Gpat Model Test 1

8/6/2019 Gpat Model Test 1

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GPAT MODEL TEST - 2011

Question 1 of 100

The vitamin essential in tissue culture medium is

a) Pyridoxine

b) Thiamine

c) Nicotinic acid

d) Inositol

Question 2 of 100

An example of haemopoietic growth factor is

a) platelet derived growth factor b) epidermal growth factor

c) iron dextran

d) erythropoietin

Question 3 of 100

Quassia wood is adulterated with

a) Brucea antidysentrica

b) Cassia angustifoila

c) Cinnamomum zeylanicumd) Cephaelis ipecacuanaha

Question 4 of 100

Different species of Ephedra can be identified by observing the nature of

a) inner surface

b) outer surface

c) trichomes

d) scaly leaves

Question 5 of 100

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

a) alkylating agent before metabolism

b) alkylating agent after metabolism

c) phosphorylating agent after metabolism



d) DNA intercalating agent

Question 6 of 100

It is required to maintain a therapeutic oncentration of 10 microglanr./ml for 12 hours of a drug

having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained releaseproduct will be

a) 600 mg

b) 300 mg

c) 30 mg

d) 60 mg

Question 7 of 100

A -lactamase inhibitor which contains an 1-oxopenam structure is

a) Tazobactam sodium

b) Clavulanate potassium

c) Sulbactam sodium

d) Thienamycin

Question 8 of 100

Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freezedried low dose drug products?

a) Sodium chlorideb) Mannitol

c) Starch

d) HPMC

Question 9 of 100

The healing agent used in hand creams is

a) soft paraffin

b) urea

c) bees waxd) stearyl alcohol

Question 10 of 100

Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorders :

a) Systolic hypertension



b) Unstable angina

c) Pulmonary hypertension

d) Hypertension due toeclampsia

Question 11 of 100

Derivatisation techniques in HPLC are intended to enhance

a) Molecular weight

b) Detectability

c) Reversibility

d) Reproducibility

Question 12 of 100

a) Imipramineb) Iproniazide

c) Fluoxetin

d) Naphazoline

Question 13 of 100

A direct way of studying idiosyncratic reactions to a given drug is by

a) changing the route of drug administration

b) changing the assay method

c) pharmacogenomicsd) structure activity relationship studies of a family of compounds

Question 14 of 100

Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome

positive patients with Chronic myeloid Leukemia?

a) Pentostatin

b) Methotrexate

c) Imatinib

d) L-Asparaginase

Question 15 of 100

Clavulanic acid has a beta lactam ring fused to

a) Thienyl system

b) Thiadiazole system



c) Thiazolidine system

d) Oxazolidine system

Question 16 of 100

Alkaloids are NOT precipitated by

a) Mayer's reagent

b) Dragendroff Reagent

c) Picric acid

d) Millon's reagent

Question 17 of 100

Bioassays are carried out to

a) Measure the pharmacological activity of a drugb) Avoid clinical trails for new drugs

c) Detect the impurity in a given drug

d) Screen fro pharmacognetic influences of new drugs.

Question 18 of 100

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin's

Lymphoma?

a) Infliximab

b) Abciximabc) Gemtuzumab

d) Rituximab

Question 19 of 100

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

a) hydrogen bond formation

b) covalent bond formation

c) complex formation

d) the action of London forces

Question 20 of 100

Select the correc: combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C

a) Interferon with Ribavirin

b) Interferon with Zidovudine



c) Interferon with Stavudine

d) Interferon with Lamivudine

Question 21 of 100

The structural feature common fro propranolol, atenolol, pindolol, metopropol in the side chainis

a) Isopropylamino propan-2-ol

b) Dimethylamino propan-2-ol

c) Diethylamino propan-2-ol

d) Dibutylamino propan-2-ol

Question 22 of 100

Wild cherry bark contains prunasin which is a

a) Phenolic glycoside

b) Isothiocyanate glycoside

c) Coumarin glycoside

d) Cyanogenetic glycoside

Question 23 of 100

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

a) Effective renal blood flow

b) Renal drug excretion ratec) Active renal secretion

d) Glomerular filtration rate

Question 24 of 100

Which one of the followings is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certainepileptic convulsions?

