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Chapter 1: Biology: The Study of Life 1. An experiment is _____.
a. a problem that may be solved b. an observation about nature c. a way to prove a fact d. a test of a hypothesis
2. What might be involved in a lab that contained the warnings in Figure 1-7?
a. dangerous chemicals b. sharp objects c. dangerous plants d. small animals
3. Technology has allowed humans to produce more food and reduce the chance of starvation by
individuals in some countries. How has this advance created additional technological needs?
a. All of these. b. The technology has allowed populations to continue to grow, creating the need for
additional food. c. The technology caused the false belief that the problem was solved forever. d. The technology caused salts to be deposited in soils.
4. Which of the examples shows a response to a stimulus?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5. Living things change during their lives through _____.
a. reproduction b. growth and development c. adaptation and organization d. making responses
6. The information gathered from experiments is called _____.
a. the data b. the conclusion c. the research d. the hypothesis
7. Which of the adaptations on a dolphin, shown in Figure 1-8 is used for breathing underwater?
a. B b. C c. A d. D
8. Which of the pictures in Figure 1-10 shows the most diversity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
9. Which of the following results from quantitative analysis of Figure 1-6?
a. there are 8 babies b. the babies are cold c. these are the first babies this rabbit has had d. there isn’t enough food
10. Key to the study of biology is learning about the _____.
a. chemicals b. all of these c. rocks d. life around us
Chapter 2: Principles of Ecology
1. Which organism shown in the pyramid receives the highest percentage of energy from the Sun?
a. fox b. grasshoppers c. birds d. grass
2. The organism shown in Figure 2-12 is involved in which type of symbiosis?
a. predatorism b. parasitism c. commensalism d. mutualism
3. The organisms growing on the log in Figure 2-8 are ____?
a. decomposers b. autotrophs c. producers d. carnivores
4. In the energy pyramid shown in Figure 2-7, which level has the smallest number of organisms?
a. birds b. grass c. fox d. grasshoppers
5. What type of cycle is depicted in Figure 2-10?
a. phosphorus b. carbon c. water d. nitrogen
6. What type of ecosystem is shown in Figure 2-11?
a. acquatic b. population c. abiotic d. terrestrial
7. The group of animals in Figure 2-6 is an example of what?
a. community b. biosphere c. ecosystem d. population
8. Where is the biosphere in Figure 2-4?
a. core b. Earth’s crust c. mantle d. upper mantle
9. Referring to Figure 2-1, suppose 10 000 units of energy are available at the level of the grasses. What is the total number of energy units lost by the time energy reaches the coyote?
a. 90 units b. 9900 units c. 9990 units d. 990 units
10. Identify the abiotic factor labeled in the ecosystem shown in Figure 2-5.
a. rock b. tree c. mouse d. butterfly
Chapter 3: Communities and Biomes
1. What type of succession is most likely to happen in Figure 3-4?
a. primary b. secondary c. climax d. teriary
2. In Figure 3-3, where will you be most likely to find the greatest diversity?
a. A b. D c. B d. C
3. What type of species would be most likely found in the area labeled D in Figure 3-7?
a. amphibians that need a warm habitat b. plants that require light c. one that requires plenty of oxygen d. decomposers that feed on dead organisms
4. What would be the best time of the year to plant the organism described in Figure 3-6?
a. summer b. spring c. fall d. winter
5. If you released a new species of deer into each of the stages shown in Figure 3-5, in which stage would the species be most successful?
a. B b. C c. A d. D
6. In Figure 3-3, which section would have a lack of organisms due to an overabundance of resources?
a. A b. D c. C d. B
7. In Figure 3-3, which section would account for a lower number of organisms near the bottom of a pond due to a short supply of oxygen and sunlight?
a. C b. B c. D d. A
8. You take a sample of species from the area labeled A in Figure 3-7. What would you expect to find?
a. great species diversity
b. one dominant species of fish
c. organisms that need very little oxygen d. almost no life
9. Look at the graph in Figure 3-6. What does this graph tell us about this species of plant?
a. they thrive in a lot of sun b. heat is damaging to them c. they need plenty of water d. too much sunlight can hurt them
10. Look at the graph in Figure 3-6. Approximately how many hours of sunlight should these plants receive each day in order to make them grow at their optimum level?
a. 4 b. 16 c. 20 d. 12
Chapter 4: Population Biology 1. The giant land tortoises of the Galapagos Islands and sequoias of California have among the longest
life spans of any organisms. This indicates that they likely employ a strategy of _____.
a. all of these b. early sexual maturity c. slow growth d. rapid reproduction
2. The effect of movement of people between counties has _____ effect on total world population.
a. a damaging b. no c. little d. a great
3. A population that grows until it reaches its carrying capacity usually has the shape of an _____.
a. I b. S c. J d. M
4. The effect of local population fluctuations in rapidly expanding suburbs may _____ schools, roads,
and police and fire services.
a. none of these b. stress c. have no effect on d. reduce the need for
5. Organisms that employ a strategy of slow reproduction usually require an environment that _____.
a. fluctuates from year to year b. has 24-hour growing periods c. has cold days d. is stable
6. A country that has a stable population is characterized by an age structure that is _____.
a. largest among pre-reproductive years b. about the same among all groups c. largest among reproductive years d. largest among post-reproductive years
7. Bacteria employ a(n) _____ reproductive strategy, a characteristic determined by their small size,
rapid maturation, and short life span.
a. rapid b. unusual c. early d. slow
8. Which of the following problems do immigration and emigration pose for demographers?
a. Demographers study growth rates, age structures, and geographic distributions of populations.
b. Demographers find it difficult to make predictions about populations. c. Demographers cannot identify the age structure of immigrants. d. Demographers must provide for more city services.
9. For a particular species, the carrying capacity is the maximum number of individual organisms that
_____.
a. could be supported by any environment over a period of one year b. could be supported by a given environment indefinitely c. the species could reach in a given time period if all the offspring survive and reproduce d. are in their post-reproductive years
10. Density-independent factors are limiting factors whose effects are _____.
a. confined to the habitat of the population b. determined by the difference between birthrate and population density c. determined by the degree of competition for resources d. not influenced by population densities
Chapter 5: Biological Diversity and Conservation
1. Using the graph in Figure 5-5, extrapolate what would happen to biodiversity on a large island or continent.
a. biodiversity would first increase, then decrease b. biodiveristy would increase greatly c. biodiversity would decrease greatly d. biodiversity would remain constant
2. Which country has the fewest species of mammals?
a. United States b. Mexico c. Canada
3. The Kimmarie Orchid became extinct in the wild due to _____.
a. habitat loss b. overcollection c. habitat degradation d. insects
4. What does the graph in Figure 5-5 tell you?
a. the farther from land, the more biodiversity b. the larger the islet, the more biodiversity
c. islet size and biodiversity are not related
d. biodiversity decreases with islet size
5. Suggest what happened to species E in Figure 5-6.
a. it became extinct b. it started eating species A c. it replaced species B in its niche d. it stopped eating species B
6. What happened to species B in the graph shown in Figure 5-6?
a. it became carnivorous b. it increased in biodiversity c. it became extinct d. it decreased in population slightly
7. If the communities in Figure 5-4 were put in order of least to most biological diversity, they would be _____.
a. ABCD b. BDAC c. CADB d. DBCA
8. What effect did the loss of species B have on species A and D in Figure 5-6?
a. it had no effect on the populations of A and D b. it caused the populations of A and D to decrease c. it caused the populations of A and D to increase d. it caused the populations of A and D to become extinct
9. Carnivorous birds that fed on organisms exposed to this chemical produced fragile eggs. The chemical is _____.
a. CFC b. nitrogen oxide c. DDT d. DNA
10. Using the information from the graph in Figure 5-5, predict what would happen to biodiversity if the ocean level increased.
