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Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 [email protected] www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen Only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank.
Correct Method () Wrong Method ()
9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
Important Instructions /
Form Number :
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2019
LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
Test Type : Unit Test Test # 03 Test Pattern : NEET-UG
TEST DATE : 05- 08 - 2018
*0999DMD310318003*Paper Code
(0999DMD310318003)
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-1/35
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. Find the maximum force for which both the block
will move with same acceleration.
8kg
4kg
F=0.4
smooth
(1) 16 N (2) 32 N (3) 48 N (4) 8 N
2. Find the minimum value of m that should placed
on 20 kg, so that system remain at rest.
(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg
(3) 30 kg (4) 40 kg
3. The tension in the string which connected the
blocks as shown in the following figure.
4 kg 6 kg 60º
40 N
(1) 8 N (2) 16 N
(3) 20 N (4) 12 N
4. Three blocks of masses 4kg, 6kg and 8kg are
hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The tension
in the string connecting 8kg and 4kg block is
6kg
8kg
4kg
(1) 4 N (2) 6 N
(3) 160
3 N (4)
80
3 N
1.
8kg
4kg
F=0.4
smooth
(1) 16 N (2) 32 N (3) 48 N (4) 8 N
2. 20 kg m
(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg
(3) 30 kg (4) 40 kg
3.
4 kg 6 kg 60º
40 N
(1) 8 N (2) 16 N
(3) 20 N (4) 12 N
4. 4kg, 6kg 8kg 8kg 4kg -
6kg
8kg
4kg
(1) 4 N (2) 6 N
(3) 160
3 N (4)
80
3 N
TOPIC : Laws of Motion and Friction, Capacitors.
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-2/35
5. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled
along a smooth horizontal surface. The masses of
the blocks and tension in one string are given.
The pulling force F is :-
8 kg 6 kg 4 kg 2kg
F
60º 6N
(1) 12 N (2) 6 N
(3) 40 N (4) 20 N
6. A cricket ball of mass 500 g collides with a bat
with speed 15 m/s and returns with the same speed
within 0.01 second. The force acted on bat is :-
(1) 750 N (2) 1500 N
(3) 500 N (4) 1000 N
7. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other
on a table. Each coin has a mass m. The reaction
of the 4th coin (counted from the bottom) on the
5th coin is :-
(1) 4 mg (2) 5 mg (3) 6 mg (4) 7 mg
8. A force-time graph for the motion of a body is
shown in the figure. The change in the momentum
of the body between zero to 10 sec is :-
t(s)
F(N)
1
0
2
810
(1) zero
(2) 4 kg-m/sec
(3) 6 kg-m/sec
(4) 10 kg-m/sec
9. A block of mass 8 kg is at rest on a rough inclined
plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of net
force exerted by the surface on the block will be:-
8kg
37º
(1) zero (2) 48N (3) 64N (4) 80N
5.
F
8 kg 6 kg 4 kg 2kg
F
60º 6N
(1) 12 N (2) 6 N
(3) 40 N (4) 20 N
6. 500 g 15 m/s
0.01
(1) 750 N (2) 1500 N
(3) 500 N (4) 1000 N
7.
m
-
(1) 4 mg (2) 5 mg (3) 6 mg (4) 7 mg
8.
10 -
t(s)
F(N)
1
0
2
810
(1) zero
(2) 4 kg-m/sec
(3) 6 kg-m/sec
(4) 10 kg-m/sec
9. 8 kg
8kg
37º
(1) (2) 48N (3) 64N (4) 80N
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-3/35
10. A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane.
The body is given force F = 10N horizontally as
shown. The magnitude of net normal reaction on
the body is :-
45º
m=1kg
F=10N
(1) 10 2 N (2) 10
N2
(3) 10 N (4) None of these
11. In the figure shown 'P' is a plate on which a wedge
B is placed and on B a block A of mass m is
placed. The plate is suddenly removed and system
of B and A is allowed to fall under gravity.
Neglecting any force due to air on A and B, the
normal force on A due to B is :-
(1) mg
cos
(2) mg cos
(3) zero
(4) 2mg
cos
12. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to
remain in equilibrium, the angle should be:-
m m
2m
(1) 0º (2) 30º
(3) 45º (4) 60º
10. 1 10N :-
45º
m=1kg
F=10N
(1) 10 2 N (2) 10
N2
(3) 10 N (4) 11. 'P'
(wedge) B B m A A BB A A B :-
(1) mg
cos
(2) mg cos
(3)
(4) 2mg
cos
12. :-
m m
2m
(1) 0º (2) 30º
(3) 45º (4) 60º
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-4/35
13. There are four forces acting at a point P produced
by strings as shown in figure, point P is at rest.
The forces F1 and F
2 are respectively :-
90º F1
F2
1N45º45º
2N
P
(1) 1 3
N, N2 2
(2) 3 1
N, N2 2
(3) 1 1
N, N2 2
(4) 3 3
N, N2 2
14. A ball is suspended on a thread from the ceiling
of a car. The brakes are applied and the speed of
car changes from 5 m/sec to 5/3 m/sec during the
time interval of 3 seconds. The angle that the
thread will deviate from vertical.
(1) 1 1tan
9
(2) 1 8tan
9
(3) 1 1sin
9
(4) 1 1
cos9
15. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. Force P
is applied at one end of rope. The force which the
rope exerts on the block is :-
(1) P
(M m) (2) P
M(m M)
(3) PM
(m M) (4) PM
(M m)
16. Three blocks are connected as shown in figure on
a horizontal frictionless table. If m1 = 1kg,
m2 = 8kg, m
3 = 27 kg and T
3 = 36N, T
2 will be :-
m1 m2 m3T3T2T1
(1) 18 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 3.375 N
(4) 1.75 N
13. P P F
1 F
2
:-
90º F1
F2
1N45º45º
2N
P
(1) 1 3
N, N2 2
(2) 3 1
N, N2 2
(3) 1 1
N, N2 2
(4) 3 3
N, N2 2
14. 3 5 5/3
(1) 1 1tan
9
(2) 1 8tan
9
(3) 1 1sin
9
(4) 1 1
cos9
15. M m P :-
(1) P
(M m)(2)
P
M(m M)
(3) PM
(m M) (4) PM
(M m)
16. m
1 = 1kg, m
2 = 8kg,
m3 = 27 kg T
3 = 36N T
2 :-
m1 m2 m3T3T2T1
(1) 18 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 3.375 N
(4) 1.75 N
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-5/35
17. A block pressed against the vertical wall is in
equilibrium. The minimum coefficient of friction
is:-
mmg
mg2
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2
(3) 0.5 (4) none of these
18. A box of mass m kg is placed on the rear side of
an open truck accelerating at 4 m/s2. The
coefficient of friction between the box and the
surface below it is 0.4. The net acceleration of
the box with respect to the truck is zero. The value
of m is :- [g = 10m/s2]
(1) 4 kg
(2) 8 kg
(3) 9.78 kg
(4) It could be any value
19. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough
inclined plane as shown in figure. The block
is tied up by a horizontal string which has
a tension of 50N. The coefficient of friction
between the surfaces of contact is
(g = 10m/s2)
M
T
450
(1) 1
2(2)
2
3
(3) 3
4(4)
1
4
20. A block of mass 4 kg rests on an inclined plane.
The inclination of the plane is gradually increased.
