Hindi PAPER CODE FORM NUMBER CLASSROOM CONTACT …

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

PAPER CODE

TEST # 02 DATE : 10 - 01 - 2015

0 0 C M 2 1 4 0 0 4

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

INSTRUCTIONS ()

www.allen.ac.in

ENTHUSIAST COURSE : PHASE - I

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

Hindi

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

TEST SYLLABUS : 11th SYLLABUS

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015

H-1/39Kota/00CM214004

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle of

150° is 10 kg wt, and is perpendicular to one of

the forces. The smaller force is :-

(1) 10 3 kg wt (2) 20 3 kg wt

(3) 20 kg wt (4) 20 / 3 kg wt

2. Two bodies A and B each of mass M are fixed

together by a massless spring. A force F acts on

the mass B as shown in Fig. At the instant shown

the mass A has acceleration a. What is the

acceleration of mass B :-

A B F

(1) (F/M) – a (2) a

(3) – a (4) (F / M)

3. If the potential energy between electron and

proton at a distance r is given by 2

3

keU

3r

.

the force is :-

(1) 2

2

keF

r (2)

2

4

3 keF

4 r

(3) 2

4

keF

r (4)

2keF

r

4. A plane is in the level flight at constant speed and

each of its two wings and has an area of 25 m2.

If the speed 180 km/hr over the lower wing and

234 km/hr over the upper wing surface determine

the plane's mass :- (Take air density to be 1 kgm–3)

(1) 4312 kg (2) 5472 kg

(3) 7289 kg (4) 3169 kg

5. An ideal gas is taken through a process where

dQ = dU – dW. The specific heat of the ideal

gas in this process is (dQ = heat supplied to the

gas, dU = change in internal energy, dW = work

done by gas)

(1) CV

(2) CV +

3

2R

(3) CV – R

(4) the process is impossible

1. 150° 10 :-

(1) 10 3 (2) 20 3

(3) 20 (4) 20 / 3

2. M A B F B A a B :-

A B F

(1) (F/M) – a (2) a

(3) – a (4) (F / M)

3. r

2

3

keU

3r

-

(1) 2

2

keF

r (2)

2

4

3 keF

4 r

(3) 2

4

keF

r (4)

2keF

r

4. 25 m2180 km/hr 234 km/hr :- ( 1 kg m–3)

(1) 4312 kg (2) 5472 kg

(3) 7289 kg (4) 3169 kg

5. dQ = dU – dW

(dQ = dU =

, dW = )(1) C

V

(2) CV +

3

2R

(3) CV – R

(4)

Kota/00CM214004H-2/39

Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015

6. Vectors A

and B

can be expressed as

ˆ Â 8i 6j

and ˆ ˆB i j

. Component of A

in

the direction of B

is :-

(1) 3 ˆ î j4

(2) 5 ˆ î j2

(3) ˆ î j (4) 1 ˆ î j2

7. Fig. (A), (B) and (C) show three different

situations of the surface of liquid contained in a

vessel that is moving towards right :-

(A) (B) (C)

These figures indicate, respectively, that the

vessel is

(1) moving with uniform speed, accelerating,

decelerating

(2) moving with uniform speed, deceleration,

accelerating

(3) accelerating, decelerating moving with

uniform speed

(4) decelerating, accelerating moving with

uniform speed

8. A rod of length L has non-uniformly distributed

mass along its length. For its mass per unit length

varying with distance x from one end as

02

m

L(L + x). Find the position of centre of mass

of this system.

(1) L/4 (2) L/2 (3) 3L/9 (4) 5L/9

9. The velocity of water in a river is 18 km/hr at the

surface. If the river is 5m deep. Find shearing

stress between the horizontal layers of water. The

viscosity of water is 10–3 poiseulli :-

(1) 10–3 Nm–2 (2) 2 × 10–4 Nm–2

(3) 5 × 10–5 Nm–2 (4) None of these

10. A mass M is suspended from a spring of

negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and

then released so that the mass executes SHM of

time period T. If the mass is increased by m, the

time period becomes 5T

3, then the ratio of

m

Mis :-

(1)3

5(2)

25

9(3)

16

9(4)

5

3

6. ˆ Â 8i 6j

ˆ ˆB i j

A

B

:-

(1) 3 ˆ î j4

(2) 5 ˆ î j2

(3) ˆ î j (4) 1 ˆ î j2

7. (A), (B) (C) :-

(A) (B) (C)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8. L

02

m

L(L + x) x

-

(1) L/4 (2) L/2 (3) 3L/9 (4) 5L/9

9. 18 km/hr 5m 10–3 :-(1) 10–3 Nm–2 (2) 2 × 10–4 Nm–2

(3) 5 × 10–5 Nm–2 (4) None of these

10. M

T

m 5T

3

m

M

(1)3

5(2)