a. it would decrease b. it would remain the same c. it would disappear d. it would increase
Chapter 6: The Chemistry of Life 1. An unsaturated lipid contains _____.
a. ionic bonds b. double bonds c. only one fatty acid d. more oxygen than hydrogen
2. Which element would need to be removed from the molecule in Figure 6-5 to make it unsaturated?
a. oxygen b. phosphorus c. carbon d. hydrogen
3. Glucose and fructose, with the formula C6H12O6, differ in _____.
a. kinds of atoms b. numbers of atoms c. arrangement of atoms d. arrangement of electrons
4. _____ represents a formula for a chemical compound.
a. C b. H c. P d. H2O
5. Which of the following is a chemical reaction?
a. picking up iron filings with a magnet b. mixing salt and sugar in the same container c. tearing paper into strips d. burning paper
6. Which of the images in Figure 6-4 depicts dynamic equilibrium?
a. C b. A c. B d. D
7. A chlorine atom becomes a chloride ion when it _____.
a. gains an electron b. loses an electron c. loses a proton d. gains a neutron
8. Unlike carbohydrates and fats, proteins contain _____.
a. carbon b. nitrogen c. oxygen d. hydrogen
9. Which of the atoms pictured in Figure 6-3 is most likely to form an ion?
a. C b. O c. they are all equally likely to form an ion d. Na
10. Carbon-12, carbon-13, and carbon-14 are _____.
a. polymers b. isotopes c. macromolecules d. radioisotopes
Chapter 7: A View of the Cell
1. A cell contains the structure shown in Figure 7-7. What other cell structure that is not found in all eukaryotic cells is likely to be found in this cell?
a. mitochondria b. plasma membrane c. ribosomes d. cell wall
2. Which structure in Figure 7-6 is the cell control center?
a. I b. A c. G d. M
3. Which structure in Figure 7-6 maintains homeostasis?
a. D b. L c. H d. B
4. What would happen to the structure in Figure 7-4 if part D is completely removed?
a. it would have holes in it b. it would disintegrate c. it would collapse in on itself d. it would become solid
5. What would be the best way to estimate the size of C in Figure 7-3?
a. decrease magnification b. increase magnification c. estimate by what you can see d. assume it is 2000 Μm
6. What is the approximate size of B in figure 7-3?
a. 500 Μm b. 1000 Μm c. 400 Μm d. 700 Μm
7. Which is not a way that Figure 7-2 is a model of cellular theory?
a. bricks are organized to make a larger unit b. bricks are solid c. bricks are small units in a building d. there are many bricks in a building
8. What is the approximate size of A in Figure 7-3?
a. 500 Μm b. 1000 Μm c. 400 Μm d. 700 Μm
9. Which of the following pictures in Figure 7-5 most likely approximate the motion phospholipids make in a plasma membrane?
a. D b. C c. B
d. A
10. Which structure in Figure 7-6 is responsible for chemical reactions?
a. L b. A c. J d. E
Chapter 8: Cellular Transport and the Cell Cycle
1. Which conditions shown in Figure 8-4 might cause a cell to burst?
a. C b. A c. D d. B
2. Which of the cells depicted in the line graph in Figure 8-8 are most likely cancerous?
a. D b. B c. A d. C
3. Which of the following structures is the most complex?
a. cell b. organ system c. tissue d. organ
4. A cell moves particles from a region of lesser concentration to a region of greater concentration by
_____.
a. facilitated diffusion b. passive transport c. active transport d. osmosis
5. What cell process is responsible for the effect shown in Figure 8-5?
a. facilitated diffusion b. passive transport c. osmosis d. active transport
6. If cancer is present, what is the likely explanation for what happened to cells B and D?
a. they thrived with the cancerous cells b. they died off on due to natural causes c. they were harmed by radiation therapy d. they died off because the cancerous cells deprived them of nutrients
7. A gene is a segment of DNA that controls the production of _____.
a. proteins b. centromeres c. carbohydrates d. microtubules
8. The chromosomes shown in Figure 8-6 are in which stage of mitosis?
a. anaphase b. telophase c. metaphase d. prophase
9. What level of organization is shown in Figure 8-7?
a. organ b. tissue c. organ system d. organism
10. By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except _____.
a. tighter coiling of the chromosomes b. disappearing of the nucleolus c. lining up of chromosomes in the cell d. breaking down of the nuclear envelope
Chapter 9: Energy In a Cell 1. Which of the following is not a part of adenosine diphosphate?
a. glucose b. ribose c. adenine d. two phosphate groups
2. Organisms need a way of storing energy because _____.
a. a cell cannot create energy and must get it from elsewhere in the organism b. a cell can't always immediately use all the energy it gets c. an organism often has times when no energy is used d. a cell can release only stored energy
3. Which of the processes shown in Figure 9-3 do not use a cell’s energy?
4. In the complete process of photosynthesis, the _____.
a. light reactions produce NADP+ from NADPH + H+ b. Calvin cycle breaks down H2O c. light reactions release oxygen d. Calvin cycle yields CO2
5. In which types of organisms does the process shown in Figure 9-5 take place?
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. A
a. both plants and animals
b. neither plants nor animals
c. plants only
d. animals only
6. The main energy-trapping molecule in plants is _____.
a. chlorophyll b. stroma c. carotenoids d. chloroplast
7. Cells store energy when _____.
a. the third phosphate group breaks off from an ATP molecule b. they break down sucrose to glucose and fructose c. ions are released into the bloodstream d. a third phosphate group is bonded to an ATP molecule
8. Which of the diagrams in Figure 9-2 best show how energy is produced in a cell?
a. C b. D c. A d. B
9. Energy is released from ATP when the bond is broken between _____.
a. adenine and ribose b. two phosphate groups c. ribose and a phosphate group d. adenine and a phosphate group
10. What is the main purpose of the cycle shown in Figure 9-4?
a. production of ADP b. destruction of CO2 c. production of NADP- d. sugar production
Chapter 10: Mendel and Meiosis
1. In Figure 10-8, what gametes will result if there is only a single crossover?
a. D b. A c. C d. B
2. What is the phenotype of generation 1 in Figure 10-5?
a. constricted b. inflated c. Ii d. II
3. What is the genotype in the bottom left-hand quadrant in Figure 10-6?
a. WW b. Ww c. wW d. ww
4. According to Figure 10-5, the constricted pod shape is _____.
a. segregated b. recessive c. dominant
d. hybrid
5. How should the top row of Figure 10-7 read?
a. mMXX, mMXx, mmXX, mmXx b. mMxX, mMxx, mmxX, mmxx c. MMXX, MMXx, MmXX, MmXx d. MMxX, MMxx, MmxX, Mmxx
6. The diagram in Figure 10-2 shows a diploid cell with two homologous pairs of chromosomes. Due to independent assortment, the possible allelic combinations that could be found in gametes produced by the meiotic division of this cell are _____.