it is found that when the inclination is 3 in
5 3
sin5
, the block just begins to slide down
the plane. The coefficient of friction between the
block and the plane is :-
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.75
17. :-
mmg
mg2
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2
(3) 0.5 (4) 18. 4 m/s2
m
0.4
m :-[g = 10m/s2]
(1) 4 kg
(2) 8 kg
(3) 9.78 kg
(4)
19. 15
50N
(g = 10 /2)
M
T
450
(1) 1
2(2)
2
3
(3) 3
4(4)
1
4
20. 4
3
sin5
:-
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.75
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-6/35
21. A uniform rope of mass 1.0 kg is connected with
a box of mass 2.0 kg, which is placed on a smooth
horizontal surface. The free end of the rope is
pulled horizontally by a force 6 N. Find the
tension at the midpoint of the rope.
F
(1) 4 N (2) 1 N (3) 5 N (4) 2 N
22. A force acts on a block as shown in figure. Find
time when block loses contact with surface.
=0.4
F=10t
10kg
37°
(1) t = 25/3 sec (2) t = 50/3 sec
(3) t = 100/3 sec (4) t = 50 sec
23. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the
help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as
shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the
block is :
(1) v (2) v
sin (3) v sin (4)
vcos
24. A weight can be hung in any of following four
ways by using same string. In which case is the
string more likely is break
w
(A)
w
(B)
w
(C)
w
(D)
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
21. 1.0 kg
2.0 kg
6 N
F
(1) 4 N (2) 1 N (3) 5 N (4) 2 N
22.
=0.4
F=10t
10kg
37°
(1) t = 25/3 sec (2) t = 50/3 sec
(3) t = 100/3 sec (4) t = 50 sec
23.
v
(1) v (2) v
sin (3) v sin (4)
vcos
24.
w
(A)
w
(B)
w
(C)
w
(D)
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-7/35
25. A block is kept on a fixed smooth wedge whose
vertical section is a curve 2x
y3
as shown in
figure where x represents horizontal direction andy represents vertical direction. When released
from a point where 1
4 3y , what will be its
acceleration? (g = 10 m/s2)
x(m)
y(m)
fixed
(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 25 3 m / s
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) Can’t be determined
26. In the given circuit, ratio of charge stored in the
capacitors C, 2C, 3C, 4C, 5C is :-
4C5C
3C
2CC
(1) 3 : 4 : 9 : 8 : 25 (2) 3 : 4 : 8 : 9 : 25
(3) 3 : 9 : 4 : 8 : 15 (4) 4 : 3 : 9 : 8 : 25
27. Find the equivalent capacitance between A and B:-1µF 2µF
1µF 1µF 2µF
1µF2µF
1µFB
A
(1)3
7 F (2) 1 F (3)
4
5 F (4)
2
5 F
28. The charge on the capacitors of capacitance 10µF
and 24µF steady state will be :
10µF
24µF12V
4
(1) 0 µC, 0 µC (2) 12 µC, 24 µC
(3) 120 µC, 0 µC (4) 120 µC, 120 µC
25.
2x
y3
x
y
1
4 3y
(g = 10 m/s2)
x(m)
y(m)
fixed
(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 25 3 m / s
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 26. C, 2C, 3C, 4C, 5C
:-
4C5C
3C
2CC
(1) 3 : 4 : 9 : 8 : 25 (2) 3 : 4 : 8 : 9 : 25
(3) 3 : 9 : 4 : 8 : 15 (4) 4 : 3 : 9 : 8 : 25
27. A B :-1µF 2µF
1µF 1µF 2µF
1µF2µF
1µFB
A
(1)3
7 F (2) 1 F (3)
4
5 F (4)
2
5 F
28. 10µF 24µF :-
10µF
24µF12V
4
(1) 0 µC, 0 µC (2) 12 µC, 24 µC
(3) 120 µC, 0 µC (4) 120 µC, 120 µC
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-8/35
29. In the circuit shown in figure, if the switch S is
closed at t = 0, then the capacitor charges with a
time constant.C R
2R
E S
(1) RC (2) 3RC
(3)2
RC3
(4) 2
RC ln3
30. Find I1 and I
2 at steady states :-
S
R2 R3
C2
I1
I2
R1
t=0
C1
(1)1 2
E,0
R R
(2) 1 2 1 3
E E,
R R R R
(3)1 2 2 3
E E,
R R R R
(4) 1 3
E0,
R R
31. The equivalent capacitance of the combinatio
shown in Figure is :-
(1) C (2) 2C (3) 3
2C (4)
C
232. During charging and discharging of a capacitor:-
(1) Current flows in the circuit, which is constant
during charging or discharging duration
(2) No current flows in the circuit
(3) Current flows in the circuit and is varying with
time
(4) During charging current is constant but while
discharging current is variable
29. t = 0
C R
2R
E S
(1) RC (2) 3RC
(3)2
RC3
(4) 2
RC ln3
30. I1 I
2 :-
S
R2 R3
C2
I1
I2
R1
t=0
C1
(1)1 2
E,0
R R
(2) 1 2 1 3
E E,
R R R R
(3)1 2 2 3
E E,
R R R R
(4) 1 3
E0,
R R
31. :-
(1) C (2) 2C (3) 3
2C (4)
C
2
32. :-(1)
(2) (3)
(4)
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-9/35
33. Find capacitance across AB :-
AC C C B
(1)C
3(2) 3C
(3) C (4) None of these
34. Match the pairs :
A B C D
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii)
35. If the distance between parallel plates of a
capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is
doubled then the capacitance will become :-
(1) Half
(2) Two times
(3) Four times
(4) Remains the same
36. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 60V
is applied across AB. The potential difference
between the point M and N is :-
(1) 10 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 30 V
37. The equivalent capacitance of the system of
capacitors between A and B as shown in the figure.