25

9(3)

16

9(4)

5

3


H-3/39Kota/00CM214004

11. From dimensional consideration which of the

following equations is correct :-

(1) 3T 2 R / GM (2) 3T 2 GM / R

(3) 2T 2 GM / R (4) 2T 2 R / GM

12. A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of

weight W and while carrying it on his head;

jumped down from a wall of height h to the

ground. Before he reached ground he experienced

a load of :-

(1) 2W (2) W (3) W/2 (4) zero

13. A bullet of mass m and velocity v passes through

a pendulum of mass M and emerges with velocity

v/2. What is the minimum value of v such that

the pendulum will swing through a complete

cycle-

(1) M

2 gm

(2) 2M

2 gm

(3) M

5 g2m

(4) 2M

5 gm

14. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d

2

(d1 > d

2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet

is heated the distance between the holes will–

d1

d2

(1) increase

(2) decrease

(3) remain constant

(4) may either increase or decrease depending on

the positions of the holes on the sheet and

on the ratio 1

2

d

d.

15. Frequency of oscillation of a body is 6 Hz when

force F1 is applied and 8 Hz when F

2 is applied.

If both force F1 and F2 are applied together then

frequency of oscillation is :-

(1) 6 Hz (2) 14 Hz (3) 10 Hz (4) 8 Hz

16. The percentage errors in the measurement of length

and time period of a simple pendulum are 1% and 2%

respectively. Then the maximum error in the

measurement of acceleration due to gravity is :-

(1) 8% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5%

11. :-

(1) 3T 2 R / GM (2) 3T 2 GM / R

(3) 2T 2 GM / R (4) 2T 2 R / GM

12. h :-

(1) 2W (2) W (3) W/2 (4)

13. m M v

v/2 v

(1) M

2 gm

(2) 2M

2 gm

(3) M

5 g2m

(4) 2M

5 gm

14. d1 d

2 (d

1 > d

2)

d1

d2

(1) (2) (3) (4)

1

2

d

d

15. F1 6Hz

F2 8 Hz (1) 6 Hz (2) 14 Hz (3) 10 Hz (4) 8 Hz

16. 1% 2%

:-

(1) 8% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5%

Kota/00CM214004H-4/39


17. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force

ˆ ˆF 3i 4 j N

. If its initial velocity at t = 0 is

1ˆ ˆv 6i 12 j ms

, the time at which it will just

have a velocity along the y-axis is :-

(1) never (2) 10 s (3) 2 s (4) 15 s

18. A car is moving a circular horizontal track of

radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/sec.

A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the

car by a light rigid rod of length 1.00 m. The angle

made by the rod with track is

(1) zero (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°

19. Certain perfect gas is found to obey

PVn = constant during adiabatic process. The

volume expansion coefficient at temperature T is

(1)1 n

T

(2)

1

1 n T (3)

n

T(4)

1

nT

20. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The

radius of the circle, the period sense of revolution

and the initial positions are indicated on the figure.

The simple harmonic motion of the x-projection

of the radius vector of the rotating particle P is:-

(1)2 t

x(t) R sin30

RO

x

P(t = 0)

T = 30sec

(2)t

x(t) R cos15

(3)t

x(t) R sin15 2

(4)t

x(t) R cos15 2

21. A particle moving in a straight line has velocity

and displacement equation as

v 4 1 s

where 'v' is in m/s and 's' is in m. The initial

velocity of the particle is :-

(1) 4 m/s (2) 16 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) zero

22. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough horizontal

plank, the coefficient of friction between the plank

and block is 0.3. If the plank is pulled horizontally

with a constant acceleration of 4m/s2, the distance

moved by the block on the plank in 5 second

starting from rest (in m) is: (take g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 25 (4) 50

17. 5 kg ˆ ˆF 3i 4 j N

t = 0

1ˆ ˆv 6i 12 j ms

y- :-(1) (2) 10 s (3) 2 s (4) 15 s

18. 10 m

10 m/sec 1.00 m

(1) (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°

19. PVn = T

(1)1 n

T

(2)

1

1 n T (3)

n

T(4)

1

nT

20.