a. BbDd and BDbd b. Bb, Dd, BB, and DD c. BD, bD, Bd, and bd
d. Bd and bD only
7. What is the genotype of generation 1 in Figure 10-5?
a. I b. Ii c. II d. ii
8. The numbers in Figure 10-1 represent the chromosome number found in each of the dog cells shown. The processes that are occurring at A and B are _____.
a. meiosis and pollination b. meiosis and fertilization c. mitosis and pollination
d. mitosis and fertilization
9. In Figure 10-8, what gametes will result if each chromatid crossed with a nonsister chromatid?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
10. Using Figure 10-3, which process would result in the formation of chromosome C from chromosomes A and B?
a. crossing over b. segregation c. asexual reproduction d. independent assortment
Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
1. Which of the structures in Figure 11-1 are composed of RNA?
a. III and V b. III and IV c. I and V d. II and IV
2. Which structure shown in Figure 11-3 is a pyrimidine?
a. D b. A c. B d. C
3. Which structure shown in Figure 11-3 would attract a free cytosine nucleotide?
a. A b. D c. C d. B
4. What will be the result of the mutation in Figure 11-4?
a. the organism will die b. nearly every amino acid in the protein will be changed c. it will have no affect on protein function d. only one amino acid will change
5. What type of mutation has occurred in Figure 11-4?
a. frame shift b. point mutation c. lethal d. protein
6. Which one of the following nucleotide pair bonds would be found in a DNA molecule?
a. cytosine-uracil b. guanine-cytosine c. adenine-cytosine
d. adenine-guanine
7. Which structure shown in Figure 11-3 does not contain a nitrogenous base?
a. D b. B c. A d. C
8. In which part of the cell does this process shown in Figure 11-1 take place?
a. on the chromosome b. in the nucleus c. at the ribosomes d. in food vacuoles
9. Structure III in Figure 11-1 represents a(n) _____.
a. DNA molecule b. amino acid c. gene d. codon
10. The process illustrated in Figure 11-1 is called _____.
a. monoploidy b. transcription c. translation d. replication
Chapter 12: Patterns of Heredity and Human Genetics
1. What type of inheritance pattern does the trait represented by the shaded symbols in Figure 12-1 illustrate?
a. incomplete dominance b. multiple alleles c. sex-linked d. codominance
2. Refer to Figure 12-1. If individual III-2 marries a person with the same genotype as individual I-1, what is the chance that one of their children will be afflicted with hemophilia?
a. 25% b. 0% c. 50% d. 75%
3. For the trait being followed in the pedigree, individuals II-1 and II-4 in Figure 12-1 can be classified as _____.
a. homozygous dominant b. mutants c. carriers d. homozygous recessive
4. Based on Figure 12-3, what do you know about individual III-1's mother?
a. She had the trait. b. She was homozygous recessive. c. She was a carrier. d. She was homozygous dominant.
5. Examine the graph in Figure 12-4, which illustrates the frequency in types of skin pigmentation in humans. Another human trait that would show a similar inheritance pattern and frequency of distribution is _____.
a. height b. number of fingers and toes c. incidence of cystic fibrosis d. blood type
6. What phenotype is depicted in Figure 12-8?
a. O b. AB c. B d. A
7. Which of the bar graphs shown below represents what the phenotypic frequencies might be for polygenic inheritance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8. According to Figure 12-5, what is the chance that individual A will be afflicted with Huntington's?
a. 50% b. 100% c. 75%
d. 25%
9. In Figure 12-7, the trait shown is _____.
a. trisomy b. not sex-linked c. Y-linked d. X-linked
10. What is the probable mode of inheritance for the normal trait in Figure 12-3?
a. sex linkage b. polygenic c. multiple alleles d. simple dominant
Chapter 13: Genetic Technology
1. According to Figure 13-7, which DNA sequence will be cleaved by EcoRI, which cuts AATT/TTAA?
2. What must be on either end of any genetic material that is inserted into the cleaved DNA in Figure 13-5?
a. ATAT b. AATT c. CCGG d. CGCG
3. According to Figure 13-8, which parents might give a false positive if only the longer DNA fragments were analyzed?
a. C b. B c. A d. D
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. C
4. What is the genotype of the unknown rabbit in Figure 13-4?
a. heterozygous b. recessive c. homozygous long ears d. homozygous short ears
5. According to Figure 13-8, which are the parents of the child?
a. B b. C c. A d. D
6. If the segments in Figure 13-6 are mixed with several restriction enzymes, which will not be cleaved?
a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C
7. Examine the pieces of DNA represented in Figure 13-1. Why are the nucleotide sequences on both strands referred to as palindromes?
a. each nucleotide is represented b. the sequences show chromosome mutation c. the sequences are the same but run in opposite directions d. the DNA is an example of a transgenic codon
8. Which segment in Figure 13-6 will attach to genetic material with the sequence TCGA?
a. A b. C c. D d. B
9. Which segment in Figure 13-6 is not a palidrome?
a. B b. D c. A d. C
10. What would be the result of the test cross in Figure 13-4 if the unknown were homozygous long ears?
a. all of the offspring would have long ears b. ½ of the offspring would have long ears c. all of the offspring would have short ears d. ¼ of the offspring would have short ears
Chapter 14: The History of Life
1. According to Figure 14-4, in how many eras have mammals existed?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 7 d. 5
2. According to Figure 14-4, the correct chronological order of organisms as they develop are _____.
a. dinosaurs, jawed fish, birds, prokaryotes b. prokaryotes, jawed fish, dinosaurs, birds c. birds, dinosaurs, jawed fish, prokaryotes d. jawed fish, dinosaurs, prokaryotes, birds
3. Which of the following fossils are not found in sedimentary rock?
a. petrified wood b. imprints c. amber d. frozen mammoths
4. Humans are thought to have evolved during the _____ Era.
a. Precambrian b. Cenozoic c. Paleozoic d. Mesozoic
5. According to Figure 14-4, what was the earliest form of multicellular life on Earth?
a. fish b. land plants c. invertebrates d. reptiles
6. Scientists agree that two developments must have occurred for life to come into being: the
formation of simple organic molecules important to life and _____.
