

molecule of potassium dichromate is :-

(1) 4.5 NA (2) 1.5 NA

(3) 16.5 NA (4) 15 NA

52. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of CO2 is

equal to :-

(1) zero

(2) standard molar enthalpy of combustion

(3) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of

formation of CO and O2

(4) standard molar enthalpy of combustion of

carbon (graphite)

53. Which of the following 0.05 M aqueous solution

will have the lowest freezing point ?

(1) Potassium iodide (2) Sodium sulphate

(3) Sucrose (4) Aluminium oxalate

46. 38.1 28.4 ICl ICl3 :-(1) 0.45 (2) 0.40

(3) 0.30 (4) 0.25

47. 300 K (s), CO2 (g) H2O()

–408, –393 –286 KJ

–1

:-

(1) –2629 KJ (2) –2751 KJ

(3) –2808 KJ (4) –3201 KJ

48. :-(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

49. (1) NO– (2) CN–

(3) N2 (4) O22+

50. (1) Na2O O3 (2) NaO

(3) NaOH Na2CO3 (4) NaOH H2O2

51. 1.5 :-(1) 4.5 NA (2) 1.5 NA

(3) 16.5 NA (4) 15 NA

52. CO2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CO O2

(4) 53. 0.05 M

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

Kota/01CM314240H-10/37


54. For each of the following pairs of complexes,

Identify the one that has a large CFSE :-

(i) [Cr(H2O)

6]+2 or (ii) [Mo(H

2O)

6]2+

(iii) [Mn(H2O)

6]2+ or (iv) [Fe(H

2O)

6]3+

(v) [Fe(H2O)

6]3+ or (vi) [Fe(CN)

6]3–

(vii) [Fe(CN)6]3– or (viii) [Ru(CN)

6]3–

(ix) tetrahedral [FeCl4]2– or (x)tetrahedral [CoCl

4]2–

(1) II, IV, VI, VIII, X

(2) II, IV, VI, VIII, IX

(3) II, IV, VI, VII, IX

(4) II, IV, V, VIII, IX

55. Which does not exist free ion ?

(1) B3+ (2) Al3+ (3) Ga3+ (4) In3+

56. Which one of the following has minimum number

of molecules :-

(1) 16 g SO3 gas

(2) 12.3 g phosphorous acid

(3) 12 g propyne gas

(4) 4.48 L CO gas at STP

57. If the heat of formation of NH3 (g) is –46 KJ mol–1

then H for the reaction 2NH3 N2 + 3H2 will

be :-

(1) +46 KJ (2) +92 KJ

(3) –92 KJ (4) None of these

58. What will be the amount of ice separated on

cooling solution of 50 g ethylene glycol in 300 g

of water upto –12°C ?

(kf for water = 1.86 K Kg mol–1)

(1) 175 g (2) 125 g

(3) 145 g (4) 195 g

59. The correct bond order for CO and NO+ are

respectively.

(1) 3, 5/2 (2) 3, 3/2

(3) 3, 3 (4) 5/2, 3

60.0 0,250 C ,120 C

4 2Y CaSO 2H O X

X and Y are respectively :-

(1) Plaster of paris, dead burnt plaster

(2) CaO and plaster of paris

(3) Dead burnt plaster, plaster of paris

(4) Plaster of paris, mixture of gases

61. First separation energy for Li+2 ion is :-

(1) 122.4 eV (2) 3.4 eV

(3) 10.2 eV (4) 30.6 eV

54. CFSE :-(i) [Cr(H

2O)

6]+2 or (ii) [Mo(H

2O)

6]2+

(iii) [Mn(H2O)

6]2+ or (iv) [Fe(H

2O)

6]3+

(v) [Fe(H2O)

6]3+ or (vi) [Fe(CN)

6]3–

(vii) [Fe(CN)6]3– or (viii) [Ru(CN)

6]3–

(ix) [FeCl4]2– or (x) [CoCl

4]2–

(1) II, IV, VI, VIII, X

(2) II, IV, VI, VIII, IX

(3) II, IV, VI, VII, IX

(4) II, IV, V, VIII, IX

55. (1) B3+ (2) Al3+ (3) Ga3+ (4) In3+

56. :-

(1) 16 SO3

(2) 12.3

(3) 12

(4) STP 4.48 CO 57. NH3 (g) –46 KJ –1

2NH3 N2 + 3H2 H :-

(1) +46 KJ (2) +92 KJ

(3) –92 KJ (4) 58. 300 50

–12°C ?

(kf = 1.86 K Kg –1)

(1) 175 g (2) 125 g

(3) 145 g (4) 195 g

59. CO NO+ (1) 3, 5/2 (2) 3, 3/2

(3) 3, 3 (4) 5/2, 3

60.0 0,250 C ,120 C

4 2Y CaSO 2H O X

X Y :-(1) (2) CaO and (3) Dead burnt plaster, (4) ,

61. Li+2 :-(1) 122.4 eV (2) 3.4 eV

(3) 10.2 eV (4) 30.6 eV


H-11/37Kota/01CM314240

62. Addition of 1 mole of N2 gas is carried out at

constant pressure in equilibrium mixture of PCl5

dissociation present in a cylinder containing

piston then which of the following is correct :-

(1) No effect on equilibrium constant KC or KP

(2) The volume of container does not change

(3) No effect on equilibrium concentration

(4) The degree of dissociation of PCl5 decreases

63. The number of unit cells present in cubic NaCl

crystal with mass 1 g is :-

(1) 1.505 × 1023 (2) 2.57 × 1021

(3) 1.03 × 1022 (4) 4.12 × 1022

64. Which of the following has smallest bond angle ?

(1) H2S (2) NH3 (3) SO2 (4) H2O

65. Which of the following hydride is most acidic

(1) H2Te (2) H2Se (3) H2S (4) H2O

66. In He ion, the energy of electron in its third shell

is :-

(1) 2Rhc

9(2)

4Rhc

9

(3) Rhc

36(4)

4Rhc

967. At constant temperature 10% mixture of 0.2 moles

of N2 and 0.6 moles of H2 converts in NH3

following 2 2 3N 3H 2NH equilibrium. The

ratio between the initial and final moles will be :-

(1) 0.8 (2) 1.05

(3) 1.11 (4) 2.1

68. The presence of electron in interstitial sites

developed by removal of an anion from its lattice

point of a crystal lattice is called :-

(1) Schottky defect

(2) Frenkel defect

(3) Metal excess defect

(4) Metal deficiency defect

69. The correct order of hybridisation of the central

atom in the following species NH3, [PtCl4]2–, PCl5

and BCl3 :-

(1) dsp2, dsp3, sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2

(3) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3 (4) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3

70. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe – C bond possesses :-

(1) -character only

(2) both and -character

(3) ionic character

(4) -character only

62. PCl5 1 N2

:-

(1) KC KP

(2)

(3)

(4) PCl5 63. 1 NaCl

:-(1) 1.505 × 1023 (2) 2.57 × 1021

(3) 1.03 × 1022 (4) 4.12 × 1022

64. (1) H2S (2) NH3 (3) SO2 (4) H2O

65. (1) H2Te (2) H2Se (3) H2S (4) H2O

66. He :-

(1) 2Rhc

9(2)

4Rhc

9

(3) Rhc

36(4)

4Rhc

9

67. 2 2 3N 3H 2NH 0.2

N2 0.6 H2 10% NH3

:-

(1) 0.8 (2) 1.05

(3) 1.11 (4) 2.1

68. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

69.

NH3, [PtCl4]2–, PCl5 BCl3

(1) dsp2, dsp3, sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2

(3) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3 (4) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3

70. Fe(CO)5 Fe – C :-(1) -(2) -(3) (4) -

Kota/01CM314240H-12/37


71. The wave length associated with electron, present

in third shell of hydrogen atom is :-

(1) 299 pm (2) 332 pm (3) 498 pm (4) 996 pm

72. 0.2 moles of solid NH4Cl is heated at 327°C in

a container with volume 10L to attain the

equilibrium NH4Cl(s) NH3 (g) + HCl(g). If the

equilibrium constant Kp = 0.36 atm2 then

remaining amount of NH4Cl(s) is :-

(1) 0.02 mol (2) 0.078 mol

(3) 0.139 mol (4) 0.122 mol

73. Which of the following has highest ionic radii :-

(1) F– (2) B3+ (3) O2– (4) Li+

74. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+

is 3. Which statement is true :-

(1) Bond length is unpredictable

(2) Bond length in NO is greater than NO+

(3) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO

(4) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO

75. Which one of the following has largest number

of isomers ?

(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+

(3) [Ir (PR3)2 H (CO)]2+ (4) [Rh(NH3)4Cl2]+

76. The maximum number of electrons in an atom

having n = 4, m = +1 and s = –1/2 is :-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6

77. The required amount of KBr (molar mass = 119)

in gram to start the precipitation of AgBr in

500 mL solution of 0.05 M AgNO3 will be :-

(KSP of AgBr = 5 × 10–13)

(1) 1.19 × 10–9 g (2) 4 × 10–11 g

(3) 5.95 × 10–10 g (4) 2.97 × 10–10 g

78. The set representing the correct order of firstionisation potential is :-

(1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C

79. Copper pyrite-ore is concentrated by :-

(1) Electromagnetic method

(2) Gravity method

(3) Froth floatation process

(4) All of these

80. The oxidation state of Fe in

Na3[Fe(NH3)(CN)5].2H2O

(1) –1 (2) +1 (3) +2 (4) +3

81. An unknown gas 'A' has the density 2.835 g L–1

at 0.8 atm pressure and –53°C temperature thengas A is :-

(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) CO2

71. :-(1) 299 pm (2) 332 pm (3) 498 pm (4) 996 pm

72. 0.2 NH4Cl 10L 327°C

NH4Cl(s) NH3 (g) + HCl(g)

Kp = 0.36 atm2 NH4Cl(s) :-

(1) 0.02 (2) 0.078

(3) 0.139 (4) 0.122 73.

(1) F– (2) B3+ (3) O2– (4) Li+

74. NO 2.5 NO+ 3 (1) (2) NO NO+(3) NO NO+ (4) NO+ NO

75.

(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+

(3) [Ir (PR3)2 H (CO)]2+ (4) [Rh(NH3)4Cl2]+

76. n = 4, m = +1 s = –1/2 :-(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6

77. 0.05 M AgNO3 500 AgBr

KBr (= 119)

:- (AgBr KSP = 5 × 10–13)

(1) 1.19 × 10–9 g (2) 4 × 10–11 g

(3) 5.95 × 10–10 g (4) 2.97 × 10–10 g

78. (1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca

(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C

79. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

80. Na3 [Fe(NH3) (CN)5].2H2O Fe

(1) –1 (2) +1 (3) +2 (4) +3

81. 'A' 0.8 atm –53°C 2.835 A :-

(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) CO2


H-13/37Kota/01CM314240

82. An acidic buffer solution can be obtained by

mixing of solutions of :-

(1) Ammonium hydroxide and ammonium

chloride

(2) Barium cyanide and Hydrogen cyanide

(3) Sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate

(4) Sodium hydroxide and sodium chloride

83. The shape of ClO3– according to VSEPR model

is :-

(1) Planer triangle (2) Pyramidal

(3) Tetrahedral (4) Square planer

84. The pair that yields the same gaseous product on

reaction with water :-

(1) K and NO2 (2) Ca and CaH2

(3) Na and Na2O2 (4) Ba and BaO2

85. The IUPAC name of the compound

[Cu(NH3)4(NO3)2] is :-

(1) cupra ammonium nitrate

(2) tetraammine dinitrato copper (II)

(3) tetraammine copper (II) dinitrate

(4) tetraammine copper (III) dinitrate

86. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible

process when :-

(1) system and surroundings changes into each other

(2) there is no boundary in between system and

surroundings

(3) surroundings are always in equilibrium with

system

(4) system converts into surroundings

spontaneously

87.

2HI HCN I H C N ; The conjugate base

of strong acid in this reaction will be :-

(1) 2H CN (2) I (3) HCN (4) HI

88. The pair in which the two species are isostructural ?

(1) SiF4 and SF4 (2) IO3– and XeOF4

(3) BH4– and

4NH

(4) PF6– and SF6

89. Which of the alkali metal chlorides is expected

to have highest melting point ?

(1) LiCl (2) NaCl (3) KCl (4) RbCl

90. Which one of the following has a square planar

geometry ?

[Co = 27, Ni = 28, Fe = 26, Pt = 78]

(1) [CoCl4]2– (2) [FeCl4]

2–

(3) [NiCl4]2– (4) [PtCl4]

2–

82.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 83. VSEPR ClO3

– (1) (2) (3) (4)

84. (1) K NO2 (2) Ca CaH2

(3) Na Na2O2 (4) Ba BaO2

85. [Cu(NH3)4(NO3)2] IUPAC :-

(1)

(2) (II)

(3) (II)

(4) (III) 86. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

87.