P x-

(1)2 t

x(t) R sin30

RO

x

P(t = 0)

T = 30sec

(2)t

x(t) R cos15

(3)t

x(t) R sin15 2

(4)t

x(t) R cos15 2

21.

v 4 1 s

v, (m/s) s, (m) :-(1) 4 m/s (2) 16 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) zero

22. 2 kg 0.3 4m/s2 5 (m ) : (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 25 (4) 50


H-5/39Kota/00CM214004

23. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls

without slipping down an inclined plane of length

L and height h. What is the speed of its centre

of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom

(1)3

gh4

(2) 4

gh3

(3) 4gh (4) 2gh

24. Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest

specifid heat ? The temperature vs time graph is

shown. Equal heat is supplied to all substances and

the masses of all substances are equal.

B

A

Time(t)

Tem

pera

ture

(t)

C

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) all have equal specific heat

25. A hollow pipe of length 0.8 m is closed at one

end. At its open end a 0.5 m long uniform string

is vibrating in its second harmonic and it resonates

with the fundamental frequency of the pipe. If the

tension in the wire is 50 N and the speed of sound

is 320 ms-1

, the mass of the string is :-

(1) 5 gm (2) 10 gm

(3) 20 gm (4) 40 gm

26. Two bodies move in a straight line towards each

other at initial velocities v1 and v2 and with

constant acceleration a1 and a

2 directed against the

corresponding velocities at the initial instant. The

maximum initial separation max

between the

bodies for which they will meet during the motion

is :-

(1)

2 21 2

1 2

v v

a a (2)

2

1 2

1 2

v v

2 a a

(3) 1 2

1 2

v v

a a (4)

2 21 2

1 2

v v

a a

23. M R L

h

(1)3

gh4

(2) 4

gh3

(3) 4gh (4) 2gh

24. A, B C

B

A

Time(t)

Tem

pera

ture

(t)

C

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4)

25. 0.8

0.5

50

320 , :-

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 20 (4) 40

26. v1

v2 a1 a2

max :-

(1)

2 21 2

1 2

v v

a a (2)

2

1 2

1 2

v v

2 a a

(3) 1 2

1 2

v v

a a (4)

2 21 2

1 2

v v

a a

Kota/00CM214004H-6/39


27. The force between a hollow sphere and a point

mass at P inside it as shown in Fig :-

P

C

(1) Is attractive and constant

(2) Is attractive and depends on the position of

the point with respect to centre C

(3) Is zero

(4) Is repulsive and constant

28. A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the

same mass and made up of same material are allowed

to roll down (from rest) on inclined plane, then

(1) Solid sphere reaches the bottom first

(2) Solid sphere reaches the bottom late

(3) Disc will reach the bottom first

(4) All of them reach the bottom at the same time

29. In the process shown, which of the following

option is correct?

A

B

C

V

P

2V 0 V0

P 0

2P 0

(1) QAB

= +ve, QBC

= +ve, QCA

= +ve

(2) QAB

= +ve, QBC

= ve, QCA

= +ve

(3) QAB

= +ve, CBC

= , dT

ve at BdP

(4) QAB

= +ve, QBC

= ve, QCA

= ve;

dTnot defined at B

dP

30. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ

pipe contain gases of densities 1 and 2

respectively. The compressibility of gases are

equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are

vibrating in their first overtone with same

frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is :-

(1) L

3 (2)

4L

3 (3)

1

2

4L

3

(4)

2

1

4L

3

27. P :-

P

C

(1) (2) C

(3) (4)

28. (1) (2) (3) (4)

29.

A

B

C

V

P

2V 0 V0

P 0

2P 0

(1) QAB

= +ve, QBC

= +ve, QCA

= +ve

(2) QAB

= +ve, QBC

= ve, QCA

= +ve

(3) QAB

= +ve, CBC

= , B dT

vedP

(4) QAB

= +ve, QBC

= ve, QCA

= ve B

dT

dP

30. L

1 2

:-

(1) L

3 (2)

4L

3 (3)

1

2

4L

3

(4)

2

1

4L

3


H-7/39Kota/00CM214004

31. It takes one minute for a person standing on an

escalator to reach the top from the ground. If the

escalator is not moving, it takes him 3 minute to

walk on the steps to reach the top. How long will

it take for the person to reach the top if he walks

up the escalator while it is moving :-

(1) 2 minute (2) 1.5 minute

(3) 0.75 minute (4) 1.25 minute

32. If the acceleration due to gravity at earth is 'g' and mass

of earth is 80 times that of moon and radius of earth

is 4 times that of moon, the value of acceleration

due to gravity at the surface of moon will be :-

(1) g (2) g/20 (3) g/5 (4) 320g

33. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless

surface, shown in figure with a transnational

velocity u m/s. I f sp h e re climbs up to

height h then value of u should be

uh

(1)10

gh7

(2) 2gh

(3) 2gh (4) 10

gh7

34. Assume that the entire surface of a burning log

of wood is at the same temperature. Some small

spots on the wood appear brighter than the rest

of the surface. At such a spot–

(1) there is a small cavity in the wood.