a. development of prokaryotic cells in early oceans b. an atmosphere rich in water vapor, oxygen, and ATP c. appearance of amino acids, monosaccharides, and lipids d. organization of molecules into complex organic molecules
7. Which group of organisms is believed to have been the earliest to evolve?
a. mammals b. aquatic dinosaurs c. land plants d. cyanobacteria
8. The Geologic Time Scale begins at the formation of Earth approximately _____ years ago.
a. 46 million b. 4.6 billion c. 4.6 million d. 4.6 thousand
9. According to one theory, the first prokaryotes probably obtained their food _____.
a. by consuming organic molecules available in their environment b. by eating carbohydrates formed by autotrophs c. through the synthesis of organic molecules from inorganic molecules d. through a combination of photosynthesis and aerobic respiration
10. Which event contributed most directly to the evidence of aerobic organisms?
a. an increase in the concentration of methane in the ancient atmosphere b. the presence of organisms able to carry on photosynthesis c. a decrease in the sun's light intensity d. an increase in the number of organisms carrying on fermentation
Chapter 15: The Theory of Evolution 1. Which of the following lines of evidence for evolution is indirect?
a. fossils b. observed allele frequency changes c. pesticide resistance d. all of these
2. Natural processes such as speciation and gradualism provide the genetic basis for _____.
a. biogenesis b. spontaneous generation c. evolution d. sexual reproduction
3. The structures shown in Figure 15-5 are _____.
a. analogous b. homologous c. heterologous d. vestigial
4. Natural selection can best be defined as the _____.
a. survival and reproduction of the organisms that occupy the largest area b. survival and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted to the
environment c. survival of the biggest and strongest organisms in a population
d. elimination of the smallest organisms by the biggest organisms
5. Which type of natural selection shown in Figure 15-6 would favor giraffes that need to reach the tallest branches to eat?
a. B b. D c. A d. C
6. Why might the beak of the Akialoa, pictured in Figure 15-7, developed this way?
a. to crack open seeds b. to dig through tree bark for insects c. to scoop up fish d. to reach nectar in flowers
7. Which of the following is not a factor that causes changes in the allelic frequencies of individuals in
a population?
a. random selection b. stabilizing selection c. disruptive selection d. directional selection
8. What type of adaptation is shown in Figure 15-4?
a. homologous structure b. camouflage c. mimicry d. artificial selection
9. Which type of natural selection shown in Figure 15-6 favors average individuals?
a. C b. A c. D d. B
10. What is the movement of genes into and out of a gene pool called?
a. nonrandom mating b. random mating c. direct evolution d. gene flow
Chapter 16: Primate Evolution 1. Which is the oldest hominid species to be unearthed?
a. Homo habilis b. Australopithecus afarensis c. Australopithecus africanus d. Homo erectus
2. According to Figure 16-3, which species shares the closest ancestor with humans?
a. B b. D c. A d. C
3. Which characteristic of the skulls in figure 16-4 shows an increase in intelligence?
a. decreased teeth size b. smaller eye sockets c. rounder jaw d. increased brain cavity size
4. Predict where homo habilus would fall in Figure 16-3.
a. between gorillas and lemurs b. above chimpanzees c. between gorillas and chimpanzees d. between lemurs and gibbons
5. Which characteristic of the skulls in Figure 16-4 most impacts diet?
a. rounder jaw b. increased brain cavity size c. smaller eye sockets
d. decreased teeth size
6. Which adaptation shown in Figure 16-2 was lost as monkeys evolved into homonoids?
a. C b. A c. B d. D
7. Predict what will happen to the characteristics shown in Figure 16-4 as evolution continues.
a. brain cavity size will increase b. heads will get flatter c. teeth will get smaller
d. skulls will get smaller
8. Where would orangatans fall in Figure 16-3?
a. between gorillas and chimpanzees b. above chimpanzees c. between lemurs and gibbons d. between gorillas and lemurs
9. According to Figure 16-3, which was the first primate to evolve?
a. D b. A c. B
d. C
10. Which adaptation shown in Figure 16-2 is not used for climbing?
a. B b. A c. C d. D
Chapter 17: Organizing Life's Diversity 1. The method used to construct a hypothetical evolutionary tree is ____.
a. biochemistry b. DNA sequencing c. statistical analysis d. cladistics
2. When organisms are classified within the same group, it can be assumed that they have a common
__________.
a. class b. phylum c. phylogeny d. division
3. The evolutionary history of a species is its _____.
a. taxonomy b. biodiversity c. extinction d. phylogeny
4. A group of related classes of plants is a _____.
a. division b. database c. taxon d. kingdom
5. Biologists use ______________ to create a cladogram.
a. derived traits b. discretionary c. pedigrees
d. behavioral
6. Linnaeus used similarities in _________ to determine relationships among organisms.
a. cladistics b. classification c. structure d. phylogeny
7. A system for naming species in which two words are used to name an organism is _____.
a. binomial nomenclature b. dichotomous keying c. fan diagramming d. cladistics
8. The placing of information or objects into groups based on certain similarities is _____.
a. classification b. speciation c. biochemical analysis d. phylogeny
9. The science of grouping and naming organisms is _____.
a. taxonomy b. classification c. phylogeny d. nomenclature
10. A heterotrophic eukaryote associated with the decomposition of dead organisms is a(n) _____.
a. herbivore b. protist c. fungus d. bacterium
Chapter 18: Viruses and Bacteria 1. Viruses are _____.
a. parasites
b. decomposers
c. producers
d. consumers
2. Which of the following processes brings about an
exchange of genetic information between bacterial cells?
a. conjugation
b. replication
c. binary fission
d. mutualism
3. Cyanobacteria are _____.
a. photosynthetic autotrophs
b. eubacterial heterotrophs
c. salt-loving archaebacteria
d. chemosynthetic autotrophs
4. Viruses are found in _____.
a. soil
b. air
c. all of these
d. water
5. Bacteria are used in _____.
a. all of these
b. the medical industry
c. farming
d. the food industry
6. Which of the following is NOT an evolutionary
adaptation in bacteria?
a. They have a high rate of mutation.
b. They can utilize substances harmful to other organisms.
c. They reproduce rapidly.
d. They cannot exist under adverse conditions.