2HI HCN I H C N

:-

(1) 2H CN (2) I (3) HCN (4) HI

88. (1) SiF4 SF4 (2) IO3

– XeOF4

(3) BH4–

4NH

(4) PF6– SF6

89. (1) LiCl (2) NaCl (3) KCl (4) RbCl

90.

[Co = 27, Ni = 28, Fe = 26, Pt = 78]

(1) [CoCl4]2– (2) [FeCl4]

2–

(3) [NiCl4]2– (4) [PtCl4]

2–

Kota/01CM314240H-14/37


91. A plant species ‘x’ which is commonly called sago

palm. Some statements are given below in which

how many true about plant species ‘x’ :-

(a) Vegetative propagation by bulbils.

(b) Pollination at 3-celled stage.

(c) Orthrotropous type of ovule with three

vascular strands.

(d) Presence of transfusion tissue and

sclerenchymatous hypodermis in leaf lets.

(e) Winged pollen grain.

(f) Both male cone and female cones are present

on same tree.

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two

92. Select incorrect statement/s :-

(A) Antheridia and archegonia are present on the

ventral surface of fern prothallus.

(B) Antheridia and archegonia are present on the

dorsal surface of Riccia thallus.

(C) In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is

completely secondary in origin.

(D) Multi carpellary and syncarpous gynoecium

is found in Michelia.

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

93. List some of the plants are given below with

codes–

(A) Marchantia (B) Polytrichum

(C) Pinus (D) Cycas

(E) Papaya (F) Date palm

Select the correct option which give correct

information about following questions.

(I) Dioecious plant

(II) Monoecious plant

(III) Male and female gametophyte have an

independent free living existence

(IV) Male and female gometophyte do not have

an independent free living existence.

I II III IV

(1)A,B,D, Eand F

C A and BC,D, Eand F

(2)A,B andC

D,E andF

C and DA,B,Eand F

(3)D,E andF

A,C andD

A and CB,D, Eand F

(4)A,B,Eand F

D and CA, Band D

C, E andF

91. ‘x’

‘x’ :-

(a)

(b) 3-

(c)

(d)

(e)

(f)

(1) (2) (3) (4) 92. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2) (3) (4) 93. –

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (I) (II) (III)

(IV)

I II III IV

(1)A,B,D, Eand F

C A and BC,D, Eand F

(2)A,B andC

D,E andF

C and DA,B,Eand F

(3)D,E andF

A,C andD

A and CB,D, Eand F

(4)A,B,Eand F

D and CA, Band D

C, E andF


H-15/37Kota/01CM314240

94. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) are given below

of four different animals. Which one of these is

correctly identified in the option given along with

their habitat and excretory organ :-

A B C D

Sketch Animal HabitatExcretory

organ

1 D Chelon Marine waterProtonephric

kidney

2 A Fasciola Endoparasite Renette cell

3 B RanaOnly inmarine water

Mesonephrickidney

4 C HirudinariaMostly infresh water

Nephridia

95. In the following myocardium would be the

thickest one :-

(1) Left atrium (2) Left ventricle

(3) Right atrium (4) Right ventricle

96. Choose the correct option from following column

I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1. Pivot Joint a. Skull bone i. Synovial joint

2. Ball andsocket joint

b. Betweentwo adjacentvertebrae

ii. Diarthrosis

3. Cartilaginousjoint

c. Betweenatlas andaxis

iii. Synarthrosis

4. Fibrous Joint d. Betweenhumerusand pectoralgirdle

iv. Amphiarthrosis

(1) 1-a-iii, 2-d-iv, 3-c-ii, 4-b-i

(2) 1-c-ii, 4-a-iii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iv

(3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-b-iv

(4) 3-b-i, 4-c-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-d-iv

94. (A, B, C D) :-

A B C D

1 D

2 A

3 B

4 C

95. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

96. I, II III :-

-I -II -III

1. a. i.

2.

b.

ii.

3.

c.

iii.

4. d.

iv.

(1) 1-a-iii, 2-d-iv, 3-c-ii, 4-b-i

(2) 1-c-ii, 4-a-iii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iv

(3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-b-iv

(4) 3-b-i, 4-c-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-d-iv

Kota/01CM314240H-16/37


97. Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct

network of nucleoprotein fibres called ____A __.

But during different stages of cell division, cells

show ___B ___ in place of the nucleus :-

A B

1 DNA thick chromosomes

2 Chromatin Spindle fibres

3 Chromatin Structured chromosomes

4 DNA Structured Chromosoms

98. Which Enzyme is responsible for SnRNA

formation ?

(1) RNA polymerase I

(2) RNA Polymerase II

(3) RNA Polymerase III

(4) DNA Lygase

99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly

matched ?

(1) IAA – Cell wall elongation

(2) Abscisic acid – stomatal closure

(3) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall

(4) Cytokinin – Cell division

100.

Sound wave fromfenestra ovalis

F

E

Helicotrema

Organ of corti

GD

Auditory nerve

+

A Maculae

B C

Find out the correct match for B, C, D, E, F :-

(B) (C) (D) (E) (F)

(1) Staticequilibrium

Kineticequilibrium

Cochlearnerve

Scalatympani

Reissner'smembrane

(2) Kineticequilibrium

Staticequilibrium

Cochlearnerve

Scalavestibuli

Basilarmembrane

(3) Kineticequilibrium

Staticequilibrium

Vestibularnerve

Scalavestibular

Scalamedia

(4) Staticequilibrium

Kineticequilibrium

Vestibularnerve

Scalatympani

Scalavestibuli

97. _________ _________

1

2

3

4

98. SnRNA ?

(1) I(2) II

(3) III(4)

99. ?

(1) IAA – (2) Abscisic acid – (3) Gibberellic acid – (4) Cytokinin –

100.

F

E

GD

+

A

B C

B, C, D, E, F :-

(B) (C) (D) (E) (F)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-17/37Kota/01CM314240

101. Select correct combinations with respect to the

special condition of stamens, the types of

placentation & fruit in each of the following and

choose correct options :-

(A) Brassica – Tetradynamous, parietal and siliqua.

(B) Gossypium – Monoadelphous, axile and capsule.

(C) Glycine – Diadelphous, marginal and legume.

(D) Citrus – Polyadelphous, axile and hespiridium.

