HANDOUTS for Grade 9 - Weeblyedselplus.weebly.com/uploads/1/9/7/5/19755251/9th_grade_writing_handouts.pdfHANDOUTS for Grade 9 A Writing Test Genre Study for ... GRADE 9: Day 1/Document

Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2007

ELA/MME Unit of Study: WRITING

HANDOUTS for Grade 9

A Writing Test Genre Study for English Language Arts/Michigan Merit Exam

www.writingondemand.org

ELA/MME Unit of Study: Writing, Grade 9 Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2007 Oakland Schools Oakland Writing Project National Writing Projects of Michigan www.writingondemand.org

8

GRADE 9: Day 1/Document 1

PLAN English Test Structure The PLAN English Test is primarily a test of your editing skills. Let’s take a closer look at the specific structure of this test: Timing:

50 questions to answer 30 minutes timed test

(36 seconds per question) Passages to read:

Four passages (essays) to read ~10-12 questions per passage to answer

Types of Questions:

30 Grammar and Usage Questions • Focus on standard usage

20 Rhetorical Skills Questions

• Focus on organization, transitions, quality of argument/writing

• Focus on “purpose, audience, unity and focus,” just like when writing an essay


9


PLAN English Strategies: D.W. Griffith Passage

English Test © ACT, used by permission Directions: In the passage that follows, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to the question. You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box. For each question, choose the alternative you consider best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. Read the passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you must read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ D. W. Griffith and the Art of the Close-Up

[1] In the late 1890s, thousands of people crowded into penny arcades across the country to see a remarkable new invention: the movie. Seldom longer than one minute, the first movies were simply recordings of everyday events. A distantly speeding train toward 1 the camera or a man watering his garden—these were typical subjects.

[2] Within ten years, the movies were telling ten-minute stories. But they were still primitive, because moviemakers were still recording the story from only one viewpoint, just as their predecessors recorded the speeding train. For example, supposing the story 2 called for a young man to propose marriage. The moviemaker would place the camera far from the stage, recording the entire scene from this single 3 position.

[3] [1] It took the genius of D.W. Griffith to change this method of filming. [2] When we watch this proposal scene, he argued, our eyes move.

(passage continues on next page)

grammar usage: adjectives and adverbs

1. A. NO CHANGE B. train speeding distantly C. distant train speeding D. train, distantly speeding 2. F. NO CHANGE

grammar usage: verb question

G. supposedly H. suppose J. I suppose 3. A. NO CHANGE B. turn the camera and record the entire scene

placing it far from

comma question

C. record, place the camera far away, and turn to D. turn, start, and recording

© ACT, used by permission


10

[3] We watch the expressions on the faces of the characters; we look at the hands as the man presented the engagement ring to the woman. 4 [4] Why Griffith asked, can’t the camera be our eyes? 5 [5] Why can’t we have close-ups of the faces of the man and woman, or of the hands as the man gives his fiancée the ring? 6

[4] Some said it wouldn’t go over so big. Audiences 7 would be confused if the screen were suddenly filled by a face, let alone a pair of hands and a ring! But Griffith proved the skeptics wrong. By carefully placing close-ups into his scenes, audiences could feel the actors’ emotions and 8 the story’s suspense. By 1917, Griffith was so confident of his style that, he boldly filled 9 the screen with a close-up of a woman’s nervous hands to convey it’s anguish at the injustice in 10 the world. That close-up, in the film Intolerance, became famous.

4. F. NO CHANGE

grammar & usage: verb usage

G. presents H. having presented J. has presented 5. A. NO CHANGE B. Why? Griffith asked, can’t

grammar & usage:

C. Why? Griffith asked. Can’t D. Why, Griffith asked, can’t 6. Which of the following sequences of sentences will make Paragraph 3 flow most logically? F. NO CHANGE G. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 H. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 J. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3

rhetorical skills: word choice

7. A. NO CHANGE B. wouldn’t be a big deal. C. wouldn’t go too good. D. would never work.

verb usage

8. F. NO CHANGE G. audiences began a feeling for H. he made audiences feel J. audiences, he felt, would experience

verb usage

9. A. NO CHANGE B. which he boldly

grammar: relative pronoun/adj/adv C. that he boldly

D. that bold, he 10. F. NO CHANGE grammar & usage:

pronoun G. its H. to them J. her

Question 11 asks about the passage as a whole. 11. Suppose that the writer wanted to add the following sentence to the essay: Film director Martin Scorsese, greatly influenced by the work of Griffith, labeled Intolerance one of the ten greatest films ever. This sentence would most logically fit into: A. Paragraph 1. B. Paragraph 3. C. the beginning of Paragraph 4.

rhetorical skills: writer’s strategy, evidence

D. the end of Paragraph 4.© ACT, used by permission


11


Teacher Model: PLAN English Strategies

The following is an example of a think-aloud rationale for the teacher to use with the PLAN English Strategies student handout.

On the PLAN English Test, the questions have a specific look. First, you are presented with a passage. At certain points in the passage, specific sections are underlined: a word, a phrase or a sentence. These are usually Grammar and Usage Questions.

READ AROUND When tackling a PLAN English question, it is important to “read around” the underlined portion. Often, the PLAN gives little hints and clues to help me get to the correct answer, and if you “read around” the question, you will see these hints. This means that you should read a few words or sentences before the underlined portion and a few sentences after the underlined portion.