7. Which of the bacteria is the cause of pneumonia?
a. Treponema pallidum
b. streptococcus pneumoniae
c. staphylococci
d. rickettsia
8. A structure in some bacteria that is resistant to
adverse environmental factors is a(n) _____.
a. prophage
b. autotroph
c. endospore
d. coccus
9. The name streptococcus tells you that the bacteria are
arranged as _____.
a. groups of spirals
b. pairs of round cells
c. chains of rods
d. long chains of round cells
10.Penicillin kills bacteria by _____.
a. depriving them of nutrients
b. consuming them
c. imprisoning them
d. causing holes to develop in their cell walls
Chapter 19: Protists
1. The plantlike protists that are the cause of red tides
are _____.
a. blue-green algae
b. dinoflagellates
c. red algae
d. brown algae
2. Which phase shown in Figure 19-4 is diploid?
a. gametophyte
b. from the spore to the gametophyte
c. from the zygote to the sporophyte
d. male and female gametophytes
3. Which structure shown in Figure 19-2 is used for locomotion?
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. C
4. When does meiosis occur in Figure 19-4?
a. when the zygotes form
b. when the gametes form
c. when the spores form
d. when the male and female gametophytes form
5. Which structure shown in Figure 19-2 is used to eat?
a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B
6. When does mitosis occur in Figure 19-4?
a. only when the male and female gametophytes make the gametes
b. only as spores grow into gametophytes
c. any time there is cellular growth
d. only as the zygote forms
7. Which of the protists shown in Figure 19-3 would use a pseudopod?
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. A
8. Which of the protists shown in Figure 19-3 has the hardest exterior?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D
9. Which structure shown in Figure 19-2 is used to extract waste?
a. C
b. A
c. B
d. D
10.Slime molds are said to be like animals during much
of their life cycle because they _____.
a. grow on rotting leaves or tree stumps
b. reproduce by making spores
c. move about and engulf food
d. look like animals
Chapter 20: Fungi
1. In Figure 20-2, which structure acts as an anchor?
a. C
b. D
c. B
d. A
2. In Figure 20-2, where will sexual reproduction happen?
a. C
b. A
c. B
d. D
3. In Figure 20-2, where are spores formed?
a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C
4. In Figure 20-2, which structures gather nutrients?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D
5. Where does meiosis in the organism shown in Figure 20-3?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D
6. The bread mold, Rhizopus, produces sexual zygospores
when _____.
a. environmental conditions are favorable
b. there is moist food
c. rhizoids are present
d. environmental conditions are unfavorable
7. Where are spores released in the organism shown in Figure 20-3?
a. B
b. C
c. A
d. D
8. In Figure 20-2, what would cause a zygospore to form at B?
a. unfavorable environmental conditions
b. moisture
c. heat
d. an overabundance of food
9. Mushrooms, which are basidiomycotes, make up what percentage of the fungi species, according to Figure 20-4?
a. 4%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 25%
10.According to Figure 20-4, which type of fungi has the most species?
a. lichens
b. ascomycotes
c. basidiomycotes
d. deuteromycotes
Chapter 21: What is a Plant?
1. Refer to Figure 21-3. Removing which structure would cause this plant to fall over?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. B
2. Where does the sexual reproductive cycle begin in Figure 21-2?
a. Bb. Dc. Ad. C
3. Where are seeds developed in Figure 21-2?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D
4. Refer to Figure 21-3. Which structure collects water?
a. C
b. A
c. D
d. B
5. Refer to Figure 21-3. Which structure is used for the transportation of nutrients?
a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B
6. Which structure in Figure 21-4 is analogous to a yolk in a chicken egg?
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. A
7. Where does the asexual reproductive cycle begin in Figure 21-2?
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. C
8. Refer to Figure 21-3. Removing which structure would cause this plant to starve?
a. Ab. Cc. Dd. B
9. Which structure in Figure 21-4 is analogous to a human fetus?
10.If the plant described in Figure 21-2 has 16 chromosomes in the gametophyte stage, how many chromosomes does it have in the sporophyte stage?
a. 8
b. 4
c. 32
d. 16
a. Cb. Dc. Ad. B
Chapter 22: The Diversity of Plants
1. Which of the plants shown in Figure 22-2 has a dominant gametophyte generation?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. all of them
2. What can be inferred from Figure 22-6?
a. ginkos only grow in one area of the world
b. there used to be more than one species of ginkos
c. anthophytes are the most common seed plants
d. seed plants are more closely related to protists than non-seed plants
3. Which of the plants shown in Figure 22-2 does NOT contain vascular tissue?
a. A
b. none of them contains vascular tissue
c. C
d. B
4. Which of the plants shown in Figure 22-2 uses alternation of generations to reproduce?
a. A
b. B
c. all of them
d. C
5. What originated at point A on the timeline shown in Figure 22-3?
a. non-seed vascular plants
b. seed plants
c. nonvascular plants
d. vascular plants
6. Which reproductive process is NOT used by all three of the plants shown in Figure 22-2?
a. sexual
b. asexual
c. gametophyte
d. fruit generation
7. According to Figure 22-6, with which division of seed plants do ginkgoes share the most recent common ancestor?
8. Where are the male gametophytes produced in Figure 22-4?
a. anthophytesb. cycads
c. conifers
d. gnetums
a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C
9. How are the vascular tissues bundled in the stalks of the seed shown to the left in Figure 22-5?
a. net-like
b. they do not exist
c. scattered
d. in a ring
10.Which of the plants shown in Figure 22-2 uses seeds to reproduce?
a. C
b. B
c. all of them
d. A
Chapter 23: Plant Structure and Function
1. Which picture shown in Figure 23-5 is the most likely outcome?
2. Part A of the cell in Figure 23-1 is very flexible in a particular cell. What type of cell is it?
3. What type of cells are found at section C of Figure 23-3?
a. Bb. Dc. Ad. C
a. stomata
b. parenchyma
c. sclerenchyma
d. collenchyma
a. stomata
b. parenchyma
c. collenchyma
d. sclerenchyma
4. What is the purpose of the structure shown in Figure 23-4?
5. What is the relative concentration of water in the guard cells shown in Figure 23-4?
6. Which structure shown in Figure 23-2 demonstrates negative gravitropism?
a. transpiration
b. water transport
c. waste removal d. photosynthesis
a. the same as all the surrounding cellsb. average
c. high
d. low
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
7. Figure 23-5 demonstrates _____.
a. gravitropism
b. photosynthesis
c. thigmotropism
d. phototropism
8. What is transported by section A of Figure 23-3?
a. sugar
b. water
c. waste
d. heat
9. What structure shown in Figure 23-2 produces sugars?
a. A
b. D
c. C
d. B
10.Which structure shown in Figure 23-1 is not found in animal cells?
a. B
b. D
c. A
d. C
Chapter 24: Reproduction in Plants
1. Which structure shown in Figure 24-6 started out as endosperm?
a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C
2. Which structure finds water in the plant shown in Figure 24-2?
3. Which structure shown in Figure 24-6 started out as a zygote?
a. D
b. A
c. C
d. B
a. C
b. A
c. B
d. D
4. Which type of plant is shown in Figure 24-4?
5. What is the purpose of A and B in Figure 24-3?
a. sexual reproduction
b. asexual reproduction
c. protection
d. transpiration
6. Where are spores produced in the plant shown in Figure 24-2?
a. anthophyte
b. conifer
c. gametophyted. fern
a. Bb. Ac. Dd. C
7. Which is the sporophyte in Figure 24-4?
a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B
8. Which structure is the male sexual organ in Figure 24-3?
a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C
9. Where does the fertilization occur in Figure 24-5?
a. D
b. A
c. C
d. B
10.Which structure is the female sexual organ in Figure 24-3?
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. A
Chapter 25: What is an Animal?