(1) 7
6C
(2) 1.6 C
(3) C
(4) None
33. A B :-
AC C C B
(1)C
3(2) 3C
(3) C (4) 34. :
A B C D
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii)
35. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
36. AB 60 V M N (1) 10 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 30 V
37. AB
(1) 7
6C
(2) 1.6 C
(3) C
(4)
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-10/35
38. In the given circuit, a charge of +80 C is given
to the upper plate of the 4F capacitor. Then in
the steady state, the charge on the upper plate of
the 3F capacitor is :
2 F 3 F
4 F+80 C
(1) + 32 C (2) + 40C
(3) +48C (4) + 80C
39. Find the equivalent capacitance across A & B
(1) 3
28f (2)
2
15F
(3) 15 F (4) none
40. Four identical capacitors are connected in serieswith a battery of emf 10V. The point X is earthed,
then the potential of point A is–
A B
C C C X C
+ -10V
(1) 10 V (2) 7.5 V
(3) –7.5 V (4) 0 V
41. If potential of A is 10V, then potential of B is-
1 FB
1 F
1 F
10VA
(1) 25
V3
(2) 50
V3
(3) 100
V3
(4) 50 V
38. 4 F
+ 80 C 3F
2 F 3 F
4 F+80 C
(1) + 32 C (2) + 40C
(3) +48C (4) + 80C
39. AB
(1) 3
28f (2)
2
15F
(3) 15 F (4)
40. 10V X A
A B
C C C X C
+ -10V
(1) 10 V (2) 7.5 V
(3) –7.5 V (4) 0 V
41. A10VB
1 FB
1 F
1 F
10VA
(1) 25
V3
(2) 50
V3
(3) 100
V3
(4) 50 V
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-11/35
42. In the circuit shown, the energy stored in 1F
capacitor is
(1) 40 J (2) 64 J (3) 32 J (4) none
43. In the transient current circuit shown, the time
constant is :
(1) 3
5RC (2)
2
5RC (3) RC
4
7 (4) RC
3
7
44. In the circuit shown in figure.
5012V
10µF
100
(1) In steady state, there is no current in the
100 resistor
(2) In steady state, the current in 100 resistor is
0.08 A
(3) In steady state, there is no current in the 50
resistor
(4) In steady state, the current in 50 resistor is
0.04 A
45. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to V
volt source, then the energy stored is equal to-
(1) CV (2) 12
nCV2 (3) CV2 (4) 12n
CV2
42. 1F
(1) 40 J (2) 64 J (3) 32 J (4)
43.
(1) 3
5RC (2)
2
5RC (3) RC
4
7 (4) RC
3
7
44.
5012V
10µF
100
(1) 100
(2) 100 0.08 A
(3) 50
(4) 50 0.04 A
45. n V
(1) CV (2) 12
nCV2 (3) CV2 (4) 12n
CV2
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-12/35
46. Correct order of solubility is
(1)LiHCO3 < NaHCO
3 < KHCO
3
(2)MgSO4 < CaSO4 < BaSO4
(3)NaCl < KCl < RbCl
(4)Be(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2
47. During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron
adds on which one of the following orbitals ?
(1) * orbital (2) orbital
(3) * orbital (4) orbital
48. The correct stability order for N2 and its given
ions is :-
(1) 22 2 2 2N N N N (2) 2
2 2 2 2N N N N
(3) 22 2 2 2N N N N (4) 2
2 2 2 2N N N N
49. Select incorrect statement :-
(1) O3 and O22– both are diamagnetic
(2) Out of O2, O2+, O3 least O–O bond length
is in O2+
(3) Out of O2, O
2+, O
2–, only O
2 is paramagnetic
(4) Out of O2, O
2+, O
2–, maximum spin
magnetic moment is of O2
50. Which of the following is/are correct order :-
(A) Thermal stability = BeSO4 < MgSO
4 < CaSO
4
< SrSO4
(B) Melting point = NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl
(C) Solubility = LiOH < NaOH
(D) Lattice energy = KF > KCl > KBr > KI
(1) A and B (2) B and D
(3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C and D
51. In which of the following hydration energy is
higher than lattice energy ?
(1) MgSO4 (2) RaSO4 (3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4
52. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-
(1) Na2O
2 < K
2O
2 < Rb
2O
2 < Cs
2O
2
Thermal stability order
(2) LiHCO3 < NaHCO
3 < KHCO
3 < RbHCO
3
< CsHCO3 Thermal stability order
(3) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI mpt order
(4) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl
3 mpt order
46. (1)LiHCO
3 < NaHCO
3 < KHCO
3
(2)MgSO4 < CaSO4 < BaSO4
(3)NaCl < KCl < RbCl
(4)Be(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2
47. O2 O2–
?(1) * orbital (2) orbital
(3) * orbital (4) orbital
48. N2 :-
(1) 22 2 2 2N N N N (2) 2
2 2 2 2N N N N
(3) 22 2 2 2N N N N (4) 2
2 2 2 2N N N N
49. :-(1) O3 O2
2– (2) O2, O2
+ O3 O–O O2+
(3) O
2, O
2+, O
2– O
2
(4) O2, O
2+ O
2–
O2
50. :-(A) = BeSO
4 < MgSO
4 < CaSO
4
< SrSO4
(B) = NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl
(C) = LiOH < NaOH
(D) = KF > KCl > KBr > KI
(1) A and B (2) B and D
(3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C and D
51. ?(1) MgSO4 (2) RaSO4 (3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4
52. (1) Na
2O
2 < K
2O
2 < Rb
2O
2 < Cs
2O
2
(2) LiHCO
3 < NaHCO
3 < KHCO
3 < RbHCO
3
< CsHCO3
(3) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI (4) NaCl > MgCl
2 > AlCl
3
TOPIC : Electrochemistry : Redox reactions, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivityvariation of conductivity with concentration, kohlrausch’s Law, electrolysis and Laws of electrolysis (elementaryidea), dry cell- electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells; lead accumulator, EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential,Relation between Gibbs energy change and EMF of a cell, fuel cells; corrosion. Chemical Bonding and MolecularStructure : Kossel Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding, Valence electrons, ionic bond, covalent bond, bondparameters, Lewis structure, polar character of covalent bond, valence bond theory, resonance, geometry of molecules,VSEPR theory, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals and shapes of some simple molecules, molecularorbital theory of homonuclear diatomic molecules (qualitative idea only). Hydrogen bond,Dipole moment.
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-13/35
53. Which of the following diagram show correct
change in the ionic character of given compounds
according to Fajans rule ?
(1)
RbCl
Increase
Increase
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
(2)
RbClIncrease
Increase
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
(3)
RbCl
Increase Increase
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
(4)
RbCl
Increase
Decrease
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
54. The phosphate of a metal has the formula
MHPO4. The formula of its chloride would be:-
(1) MCl (2) MCl2 (3) MCl3 (4) M2Cl2
55. Which compound of sulphur is formed in
second excited state :-
(1) SF2 (2) SF4 (3) SF5 (4) SF6
56. Which compound forms linear polymer due to
H–bond :-
(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) HF (4) HCl
57. The vapour pressure of o-nitrophenol at any
given temperature is predicted to be–
(1) higher than that of p-nitrophenol
(2) lower than that of p-nitrophenol
(3) same as that of p-nitrophenol
(4) higher or lower depending upon the size of
the vessel
58. The correct order of Cl–O bond order is :
(1) ClO3– < ClO
4– < ClO
2– < ClO–
(2) ClO– < ClO4– < ClO3
– < ClO2–
(3) ClO– < ClO2
– < ClO3
– < ClO4
–
(4) ClO4– < ClO
3– < ClO
2– < ClO–
59. Which set contain molecules with = 0 :
(1) SF4,
Cl
Cl
, benzene
(2)Borazine,
OH
OH
, BF3
(3) ClF3, SiF4, SO3
(4) Borazine,
Cl
Cl Cl
, SO3
53. ?