UNDERSTANDING WHAT THE QUESTION IS ASKING On the PLAN English Test, another strategy is to identify what the question is asking. For example, on this sample test (Day 1 / Document 2), Question 2 focuses on the underlined section, “supposing.” First, I “read around” what the question is asking and see that the sentence currently states, “For example, supposing the story called for a young man to propose marriage.” Reading around tells me that whatever I choose needs to make sense within the larger sentence—the author wants me to imagine a hypothetical situation. Second, I look at the answer choices. When I do, it is clear the PLAN is testing standard verb usage:

Answer Choice F is to leave the sentence as it is: NO CHANGE Answer Choice G is to change the underline portion to “supposedly” Answer Choice H is to change the underlined portion to “suppose” Answer Choice J is to change the underlined portion to “I suppose”

The strategy here is to notice what is changing in the answer choices. This helps me to know what the question is asking. I do this BEFORE I start Process of Elimination. In Question 2, I see very quickly that this question is testing standard usage of verbs, precisely because the verb is what is different between each answer choice. The words “supposing,” suppose” and “supposedly” are what is changing from one answer choice to the next. These are all adverbs in an idiomatic expression. This tells me that I should think back to what I know of standard usage of verbs to determine what I can eliminate and what I should keep. Quite quickly, I see that the only answer choice that makes sense idiomatically is H. Still, I double-check the other answers. F is the wrong verb tense. G is an adverb. Finally, J adds an additional subject, which makes the sentence nonsensical. Therefore, H is the best answer.

Next, let’s look at a punctuation question. When I look at Question 5, I see right away that each answer choices have different punctuation options:

A has only one comma, after “asked” B adds a question mark after “Why” C adds a question mark after ”Why” and a period after “asked” D has a comma after “Why” and after “asked”.

Now that I know what the question is asking, I can use my knowledge of standard punctuation usage to get closer to the answer.

The best answer is D. “Griffith asked” is a part of the sentence that is not grammatically essential. We set off non-essential elements with a comma on both sides. Answer choice A is confusing—we need the second comma. Answer choices B and C use a question mark that breaks up the sentence and makes it confusing.

Finally, let’s look at a PLAN English Rhetorical Skills Question. PLAN rhetorical questions focus on audience, purpose, organization, style, argument, and transitions. Question 6 is a rhetorical question: specifically, in Question 6, I must decide the order of the paragraphs. Tomorrow, we will go over specific strategies to handle this sort of question. For today, just practice recognizing which are Rhetorical Skills Questions and which are Grammar and Usage Questions.


12


D. W. Griffith Passage: Answer Key with Explanations

Taken from the PLAN website: http://actstudent.org/plan/tests/index.html 1. The best answer is C, It offers the only idiomatically acceptable wording (adjective before the noun it modifies). Answer choice A modifies the noun with an adverb, answer choice B has an adverb that doesn’t modify the verb, and answer choice D has a misplaced comma and an adverb used incorrectly. 2. The best answer is H because in makes the most sense idiomatically. In addition, the sentence requires a verb, so Answer choice G is incorrect because it is an adverb. Answer choice F is in the wrong tense, and answer choice J adds an additional subject. 3. The best answer is A. The subject is moviemaker, and the verb phrase needs to begin with a verb. Adding the words turn and record (in Answer choices B, C, and D) are both redundant. 4. The best answer is G. The tense required from the context is present tense. Answer choice G is the only answer choice in present tense. Answer choice F is past, while the use of the helping verb in Answer choices H and J indicates past perfect tense. 5. The best answer is D. The best answer is D. Griffith asked is a part of the sentence that is not grammatically essential. We set off non-essential elements with a comma on both sides. Answer choice A is confusing—we need the second comma. Answer choices B and C use a question mark, which breaks up the sentence and makes it confusing. 6. The best answer is F. It is the only answer choice with the current order of paragraphs, which is the most logical order. Beginning with sentences 2, 3 or 4 would make the paragraph confusing. 7. The best answer is D. In this question, Answer choices B, C, and D employ the contraction wouldn’t and informal language. This does not match the tone of the rest of the passage. Answer choice D uses would never to avoid the contraction and uses a more formal word choice. 8. The best answer is H. It proposes the best phrasing by adding a subject he and a verb in the correct tense, feel. Answer choices F, G, and J offer no subject or add unnecessary auxiliary verbs (would). 9. The best answer is C. It logically presents this verb phrase as a relative clause with a subject and an adverb modifying the verb filled. Answer choices A, B, and C offer an unnecessary comma (A), the wrong relative pronoun (which in B), or bold instead of boldly, which makes the sentence nonsensical. 10. The best answer is J. The antecedent in this sentence is a woman; her hands convey her emotion. Therefore, any answer choice with it is incorrect, as in Answer choices F and G. Answer choice H is incorrect because no preposition is required, nor is there a plural antecedent. 11. The best answer is D. It is the only choice that places the new sentence at the beginning of the paragraph. This new sentence introduces Intolerance, the movie whose shots are discussed in paragraph 4. It wouldn’t make sense to add this sentence to another paragraph—this means Answer choices A and B are incorrect. Finally, adding the sentence at the end of paragraph 4 would leave the paragraph with an awkward ending.


13


26D: Passage II: The Howl of the Wolf

The howl of a wolf is at once forlorn as well 13 exuberant, an eerie moan than can raise the hair on your head, a joyous call of the wild. The 3.9 million acres of the Superior National Forest in northeastern, 14 Minnesota are home to more than a thousand timber wolves. Walking in the forest and along wilderness fire trails, I had seen tracks and other sign of this elusive creature. Once I actually glimpsed a wolf. For years, I listened in vain for the song that to many stands for and is the very symbol of 15 wilderness. I decided that I would try to get the wolves to howl. I paddled a canoe out onto an isolated lake at dusk and played recorded wolf calls out across the water. The local wolves must have been unimpressed with this performance: they did not 16 bother to answer the calls. I realized that a tape player was out of keeping with the spirit of the wilderness I sought, so I devised a new plan. All that winter I listened, to recordings of wolf calls.