1. Which of the organisms in Figure 25-3 probably has the most muscular control?
2. In Figure 25-2, where is the ectoderm?
3. Which of the organisms in Figure 25-3 has the most complex systems developed from coelom?
a. C
b. D
c. B
d. A
a. Ab. Bc. Cd. D
a. Ab. Bc. Cd. D
4. Which of the organisms in Figure 25-3 has bilateral symmetry but no endoskeleton?
5. Which of these animals has bilateral symmetry?
a. hydra
b. jellyfish
c. sponge
d. flatworm
6. In Figure 25-2, where is the mesoderm?
7. In Figure 25-2, where is the gastrula?
a. Ab. Cc. Bd. D
a. Bb. Ac. Dd. C
a. Cb. Bc. Ad. D
8. Which of the organisms in Figure 25-3 is asymmetrical?
9. In Figure 25-2, where is the endoderm?
10.In Figure 25-2, if part A develops into a mouth, this organism will be a _____.
a. autotroph
b. protosome
c. deuterosome
d. autosome
a. Bb. Ac. Cd. D
a. Db. Ac. Bd. C
Chapter 26: Sponges, Cnidarians, Flatworms, and Roundworms
1. How are the two organisms shown in Figure 26-3 different?
a. only B is poisonous
b. A is a medusa and B is a polyp colony
c. A is a cnidarian and B is not
d. A moves but B doesn’t 2. The collar cells of sponges are similar to _____.
a. amoebas
b. ciliated paramecia
c. flagellated protists
d. sessile sporozoans
3. Which organism shown in Figure 26-4 is a parasite that requires two hosts?
a. C
b. A
c. B
d. D
4. Which organism shown in Figure 26-4 does not have hooks and suckers on its mouth?
a. B
b. D
c. A
d. C
5. Which organism shown in Figure 26-4 is of a phylum that can infect plants?
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. A
6. Which of the two organisms shown in Figure 26-3 releases gametes?
a. both
b. A
c. neither
d. B
7. Which structure shown in Figure 26-2 is analogous to an anus?
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. D
8. Uncooked or undercooked pork may contain _____.
a. Trichinella worms
b. pinworms
c. free-living roundworms
d. hookworms
9. In Figure 26-2, how did the structure labeled A develop?
a. formation of gametes
b. fertilization by sperm
c. fragmentation
d. asexually by budding
10.In a cnidarian, digestion occurs in the _____.
a. digestive tract
b. tentacles
c. proglottids
d. gastrovascular cavity
Chapter 27: Mollusks and Segmented Worms
1. Which shell shown in Figure 27-2 is from the most recently evolved organism?
a. A
b. B
c. none of them
d. C
2. Which part of the squid shown in Figure 27-3 is analogous to a snail’s shell?
a. C
b. B
c. A
d. D
3. In the earthworm shown in Figure 27-4, what part is analagous to the central nervous system in humans?
a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C
4. Which part of the squid shown in Figure 27-3 is the foot?
a. D
b. A
c. C
d. B
5. In the earthworm shown in Figure 27-4, what part is analogous to the stomach in humans?
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. A
6. In the earthworm shown in Figure 27-4, what part is analagous to the throat in humans?
a. B
b. A
c. D
d. C
7. Which shell shown in Figure 27-2 came from a mollusk that uses jellyfish nematocysts for protection?
a. A
b. B
c. none of them
d. C
8. Which shell shown in Figure 27-2 came from a stomach-footed mollusk?
a. C
b. B
c. none of them
d. A
9. According to Figure 27-5, which phylum evolved first?
a. annelids
b. bivalves
c. planaria
d. nematodes
10.According to Figure 27-5, which phylum are annelids closest to on an evolutionary scale?
a. bivalves
b. cestodes
c. gastropods
d. nematodes
Chapter 28: Arthropods
1. What clue tells you immediately that the organism shown in Figure 28-3 is not an arthropod?
a. it has no jointed appendages
b. it doesn’t molt
c. it cannot fly
d. it has more than 6 legs
2. What stage of metamorphosis shown in Figure 28-6 contains the youngest organism?
a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B
3. What stages of metamorphosis shown in Figure 28-6 have no exoskeleton?
a. B and C
b. A and B
c. C and D
d. A and C
4. In what stage of metamorphosis shown in Figure 28-6 does the organism have recognizable insect characteristics like three segments and jointed appendages?
a. B
b. D
c. A
d. C
5. What clue tells you immediately that the organism shown in Figure 28-4 is not an arthropod?
a. it has no jointed appendages
b. there are too many segments
c. it has no endoskeleton
d. its gas exchange is inefficient
6. No one has ever seen a living trilobite. From this fossil picture in Figure 28-5, how can you tell it was an arthropod?
a. it molted
b. it had Malpighian tubules
c. it produced asexually
d. it had segments
7. What clue tells you immediately that the organism shown in Figure 28-2 is not an arthropod?
a. it is warm blooded
b. it has no exoskeleton
c. it has no jointed appendages
d. it has no open circulation system
8. What stage of metamorphosis shown in Figure 28-6 has characteristics of chilopoda and diplopoda?
9. What stage of metamorphosis shown in Figure 28-6 does the most eating take place?
10.What type of metamorphosis is shown in Figure 28-6?
a. partial
b. incomplete
c. complete
d. nymph
a. Db. Ac. Cd. B
a. Ab. Cc. Dd. B
Chapter 29: Echinoderms and Invertebrate Chordates
1. The notochord shown in Figure 29-3 is surrounded on two sides by what?
a. exoderm
b. mesoderm
c. ectoderm
d. endoderm
2. Where does water enter and leave from in a sea star?
a. pedicellariae
b. ampulla
c. madreporite
d. tube feet
3. A sea star can hold tightly to the surface it is touching
because of the _____.
a. eyespots
b. endoskeleton
c. sieve in the madreporite
d. suction in the tube feet
4. Identify the notochord in Figure 29-3.
a. Db. Ac. Cd. B
5. An animal that retains its chordate features throughout
life is the _____.
a. sea squirt
b. lancelet
c. sand dollar
d. seastar
6. Where is the dorsal nerve cord in Figure 29-5?
a. along the heart and circulatory system
b. within the tunic
c. surrounding the pharynx
d. it disappeared after the larval stage
7. What structure shown in the adult sea squirt in Figure 29-5 indicates it’s a chordate?
a. anus
b. heart
c. ciliated grooves
d. gill slits
8. Which structure in Figure 29-4 is a characteristic only chordates have?
a. C
b. A
c. D
d. B
9. The type of symmetry found in all adult echinoderms is
_____.
a. horizontal b. bilateral
c. regional
d. radial
10.When are feather stars sessile?
a. in both larval and adult stages
b. in the adult stage
c. in the larval stage
d. They are sessile during all stages of life.