(1)
RbCl
Increase
Increase
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
(2)
RbClIncrease
Increase
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
(3)
RbCl
Increase Increase
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
(4)
RbCl
Increase
Decrease
Decrease
Decrease
BaCl2 ZnCl2
CaCl2
54. MHPO4 :-(1) MCl (2) MCl2
(3) MCl3
(4) M2Cl
2
55. :-(1) SF2 (2) SF4
(3) SF5 (4) SF6
56. H– :-(1) H
2O (2) NH
3(3) HF (4) HCl
57. – (1) (2) (3) (4)
58. Cl–O (1) ClO
3– < ClO
4– < ClO
2– < ClO–
(2) ClO– < ClO4
– < ClO3
– < ClO2
–
(3) ClO– < ClO2
– < ClO3
– < ClO4
–
(4) ClO4– < ClO3
– < ClO2– < ClO–
59. = 0 :
(1) SF4,
Cl
Cl
,
(2) ,
OH
OH
, BF3
(3) ClF3, SiF
4, SO
3
(4) ,
Cl
Cl Cl
, SO3
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-14/35
60. If compound MX4 has µ = 0 then most probable
geometry will be :-
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) Square bipyramidal
(3) Pentagonal bipyramidal (4) distorted tetrahedral
61. Select systematic diagram which represent the
correct change in the Bond angle in the hybrid
orbital of beryllium :-
(1)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–Increase
BeCl2
Decrease Increase
(2)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–Increase
BeCl2
Decrease Decrease
(3)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–
BeCl2
Decrease Increase
Decrease
(4)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–
BeCl2
DecreaseIncrease
Decrease
62. NH2–, NH3 and NH4
+ do not show similarity in
the following :-
(1) Hybridisation state of nitrogen
(2) No. of lone pair of electrons
(3) Atomic no. of N
(4) Type of overlapping in N–H bond.
63.Sx
OF
FO
IyFF
FO
Compare x and y bond angles for the above
given molecules :-
(1) y > x (2) x > y
(3) x = y (4) None of these
64. In which of the following species the hybrid
state of the central atom is same?
(1) SO2, SO
3(2) SO
3, SO
42–
(3) SO2, SO
32– (4) CH
4, HCOOH
65. The stage of hybridization of central atom in dimer
of BH3 and BeH
2 is :-
(1) sp2, sp2 (2) sp3, sp2 (3) sp3, sp3 (4) sp2, sp3
60. MX4 µ = 0
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
61. :-
(1)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–Increase
BeCl2
Decrease Increase
(2)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–Increase
BeCl2
Decrease Decrease
(3)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–
BeCl2
Decrease Increase
Decrease
(4)
BeCl42–
BeCl3–
BeCl2
DecreaseIncrease
Decrease
62. NH2
–, NH3 NH
4+
:-(1) (2) (3) N (4) N–H
63.Sx
OF
FO
IyFF
FO
x y (1) y > x (2) x > y
(3) x = y (4) 64.
(1) SO
2, SO
3(2) SO
3, SO
42–
(3) SO2, SO
32– (4) CH
4, HCOOH
65. BH3 BeH
2
:-(1) sp2, sp2 (2) sp3, sp2 (3) sp3, sp3 (4) sp2, sp3
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-15/35
66. Nitrogen form N2, but phosphorous form P
2, but
it convert into P4, at a instant the reason is-
(1) Triple bond present between phosphorous atom
(2) p– p
bonding is weak
(3) p– p
bonding is strong
(4) Multiple bond form easily
67. Incorrect order of bond dissociation energy will be
(1) H – H > Cl – Cl > Br – Br
(2) Si – Si > C – C > H – H
(3) C - C > N – N > O – O
(4) H – Cl > H – Br > H – I
68. The shape of a molecule which has EB5L2
moleculer formula :-
{E = Central atom, B = Terminal atom, L = Lone pair}
(1) Square pyramidal (2) Pentagonal planar
(3) Octahedral (4) Pentagonal pyramidal
69. The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution
at 23oC is 0.012 ohm–1cm–1. The resistance of cell
containing the solution at the same temperature was
found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will be:-
(1) 0.142 cm–1 (2) 0.66 cm–1
(3) 0.918 cm–1 (4) 1.12 cm–1
70. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt
bridge because :-
(1) velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3
(2) velocity of NO3– is greater than that of K+
(3) velocity of both K+ & NO3– are nearly the same
(4) KNO3 is highly soluble in H
2O
71. Cu2+ + 2e– Cu. On increasing [Cu2+]
concentration, electrode potential :-
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Will remain unchanged
(4) First increases, then decreases
72. In the electrochemical cell
H2(g) 1atm | H+(1M) || Cu2+ (1M) | Cu(s)
which of the following statements is true :-
(1) H2 is cathode, Cu is anode
(2) Oxidation occurs at Cu electrode
(3) Reduction occurs at H2 electrode
(4) H2 is anode, Cu is cathode
73. If hydrogen electrode is dipped in two solutions
of pH = 3 & pH = 6 & salt bridge is connected,
the emf of resulting cell is :-
(1) 0.177 V (2) 0.3 V
(3) 0.052 V (4) 0.104 V
66. N2P
2
P4
(1) (2) p
– p
(3) p– p
(4) 67. -
(1) H – H > Cl – Cl > Br – Br
(2) Si – Si > C – C > H – H
(3) C - C > N – N > O – O
(4) H – Cl > H – Br > H – I
68. EB5L2 ?{E = , B = , L = e– }
(1) (2) (3) (4)
69. 0.1 N KCl 23oC 0.012 –1 –1 55 :-
(1) 0.142 cm–1 (2) 0.66 cm–1
(3) 0.918 cm–1 (4) 1.12 cm–1
70. KNO3
:-(1) K+ NO3
– (2) NO
3– K+
(3) K+ NO3
– (4) KNO
3
71. Cu2+ + 2e– Cu. [Cu2+]:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
72. H
2(g) 1atm | H+(1M) || Cu2+ (1M) | Cu(s)
:-(1) H
2 Cu
(2) Cu (3) H2 (4) H2 Cu
73. pH = 3 pH = 6 :-(1) 0.177 V (2) 0.3 V
(3) 0.052 V (4) 0.104 V
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-16/35
74. The potential of the cell for the reaction
M(s) + 2H+(1M) H2(g) (1atm) + M2+ (0.1M)
is 1.5V. The standard reduction potential for
M2+/M(s) couple is :-
(1) 0.1470 V (2) 1.470 V
(3) –1.470 V (4) None of these
75. The emf of the cell reaction
Ag | Ag+(0.1M) || Ag+(1M) | Ag at 298 K is :-
(1) 0.0059 V (2) 0.059 V
(3) 5.9 V (4) 0.59 V
76. When lead storage battery is charged :-
(1) Lead dioxide dissolves
(2) Sulphuric acid is regenerated
(3) The lead electrode becomes coated with lead
sulphate
(4) The amount of sulphuric acid decreases
77. An electrolytic cell contains solution of Ag2SO4
& has Platinum electrodes. A current is passed
until 1.6g of O2 is liberated at anode. The
amount of silver deposited at cathode would be:-
(1) 107.88 g (2) 1.6 g (3) 0.8g (4) 21.6 gm
78. E° values of Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn and Fe2+/Fe are
–2.37V, –0.76V and –0.44V respectively.