17 For months I worked on perfecting my own howl, had serenaded my neighbors in my urban apartment 18 complex far from the wilds of the Minnesota woods. (passage continues on the next page)

13. A. NO CHANGE B. and as C. and D. as is 14. F. NO CHANGE G. Forest, in northeastern Minnesota H. Forest in northeastern Minnesota J. Forest, in northeastern, Minnesota, 15. A. NO CHANGE B. stands for the very symbol of C. is the very symbol of D. is the symbol standing for 16. Given that all of the choices are true, which one most clearly supports the first half of the statement? F. NO CHANGE G. they often howl in harmony, rather than

chorusing on the same note. H. the rich, captivating sound of their howl

can carry many miles. J. they howl to assemble the pack and to pass on an alarm.

17. A. NO CHANGE B. listened: C. listened and

D. listened 18. F. NO CHANGE G. serenading H. was serenading J. to have serenaded



14

Day 1/Document 5 26D: Passage II (con’t) When once again I found myself in the north

19 woods, standing on the shore of a clear lake under a bright moon and a sky filled with stars, I threw back my head and howled. I stopped and listened, a 20 vast northern silence enveloped me. I howled again, and finally I heard it. The unmistakable sound of a chorus of wolves drifted toward me from over the

21 trees and across the lake. The strains of the serenade were so faint I 22 almost had to hold my breath to hear them. The wolves had to of been probably several miles away. 23 I was ecstatic: I felt in that moment that the very soul of the wilderness had acknowledged my existence. Whatever those wild creatures were saying to me, I was no merely observer in that place. 24 25

19. A. NO CHANGE B. on the one hand C. furthermore D. later at a point in time 20. F. NO CHANGE G. stopped and, listened. A H. stopped and listened. A J. stopped, and listened a 21. A. NO CHANGE B. me! From C. me. From D. me; from 22. F. NO CHANGE G. with H. for J. on 23. A. NO CHANGE B. would of been C. being D. were 24. F. NO CHANGE G. mere H. more J. merely more 25. A. NO CHANGE B. place where I was. C. place where I was there with them. D. place—there.



15


26D: Passage II: Answers and Labels

Question Correct Answer Choice

Type of Question Specific

13 C Grammar and Usage Conjunction usage

14 H Grammar and Usage Comma usage

14 Answer choice F places the comma after “northeaster” separating the adjective from its verb—not an example of standard comma usage. Likewise, G places the comma after forest, causing a break-up of the prepositional phrase “in northeaster Montana.” Finally, J breaks up the sentence even more: none of the commas used here fulfill the test of our seven comma rules. Therefore, answer choice H, with no commas, is our best decision. Knowing standard comma usage means knowing when NOT to use them, too.

15 C Rhetorical Skills Redundancy

16 F Rhetorical Skills Writer’s strategy: support

17 D Grammar and Usage Punctuation

18 G Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

19 A Rhetorical Skills Transitions

20 H Grammar and Usage Comma / period usage

20 Answer choice H is correct because “stopped and listened” is a compound predicate and should not be broken up by punctuation. The only answer choice that does not break up the predicate is answer choice H. Please notice that, again, knowledge of comma usage means knowing when NOT to use them.

21 A Grammar and Usage Punctuation

22 F Grammar and Usage Preposition usage

23 D Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

24 G Grammar and Usage Adjective/adverb usage.

25 A Rhetorical Skills Redundancy


16

GRADE 9: Day 1: Document 7

Grammar Cheat Sheet: The Seven Comma Rules 1. Use a comma before a coordinating conjunction (and, or, but, nor, yet, for, so) that separates two independent clauses.

I like you, but I won’t go to the prom with you.

2. Use a comma after an introductory word, phrase, or clause that comes before a main clause. In addition, we will be editing our papers. Though some people claim it is hard to understand, we know better.

3. Use commas around words, phrases, and clauses in the middle of a sentence when they aren't essential to the meaning of the sentence. Ms. Smith, my English teacher, taught me about commas.

4. Use commas between items in a series. I went to the store to buy bananas, apples, artichokes, beef jerky, licorice,

and pizza.

5. Use commas before and after a quotation within a sentence. “Learning about editing,” said Terrence enthusiastically, “is fun.”

6. Use a comma before an afterthought or contrasting element.

To appreciate a particular dish, we must consider the meal as a whole, not its individual courses.

7. Use commas to set off geographical names, items in date, and professional titles.

New York, New York August 12, 2006 Terence George, Ph.D.

ELA/MME Unit of Study: Writing, Grade 9 Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2007 Oakland Schools Oakland Writing Project National Writing Projects of Michigan www.writingondemand.org 19


Anatomy of a Rhetorical Skills Question PLAN Rhetorical Skills Questions:

Test your ability to recognize “writer’s strategy.” This includes:

o Determining the BEST organization for a passage o Determining the BEST transitions for the passage o Determining the quality of the writer’s argument o Determining the whether the writer has:

A clear purpose A clear audience A sense of unity A sense of focus

This means that you will have to consider the passage as a whole, including its tone, point of view, topic, and purpose.

EXAMPLE taken from Tuning in During the Twenties on the ACT website: http://www.actstudent.org/sampletest/test3/engl3/answer3e.html Rhetorical Skills Question: 15. The writer has been asked to write an essay assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Would this essay fulfill that assignment?

When ACT gives you a question like this, be sure to read carefully.

A. Yes; the writer focuses exclusively on the commercial possibilities of radio. B. Yes; the writer focuses on the need for federal regulation in the world of broadcasting. C. No; the writer focuses on the commercial possibilities of radio, just one technology. D. No; the writer focuses on the contrast between early radio and radio broadcasting of today.

Make sure that both halves of the answer choice are correct.