Chapter 30: Fishes and Amphibians
1. Which is the pectoral fin in Figure 30-5?
2. What is the general progression of evolution from A to D in Figure 30-4?
a. legs moved under the body to hold the animal off the ground
b. thinner legs were needed to stand in water
c. the legs made it easier to move in a warm, wet climate
d. stronger legs were needed in order to swim
a. Db. Ac. Bd. C
3. Which structure pictured in Figure 30-2 is analogous to your lungs?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
4. Which appendages shown in Figure 30-4 belong to the earliest animals to set foot on land?
a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C
5. Which fish in Figure 30-1 has bones?
a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C
6. What is the major classification difference between fish A and fish B in Figure 30-1?
a. one has a two-chambered heart
b. one has a jaw
c. one uses gills
d. one is a parasite
7. Which illustration in Figure 30-3 depicts the close-up of a hagfish’s exterior?
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. D
8. Which structure pictured in Figure 30-2 allows a shark to feel vibrations of a struggling fish several hundred yards away?
a. C
b. A
c. D
d. B
9. Which illustration in Figure 30-3 is characteristic of a shark?
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
10.Which is the dorsal fin in Figure 30-5?
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. C
Chapter 31: Reptiles and Birds
1. How does B contrast between the salamander and the crocodile shown in Figure 31-2?
a. the crocodile’s legs make it clumsier than the salamander
b. the crocodile’s legs keep its body close to the ground
c. the crocodile’s legs raise the body up
d. the crocodile’s legs are completely under its body
2. Which beak shown in Figure 31-4 is used to drill into trees to get insects?
a. C
b. D
c. A
d. B
3. How does D contrast between the salamander and the crocodile shown in Figure 31-2?
a. crocodiles have stronger jaws
b. crocodiles have no teeth
c. salamanders have no teeth
d. salamanders have stronger jaws
4. What can be inferred from Figure 31-3?
a. reptiles are the oldest animals
b. early reptiles were identical to modern reptiles
c. all three groups evolved from early reptiles
d. reptiles are more dominant than mammals
5. Which beak shown in Figure 31-4 is used to scoop things?
a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C
6. What can be inferred from Figure 31-3?
a. mammals evolved from dinosaurs
b. dinosaurs were just big reptiles
c. dinosaurs are closely related to birds
d. reptiles evolved from dinosaurs
7. Which beak shown in Figure 31-4 is used to tear meat?
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
8. How does A contrast between the salamander and the crocodile shown in Figure 31-2?
a. crocodile skin is wet and smooth while salamander skin is dry and scaly
b. crocodile skin is dry and scaly while salamander skin is moist and smooth
c. crocodile skin is moist and scaly while salamander skin is dry and smooth
d. crocodile skin is warm blooded while salamander skin is cold blooded
9. How does C contrast between the salamander and the crocodile shown in Figure 31-2?
a. the crocodile has three chambers
b. the salamander has four chambers
c. the crocodile has four chambers
d. the crocodile has two chambers
10.Alligators and crocodiles use their _____ to swim
rapidly.
a. tails
b. legs
c. snouts
d. jaws
Chapter 32: Mammals
1. An animal jaw that has small incisors and canines but
wide premolars and molars may belong to a _____.
a. wolf
b. beaver
c. horse
d. dolphin
2. The folds in the mammalian brain _____.
a. increase the surface area
b. secrete necessary fluids
c. transfer heat from the body to the environment
d. form ridges for storing learned behavior
3. Which of the skulls shown in Figure 32-2 belongs to an animal that does not hunt?
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. C
4. The main advantage of hair is that it _____.
a. provides mucus
b. protects the skin
c. can be shed
d. conserves body heat
5. Which of the skulls shown in Figure 32-2 are built to eat a variety of foods?
6. According to Figure 32-3, which order of mammals is most closely related to reptiles?
a. Db. Cc. Ad. B
a. cetaceans
b. monotremesc. primates
d. marsupials
7. What is the primary source of food for the animal with skull D as shown in Figure 32-2?
8. Which of these mammals is a monotreme?
a. platypus
b. chimpanzee
c. Tasmanian devil d. kangaroo
9. Most marsupials are found in _____.
a. Africa
b. America
c. Australia
d. Antarctica
10.What has features of both reptiles and mammals?
a. marsupials
b. monotremes
c. primates
d. therapsids
a. insectsb. carrionc. plants
d. meat
Chapter 33: Animal Behavior
1. What is the most likely reason for the dip in population shown in Figure 33-1?
a. sickness
b. hibernation
c. migration
d. habitat destruction
2. What appears to be the trigger for this fluctuation in population shown in Figure 33-1?
a. learned behavior
b. moisture
c. temperature
d. sunlight
3. When a male sea lion patrols the area of beach where
his female sea lions rest, he is displaying _____.
a. territorial behavior
b. pecking order
c. habituation
d. circadian rhythm
4. Predict the population of the organisms shown in Figure 33-1 for February of the next year?
5. Which area of the world would be a poor choice to transplant the population shown in Figure 33-1?
a. about 100
b. almost zeroc. about 50
d. about 75
a. Hawaii b. the Midwestc. Iceland
d. Florida
6. Which of these is an example of imprinting?
a. Young ducklings follow their mother.
b. A chimpanzee searches for a longer pole to reach for a distant fruit.
c. Your cat rubs against your ankles when you open a can of cat food.
d. A bird makes a nest of grasses and twigs.
7. Animal communication can occur through _____.
a. all of these
b. smells
c. sounds
d. touches
8. Which biologist first demonstrated conditioning in
dogs?
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Dimitri Mendeleev
c. Bruno Huber
d. Ivan Pavlov
9. According to Figure 33-2, which animal would be most likely to solve a problem?
10.According to Figure 33-2, which animal has no instinctive behavior?
a. shark
b. ostrich
c. rat
d. planaria
a. parameciumb. earthworm
c. gnat
d. leech
Chapter 34: Protection, Support, and Locomotion
1. Which type of muscle is labeled III in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 34-4?
a. cardiac
b. filamentc. smooth
d. skeletal
2. Which type of muscle is labeled II in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 34-4?
a. filament
b. skeletal c. smooth
d. cardiac
3. Which portion of skin shown in Figure 34-2 is where a pimple forms?
a. hair follicle
b. sweat gland
c. subcutaneous layer
d. oil gland
4. Which type of muscle makes up the heart?
a. all of these
b. smooth
c. cardiac
d. skeletal
5. Identify the ball-and-socket joints in Figure 34-3.
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. A
6. Which joints in Figure 34-3 do not move?
a. B
b. D
c. A
d. C
7. Which portion of skin shown in Figure 34-2 contains sense receptors?
a. dead epidermis
b. dermis
c. epidermis
d. subcutaneous layer
8. Which type of muscle is labeled I in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 34-4?
a. smooth
b. cardiac
c. filament
d. skeletal
9. Which portion of skin shown in Figure 34-2 changes when you get a suntan?
a. dermis
b. subcutaneous layer
c. epidermis
d. dead epidermis
10.Which area shown in Figure 34-3 is not involved in the production of blood cells?
a. B
b. A
c. D
d. C
Chapter 35: The Digestive and Endocrine Systems 1. What is not easily accounted for in Figure 35-2?
a. oils
b. sugar
c. water
d. proteins
2. In Figure 35-1, where is stomach acid neutralized?
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. A
3. In Figure 35-1, where does digestion first take place?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D
4. In Figure 35-1, which part has the lowest pH?
a. B
b. D
c. A
d. C
5. Which of the main nutrients is most represented in the food groups shown in Figure 35-2?
a. fats
b. vitamins
c. proteins
d. carbohydrates
6. What type of system is shown in Figure 35-3?
a. negative feedbackb. reverse feedback
c. anti feedback
d. positive feedback
7. Which of the main nutrients is least represented in the food groups shown in Figure 35-2?
a. proteins
b. vitamins
c. carbohydrates
d. fats
8. What is likely to have triggered hormone production shown in Figure 35-3?
a. a decrease in the body chemical
b. an increase in the body chemical
c. a total lack of the body chemical
d. the presence of the body chemical
9. In Figure 35-1, when does food normally cease being liquid?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
10.In Figure 35-1, where is bile produced?