a) Phenytoin

b) Lithium

c) Sodium valproated) Fluoxetine

Question 25 of 100

Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations

a) Depilatory preparations



b) Epilatory preparations

c) Vanishing creams

d) Skin tan preparations

Question 26 of 100

What quantities of 95 % v/v and 45 % v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65 % v/valcohol?

a) 480 mL of 95 % and 320 mL of 45 % alcohol

b) 320 mL of 95 % and 480 mL of 45 % alcohol

c) 440 mL of 95 % and 360 mL of 45 % alcohol

d) 360 mL of 95 % and 440 mL of 45 % alcohol

Question 27 of 100

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

a) Schedule M

b) Schedule C

c) Schedule Y

d) Schedule H

Question 28 of 100

Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the

following category of drugs

a) Sulphonamides

b) Macrolides

c) Penicillins

d) Tetracyclines

Question 29 of 100

Which one of the following drugs is NOT a typical anti-psychotic agent?

a) Chlorpromazine

b) Haloperidolc) Risperidone

d) Flupentixol

Question 30 of 100

A peptide hormone which inhibits bone resorption and given as a nasal spray is



a) Cortisol

b) Alendronate

c) Calcitonin

d) Calcitriol

Question 31 of 100

X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

a) Optical rotatory dispersive power

b) Absolute configuration

c) Relative configuration

d) Optical purity

Question 32 of 100

Which filler can NOT be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs toavoid discoloration of the tablets?

a) Dicalcium phosphate

b) Microcrystalline cellulose

c) Starch

d) Lactose

Question 33 of 100

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings

a) LDL-receptor concentration

b) VLDL secretion

c) Mevalonic acid formation

d) Co-enzyme A formation

Question 34 of 100

Gingkgo biloba is used for its

a) Expectorant activity

b) Lipid lowering activityc) PAF antagonistic activity

d) Antidepressant activity

Question 35 of 100

PSIG is



a) Pressure per square inch gauze

b) Polarization per square inch gauze

c) Pounds per square inch gauze

d) None of the above

Question 36 of 100

Aminotransferases usually require the following for their activity

a) Niacinamide

b) Vitamin B12

c) Pyridoxal phosphate

d) Thiamine

Question 37 of 100

An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

a) pyrrole

b) isoxazole

c) phenol

d) tetrazole

Question 38 of 100

In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps,incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place

a) Citrate synthase

b) Aconitase

c) Maleate dehydrogenase

d) Succinyl Co-A synthase

Question 39 of 100

The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins :

a) Roxythromycin

b) Adriamycin

c) Aureomycin

d) Rifamycin

Question 40 of 100



Increased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with decreased serum levels of

a) LDL

b) HDL

c) Triglycerides

d) VLDL

Question 41 of 100

Improvement of memory in Alzheimer's disease is brought about by drugs which increasetransmission in

a) cholinergic receptors

b) dopaminergic receptors

c) GABAergic receptors

d) adrenergic receptors

Question 42 of 100

dentify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium

falciparum

a) Artemisinin

b) Primaquine

c) Quinine

d) Mefloquine

Question 43 of 100

Tropane alkaloids are NOT present in

a) Datura stramonium

b) Erythroxylum coca

c) Duboisia myoporoides

d) Lobelia inflata

Question 44 of 100

The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is

a) ureide

b) imidazolidinone

c) dihydropyrimidine

d) tetrahydropyrimidine



Question 45 of 100

Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

a) Scrophulariacea

b) Leguminosaec) Polygalaceae

d) Rubiaceae

Question 46 of 100

Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnoticactivity

a) 1,3-Disubstitution

b) 5,5-Disubstitution

c) 1,5-Disubstitutiond) 3,3-Disubstitution

Question 47 of 100

Which one of the following statements is WRONG?