(2) there is a small hump (convex portion) in the

wood.

(3) less ash has formed than on the rest of the

wood.

(4) more ash has formed than on the rest of thewood.

35. The equation of a travelling wave is :

y = a sin 2x

pt5

Then the ratio of maximum particle velocity to

wave velocity is :-

(1) a

5

(2) 2 5 a (3)

2 a

5

(4)

2 a

5

31. :-

(1) 2 (2) 1.5

(3) 0.75 (4) 1.25

32. 'g' 80 4 :-

(1) g (2) g/20 (3) g/5 (4) 320g

33. u m/s h u

uh

(1)10

gh7

(2) 2gh

(3) 2gh (4) 10

gh7

34.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35. :

y = a sin 2x

pt5

:-

(1) a

5

(2) 2 5 a (3)

2 a

5

(4)

2 a

5

Kota/00CM214004H-8/39


36. The speed of a car was 50 km/hr for the first 900 s,

then 40 km/hr for the next 50 km and then the

car decelerated uniformly at 10 km/hr2 till it came

to rest. The average speed of the car was :-

(1) 50 km/hr (2) 7.2 m/s

(3) 30 km/hr (4) 9.0 m/s

37. A satellite moving round the earth in a circular

orbit of radius r and speed v suddenly loses some

of its energy. Then :-

(1) r will increase and v will decrease

(2) both r and v will decrease

(3) both r and v will increase

(4) r will decrease and v will increase

38. The average depth of Indian ocean is about

3000 m. Calculate the fractional compression

V

V

of water at the bottom of the ocean given

that the bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 Nm–2

[take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 1.36 % (2) 5.46 %

(3) 7.35 % (4) 9.2 %

39. A cylindrical tube of uniform cross-sectional area

A is fitted with two air-tight frictionless pistons.

The pistons are connected to each other by a

metallic wire. Initially the pressure of the gas is

P0 and temperature is T

0. Atmospheric pressure

is also P0. Now the temperature of the gas is

increased to 2T0. The tension in the wire will be-

(1) P0

A (2) 2P0

A

(3) 0P A

2(4) 4P

0 A

40. A police car with a siren of frequency 8 kHz is

moving with uniform velocity 36 km/h towards

a tall building which reflects the sound waves.

The speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. The

frequency of the siren heard by the car driver is :-

(1) 8.50 kHz (2) 8.25 kHz

(3) 7.75 kHz (4) 7.50 kHz

36. 900 sec 50 km/hr 50km 40 km/hr

10 km/hr2 :-(1) 50 km/hr (2) 7.2 m/s

(3) 30 km/hr (4) 9.0 m/s

37. r v

:-

(1) r v

(2) r v

(3) r v

(4) r v 38. 3000 m

V

V

2.2 × 109 Nm–2

[g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 1.36 % (2) 5.46 %

(3) 7.35 % (4) 9.2 %

39. A

P0 T

0

P02T

0

(1) P0 A (2) 2P

0 A

(3) 0P A

2(4) 4P

0 A

40. 8

36 /320 / :-(1) 8.50 (2) 8.25 (3) 7.75 (4) 7.50

Key Filling


H-9/39Kota/00CM214004

41. A ball of mass M is thrown vertically upwards.

Another ball of mass 2M is thrown at an

angle to vertical. Both of them stay in air for

the same period of time. The heights attained by

the two are in the ratio :-

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : cos

42. A massless platform is kept on a light elastic

spring as shown in the fig. When sand particles

of 0.1 kg mass are dropped on the pan from a

height of 0.24 m. the particle strikes the pan and

the spring is compressed by 0.01 m. From what

height should the particel be dropped to cause a

compression of 0.04 m-

(1) 0.96 m

(2) 2.96 m

hm

(3) 3.96 m

(4) 0.48 m

43. Two narrow bores of diameters 3.0 mm and

6.0 mm are joined together to form a U-tube open

at both ends. If the U-tube contains water what

is the difference in its levels in the two limbs of

the tube (nearly) :-

[T = 7.3 × 10–2 Nm–1, = 0° density of water

= 103 kg/m3]

(1) 5.0 mm (2) 12.0 mm

(3) 1.25 mm (4) None of these

44. A substance of mass M kg requires a power input

of P watts to remain in the molten state at its

melting point. When the power source is turned

off, the sample completely solidifies in time t

seconds. The specific latent heat of fusion of the

substance is-

(1) Pt (2) Pt

M(3) PtM (4)

PM

t

45. 41 tuning forks are arranged such that every fork

gives 5 beats with the next. The last fork has a

frequency that is double of the first. The frequency

of the first fork is :-

(1) 200 (2) 400

(3) 205 (4) 210

41. M 2M :-

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : cos

42.