PLAN Rhetorical Skills Cheat Sheet: Half-Right is All Wrong

The PLAN Rhetorical Skills often tests whether you can recognize an author’s purpose for writing. This means you will have to identify how well or how poorly an author met his/her stated purpose in his/her writing. Let’s take a closer look at an example.

Rhetorical Skills Test Trick: Half-Right is All Wrong The PLAN Test writers try to trick test-takers by providing answers that are half-right. They think that students won’t read the second half of the answer choice to notice that it is incorrect. By knowing that Half-Right is All Wrong, you will know to read the entire answer choice before deciding whether or not to eliminate it. EXAMPLE taken from “Tuning in During the Twenties” on the ACT website: http://www.actstudent.org/sampletest/test3/engl3/answer3e.html (While we don’t have the passage, we can still see how this works on a sample question.) Rhetorical Skills Question: 15. The writer has been asked to write an essay assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Would this essay fulfill that assignment?

A. Yes; the writer focuses exclusively on the commercial possibilities of radio. B. Yes; the writer focuses on the need for federal regulation in the world of broadcasting. C. No; the writer focuses on the commercial possibilities of radio, just one technology. D. No; the writer focuses on the contrast between early radio and radio broadcasting of today.

Answer choice C meets both requirements: it is the correct answer (“no”) AND it repeats a reason that is mentioned in the question: technology. Keywords in the question can sometimes help decide on an answer.

ELA/MME Unit of Study: Writing, Grade 9Oakland Schools Oakland Writing P


26D: Passage I: A World Apart

“I want to be alone!” I yelled. There was a hurt look on my six-year-old brother’s face as he left the room. I returned to my studies. He never understood that I needed privacy. No matter where I went, he was always there, and this time I lost my temper. A few weeks later, our lives were transformed. My parents received an invitation to join a marine biology study in the Caribbean, thousands of miles from our New York City apartment. We talked it over and decided the change would be good for us all. My brother would leave 1 with them to the Cayman Islands. I would stay in New York and live with my aunt 2 with one year of high school left. I would graduate 2 with my friends and then will join my family in the 3 islands to celebrate. Our plan was in place. Now, months after our good-byes, my ideas go to

my little brother, he always loves attentio

—whether it’s for his lively drawings or

dreadlocks.

(passage con’t o

5

4

1. A. NO CHANGE B. go C. join D. pack up 2. F. NO CHANGE G. With one year of high school left, my aunt

would let me stay with her in New York. H. My aunt, with one year of high school left,

would let me stay with her in New York. J. With one year of high school left, I would stay

in New York and live with my aunt. 3. A. NO CHANGE B. join C. would have joined D. will be joining

n

Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2007 roject National Writing Projects of Michigan www.writingondemand.org 21

his wild

n next page)

4. F. NO CHANGE G. notions H. concepts J. thoughts 5. A. NO CHANGE B. of whom C. who D. OMIT the underlined portion


GRADE 9: Day 2/Document 3 (Cont.)

I won er if he misses New York at

all. I remember the way he used to tag along as I walked to the nearby candy store. Now he lives in a house near the beach. I wouldn’t mind the ocean view.

7 “Your brother is enjoying himself here, but he misses you,” my father writes. [8] My brother’s new friends—Carlos, Sonja, and Larry—keep him company. Playing soccer, the letter goes on, watch scuba

divers,eats magrown Tonigh

ships invesselsbrotherchangepictureof minecandy. 12. Suessay flearnedaccomp F. Ye

in G. Y

ke H. N

chto

J. Noatbr

6. F. NO CHANGE G. wonder and am curious H. ask myself not knowing J. wonder and ask myself 7. Given that all the choices are true, which one ends the paragraph with an idea that is consistent with the focus of this paragraph? A. NO CHANGE B. going for a walk right now, come to think of it. C. tagging along with him for a swim.

9

Questpassa

ELA/MME Unit of Study: Oakland Schools O

and build elaborate sandcastles. My brother ngoes, coconuts, guavas, and star fruit—all in the islands.

t the moon appears, its light falling on the

the Hudson River. P travel to the Caribbea would sketch one of d. Maybe I’ll ask my of his view of the sea along with a bag of h

By now, yet, he may 11

ppose the writer had inocusing on an inciden a lesson from their chlish that goal? s, because the essay mcluded their children ies, because the essay ept in touch with the c

o, because the essay eildren learn from thei a new setting. , because the essay emtitude of the narrator tother.

D. getting a job this summer at the beach. 8. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the essay would primarily lose: F. a sense of how the younger brother spends his

time in ways that are unfamiliar to the narrator. 0

ion 12 (below) asks abge as a whole.

1

d6

Writing, Grade 9 Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2007 akland Writing Project National Writing Projects of Michigan www.writingondemand.org 22

erhaps some of the n. If he were here, my

them before the light brother to draw me a . I could mail him one is favorite American prefer star fruit.

tended to write an t in which parents ildren. Does this essay

entions that the parents n the decision to move. xplains that the parents

hild who stayed behind. xplains how the r parents how to adapt

phasizes the changing oward a younger

G. an indication that the younger brother’s successful move has not severed his attachment to the narrator.

H. the only indication that the members of this family communicate among themselves.

J. the only evidence of the feelings that exist between members of this family.

9. A. NO CHANGE B. They play soccer, out the preceding C. Enjoying soccer, D. Soccer playing, 10. F. NO CHANGE G. appearing its falling light H. appearing. Its light falling J. appears its light falling 11. A. NO CHANGE B. though, C. moreover, D. without a doubt,




26D: Passage I: Answers and Labels

Question Correct Answer Choice

Type of Question Specific

1 B Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

2 J Grammar and Usage Comma usage

3 B Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

4 J Grammar and Usage Logical word choice

5 C Grammar and Usage Pronoun usage

6 F Rhetorical Skills Redundancy

7 C Rhetorical Skills Writer’s strategy: focus

8 G Rhetorical Skills Writer’s strategy: evidence

9 B Grammar and Usage Sentence fragment

10 F Grammar and Usage Verb usage / punctuation

11 B Rhetorical Skills Transitions

12 J Rhetorical Skills Writer’s strategy: purpose

12 a. The question asks whether the author met the intended purpose of writing about parents learning from children. This essay is about an older child learning from a younger child. This means that neither F nor G, with “yes” answers, can be correct.

b. The second half of the answer choice in H discusses adapting “to new settings.” Since the question did not ask about adapting “to new settings,” answer choice H is incorrect. Therefore, answer choice J is correct. Its first half, “No,” is correct, and its explanation that the essay emphasizes a relationship with a younger brother is also correct.