(E) Tagetes – Syngenesious, basal and cypsella

(1) Only A & C (2) Only B, C & D

(3) All A to E (4) Only C, D & E

102. Select correctly matched pair/pairs :-

(A) Cyathium – Euphoria

(B) Swollen placenta – makoi

(C) Rhizophore – Selaginella

(D) Cleavage polyembryony – Pinus

(E) Ligulate leaf – Selaginella

(1) All except E

(2) All except D & E

(3) All except A, D & E

(4) All A to E

103. Dry mosses are useful for translocation of new

seedling plants, because :–

(1) These have water absorption capacity

(2) These having capacity to incerase the acidity

of soil

(3) They are used as manure

(4) Both 2 and 3

104. Which of the following animal are vertebrate

chordate ?

(a) Petromyzon (b) Amphioxus

(c) Ascidia (d) Balanoglossus

(e) Myxine

(1) a only (2) a and e

(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and e

105. Match the following correctly :-

(i) Stroke volume (a) 5000 ml. blood

(ii) Cardiac output (b) 120 ml. blood

(iii) End systolic volume (c) 70 ml. blood

(iv) End diastolic volume (d) 50 ml. blood

(1) i(d), ii(a), iii(b), iv(c)

(2) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c)

(3) i(c), ii(a), iii(d), iv(b)

(4) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b)

101. :-(A) – (B) – (C) – (D) – (E) – (1) A C (2) B, C D

(3) A E (4) C, D E

102. :-(A)– (B) – (C) – (D) – (E) – (1) E (2) D E (3) A, D E (4) A E

103. :–(1) (2)

(3) (4) 2 3

104. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) a (2) a e

(3) b, c d (4) a, b e105. :-

(i) (a) 5000 ml.

(ii) (b) 120 ml.

(iii) (c) 70 ml.

(iv) (d) 50 ml.

(1) i(d), ii(a), iii(b), iv(c)

(2) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c)

(3) i(c), ii(a), iii(d), iv(b)

(4) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b)

Kota/01CM314240H-18/37


106. Cardiac muscles are :-

(1) Striated (2) Branched

(3) Involuntary (4) All of these

107. The following statement may relate to which

stage(s) of cell division ?

"Splitting of centromere of each chromosome

occurs at this stage and separated chromatids

move towards opposite poles of the cell"

(1) Anaphase

(2) Anaphase -I

(3) Anaphase and Anaphase -I

(4) Anaphase and Anaphase - II

108. The phytohormone, which increases the

concentration of potassium in guard cells is also

responsible for the induction of :

(1) Cell division

(2) Triple response growth

(3) Apical dominance

(4) Abscission

109. Match the following and choose the correct

combination from the options given

List-I List-I

(a) Photolysis of water (1) Zinc

(b) Diazotrophy (2) Copper

(c) Cytochrome 'c' oxidase(3) Manganese

(d) Biosynthesis of IAA (4) Molybdeum

(5) Boron

(1) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-5 (2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

(3) a-5, b-2, c-3, c-4 (4) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

110. Which hormone mostly regulate gene expression

when it interact with intracellular receptors :-

(1) Epinephrine and thyroxine

(2) Estradiole and growth hormone

(3) Testosterone and epinephrine

(4) Iodothyronine and estradiole

111. Select incorrect statement ?

(1) Photosynthetic nature is generally a common

character both in gametophyte and sporophyte

of mosses and ferns.

(2) In pteridophytes, gametophyte may be

dioecious or monoecious.

(3) In gymnosperms endosperm represents

female gametophyte whereas in angiosperms

embryosac represents female gametophyte.

(4) The number of cells are more in female

gametophyte of angiosperms as compared to

female gametophyte of gymnosperm.

106. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

107. ?""(1) (2) -I -II(3) -I(4) -II

108. K+ :

(1) (2) Triple response growth

(3) (4)

109. List-I List-I

(a) Photolysis of water (1) Zinc

(b) Diazotrophy (2) Copper

(c) Cytochrome 'c' oxidase(3) Manganese

(d) Biosynthesis of IAA (4) Molybdeum

(5) Boron

(1) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-5 (2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

(3) a-5, b-2, c-3, c-4 (4) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

110. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

111. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-19/37Kota/01CM314240

112. Match the following Aestivation with related

plants?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(i) Cassia (ii) Pea

(iii) Calotropis (iv) Gossypium

(1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)

(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)

(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)

113. Identify the animal given below and select the

correct option in which both identification and

their larval form are given correctly :-

(1) Balanoglossus - Tornaria larva

(2) Ascidia - Trochophore larva

(3) Balanoglosus - Cydippid larva

(4) Pleurobranchia - Tornaria larva

112.

?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)

(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)

(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)

113.

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

Kota/01CM314240H-20/37


114. Consider the following figure and choose the

correct option :-

Tissue Site Function

(1) Squamousepithelium

Found inbloodvessels

Formsdiffusionsurface

(2) Cuboidalepithelium

found inducts ofglands

Main functionis secretionandabsorption

(3) Ciliatedcolumnarepithelium

Trachea Direct mucusin variousdirection

(4) Columnarepithelium

Lining ofstomach

Absorption

115. The factors which favours formation of HbO2 is/

are :-

(1) Less H+ conc.

(2) Low pH

(3) Low CO2

(4) All of these

116. Each sarcomere has a central ____A____ made of

____B____ and two half ____C____ made of thin

actin filaments, either side of sarcomere, it is

marked by ____D____ :-

A B C D

(1) M-band Thinmyosin

H-band H-lines

(2) A-band Thickmyosinfilaments

I-bands Z-lines

(3) Z-line Thin actinfilament

H-zone M-line

(4) M-line Thin actinfilament

Z-lines H-zone

114. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

115. HbO2 :-

(1) H+

(2) pH

(3) CO2

(4) 116. ____A____

____B____ ____C____ ____D____

:-

A B C D

(1) M-

H- H-

(2) A-

I- Z-

(3) Z-

H- M-

(4) M-

Z- H-


H-21/37Kota/01CM314240

117. How many of the following statements are

correct ?

(a) As the polar molecules can not pass through

the nonpolar lipid bilayer, they require a pump

protein of the membrane to facilitate their

transport across the membrane

(b) The endomembrane system include ER, golgi

complex, lysosomes, peroxisomes & vacuoles

(c) The space limited by the inner membrane of

the chloroplast is called lumen

(d) Cytoskeleton has important role in cell

motility.