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. A
Chapter 36: The Nervous System
1. What is the path of a voluntary impulse in Figure 36-2?
a. C-B-A-B-C
b. C-A-C
c. C-D-C
d. C-B-C
2. Why is the heavy pressure sensor located where it is
shown in Figure 36-5?
a. because heavy pressure must push lower in the skin
b. because heavy pressure is really only felt in the epidermis
c. because heavy pressure is not that important
d. because heavy pressure is more damaging than light pressure
3. What labeled part of Figure 36-2 is not part of the peripheral nervous system?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D
4. Why are the heat sensors located just under the epidermis in Figure 36-5?
a. so heat can be easily ignored
b. because heat is hard to sense
c. because heat isn’t damaging to nerves
d. so heat can be sensed fast
5. Which part of Figure 36-3 is affected most by drugs?
a. Db. Ac. Bd. C
6. What is the path of a reflex impulse in Figure 36-2?
a. C-D-C
b. C-B-A-B-C
c. C-B-C
d. C-A-C
7. Where do the neurotransmitters end up in Figure 36-3?
a. in the synaptic space
b. in the axon
c. outside of myelin sheath
d. in the dendrite
8. Where is the nerve located in all the organs shown in Figure 36-4?
a. near the surface
b. in the skin
c. in different places
d. relatively deep in the body
9. In which direction is the flow of calcium ions in Figure
36-3?
a. towards dendrite
b. into synaptic space
c. towards axon
d. outside of myelin sheath
10.What is the possible explanation for the location of the nerves in Figure 36-4?
a. so they can be near the stimulus
b. so they will be closer to the brain
c. so they can feel the outside air
d. so they are protected
Chapter 37: Respiration, Circulation, and Excretion
1. Approximately what is the gas concentration at the
point marked X in Figure 37-3 if it is at a high pressure?
a. less oxygen, more carbon dioxide
b. less oxygen, less carbon dioxide
c. more oxygen, less carbon dioxide
d. more oxygen, more carbon dioxide
2. What is the destination of blood from B in Figure 37-5?
a. the body
b. the left lung
c. both lungs
d. the heart
3. Why is blood pumped through D before B in Figure 37-5?
a. to enrich it with water
b. to enrich it with oxygen
c. to enrich it with blood cells
d. to enrich it with carbon dioxide
4. Which type of blood cell can the specimen shown in Figure 37-4 donate to with no harm?
a. III
b. all of them
c. II
d. I
5. What would happen to the diaphragm in Figure 37-3 during a cough?
a. it would flutter
b. it would relax
c. it would remain still
d. it would move up rapidly
6. Which blood cell can the specimen shown in Figure 37-
4 be given with no harm?
a. III
b. II
c. I and II
d. I
7. Which of the following is true of breathing?
a. all of these
b. It's an involuntary process.
c. It's a homeostatic process.
d. It's a coordinated process.
8. How is the blood located in the vein at C in Figure 37-5 different than the blood in all other veins of the body?
a. it is rich with oxygen
b. it doesn’t reach the heart
c. it doesn’t reach the lung
d. it is rich with carbon dioxide
order to inhale?
a. expand and go higher
b. expand and lower
c. flatten and go higher
d. flatten and lower
10.What antigens does Sample I shown in Figure 37-4 have?
a. B
b. neither
c. A
d. both
9. How would the diaphragm change in Figure 37-3 in
Chapter 38: Reproduction and Development
1. When FSH reaches the testes, it causes the production
of _____.
a. LH
b. secondary sex characteristics
c. sperm cells
d. testosterone
2. The remains of the placenta and embryonic
membranes that are expelled during birth are called the _____.
a. umbilical cord
b. cervix
c. afterbirth
d. amniotic fluid
3. The menstrual cycle begins during _____.
a. puberty
b. infancy
c. childhood
d. adulthood
4. _____ is the process by which a baby is pushed out of
the uterus and passes out of the mother's body.
a. Expulsion
b. Birth
c. Dilation
d. Labor
5. What stage of the menstrual cycle is characterized by
the event labeled A in Figure 38-3?
a. corpus luteum formation
b. fertilization
c. ovulation
d. flow
6. Females stop releasing eggs and hormone secretions
slow during _____.
a. menopause
b. ovulation
c. fertilization
d. puberty
7. During which stage of growth do humans begin to
crawl and walk?
a. adolescence
b. none of these
c. childhood
d. infancy
8. When did the structure labeled B in Figure 38-3 start to
form?
a. before birth
b. at the start of the menstrual cycle
c. at puberty
d. in infancy
9. In the menstrual cycle, on what day does the flow
stage begin?
a. day 1
b. day 14
c. day 5
d. day 28
10.The fluid that provides energy for the sperm cells
comes from the _____.
a. seminal vesicles
b. bulbourethral glands
c. prostate gland
d. urethra
Chapter 39: Immunity From Disease 1. Which cell in Figure 39-4 causes pus?
a. A
b. neither
c. B
d. both
2. A person with AIDS is susceptible to all kinds of
infectious diseases because HIV _____.
a. causes antibody production
b. causes an increase of antigens
c. weakens the immune system
d. destroys pathogens
3. Which cell in Figure 39-4 causes swelling?
a. B
b. both
c. A
d. neither
4. In Figure 39-2, B is an example of _____.
a. exodemic
b. epidemic
c. endemic
d. pandemic
5. Which cell in Figure 39-4 has a nucleus?
a. B
b. neither
c. A
d. both
6. A vaccine is developed for A in Figure 39-2. What will happen to the graph?
a. the number of infections will increase
b. it will first spike, then decrease
c. it will become an epidemic
d. the number of infections will drop to zero eventually
7. What is not present in Figure 39-3?
a. antibiotics
b. pus
c. histamine
d. white blood cells
8. In Figure 39-2, A is an example of _____.
a. epidemic
b. endemic
c. exodemic
d. pandemic
a. it is a rare disease
b. it is accurate
c. it only spikes periodically
d. it has existed for decades
10.Which cell in Figure 39-4 destroys invaders by consuming them?
a. B
b. neither
c. A
d. both
9. You read a report that says that the pathogen
responsible for A in Figure 39-2 is highly infective and lethal. Why is this inaccurate?