ELA/MME Unit of Study: Writing, Grade 9 KeOakland Schools Oakland Writing Project


PLAN English Strategies: Tuning In During the Twenties

[1]

Modern broadcasting began to develop after the First

World War. Before 1920, radio was simply a useful

way to send electrical signals ashore from a ship at

sea, or, from one "ham" operator to another. Th

new technology associated with movies and

airplanes was already developing rapidly by the

soldiers started returning from European trenche

1918. The vast potential of the airwaves, therefo

had scarcely been touched.

[2]

[1] Then a vice president of Westinghouse, look

for a way to make the transmission of radio sign

more profitable, decided on a two-fold strategy.

First, he would entice an audience with daily

programming of great variety. [3] Second, he w

sell this audience the radio receivers necessary

listen to this entertainment. [4] The plan succee

beyond anyone's expectations.

[3]

The federal Radio Division in Washington, D.C.,

created to license stations, because it had no po

to regulate them. Broadcasters multiplied wildly

some helping themselves to the more desirable

frequencies, others increasing their transmission

power at will. Chaos means things were out of

control.

[4]

Yet even in the midst of such anarchy, some

commercial possibilities and organizations saw

clearly of a medium whose regulation seemed

imminent.

1. A. NO CHANGE B. ship, at sea, or C. ship at sea or; D. ship at sea or

2. F. NO CHANGE 1

1

2

3

4 5

6

7

8

e G. however,

time

s in

re,

H. also, J. in fact, 3. A. NO CHANGE B. but had a decision C. deciding D. yet decided

ing

als

[2]

4. F. NO CHANGE G. successful planning was H. success plan was J. plans succeeding

5. Which of the following sequences of sentences

ould

to

ded

will make Paragraph 2 most logical? A. NO CHANGE B. 1, 4, 3, 2 C. 2, 1, 3, 4 D. 4, 1, 2, 3
6. F. NO CHANGE
was

wer

G. since H. thus J. but

,

7. Which of the alternatives provides the most logical and succinct conclusion for Paragraph 3? A. NO CHANGE B. Chaos reigned. C. There were some problems. D. The government was always in control.
8. F. NO CHANGE G. some saw clearly the commercial possibilities
and organizations H. some organizations saw clearly the

commercial possibilities

lly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2007 National Writing Projects of Michigan www.writingondemand.org 24

J. organizations saw clearly some possible commercials



GRADE 9: Day 2/Document 5 (Cont.)

In 1926, RCA paid the American Telephone &

Telegraph Company one million dollars for station

WEAF in New York City—and NBC was born.

Years later, the Radio Law of 1927 was enacted. It

authorized it’s control for licensing and of policing the

broadcasters.

[5]

The RCA executives who created the powerful NBC

network were right to see that sizable profits would

come from this new medium. Even in 1930 for

example an hour's advertising on nationwide radio to

forty-seven cities cost $10,180. Advertising turned

broadcasting into an industry, and the untapped

potential of the airwaves began to be realized.

14. The writer wishes to add the following sentence to the essay: Nowadays, no matter where you are, it's hard to be far from a radio. If added, this sentence would best support and most logically be placed: F. before the first sentence of Paragraph 2. G. after the last sentence of Paragraph 2. H. before the last sentence of Paragraph 3. J. after the last sentence of Paragraph 4.

9. A. NO CHANGE B. A year later, C. Factually, D. In conclusion, 10. F. NO CHANGE 9 G. controlling

10 H. the control of J. OMIT the underlined portion. 11. A. NO CHANGE B. which 11 C. having D. as 12 12. F. NO CHANGE G. Even in 1930; for example H. Even, in 1930 for example, J. Even in 1930, for example, 13. A. NO CHANGE 13 B. begins realizing it. C. began reality. D. began it's realizing.

Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passages as a whole.

15. The writer has been asked to write an essay

assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Would this essay fulfill that assignment?