Which of the following statements is correct :-
(1) Zn will reduce Fe2+
(2) Zn will reduce Mg2+
(3) Mg oxidises Fe
(4) Zn oxidises Fe
79. If equivalent conductance of 1M benzoic acid is
12.8 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 & if the equivalent
conductances of benzoate ion & H+ ion at infinite
dilution are 42 & 288.42 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
respectively, then its degree of dissociation is:-
(1) 39% (2) 3.9% (3) 0.35% (4) 0.039%
80. Four alkali metals A, B, C & D have standard
electrode potentials –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 & 0.80 V
respectively. Which metal will be the most reactive:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
81. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode
at pH = 10 & 2HP = 1 atm will be :-
(1) 0.059 V (2) 0.59 V (3) 0.00 V (4) 0.51 V
82. Consider the cell given below :
Ag(s) / Ag || Cu2+/Cu(s)Ag + e– Ag ; E° = xCu2+ + 2e– Cu ; E° = y
E°Cell is :-
(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y – x (4) y – 2x
74. M(s) + 2H+(1M) H2(g) (1atm) + M2+ (0.1M)
1.5 VM2+/M(s) :-(1) 0.1470 V (2) 1.470 V
(3) –1.470 V (4) 75. Ag | Ag+(0.1M) || Ag+(1M) | Ag 298 K
:-(1) 0.0059 V (2) 0.059 V
(3) 5.9 V (4) 0.59 V
76. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
77. Ag2SO
4
1.6O2 :-(1) 107.88 (2) 1.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 21.6
78. Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn Fe2+/Fe E0 –
–2.37V, –0.76V –0.44V :-(1) Zn, Fe2+ (2) Zn, Mg2+ (3) Mg, Fe (4) Zn, Fe
79. 1M 12.8 –1 2 –1 H+
42
288.42 –1 2 –1 :-(1) 39% (2) 3.9% (3) 0.35% (4) 0.039%
80. A, B, C D –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 0.80 V :-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
81. pH = 10
2HP = 1 :-
(1) 0.059 V (2) 0.59 V (3) 0.00 V (4) 0.51 V
82. :-Ag(s) / Ag || Cu2+/Cu(s)Ag + e– Ag ; E° = xCu2+ + 2e– Cu ; E° = y
E°Cell
:-(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y – x (4) y – 2x
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-17/35
83. If the specific conductance of 1M H2SO
4 solution
is 26 × 10–2 S cm–1, then the equivalent conductivity
would be :-
(1) 1.3 × 102 S cm2 eq–1
(2) 1.6 × 102 S cm2 eq–1
(3) 13 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 mol–1
84. Pt |H2(1 atm)|H+(0.001 M)|| H+ (0.1 M) |H
2(1 atm)|
Pt. What will be the value of Ecell for this cell?
(1) 0.1182 V (2) –0.1182 V
(3) 0.0591 V (4) –0.0591 V
85. How many atoms of calcium will be deposited
from molten CaCl2 by a current of 25 milli
amperes flowing for 60 seconds :-
(1) 4.68 × 1018 (2) 4.68 × 1015
(3) 4.68 × 1012 (4) 4.68 × 109
86. On passing a current through molten KCl, 19.5 g
of potassium is deposited. If the same quantity of
electricity is passed through molten aluminium
chloride then the amount of aluminium deposited
will be :-
(1) 4.5 g (2) 9.0 g (3) 13.5 g (4) 18 g
87. Which of the following will increase the
voltage of the cell represented by the equation
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) Cu2+
(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(1) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ion
(2) Increase in the concentration of Cu2+ ion
(3) Increase in the dimension of Ag electrode
(4) Increase in the dimension of Cu electrode
88. On electricity flow the concentration of anode
solution in galvanic cell–
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) Remains constant (4) None of these
89. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of KI in
presence of platinum electrodes–
(a) Hydrogen gas is released at cathode.
(b) Oxygen gas is released at anode.
(c) pOH of solution decreases.
(d) There is deposition of potassium at cathode.
Choose the correct option from following
(1) a, b (2) only a (3) a, c (4) a, c, d
90. When an aqueous solution of sodium chloride
is electrolysed using platinum electrodes, the ions
discharged at electrodes are
(1) Na (2) Na Cl
(3) HCl (4) OH,Cl
83. 1M H2SO
4
26 × 10–2 S cm–1 :-
(1) 1.3 × 102 S cm2 –1
(2) 1.6 × 102 S cm2 –1
(3) 13 S cm2 –1
(4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 –1
84. Pt |H2(1 atm)|H+(0.001 M)|| H+ (0.1 M) |H
2(1
atm)| Pt. Ecell (1) 0.1182 V (2) –0.1182 V
(3) 0.0591 V (4) –0.0591 V
85. 25 CaCl2 60
:-(1) 4.68 × 1018 (2) 4.68 × 1015
(3) 4.68 × 1012 (4) 4.68 × 109
86. KCl 19.5 :-(1) 4.5 g (2) 9.0 g
(3) 13.5 g (4) 18 g
87. Cu(s) + 2Ag+
(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(1) Ag+ (2) Cu2+ (3) (4)
88. (1) (2) (3) (4)
89. KI (a) (b) (c) pOH (d) (1) a, b (2) a (3) a, c (4) a, c, d
90. (1) Na (2) Na Cl
(3) HCl (4) OH,Cl
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-18/35
91. The animals of which group are mostly
asymmetrical ?
(1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera
(3) Echinodermata (4) Ctenophora
92. Radial symmetry is shown by which set of
animals ?
(1) Porifera, Coelenterata, Ctenophora
(2) Coelenterata, Mollusca, Arthropoda
(3) Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Echinodermata
(4) Ctenophora, Porifera, Hemichordata
93. Identify the given diagram (a) and (b). Choose the
correct option, in which given animals represents
(a) and (b) :-
(a) (b)
(1) (a) Hydra; (b) Ctenoplana
(2) (a) Ctenoplana ; (b) Ascaris
(3) (a) Ascaris ; (b) Taenia
(4) (a) Fasciola ; (b) Obelia
94. The phylum Aschelminthes is :-
(1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Enterocoelomate (4) Schizocoelomate
95. In which animal, body is divided into segments
and serial repetit ion of at least few
organs/structures?