(1) One (b) Four (3) Two (4) Three

118. Study the following lists and choose the correct

List-I List-II

(A) Water potential (I) Positive

of 10% salt solution

(B) Pressure potential (II) Negative

in a normal cell

(C) Pressure potential (III) Positive

in a flaccid

(D) Pressure potential (IV) Negative

in the stem during

trans piration

(V) Zero

The correct match is :

(1) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-IV

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(4) B-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I

119. Select the correct matched ones :

(a) Nitrosomonas – nitrite to nitrate

(b) Thiobacillus – Denitrification

(c) Nostoc – Free living nitrogen-fixer

(d) Azotobactor – filamentry nitrogen–fixer

(1) a & b only (2) c & d only

(3) b & c only (4) b & d only

117. ?

()

()

()

()

(1) (b) (3) (4)

118.

List-I List-II

(A) 10% (I) Positive

(B) (II) Negative

(C) (III) Positive

(D) (IV) Negative

(V) Zero

(1) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-IV

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(4) B-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I

119. :

(a) Nitrosomonas – nitrite to nitrate

(b) Thiobacillus – Denitrification

(c) Nostoc – Free living nitrogen-fixer

(d) Azotobactor – filamentry nitrogen–fixer

(1) a & b only (2) c & d only

(3) b & c only (4) b & d only

Kota/01CM314240H-22/37


120. Read the following statements :-

(A) Synaptic knob is a branched, distal end part

of axon.

(B) Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal

& cranial nerve.

(C) Schwann cell does not form myelin sheath

around the nerves of autonomous nervous

system & somatic neural system

(D) Gap between two distal myelin sheath is

called node of Ranvier.

Which option is correct regarding number of

True (T) and False(F) statement.

(1) T > F (2) F > T

(3) T = F (4) Any of above

121. List some of the fungi are given below :-

Agaricus, Penicillium, Rhizopus, Ustilago, Mucor,

Aspergillus, Alternaria, Puccinia, Colletotrichum

(A) In how many above fungi plasmogamy is

followed by karyogamy, immediately.

(B) How many above fungi are reproduce

asexually by conidia formation.

A B

(1) Two Five

(2) Three Six

(3) Two Four

(4) Four Five

122. Find incorrect match :-

(1) Presence of eye-spot - Euglena and

Chlamydomonas

(2) Whorl phllotaxy - Alstonia and Nerium

(3) Dioecious plant - Vallisneria and papaya

(4) Heterosporous fern - Selaginella and Salvinia

120. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(T) (F)

(1) T > F (2) F > T

(3) T = F (4)

121. :-

(A)

(B)

A B

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

122. :-

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -


H-23/37Kota/01CM314240

123. Match the following column-I,II & III and select

the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A Nereis aPersistentnotochord

i Mollusca

B Dentalium bProboscisgland

ii Cephalochordata

C Branchiostoma c Parapodia iii Annelida

D Saccoglosus dRedullapresent

iv Hemichordata

Option :-

(1) A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-d-ii, D-a-iv

(2) B-b-ii, C-c-i, A-d-iv, D-a-iii

(3) A-c-iii, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iv

(4) D-a-ii, C-d-i, B-c-iii, A-b-iv

124. In all connective tissue the cells secretes fibres of

structural proteins collagen or elastin except :-

(1) Skin

(2) Cartilage

(3) Bone

(4) Blood

125. Identify A, B, C and D in given diagram and

choose the option :-

A

CBD

(1) A. DRG(Dorsalrespiratory group)

Control basicrespiratory rhythm

(2) B. VRG(Ventralrespiratory group)

Slow downrespiratory rhythm

(3) C. Pneumotaxiccentre

Moderate thefunction of rhythmcentre

(4) D. Chemosensitivearea

Highly sensitive toCO

2 & K+ ions

123. -I,II III :-

-I -II -III

A a i

B b ii

C c iii

D d iv

:-(1) A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-d-ii, D-a-iv

(2) B-b-ii, C-c-i, A-d-iv, D-a-iii

(3) A-c-iii, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iv

(4) D-a-ii, C-d-i, B-c-iii, A-b-iv

124. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

125. A, B, C D :-

A

CBD

(1) A.

(2) B.

(3) C.

(4) D. CO2 K+

Kota/01CM314240H-24/37


126. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

A. The kidneys are retroperitoneal organs

attached to the anterior abdominal wall.

B. Glomerular filtrate amounts to upto 180 litres /day.

C. CHP and BCOP oppose filtration.

D. In the presence of ADH, the kidney produces

diluted urine.

How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four (2) One

(3) Two (4) Three

127. The given picture represents which stage of cell

division ?

(1) Prophase (2) Prophase-I

(3) Metaphase (4) Metaphase-I

128. The direction and the rate of water movement

from cell to cell is based on

(1) Water potential

(2) Incipient plasmolysis

(3) Turgor pressure

(4) Wall pressure

129. Assume a thylakoid is some how punctured so that

the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated

from the stroma. This damage will have the most

direct effect on which of the following processes.

(1) The splitting of water

(2) The absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

(3) The flow of electrons from photosystem II to

photosystem

(4) Synthesis of ATP

126. (A-D) :-

A.

B. 180

C. CHP BCOP

D. ADH

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

127. ?

(1) (2) -I

(3) (4) -I

128.

(1)

(2) Incipient plasmolysis

(3)

(4)

129. thylakoid thylakoid stroma

(1)

(2) chlorophyll

(3) photosystem II photosystem e–

(4) ATP


H-25/37Kota/01CM314240

130.

0

A

–80

–70

–60

–40

–20

0

+30

B

C D

E

F

G

J

1 2 3 4 5

Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) At point F, Na+ VGC openes and also Na+

diffuses in through passive transport

(2) At point E, K+ VGC opened and also K+

comes in through active transport.

(3) At point B, Na+ comes in through active

transport and inner –ve charge is called resting

membrane potential.

(4) At point D, K+ VGC close and also K+ diffuses

in through passive transport

131. List some of the organism are given below :-

Saprolegnia, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra,

Polysiphonia, Laminaria, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix,

Gelidium

How many above organism reproduce asexually

by zoospores formation in favourable condition.

(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Two

132. Arrange the following plants in a sequence from

monarch to polyarch condition in their roots :-

(I) Pea (II) Gram

(III) Trapa (IV) Maize

(1) III, I, II and IV (2) I, II, III and IV

(3) IV, III, II and I (4) III, II, I and IV

133. Select the correct group of animals in which

external fertilization take place :-

(1) Rana, Echinus, Balanoglosus and Ascaris

(2) Ratus, Collumba, Chelon and Hyla

(3) Antedon, Saccoglosus, Ctenoplana and bufo

(4) Ctenoplana, Ratus, Echinus and hyla

130.