A. Yes; the writer focuses exclusively on the commercial possibilities of radio.

B. Yes; the writer focuses on the need for federal regulation in the world of broadcasting.

C. No; the writer focuses on the commercial possibilities of radio, just one technology.

D. No; the writer focuses on the contrast between early radio and radio broadcasting of today.




Tuning In During the Twenties: Answer Key with Explanations

Taken from the ACT website: http://www.actstudent.org/sampletest/test3/engl3/answer3e.html 1. Grammar and Usage: Punctuation The best answer is D because the meaning of the sentence is clearest and the rhythm of the sentence is smoothest with no punctuation separating the two adverbial phrases from a ship at sea and from one “ham” operator to another. All the other choices have superfluous punctuation marks that cloud the meaning and interrupt the rhythm of the sentence. In Choice A, the comma before the conjunction or is acceptable (but not necessary) to separate the adverbial phrases, but the comma after or performs no useful function here; the pair of commas do nothing but confuse the meaning of the sentence. In Choice B, the pair of commas setting off the prepositional phrase at sea interrupts the sentence because there is no reason to set this phrase apart from the rest of the sentence. Choice C misuses the semicolon; there is no need to use any punctuation after the conjunction or, and to use a semicolon, which customarily marks a break in sentence flow greater than that marked by a comma, creates both an unnecessarily big interruption. 2. Rhetorical Skills: Transitions The best answer is G because the transitional word however is the only choice that: a) logically connects the last sentence in Paragraph 1 with the preceding sentence, and b) clearly expresses the idea that even with the new technology, the vast potential of the airwaves had scarcely been touched. The other choices create faulty logic. In Choice F, the use of therefore is illogical because the potential of the airwaves was not the result of the new technology. Choice H is illogical because the potential of the airwaves was not in addition to the new technology. In Choice J, the use of the phrase in fact also creates an illogical connection. 3. Grammar and Usage: Sentence structure The best answer is A because the use of the verb decided results in a clear, complete, and logical sentence. The other choices contain sentence structure defects. Choices B and D add coordinating conjunctions (but and yet, respectively) that distort the meaning of the sentences and create faulty subordination. Choice C creates a sentence fragment because using the present participle deciding (instead of decided) deprives the sentence of a predicate. 4. Grammar and Usage: Verb usage The best answer is F, which clearly conveys the idea that the vice president's plan was very successful. The other choices contain style or sentence structure defects. In Choice G, the intended meaning of the sentence is distorted; the plan itself was successful, not the act of planning. In Choice H, the word success is improperly used as an adjective. Choice J results in a sentence fragment because it proposes the present participle succeeding instead of a predicate form.


5. Rhetorical Skills: Order within a paragraph The best answer is A because it places the sentences in the most logical order. The other choices create faulty logic. Choices B and C arrange the sentences so that the events do not occur in a chronological order. Choice D is illogical because its sequence suggests that the vice president's plan succeeded before he had even conceived it. 6. Grammar and Usage: Conjunctions The best answer is J, which uses the coordinating conjunction but to logically connect the two clauses in the sentence. The other choices introduce defects in logic. Choices F and G (because and since, respectively) propose subordinating conjunctions that suggest a cause-effect relationship between the clauses that isn't supported by the essay. The use of the adverb thus in Choice H creates a comma splice as well as another logic problem: the creation of the federal Radio Division did not result in its lack of power to regulate. 7. Rhetorical Skills: Writer’s strategy – logic The best answer is B, which is the most logical and succinct conclusion to the paragraph. Chaos reigned clearly concludes the idea expressed in the preceding two sentences (that the lack of regulation brought disorder and confusion to the broadcasting industry). Choice B also provides an effective transition between paragraphs 3 and 4. None of the other choices logically and effectively conclude paragraph 3. Choice A changes the subject and creates an irrelevancy by defining the word chaos. By stating There were some problems, Choice C weakly concludes the paragraph with an understatement. Choice D creates an irony, but this irony is not in keeping with the tone of the essay. 8. Rhetorical Skills: Writer’s strategy - clarity The best answer is H because it is the only response that clearly expresses the idea that, despite the anarchy in the broadcasting industry, some organizations saw commercial possibilities. The other choices propose wordings that are either ambiguous or contain defects in style or sentence structure. Choice F contains a misplaced modifier. The word organizations can be modified by in the midst of such anarchy, but the phrase some commercial possibilities cannot. Choices G and J are unclear and ambiguous. 9. Rhetorical Skills: Transitions The best answer is B, which proposes the most logical transitional phrase between this sentence and the preceding one. The other choices are either illogical or create poor transitions. Choice A would only confuse the reader because the Radio Law of 1927 did not occur years later—it occurred just one year later. Choice C does not logically connect the two sentences. Choice D is also illogical because a conclusion is not being made at this point in the essay. 10. Rhetorical Skills: Parallel construction The best answer is H, which provides a parallel construction. In Choice H, the coordinated phrases of licensing and of policing are effectively presented in parallel forms. None of the other choices make these elements parallel. Choices G and J both create faulty parallelism by proposing the phrase licensing and of policing as a compound direct object of the sentence. Also, in Choice F, the use of the contraction it's is grammatically incorrect.


11. Grammar and Usage: Relative pronoun The best answer is A, which proposes the correct relative pronoun to link the subject of the sentence (“the RCA executives”) with the clause that best describes the subject (“who created the powerful NBC network”). Choice B uses which, a relative pronoun that is used to refer to things, not persons. Choice C creates a gerund phrase that would need to be set off by commas. Choice D creates both faulty logic and faulty subordination. 12. Grammar and Usage: Punctuation The best answer is J, which uses commas to set off the parenthetical (nonessential) element for example from the rest of the sentence. The other choices either use no punctuation or use punctuation incorrectly. Choice F creates confusion and ambiguity by allowing the nonessential element to blend into the sentence. Choice G uses a semicolon instead of a comma and does not set off for example from the rest of the sentence. Choice H does not correctly identify the nonessential element in the sentence. 13. Grammar and Usage: Verb usage The best answer is A because it proposes clear and idiomatic phrasing and a consistency of verb tense in the sentence. The other choices have defects in clarity, logic, and sentence structure. Choice B makes the sentence unclear and shifts from the past tense (turned) to the present tense (begins). Choice C results in a sentence that has no logical meaning. Choice D is unclear and illogical; also, it can be ruled out because it uses the contraction it's incorrectly. 14. Rhetorical Skills: Writer’s strategy - support The best answer is G, which logically places the new sentence at the end of Paragraph 2, where it supports the idea that the vice president's plan succeeded beyond anyone's expectation. The other choices create organizational problems in the essay. Choice F places the sentence at the beginning of Paragraph 2, where it would provide a poor transition from Paragraph 1. The placement proposed by Choice H creates a disruption in the flow of Paragraph 3. The new sentence does not support the information in that paragraph, which focuses on the lack of regulation during the early years of broadcasting. The placement proposed by Choice J creates a weak conclusion to Paragraph 4 because the new sentence does not logically follow the preceding information, which focuses on the licensing and policing of broadcasters. 15. Rhetorical Skills: Writer’s strategy - purpose The best answer is C, which clearly states that the essay has not fulfilled the assignment because it has a focus that is more narrow and specific than assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Choice A is illogical because, while it says the writer has fulfilled the assignment, it also states the opposite by saying that the essay is exclusively about radio. Choice B does not even mention the development of technologies. Choice D describes a contrast between early radio and radio of today, a subject that is not addressed in this essay.