a) Carbon NMR is less sensitive than proton NMR

b) 12C nucleus is not magnetically active

c) Both 13C and *H have same spin quantum numbers

d) The gyromagnetic ratio of *H is lesser than that of1 C

Question 48 of 100

Anisocytic stomata are present in

Chosen answer: c)

a) Senna

b) Digitalis

c) Belladonnad) Coca

Question 49 of 100

Identify the non-pathogenic organism

a) Mycobacterium bovis



b) Mycobacterium smegmatis

c) Mycobacterium avium

d) Mycobacterium intracellular

Question 50 of 100

Partial or complete separation of top or bottom crown of tablet is called

a) Mottling

b) Picking

c) Capping

d) Blooming

Question 51 of 100

The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to

a) 0.4 micron

b) 25 micron

c) 50 micron

d) 10micron

Question 52 of 100

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

a) Atropineb) Carvedilol

c) Neostigmine

d) d-Tubocurarine

Question 53 of 100

Acontitine belongs to the group of

a) Steroidal alkaloids

b) Terpenoidal alkaloids

c) Indole alkaloidsd) Quinoline alkaloids

Question 54 of 100

Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the aglycone part of

the steroid nucleus



a) 5a, 1 4 a -

b) 5a, 14-

c) 5, 1 4 a -

d) 5,14-

Question 55 of 100

An example of N-glycoside is

a) Adenosine

b) Sinigrin

c) Rhein-8-glucoside

d) Aloin

Question 56 of 100

A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of thefollowing properties undergo transition on

a) Polarizability

b) Dielectric constant

c) Dipole moment

d) Refractivity

Question 57 of 100

Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures

with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

a) cyclodextrins

b) dextrans

c) dendrimers

d) liposomes

Question 58 of 100

When N-methyl group of morphine is replaced with an allyl group, the compound formed is

a) Naloxone-morphine antagonistb) Natrexone-morphine agonist

c) Nalorphine-morphine antagonist

d) Nalbuphine-morphine agonist/antagonist

Question 59 of 100

The role of borax in cold creams is



a) anti-microbial agent

b) to provide fine particles to polish skin

c) in-situ emulsifier

d) antioxidant

Question 60 of 100

Choose the right combination:

a) Quinine', antimalarial, isoquinoline alkaloid

b) Reserpine, -antihypertensive, indole alkaloid

c) Quantitative microscopy, stomatal number, myrrh

d) Palmitic acid, salicylic acid , fatty acids

Question 61 of 100

Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit

a) Norfloxacin - Metronidazole

b) Alprazolam - Paracetamol

c) Cisapride - Omeprazole

d) Amoxycillin - Clavulanic acid

Question 62 of 100

Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T

lymphocytes?

a) Daclizumab

b) Prednisone

c) Sirolimus

d) Tacrolimus

Question 63 of 100

One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

a) 94,000 spores

b) 92,000 sporesc) 90,000 spores

d) 91,000 spores

Question 64 of 100

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using



a) Donepezil

b) Edrophonium

c) Atropine

d) Pancuronium

Question 65 of 100

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring

system

a) Pyrimidine

b) Benzimidazole

c) Benzothiazole

d) Oxindole

Question 66 of 100

Genetically modified species of Papaver namely Papaver bracteatum and Papaver orientalecontain the predominant alkaloid

a) Morphine

b) Codeine

c) Thebaine

d) Narcotine

Question 67 of 100

Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation of

a) Fragment ion

b) Metastable ion

c) Molecular ion

d) Rearrangement ion

Question 68 of 100

Some of the organic reactions are catalysed by a product obtained from starch on treatment with

amylase from Bacillus macerans. It is

a) Amylopectin

b) Amylose

c) Cellulose

d) Cyclodextrin

Question 69 of 100



Antihypoprothrombinemic effect of one stereochemical form is two to five times more thanothers

a) (S)¬(+)¬Warfarin

b) R¬(+)¬Warfarin

c) (S)¬(¬)¬Warfarind) (RS)¬Warfarin

Question 70 of 100

Simvastatin belongs to

a) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents

b) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents

c) Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents

d) Fibrate type of antilipidemic agent

Question 71 of 100

A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase

enzyme is

Chosen answer: a)

a) Fluvastatin

b) Cerivastatin

c) Lovastatin

d) Somatostatin

Question 72 of 100

Florentine receiver is used to separate the liquids based on

a) molecular weight

b) sedimentation rate

c) density

d) freezing point

Question 73 of 100

Which one of the followings is a plasminogen activator?

a) Tranexamic acid

b) Streptokinase



c) Aminocaproic acid

d) None of the above

Question 74 of 100

Increased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with decreased serum levels of

a) LDL

b) HDL

c) Triglycerides

d) VLDL

Question 75 of 100

Ethambutol molecule has

a) two chiral centers and 3 stereoisomersb) two chiral centers and 4 stereoisomers

c) two chiral centers and 2 stereoisomers

d) one chiral center and 2 stereoisomers

Question 76 of 100

Which one of the following statements is WRONG?