0

A

–80

–70

–60

–40

–20

0

+30

B

C D

E

F

G

J

1 2 3 4 5

(1) F Na+ VGC Na+

(2) E K+ VGC K+

(3) B Na+ –ve

(4) D K+ VGC K+

131. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

132.

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) III, I, II IV (2) I, II, III IV

(3) IV, III, II I (4) III, II, I IV

133. :-

(1) , ,

(2) , ,

(3) ,

(4) , ,

Kota/01CM314240H-26/37


134. Following is the diagram of certain connective tissue.

Choose the correct option from following options:-

Type of tissue Example

(a) Dense irregularconnective tissue

Skin

(b) Dense regularconnective tissue

Tendons

(c) Dense regularconnective tissue

Ligaments

(d) Dense irregularconnective tissue

Bones

(1) a and b (2) b only

(3) c and d (4) b and c

135. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are

damaged due to which respiratory surface is

decreased is :-

(1) Bronchitis (2) Asthma

(3) Emphysema (4) Fibrosis

136. Following statements is/are true for Angiotensin-II:-

(1) It is strong vasoconstrictor.

(2) Increase BP in glomerulus.

(3) Increase glomerular filteration rate (GFR)

(4) All of these

137. Some statements are being given which are

matched with biological phenomenons select the

odd one from followings :-

(a) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates serve dual

process, they provide energy for

polymerization reaction and acting as

substrate – DNA Replication

(b) DNA Dependent RNA polymerase catalyze

the polymerization in only 5' – 3' direction

Transcription

(c) RNA plays structural & catalytic role -

Translation

(d) Some amino acids are coded by more than

one codons - Nonambiguity

(1) A,B&D options are odd

(2) only D is odd

(3) only C is odd

(4) only A & B are odd

134. :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a b (2) b(3) c d (4) b c

135. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

136. -II :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

137. :-(a)

(b) 5' – 3'

(c)

(d)

(1) A,B D (2) D (3) C (4) A & B


H-27/37Kota/01CM314240

138. Which one of the following is produced during

water stress and causes closure of stomata ?

(1) Auxin (2) Abscisic acid

(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin

139. Which of the following element is not absorbed

from soil ?

(1) N (2) Fe (3) B (4) C

140. Read the following statement (A-E) and which of

the following statements are correct for the

gland–"A" shown in the below figure and its

hormones :-

B

A

(A) Secretes many hormones commonly called

corticoids.

(B) Hormones increases alertness, pupillary

dilation, piloerection etc.

(C) Stimulates breakdown of glycogen.

(D) Produces anti-inflamatory reaction and

suppresses the immune response.

(E) Works direct under neural control and secretes

hormones rapidly in response to stress of any

kind.

(1) Statement (A) and (B)

(2) Statement (B), (C) and (E)

(3) Statement (C), (D) and (E)

(4) Statement (A), (B), (C) and (E)

141. Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Heart wood comprises dead elements with

highly legnified walls.

(B) In oogamous type of sexual reproduction male

gametes are always motile.

(C) Oogamous type of sexual reproduction is

found in Fucus, Volvox, Chara, Vaucheria and

Polysiphonia.

(D) In gymnosperms ovule pollen chamber is a

cavity where pollinated pollens are stored.

(E) Enucleated condition is found in mature sieve

tube element.

(F) Axile placentation is found in Lycopersicum,

Hibiscus, Gossypium, and Allium

How many above statements is/are incorrect ?

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One

138. ?

(1) Auxin (2) Abscisic acid

(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin

139. (1) N (2) Fe (3) B (4) C

140. (A-E)–A :-

B

A

(A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(E)

(1) (A) (B)

(2) (B), (C) (E)

(3) (C), (D) (E)

(4) (A), (B), (C) (E)

141. :-(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(F)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/01CM314240H-28/37


142. List some of the plants are given below :

Petunia, Tulip, Gloriosa, Lupin, Tomato,

Soyabean.

How many are ornamental plants :-

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six

143. According to the evolutionary history which of the

following animals are "first eucoelomate and are

protostomiate" :-

(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelids

(3) Arthropods (4) Echinoderms

144. Read the following four statements (A-D) with

respect to cockroach :-

(A) Head is rectangular in shape and at right angle

to the longitudinal body axis.

(B) A pair of thread like antennae arise from

membranous sockets lying behind the eyes.

(C) Forewing is called tegmina, which are

transparent and membranous.

(D) In females the 7th sternum is boat shaped and

together with the 8th and 9th sterna forms a

genital pouch.

How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four

145. The diffusion membrane is made up of :-

(a) Columnar epithelium of alveoli

(b) Simple squamous epithelium of alveoli

(c) Simple squamous epithelium of alveolar

capillaries.

(d) Basement membrane of simple epithelium of

alveoli only.

(e) Basement substance in between epithelium of

alveoli and endothelium.

(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d

(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and d

146. Match the column :-

i. Protonephridia (a) Cockroach

ii. Malpighi tubules (b) Rabbit

iii. Green glands (c) Rotifers

iv. Kidney (d) Prawns

(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

(2) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

(3) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a

(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

142. :

:-

(1) (2) (3) (4) 143.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 144.

:-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

145. :-(a) (b) (c) (d)

(e)

(1) a, b c (2) b, c d

(3) b, c e (4) a, c d

146. :-

i. (a)

ii. (b)

iii. (c)

iv. (d)

(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

(2) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

(3) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a

(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

Time Management is Life Management


H-29/37Kota/01CM314240

147. Which statement proves that RNA evolved earlier

than DNA ?

(1) RNA can function as calalyst

(2) SnRNA is used in splicing process

(3) In place of uracil thymine is present in RNA

(4) Both 1 & 2

148. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at

(1) 1/2 Vmax(2) 2 V

max

(3) 1/4 Vmax (4) 4 Vmax

149. Substrate level phosphorylation does not occur in

which of the following reaction of aerobic

respiration ?

(1) 1, 3 DiPGA 3-PGA

(2) 3-PGA 2-PGA

(3) PEP Pyruvate

(4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid

150. Which of the following statement are False/True?

A. PTH regulates the metabolism of Ca2+ and

PO4–

B. Prolactin inhibits the action of GnRH

C. Dopamine inhibits lactation

D. Insulin promotes lipolysis

(1) A and B are true, C and D are false

(2) A and C are true, B and D are false

(3) A, B and C are true, D only false

(4) B, C and D are false, A only true.