Sample ACT Prompt on Dress Codes and Prompt Analysis Worksheet

In some high schools many teachers and parents have encouraged the

school to adopt a dress code that sets guidelines for what students can wear in the school building. Some teachers and parents support a dress code because they think it will improve the learning environment in the school. Other teachers and parents do not support a dress code because they think it restricts the individual student’s freedom of expression. In your opinion should high schools adopt dress codes for students?

In your essay take a position on this question. You may write about either one of the two points of view given, or you may present a different point of view on this question. Use specific reasons and examples to support your position. Write your prompt here: Topic:

Purpose: Audience:

Your position on the topic:

Source: Preparing for the ACT 2005-2006, © ACT 2005



Blank Prompt Analysis Worksheet

Write your prompt here: Topic:

Purpose: Audience:

Your position on the topic:



Sample ACT Prompt on Junk Food Some high schools in the United States have considered banning the sale of sugary and fatty foods in their vending machines, cafeterias, and even at their fundraisers. Some educators point out that the country is seeing ever-rising rates of obesity in younger children. Other educators feel that through proper education, young adults are capable of making good choices, and that banning these foods from vending machines will not really prevent students from drinking sodas or eating junk foods. In your opinion, should high schools ban sugary and fatty foods from being sold on their campuses? In your essay, take a position on this question. You may write about either one of the two points of view given, or you may present a different point of view on this question. Use specific reasons and examples to support your position.

Contributed by Andrea Zellner


GRADE 9: Day 4/Document 1:

ACT Scoring Rubric

Source: Preparing for the ACT 2005-2006, © ACT 2005. Papers at each level exhibit all or most of the characteristics described at each score point. (Used by permission from ACT)

Score = 6: Essays within this score range demonstrate effective skill in responding to the task. The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer a critical context for discussion. The essay addresses complexity by examining different perspectives on the issue, or by evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue, or by fully responding to counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of ideas is ample, specific, and logical. Most ideas are fully elaborated. A clear focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The organization of the essay is clear: the organization may be somewhat predictable or it may grow from the writer’s purpose. Ideas are logically sequenced. Most transitions reflect the writer’s logic and are usually integrated into the essay. The introduction and conclusion are effective, clear, and well developed. The essay shows a good command of language. Sentences are varied and word choice is varied and precise. There are few, if any, errors to distract the reader. Score = 5: Essays within this score range demonstrate competent skill in responding to the task. The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer a broad context for discussion. The essay shows recognition of complexity by partially evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue, or by responding to counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of ideas is specific and logical. Most ideas are elaborated, with clear movement between general statements and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The organization of the essay is clear, although it may be predictable. Ideas are logically sequenced, although simple and obvious transitions may be used. The introduction and conclusion are clear and generally well developed. Language is competent. Sentences are somewhat varied and word choice is sometimes varied and precise. There may be a few errors, but they are rarely distracting. Score = 4: Essays within this score range demonstrate adequate skill in responding to the task. The essay shows an understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer some context for discussion. The essay may show some recognition of complexity by providing some response to counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of ideas is adequate, with some movement between general statements and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained throughout most of the essay. The organization of the essay is apparent but predictable. Some evidence of logical sequencing of ideas is apparent, although most transitions are simple and obvious. The introduction and conclusion are clear and somewhat developed. Language is adequate, with some sentence variety and appropriate word choice. There may be some distracting errors, but they do not impede understanding.

http://www.act.org/aap/pdf/preparing.pdf


GRADE 9: Day 4/Document 1 (cont.) Score = 3: Essays within this score range demonstrate some developing skill in responding to the task.The essay shows some understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue but does not offer a context for discussion. The essay may acknowledge a counterargument to the writer’s position, but its development is brief or unclear. Development of ideas is limited and may be repetitious, with little, if any, movement between general statements and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the general topic is maintained, but focus on the specific issue in the prompt may not be maintained. The organization of the essay is simple. Ideas are logically grouped within parts of the essay, but there is little or no evidence of logical sequencing of ideas. Transitions, if used, are simple and obvious. An introduction and conclusion are clearly discernible but underdeveloped. Language shows a basic control. Sentences show a little variety and word choice is appropriate. Errors may be distracting and may occasionally impede understanding. Score = 2: Essays within this score range demonstrate inconsistent or weak skill in responding to the task.The essay shows a weak understanding of the task. The essay may not take a position on the issue, or the essay may take a position but fail to convey reasons to support that position, or the essay may take a position but fail to maintain a stance. There is little or no recognition of a counterargument to the writer’s position. The essay is thinly developed. If examples are given, they are general and may not be clearly relevant. The essay may include extensive repetition of the writer’s ideas or of ideas in the prompt. Focus on the general topic is maintained, but focus on the specific issue in the prompt may not be maintained. There is some indication of an organizational structure, and some logical grouping of ideas within parts of the essay is apparent. Transitions, if used, are simple and obvious, and they may be inappropriate or misleading. An introduction and conclusion are discernible but minimal. Sentence structure and word choice are usually simple. Errors may be frequently distracting and may sometimes impede understanding. Score = 1: Essays within this score range show little or no skill in responding to the task.The essay shows little or no understanding of the task. If the essay takes a position, it fails to convey reasons to support that position. The essay is minimally developed. The essay may include excessive repetition of the writer’s ideas or of ideas in the prompt. Focus on the general topic is usually maintained, but focus on the specific issue in the prompt may not be maintained. There is little or no evidence of an organizational structure or of the logical grouping of ideas. Transitions are rarely used. If present, an introduction and conclusion are minimal. Sentence structure and word choice are simple. Errors may be frequently distracting and may significantly impede understanding. No Score: Blank, Off-Topic, Illegible, Not in English, or Void