(1) Fasciola (2) Ascaris
(3) Hydra (4) Earthworm
96. The body of animals of phylum porifera shows :-
(1) Labour of division among cells
(2) Organs show great complexities
(3) Cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates
(4) Both (1) & (3)
91. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
92. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
93. (a) (b) (a) (b) :-
(a) (b)
(1) (a) ; (b) (2) (a) ; (b) (3) (a) ; (b) (4) (a) ; (b)
94. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
95. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
96. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (1) (3)
TOPIC : ANIMAL KINGDOM : Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate up to phyla level
and chordate up to classes level (three to five salient features and at least two examples). Structural Organisation
in Animals : Animal tissues; Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems (digestive, circulatory,
respiratory, nervous and reproductive) of an insect (cockroach). (Brief account only)
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003 LTS-19/35
97. Trypanosoma, which causes sleeping sickness
disease, is a :-
(1) A flagellated protozoan
(2) A ciliated protozoan
(3) A sporozoa protozoan
(4) An amoeboid protozoan
98. The oldest relatives of animals are :-
(1) Protista (2) Protozoans
(3) Slime moulds (4) Euglenoids
99. Longitudinal binary fission method is used for
reproduction by which animal ?
(1) Amoeba (2) Paramoecium
(3) Trypanosoma (4) Plasmodium
100. The path of water, in water canal system is :-
(1) Osculum Spongocoel Ostia
(2) Madreporite Ring canal Radial canal
(3) Ostia Spongocoel Osculum
(4) Ampulla Madreporite Radial canal
101. Fresh water sponge is :-
(1) Sycon (2) Euspongia
(3) Spongilla (4) Leucosolenia
102. Gastrovascular cavity is found in :-
(1) Sponges (2) Coelenterates
(3) Echinodermates (4) Arthropods
103. Choose the incorrect statement about ctenophores :-
(1) Radially symmetrical and diploblastic
(2) Body bears eight internal comb plates
(3) Light emission property
(4) External fertilisation and indirect development
104. Identify the given diagram and choose the option
which is not correct about it :-
(1) Body is dorsoventrally flat
(2) Triploblastic and Acoelomate
(3) Posses high regeneration power
(4) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and
excretion.
97. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
98. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
99. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
100. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
101. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
102. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
103. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
104. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
0999DMD310318003LTS-20/35
105. First time organ system level of organisation
occured in :-
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida (4) Coelenterata
106. Lateral appendages parapodia are found in :-
(1) Pheretima (2) Hirudinaria
(3) King crab (4) Nereis
107. Few characters are given below :-
(a) Radula
(b) Pseudocoelomate
(c) Closed circulatory
(d) Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion
(e) Dioecious
How many characters are correct for Nereis ?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
108. Metamerism is shown by which animal ?
(1) Tape worm (2) Wuchereria
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Ancylostoma
109. Economically important insect is :-
(1) Locusta (2) Culex
(3) Aedes (4) Bombyx
110. Gregarious pest is :-
(a) (b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (a) (2) (b) (3)(c) (4) (d)
111. Few points are given below :-
(a) Second largest phylum
(b) Chitinous exoskeleton
(c) Solid, double, ventral nerve cord
(d) Bilateral symmetrical
(e) Open circulatory system
How many points are incorrect for arthropoda
phylum ?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
105. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
106. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
107. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) 108. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
109. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
110. :-
(a) (b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)
111. :-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018
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112. "Aristotle's lantern" occurs in which class of
enchinodermata ?
(1) Echinoidea
(2) Asteroidea
(3) Holothuroidea
(4) Ophiuroidea
113. In mollusca gills perform the functions :-
(1) Respiration and circulation
(2) Circulation and excretion
(3) Excretion and respiration
(4) Excretion and reproduction
114. A file like rasping organ present in the mouth of
which animal ?
(1) Apis (2) Pila
(3) Ophiura (4) Echinus
115. The body of Balanoglossus is divided into :-
(1) Head, thorax, abdomen
(2) Head, collar, visceral mass
(3) Proboscis, collar, trunk
(4) Proboscis, head, visceral mass
116. Notochord occcurs through out the life and
through the length of body in :-
(1) Urochordata
(2) Hemichordata
(3) Cephalochordata
(4) Vertebrata
117. First complete chordate is :-
(1) Ascidia
(2) Herdmania
(3) Branchiostoma
(4) Petromyzon
118. Endostyle, which is homologous to thyroid gland,
is found in :-
(1) Urochordates
(2) Cyclostomates
(3) Cephalochordates
(4) Hemichordates
112. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
113. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
114. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
115. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
116. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
117.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
118. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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119. Identify the given diagram and choose the correct
option about it ?
(1) All members of the class are endoparasites.
(2) Their body bears 4-7 pair of gills
(3) They having sucking and circular mouth but
without jaws
(4) Body is devoid of scales and paired fins are
present
120. Read the option carefully and choose the correct
option for Scoliodon, Pristis and Trygon :-
(1) They have terminal mouth
(2) Notochord is persistent throughout life
(3) Skin is tough, without scales
(4) Air bladder is present
121. Which fish lives in marine but migrate for
spawing to fresh water ?
(1) Dog fish (2) Lamprey
(3) Saw fish (4) Sting ray
122. Which fish has bony endoskeleton ?
(1) Scoliodon
(2) Carcharodon
(3) Exocoetus
(4) Trygon
123. Few statements are given below for
osteichthyes fishes. Choose the incorrect
among given option :-
(1) It include both marine and fresh water fishes
(2) They have to swim constantly to avoid sinking
(3) They are mostly oviparous
(4) Four pairs of gills with operculum
124. In sea horse, how many pair of gills are found ?
(1) 6–15 pairs
(2) 4 pairs
(3) 5-7 pairs
(4) They don't have gills
125. The body of frog is divisible into :-
(1) Head and trunk
(2) Head, trunk and tail
(3) Head, neck, trunk and tail
(4) Proboscis, collar and trunk
119. ?
(1) (2) 4-7 (3)
(4)
120. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
121. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
122. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
123. :-(1)
(2) (3) (4)
124. ?
(1) 6–15 (2) 4 (3) 5-7 (4)
125. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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126. Dicondylic skull is found in :-
(1) Shark (2) Rana
(3) Calotes (4) Columba
127. What is common between amphibians and reptiles?
(1) Body is divided into 4 parts
(2) Scales are present on body
(3) Both are homeothermous
(4) Tympanum represents the ear
128. Poikilothermic animal with 4 chambered heart is :-
(1) Psittacula
(2) Crocodilus
(3) Hemidactylus
(4) Balaenoptera
129. Calotes belongs to which class ?
(1) Chordata
(2) Vertebrata
(3) Amphibia
(4) Reptilia
130. In which animal air sacs are connected to lungs ?
(1) Chelone
(2) Chameleon
(3) Crocodilus
(4) Corvus
131. The characteristic feature of Aves is :-
(1) Pneumatic bones
(2) Laws are modified into beak
(3) Skin is dry, without glands
(4) Presence of feathers
132. The skin of mammals is unique because :-
(1) Possess hair
(2) Presence of scales
(3) Presence of nails on digits
(4) glands on skin
133. The name of common dolphin is :-
(1) Balaenoptera
(2) Equus
(3) Delphinus
(4) Pteropus
134. The character shared by both aves and mammals, is:-
(1) Dry skin without glands
(2) Digestive tract has crop and gizzard
(3) Homoiothermous body
(4) Oviparity
126. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
127. ?