a) A singlet or triplet state may result when one of the electrons from the HOMO is excited tohigher energy levels

b) In an excited singlet state, the spin of the electron in the higher energy orbital is paired with the electron in the ground state orbital

c) Triplet excited state is more stable than the singlet excited state

d) When the electron from the singlet excited state returns to ground state, the molecule always

shows fluorescence phenomenon

Question 77 of 100

Triterpenoids are active constituents of

a) Jaborandi

b) Rhubarbc) Stramonium

d) Brahmi

Question 78 of 100

Nitrazepam can be synthesized from



a) 2-Bromo-5-amino benzophenone

b) 2-Nitro-2-chloro acetophenone

c) 2-Amino-5-nitro cyclohexanone

d) 2-Amino-5-nitro benzophenone

Question 79 of 100

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

a) acidic

b) Basic

c) neutral

d) amphoteric

Question 80 of 100

Microprapagation of the plants is carried out through

a) Cross fertilization

b) Seed germination

c) Plant tissue culture

d) Grafting

Question 81 of 100

In the mixing of thymol and menthol the following type of incompatibility

occurs

a) Chemical incompatibility

b) Therapeutic incompatibility

c) Physical incompatibility

d) Tolerance incompatibility

Question 82 of 100

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include :

a) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose

b) Elimination half-life remains constantc) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose

d) Amount of drug excreted through remains constant

Question 83 of 100

Bloom strength is used to check the quality of



a) Lactose

b) Ampoules

c) Hardness of tablets

d) Gelatin

Question 84 of 100

An inorganic ion which is used prophylactically in bipolar depression is

a) Valproate

b) Lithium

c) Chromium

d) Valium

Question 85 of 100

Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?

a) Chlorpromazine

b) Astemizole

c) Haloperidol

d) Domperidone

Question 86 of 100

Indian Rhubarb can be distinguished from Rhapontic Rhubarb by the fluorescene it emits under

UV light. Indian Rhubarb gives

a) deep yellow

b) deep violet

c) orange

d) pale green

Question 87 of 100

Guggul lipids are obtained from

a) Commiphora molmol

b) Boswellia serratac) Commiphora wightii

d) Commiphora abyssinica

Question 88 of 100

Safranin is used as a reagent to detect



a) Gram-negative bacteria

b) Gram-positive bacteria

c) Acid fast bacteria

d) Myxozoa

Question 89 of 100

A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a

solution of

a) NaCl

b) HgCl

c) KCl

d) NaSO4

Question 90 of 100

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

a) First order kinetics

b) Zero order kinetics

c) Mixed order kinetics

d) Dissolution rate

Question 91 of 100

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission

of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

a) Lamivudine

b) Zidovudine

c) Indinavir

d) Ribavirin

Question 92 of 100

Aliskiren acts by

a) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to IIb) inhibiting the release of rennin

c) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor

d) inhibiting the action of aldosterone

Question 93 of 100

Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?



a) Aluminium chloride

b) Bentonite

c) Tragacanth

d) Sodium biphosphate

Question 94 of 100

Which of the following is not a capsule size?

a) 000

b) 2

c) 4

d) 0000

Question 95 of 100

DNA amplification by the polymerase chain reaction uses

a) Thermus aquaticus DNA polymerase

b) DNA topoisomerase

c) RNA polymerase

d) DNA helicase

Question 96 of 100

For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical EXCEPT

a) O-demethylationb) aromatic oxidation

c) benzylic hydroxylation

d) amide hydrolysis

Question 97 of 100

Gymnema is used as:

a) Anti-ulcer

b) Anti diabetic

c) Anti emeticd) Anti cancer

Question 98 of 100

Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally :

a) pH



b) Refractivity

c) Viscosity

d) Conductivity

Question 99 of 100

Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material

a) Phthalic anhydride

b) Terephthalic acid

c) Phthalamic acid

d) Phthalimide

Question 100 of 100

Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

a) Piroxicam

b) Celecoxib

c) Nabumetone

d) Ketorolac

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Gpat Model Test 1