Sample ACT Scoring Rubric: Requirements for a 6 Source: http://www.act.org/aap/pdf/preparing.pdf

Papers at each level exhibit all or most of the characteristics described at each score point. Score = 6: Essays within this score range demonstrate effective skill in responding to the task. The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer a critical context for discussion. The essay addresses complexity by examining different perspectives on the issue, or by evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue, or by fully responding to counterarguments to the writer’s position. Development of ideas is ample, specific, and logical. Most ideas are fully elaborated. A clear focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The organization of the essay is clear: the organization may be somewhat predictable or it may grow from the writer’s purpose. Ideas are logically sequenced. Most transitions reflect the writer’s logic and are usually integrated into the essay. The introduction and conclusion are effective, clear, and well developed. The essay shows a good command of language. Sentences are varied and word choice is varied and precise. There are few, if any, errors to distract the reader.



Sample Body Paragraph and Worksheet (Topic: dress codes; from a sample ACT essay with the top score of 6)

BODY PARAGRAPH: Freedom of expression is important to teens and many students dress appropriately without crossing the line. A student who is a football fan should be allowed to wear football jerseys to school. A student who is a music fan should be allowed to wear concert t-shirts to school. There might even be students who like to wear suits/dresses to school, and these students must be allowed to dress as they choose. Whatever the choice of clothing is, it is important to that person. The teenage years are essential times for many kids. They are discovering who they are and their clothes are an important part of their independence. Most teens today care about what they wear, and they see their clothing as an extension of their unique individuality. Assertions/reasons Examples/evidence Warrant—How this reason and these

examples work to support your position 1.

2.

3.

Source of text: Preparing for the ACT 2005-2006, © ACT 2005



Model Prompt Analysis Worksheet with Sample Body Paragraph (Topic: dress codes)

Write your prompt here: In your opinion should high schools adopt dress codes for students? Topic: dress codes

Purpose: to persuade my audience of my opinion

Audience: explicit: teachers and parents in favor of and against dress codes implicit: test grader

Your position on the topic: High Schools should not adopt a dress code for students because it limits students’ freedom of expression, ignores cultural or religious needs, and makes students appear too homogenous. Reasons Examples/evidence Warrant— How this reason and these examples work

to support your position 1. Freedom of expression is important to teens

A student who is a football fan should be allowed to wear football jerseys to school. A student who is a music fan should be allowed to wear concert t-shirts to school. There might even be students who like to wear suits/dresses to school, and these students must be allowed to dress as they choose.

Whatever the choice of clothing is, it is important to that person. The teenage years are essential times for many kids. They are discovering who they are and their clothes are an important part of their independence. Most teens today care about what they wear, and they see their clothing as an extension of their unique individuality.

2.

3.



Dress Code Model Prompt Analysis Worksheet with Counterargument and Rebuttal

Write your prompt here: In your opinion should high schools adopt dress codes for students? Topic: dress codes

Purpose: to persuade

Audience: explicit: teachers and parents in favor of and against dress codes implicit: test grader

Your position on the topic: High Schools should not adopt a dress code for students because it limits students’ freedom of expression, ignores cultural or religious needs, and makes students appear too homogenous. Assertions to support your position

Supporting evidence

Warrant—Connection between evidence and your position (opinion)

1.

2.

3.

Counterarguments Rebuttals to counterarguments



Blank Prompt Analysis Worksheet

with Counterargument and Rebuttal Write your prompt here: Topic:

Purpose: Audience:

Your position on the topic: Assertions to support your position

Supporting evidence

Warrant—Connection between evidence and your position (opinion)

1.

2.

3.

Counterarguments Rebuttals to counterarguments



Bump Chart The “Bump” Chart: How to move one score point higher on the ACT rubric Quick ways to move from 1 to 2

Add an introduction paragraph

Add a conclusion paragraph

Quick ways to move from a 2 to a 3 Take a clear position

Give two examples of that position in your body paragraph

Quick ways to move from 3 to a 4 Avoid repetition

Add to conclusion and introduction

Quick ways to move from a 4 to a 5 Make transitions between paragraphs more interesting

Improve development of body paragraphs by developing rebuttal

Quick ways to move from a 5 to a 6 Strongly develop arguments and rebuttal

Improve command of language



Overview of MME/ACT Writing Strategies

• Keep the focus on the characteristics of good writing, not on test preparation.

• Learn to recognize the rhetorical skills in writing: strategy, organization, style.

• Take advantage of opportunities to read sample essays and use critical thinking skills to identify the scores of sample essays.

• Learn to analyze writing prompts.

• Allocate your time during a writing exam, so you can follow an abbreviated version of the writing process, including time to pre-write, draft, and edit.

• Use strategies for sharpening your editing skills.

• Remember the elements of a strong argument.

• Understand the rubrics for the writing exams you will be taking.

• Take time to reflect on your development as writers.

Documents

HANDOUTS for Grade 9 - Weeblyedselplus.weebly.com/uploads/1/9/7/5/19755251/9th_grade_writing_handouts.pdfHANDOUTS for Grade 9 A Writing Test Genre Study for ... GRADE 9: Day 1/Document