(1) 4 (2) (3) (4)
128. 4 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
129. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
130. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
131. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
132. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
133. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
134. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
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135. Choose the correct option without any exception
in their class :-
(1) Aves – dry skin
(2) Mammalia – Hairs on the body
(3) Aves – Ability to fly
(4) Mammalia – Diaphragm improves respirations
136. Identify the epithelium given below and the
concerned location.
(1) Cuboidal epithelium : Ducts of glands
(2) Columnar epithelium : Inner wall of stomach
(3) Squamous epithelium: wall of blood vessel
(4) Squamous epithelium: outer wall of
bowman's capsule
137. Select the incorrect statement about squamous
epithelium :-
(1) It is also known as pavement epithelium
(2) It contain cells with irregular boundries
(3) This tissue have no role in diffusion of gases
(4) Both 1 and 2
138. Match the column :-
Column-I Column-II
A. Brush bordercuboidal epithelium
(i) Gall Bladder
B. Brush BorderColumnar epithelium
(ii) P.C.T. ofnephron
C. Ciliated columnarepithelium
(iii) Ependymalepithelium
D. Simple squamousepithelium
(iv) Inner wall ofblood vessels
(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)
(2) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv)
(3) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii)
(4) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)
135. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
136.
(1) :
(2)
(3)
(4)
137.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1 2
138.
I II
A.
(i)
B.
(ii) P.C.T.
C.
(iii)
D.
(iv)
(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)
(2) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv)
(3) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii)
(4) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)
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139. Compound epithelium is made up of :-
(1) Loosely arranged cells
(2) Compactly packed single layer of cells
(3) Compactly packed multiple layer of cells
(4) Non cellular layer of hyaluronic acid.
140. Which of the following part contain ciliated
epithelium?
(1) Trachea and lungs
(2) PCT of nephron
(3) Neck of nephron
(4) Inner wall of small intestine
141. Which of the following is/are example of
unicellular gland ?
(1) Salivary gland
(2) Paneth cells
(3) Goblet cells
(4) Both 1 & 2
142. Which of the following structure have similar type
of tissue ?
(1) Inner wall of Buccal cavity and cornea of eye
(2) Inner wall of fallopian tube and conjuctiva of
eye
(3) Ependymal epithelium and PCT of Nephron
(4) Small intestine and alveoli of lungs
143. In which category of gland, secretory cell releases
its product by simple diffusion and in the process
of secretion their is no loss of cytoplasm?
Type Example
(1) Holocrine Oil gland
(2) Apocrine Mammary gland
(3) Merocrine Mucus Glands
(4) Apocrine Sweat glands of skin
144. Which of the following cell junction help to stop
substances from leaking across the tissue?
(1) Adhering junction
(2) Tight junction
(3) Gap junction
(4) Desmosomes
145. Which of the following gland do not have a duct
(1) Salivary gland (2) Mammary gland
(3) Tear gland (4) Adrenal gland
139.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
140.
(1)
(2) PCT
(3)
(4)
141.
(1)
(2)
(3) (goblet cells)
(4) 1 2
142. (1)(2) Conjunctiva
(3)Ependymal PCT (4)
143.
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
144. (1) (2) (3)
(4)
145.
(1) (1)
(1) (1)
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146. Epithelium in which cells are having irregular
boundries is :-
(1) Simple columnar epithelium
(2) Pavement epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Both 2 & 3
147. Epithelium which is present in vesicles of thyroid
gland and type-II pneumocytes is also found in .... :
(1) Acini of pancreas (2) Stomach
(3) Gall bladder (4) Small intestine
148. Recognize the figure given below and select the
correct statement :-
(1) These are the components of specialized
connective tissue
(2) The connective tissue of which they belong
do not contain fibers in matrix
(3) This connective tissue have important role in
transport of substances in the body
(4) All of the above are correct
149. Choose the odd one out from the following with
respect to the tissue they contain :-
(1) Hump of camel (2) Bludder of whale
(3) Epidermis of skin (4) Hypodermis
150. Select the correct statement about haversian
canals:-
(1) They are found in bones of all vertebrates
(2) It provide passage to blood vessels.
(3) They are also found in cartilage of mammals
(4) Both 1 and 2
151. The tissue that found in pinna, is also found
in.....
(1) Tip of nose (2) Vertebral column
(3) Nails (4) Ear ossicles
146. (1) (2) (3) (4) 2 3
147. Type-II
Pneumocytes (1) (2) (3) (4)
148.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)149.
(1) (2) Blubber
(3) (4)
150. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1 2 151.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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152. Which of the following is not a part of connective
tissue ?
(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Adipocytes
(3) Elastin fibers
(4) Basement membrane
153. Select the correct statement about adipose
connective tissue :-
(1) It is a type of dense connective tissue
(2) Mostly found beneath the skin
(3) It forms a shock-absorbing cushion
(4) Both 2 and 3
154. Match the following and select correct option-
Column-I Column-II
A. Straited InvoluntaryMuscle
(i) SkeletalMuscle
B. MultinucleatedMuscle
(ii) CardiacMuscle
C. Unstriated Muscle (iii) SmoothMuscle
D. Spindle Shapemuscle
(iv) VoluntaryMuscle
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
155. Select the correct statement with respect to areolar
connective tissue :-
(1) Cells and fibers are not compactly packed.
(2) It contain small and regular shape fibroblast
cells
(3) Some amount of macrophages and mast cells
are also present.
(4) Both 1 & 3
156. Which muscle are involved in peristaltic
movements in gastrointestinal tract?
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Cardiac muscle
(3) Smooth muscle (4) Striated muscle
152.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
153.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 2 3
154.
-I -II
A.
(i)
B.
(ii)
C. (iii)
D. (iv)
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
155.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
156.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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157. Select the option with incorrect match:-
(1) Adipose tissue- Loose connective tissue
(2) Tendon- Yellow fibrous connective tissue
(3) Ligament- Provide attachment between bone
to bone
(4) Periosteum - White fibrous connective tissue
158. Which of the following muscle is striated and
involuntary ?
(a) Smooth muscle
(b) Skeletal muscle
(c) Cardiac Muscle
(1) Only (a) (2) Both (a) and (c)
(3) Only (c) (4) Both (b) and (c)
159. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and
match with its characteristics and its location:-
(1) Smooth muscle - Found in the wall of
intestine
(2) Skeletal muscle- attached with bones of
limbs.