151. A plant ‘x’ having following characters :-

(a) Didynamous stamen

(b) Gynobasic style

(c) Bilabiate corolla

(d) Verticillaster type of inflorescence

(e) Opposite phyllotaxy

Plant ‘x’ should be :-

(1) Salvia (2) Euphorbia

(3) Fig (4) Cucumber

152. Given diagram represents wall thickenings at

corners. Which of the following material is not

found in given wall thickenings?

wallthickenings

(1) Pectin (2) Cellulose

(3) Hemicellulose (4) Lignin

147. RNA DNA :-(1) RNA (2) SnRNA(3) (4) 1 2

148. enzyme Km (1) 1/2 V

max(2) 2 V

max

(3) 1/4 Vmax (4) 4 Vmax

149. ?

(1) 1, 3 DiPGA 3-PGA

(2) 3-PGA 2-PGA

(3) PEP Pyruvate

(4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid

150. A. Ca2+ PO4

–

B. GnRH C. D. (1) A B C D (2) A C B D (3) A, B C D (4) B, C D A

151. ‘x’ :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ‘x’ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

152.

wallthickenings

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/01CM314240H-30/37


153. Read the following statements :-

(A) All vertebrates are chordate animals.

(B) All chordates are vertebrate animals.

(C) All eucoelomate animals having organ system

level of body organisation.

(D) All protostomiate animals show radial symmetry.

Out of these which are correct statements ?

(1) Statement A and C only

(2) Statement A, B and C

(3) Statement B, C and D

(4) Statement B, and D

154. In cockroach, exoskeleton has hardened plate

called sclerites that are joined to each other by thin

and flexible :-

(1) Basilar membrane

(2) Articular membrane

(3) Arthrodial membrane

(4) Both (2) and (3)

155. The type of dentition present in human is :-

(1) Heterodont (2) Diphyodont

(3) Thecodont (4) All of these

156. In female cockroach, sperms are transferred

through ............... by male cockroach.

Fill in the blank :-

(1) Spermatozoa

(2) Spermatophores

(3) Pseudopenis

(4) Anal cerci

157. Translation is :-

(1) Process of Polymerization of amino acids to

form polypeptide according to sequence of

nitrogen bases in m-RNA

(2) Process of copying genetic information from

DNA to RNA

(3) Polymerization of Nucleotides to form Nucleic

Acid

(4) both 1 & 2

158. Photosynthesis cannot continue for long if during

light reaction only cyclic photophosphorylation

takes place. This is because :

(1) There is no evolution of O2

(2) Only ATP is formed NADPH is not formed

(3) There is unidirectional cyclic movement of the

electrons

(4) Photosystem I stops getting excited at a

wavelength of light beyond 680 nm

153. :-(A) (B) (C)

(D) ?

(1) A C(2) A, B C(3) B, C D

(4) B, D

154. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)

155. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

156. ............... :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

157. :-(1) m-RNA N -

(2) DNA RNA

(3)

(4) 1 2 158.

:

(1) (2) ATP NADPH

(3) e– (4) 680 Photosystem I


H-31/37Kota/01CM314240

159. Some photosynthetic organisms contains

chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, Yet are able

to survive. The Best way to detect the lack of

photosystem II in these organism would be

(1) To determine if they have thylakoids in the

chloroplasts

(2) To test for liberation of O2 in the light

(3) To test for CO2 fixation in the dark

(4) To test for production of either sucrose or starch

160. Given below is a flow chart of hormonal action,

identify the hormones / glands labelled as A,B, C

and D :-

Hypothalamus

A(Gland)

C(Gland)

D(function)

Thyrotrophin releasing hormone (TRH)

B

Thyroxin

(1) A–Neurohypophysis B–TSH C–Thyroid gland

(2) A–Pituitary gland B-GnRH D-Metabolism of body

(3) B-TSH C-Adenohypophysis D-Sleep-wake cycle

(4) A-Adenohypophysis B-TSH C-Thyroid gland

161. The cross section of plant material showing the

following anatomical feature under microscope :-

(a) Collenchymatous hypodermis as a homogenous

layer.

(b) Sclerenchymatous pericycle in patches

located just above phloem bundles.

(c) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.

(d) Radially placed parenchymatous cells

between vascular bundles.

(e) Presence of well developed pith.

(f) Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundle

Plant material should be.

(1) Cucurbita stem (2) Helianthus stem

(3) Zea mays stem (4) Saccharum stem

159. chloroplasts photosystem II (1) chloroplast thylakoids

(2) O2 (3) CO2 (4) sucrose starch

160. A,B, C, D :-

A( )

C( )

D( )

Thyrotrophin releasing hormone (TRH)

B

(1) A– B–TSH C–

(2) A– B-GnRH D-

(3) B-TSH C- D-(sleep-wakecycle)

(4) A- B-TSH C-

161. :-(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(e) (f) (1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/01CM314240H-32/37


162. Given figure is a transverse section of dicot stem

showing secondary growth in stelar and extra

stelar region. In which labelled structure a, b, c

& d are respectively :-

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(1) Phellem, Phellogen, secondary xylem and

Secondary phloem

(2) Secondary xylem, Secondary phloem,

Phellem and Phellogen

(3) Primary xylem, Secondary phloem,

Phelloederm, phellem

(4) Vascular cambium, Secondary xylem,

Phellem, Phellogen

163. Read the following features of animals :-

i. Skin - dry and covered by scales

ii. Dermal scales are present

iii. External ear opening is present which is

covered by tympanum

iv. Two pairs limbs are found as locomotory

organs.

v. They are oviparus

vi. Normally trichembered heart is present.

vii. All animals are exclusively terrestrial

Out of these how many features are not exhibited

by 'Reptiles'

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One

164. Choose the correct match from column I, II

and III :-

Animal Heart Circulation

(1) Rohu 3 chambered Doublecirculation

(2) Frog 3 chambered Incompletedoublecirculation

(3) Snake 2 chambered Incompletedoublecirculation

(4) Rabbit 3 chambered Doublecirculation

162. a, b, c d

:-

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 163. :-

i. - ii. iii.

iv. 2 v. vi. vii. (1) (2) (3) (4)

164. I, II III :-

(1) 3

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 3


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165. A muscular sphincter which regulates the opening

of oesophagus into the stomach is :-

(1) Pyloric sphincter

(2) Cardiac sphincter

(3) Gastro oesophageal

(4) Both (2) and (3)

166. Mark the incorrect statement regarding

Periplaneta americana ?