(3) Smooth muscle- found in arms
(4) Striated muscle- found in wall of heart.
160. Which of the following is most abundant cartilage
in body ?
(1) Hyline cartilage
(2) Fibrous cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Elastic Cartilage
161. Which of the following contain the largest
quantity of extracellular material ?
(1) Striated Muscle
(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Stratified epithelium
(4) Myelinated nerve fiber.
157.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
158.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) (a) (2) (a) (c)
(3) (c) (4) (b) (c)
159.
(1)
(2) limbs
(3)
(4)
160.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
161.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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162. Match the column :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) HyalineCartilage
(i) Ear Pinna
(B) ElasticCartilage
(ii) Articularcartilage
(C) Calcifiedcartilage
(iii) Head offemur
(D) Whitefibrouscartilage
(iv) PubicSymphysis
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
163. The Nissl's granules of nerve cell are made up
of :-
(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Ribosome
(4) Fat
164. Recognize the figure and find out the correct
matching:-
a b
c d
(1) a- Dorsal vessel, b- ventral vessel, c-lateral
heart, d-anterior loop
(2) a- Dorsal vessel, c- ventral vessel, b-lateral
heart, d-anterior loop
(3) c- Dorsal vessel, a- ventral vessel, b-lateral
heart, d-anterior loop
(4) c- Dorsal vessel, a- ventral vessel, d-lateral
heart, b-anterior loop
162.
-I -II
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C)
(iii)
(D)
(iv)
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
163. Nissl's granules (1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3)
(4)
164.
a b
c d
(1) a- b- , c- d-
(2) a- c- , b-
d-
(3) c- a- , b-
d-
(4) c- a- , d- b-
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165. Recognize the figure and find out the correct
matching.
a
bc
d
(1) a-ovary, b-Testis with testis sac, c-prostate
gland, d-vasa deferentia
(2) b-ovary, a-Testis with testis sac, c-prostate
gland, d-vasa deferentia
(3) a-ovary, b-Testis with testis sac, d-prostate
gland, c-vasa deferentia
(4) b-ovary, a-Testis with testis sac, d-prostate
gland, c-vasa deferentia
166. Which of the following does not occur in
earthworm?
(1) Cross-fertilisation (2) Self fertilisation
(3) Copulation (4) Cocoon formation
167. Recognize the figure and find out the correct
match:-
a
b
c
d
(1)(a)- Pharynx, (b)- gizzard, (c)-Crop, (d)-colon
(2) (c)- Pharynx, (b)- gizzard, (a)-Crop, (d)-colon
(3) (a)- Pharynx, (c)- gizzard, (b)-Crop, (d)-colon
(4) (a)- Pharynx, (c)- gizzard, (d)-Crop, (b)-colon
165.
a
bc
d
(1) a-, b-, c-,
d-
(2) b-, a-, c-,
d-
(3) a-, b-, d-,
c-
(4) b-, a-, d-,
c-
166.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
167.
a
b
c
d
(1) (a)- , (b)- , (c)- (Crop) (d)-
(2) (c)- , (b)- , (a)- (Crop) (d)-
(3) (a)- , (c)- , (b)- (Crop) (d)-
(4) (a)- , (c)- , (d)- (Crop) (b)-
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168. Dorsal sclerite in cockroach is known as :-
(1) Sternum
(2) Pleurite
(3) Tergum
(4) Both 1 and 3
169. Alary muscles play an important role in:-
(1) Circulation of blood
(2) Respiration
(3) Body movement
(4) Peristalsis
170. Recognize the figure and find out the correct
match-
ac
d
b
(1) a-Mandible, b-Labrum, c-Labium, d- Maxilla
(2) a-Mandible, b-Labrum, d-Labium, c- Maxilla
(3) b-Mandible, c-Labrum, a-Labium, d- Maxilla
(4) a-Mandible, c-Labrum, d-Labium, b- Maxilla
171. Which of the following is the correct statement
of the structure labelled 'A' in the diagram?
AAAA
(1) A pair of anal styles absent in females
(2) A pair of anal cerci, arise from 10th segment
present in both the sexes
(3) Phallomere, external genitalia of male
(4) Ovipositor in female
168. (Sclerite) (1) (2)
(3) (4) 13
169.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
170.
ac
d
b
(1) a-, b-c-, d-
(2) a-, b-d-, c-
(3) b-, c-a-, d-
(4) a-, c-d-, b-
171. 'A'
AAAA
(1)
(2) 10
(3)
(4)
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172. In cockroach middle and outer layer of
spermatophore are secreted by:-
(1) Ejaculatory duct and conglobate gland
respectively
(2) Conglobate gland and ejaculatory duct
respectively
(3) Utriculi majores and ejaculatory duct
respectively.
(4) Utriculi majores and conglobate duct
respectively.
173. Fore wing of cockroach arises from :-
(1) Prothorax
(2) Mesothorax
(3) Metathorax
(4) Hypopharynx
174. Which of the following is an incorrect match with
respect to structure and its location in male and
female cockroach ?
(1) Spermathecae – 8th abdominal segments
(2) Mushroom gland – 6th-7th abdominal segments
(3) Testes – 4th-6th abdominal segments
(4) Ovaries – 2nd-6th abdominal segments
175. All of the following is exhibited by frog
except:-
(1) Camouflage
(2) Echolocation
(3) Sexual dimorphism
(4) External fertilization
176. Which of the following is an unpaired structure
in Rana tigrina ?
(1) Optic lobes in midbrain
(2) Lungs
(3) Diencephalon in forebrain
(4) Kidneys
172.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
173.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
174.
(1) – 8th
(2) – 6th-7th
(3) – 4th -6th
(4) – 2nd-6th
175.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
176.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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177. Following is the diagram of male reproductive
system of frog select the correct set of names
labelled A, B, C and D:-
D
A
C
B
A B C D
(1) Kidney Adrenalgland
Fat Body Testis
(2) Adrenalgland
Kidney Fat Body Testis
(3) Fat Body Kidney Adrenalgland
Testis
(4) Fat Body Testis Adrenalgland
Kidney
178. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in :-
(1) Both male & female frog
(2) Male frogs
(3) Man
(4) Woman
179. Tissue organise to form ___A___ Which in turn
associate to form ___B___ in ___C___
organisms :-
Find the correct match for A, B and C.
A B C
(1) Organ system Organ Unicellular
(2) Organ Organ System Multicellular
(3) Organ Organ System Unicellular
(4) Organ System Body Multicellular
177. A, B,
C D
D
A
C
B
A B C D
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
178. (1) (2) (3) (4)
179. ___C___ ___A___ ___B___ A, B C
A B C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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180. In an animals word anatomy conventionally is
used for study of....:-
(1) Morphology of internal organs
(2) Morphology of external organs
(3) Histology of external organs
(4) Both 2 & 3
180. (Anatomy)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 3
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