(1) If the head is cut off, it will still survive for

as long as one week.

(2) It has mosaic vision with more sensitivity but

less resolution.

(3) On an average, females produce 9-10

oothecae, each containing 14-16 eggs.

(4) 100-150 blind tubules called gastric caecae is

present at the junction of foregut and midgut

167. An Oligosaccaridle made up of 5 monosaccharide

units A,B,C,D & E. If molecular weight of these

monosaccharide is respectively 100, 180, 300, 400

& 500 then what will be the molecular weight

of the oligosaccharide ?

(1) 1480 (2) 1444 (3) 1426 (4) 1408

168. During photosynthesis for ATP synthesis which of the

following acts as a reservoir for hydrogen ions ?

(1) Cristal (2) Stroma

(3) Thylakoid lumen (4) Matrix

169. A biochemist wanted to study how various

substances were used and changed in cellular

respiration. In one experiment, he allowed a

mouse to breath air. Procedure harmless to the

mouse. In the mouse the labelled oxygen atoms,

identified by first showed up in

(1) ATP (2) NADH

(3) CO2(4) H

2O

170. Which of the following option gives the correct

categorisation of nerve according to their origin

and nature:-

ANerve

BOrigin

CNature

(1) Trigeminal Midbrain Motor

(2) Abducens Pons Mixed

(3) Auditory Pons Sensory

(4) Vagus Medulla Motor

165. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)

166. (1)

(2)

(3) 9-1014-16

(4) 100150

167. 5 A,B,C,D

& E 100, 180, 300, 400 500 ?

(1) 1480 (2) 1444

(3) 1426 (4) 1408

168. ATP H+ ?

(1) Cristal (2) Stroma

(3) Thylakoid lumen (4) Matrix

169. biochemist radioactive isotope radiolabelled isotope (1) ATP (2) NADH

(3) CO2(4) H

2O

170.

A

B

C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Kota/01CM314240H-34/37


171. Arrange the following animals in ascending order

with respect to their approximate life span and

choose correct option :-

(a) Crocodile (b) Domestic dog

(c) Parrot (d) Humming bird

(e) Butter fly

(1) e, a, c, d, b (2) d, b, e, a, c

(3) e, d, b, a, c (4) d, e, c, a, b

172. A cladogram showing evolution of plants given

below. Study it carefully and give the answer of

following question.

Leafy gametophyte

5

Liverworts3

BGA4

Embryo

Chlorophyll 'b'

Chlorophyll – 'a'

Chlorophyll 'C'

Naked DNAPhycobillins

Silicated cell wall

2

1

Number '3' representing the which group of plants:-

(1) Dinoflagellates

(2) Moss

(3) Diatom

(4) Red algae

173. A group of animals that exhibits following

properties :-

(a) Represent to "Agnatha"

(b) Most ancient vertebrate animals.

(c) Animals are ectoparasite on fishes

On the basis of above features, name out the

correct group of animals and select the correct option?

(1) Urochordata

(2) Cyclostomata

(3) Cephalochordata

(4) Vertebrate

174. The heart valves, which always remain in contact

with oxygenated blood are :-

(1) Tricuspid value

(2) Bicuspid value

(3) Mitral value

(4) Both (2) and (3)

171. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) e, a, c, d, b (2) d, b, e, a, c

(3) e, d, b, a, c (4) d, e, c, a, b

172.

Leafy gametophyte

5

Liverworts3

BGA4

Embryo

Chlorophyll 'b'

Chlorophyll – 'a'

Chlorophyll 'C'

Naked DNAPhycobillins

Silicated cell wall

2

1

'3' (1) (2) (3) (4)

173. :-(a) (b) (c) ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

174. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)


H-35/37Kota/01CM314240

175. Consider the following diagram and choose the

correct option regarding hormones :-

C Stomach

BD

A

A. CCK Contraction of gallbladder

B. Secretin Stimulate secretionof HCO

3– and H

2O

from pancreas

C. Gastrin Stimulate secretionof gastric juice

D. Enterokinase Stimulate secretionof pancreatic juicefrom pancreas

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) A and D

176. Which component of the cell divides the

intracellular space into two distinct compartments

i.e. luminal and extra luminal compartments ?

(1) Nuclear membrane

(2) Mitochondria

(3) Lysosomes

(4) ER

177. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Bacteriophage lambda has total 5386

N-bases

(2) In one coil of DNA molecule total

40 phosphate molecules will be present

(3) Helix length of Z-DNA is 45.6 A°

(4) Both 1 & 2 are incorrect

175. :-

C Stomach

BD

A

A. CCK

B. HCO3–

H2O

C.

D.

(1) A B (2) B C

(3) C D (4) A D

176. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

177. ?

(1) 5386 N-

(2) 40

(3) Z-DNA 45.6 A°

(4) 1 2

Kota/01CM314240H-36/37


Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Your moral duty

is to prove that is

178. The chemiosmotic coupling theory of oxidative

phosphorylation proposes that adenosine

triphosphate (ATP) is formed because

(1) There is a change in the peameability of the

inner mitochondrial membrane toward

adenosine diphosphate ADP

(2) High energy bonds are formed in

mitochondrial proteins

(3) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the inter

membrane space

(4) A proton gradient forms across the inner

membrane

179.

WaterSolute

Particals

Chamber A Chamber B

In the given diagram in chamber A some solute

is added and in chamber 'B' some water is added

then which statement is incorrect :

(1) In chamger A solute potential will decrease

(2) In chamber B water potential will increase

(3) In both chamber turgour pressure will decrease

(4) At atmospheric pressure in chamber A water

potential will decrease.

180. In our eyes, optic nerve leave the eye and the

retinal blood vessels enters at a point called blind

spot, which is characterised by all except one.

(1) Located medial to and slightly above the

posterior pole

(2) Photoreceptor cells are absent

(3) Thinned out portion of retina where visual

acuity is poor

(4) Located on lateral side of macula lutea

178.

(ATP)

(1) adenosine diphosphate mitochondrial

(2) mitochondrial

(3) inter membrane space ADP matrix

pump

(4) inner membrane proton

179.

WaterSolute

Particals

Chamber A Chamber B

chamber A chamber 'B' :

(1) chamger A (2) chamber B (3) chamber (4) chamber A

180. (1)

(2) (3) (4)


H-37/37Kota/01CM314240

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Hindi PAPER CODE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM NUMBER … · (i) Digestion and Absorption (ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and circulation (iv) Excretory Products and