0.24 0.1

0.01

0.04

(1) 0.96

(2) 2.96

hm

(3) 3.96

(4) 0.48

43. 3.0 mm 6.0 mm U U () :-

[= 7.3 × 10–2 Nm–1,= 103 kg/m3]

(1) 5.0 mm (2) 12.0 mm

(3) 1.25 mm (4) None of these

44. M

P

t

(1) Pt (2) Pt

M(3) PtM (4)

PM

t

45. 41 5 :-

(1) 200 (2) 400

(3) 205 (4) 210

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

Kota/00CM214004H-10/39


46. The maximum number of molecules is present

in:-

(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP

(2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP

(3) 0.5 g H2 gas

(4) 10 g of O2 gas

47. Which one is not correct for the reaction :-

(CN)2 + H

2O HCN + HOCN

(1) It is an auto redox change

(2) Ox. no. of C in (CN)2, HCN and HOCN are

+2, +3 and +4 respectively

(3) Ox. no.of N in (CN)2, HCN and HOCN are

+3, +2 and + 4 respectively

(4) none

48. In which set both species have d-pbonding :-

(1) 2– –3 3CO , NO (2) 2– –

4 3SO , ClO

(3) 3– –4 3PO , NO (4) 2– 2–

4 3SO , CO

49. Which compound on hydrolysis can give

following polymer :-

CH – Si – O – Si – O – .....3

O O

– O – Si – O – Si – O – Si – O – ...

CH3 CH3 O

CH3

(1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2

(3) CH3SiCl3 (4) (CH3)4Si

50. Which is not aromatic :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

O

51. A student wants to prepare a saturated solution

of Ag+ ion. He has got only three samples AgCl

(Ksp

= 1.8 × 10–10), AgBr(Ksp

= 5 × 10–13) and

Ag2 CrO

4 (K

sp = 2.4 × 10–12). Which compound

should have maximum [Ag+] :-

(1) AgCl (2) AgBr

(3) Ag2CrO4 (4) none

52. Number of electrons in 1.8 mL of H2O is :-

(1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023

(3) 0.6022 × 1023 (4) 60.22 × 1023

46. :-(1) STP 15 L H2

(2) STP 5 L N2

(3) 0.5 g H2

(4) 10 g O2

47. :-(CN)

2 + H

2O HCN + HOCN

(1) (2) (CN)2, HCN HOCN C +2, +3 +4

(3) (CN)2, HCN HOCN N

+3, +2 + 4 (4)

48. set d-pbond :-

(1) 2– –3 3CO , NO (2) 2– –

4 3SO , ClO

(3) 3– –4 3PO , NO (4) 2– 2–

4 3SO , CO

49. :-

CH – Si – O – Si – O – .....3

O O

– O – Si – O – Si – O – Si – O – ...

CH3 CH3 O

CH3

(1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2

(3) CH3SiCl3 (4) (CH3)4Si

50. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

O

51. Ag+ AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10),

AgBr(Ksp

= 5 × 10–13) Ag2CrO

4 (K

sp = 2.4 × 10–12)

[Ag+] :-

(1) AgCl (2) AgBr

(3) Ag2CrO

4(4)

52. 1.8 mL H2O :-(1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023

(3) 0.6022 × 1023 (4) 60.22 × 1023


H-11/39Kota/00CM214004

53. Which is correct order :-

(1) HOCl > HClO2 (Acidic)

(2) HClO4 > HOCl (Oxidising)

(3) H3PO

2 > H

3PO

3(Reducing)

(4) H3PO

4 > H

2SO

4(Acidic)

54. Which structure has maximum no. of identical

atom in same plane :-

(1) B2H

6(2) Al

2Cl

6

(3) SF6 (4) Same in all

55. Most stable anion is :-

(1)

O

CH2

(2) CH2

(3) HC C (4) CH2

56. An excited hydrogen atom emits a photon of

wavelength in returning to the ground state. If

R is the Rydberg constant than the quantum

number n of the excited state is :-

(1) R (2) R 1

(3) R

R 1

(4) R( R 1)

57. The heat of atomisation of PH3(g) is 228 kcal mol–1

and that P2H

4(g) is 355 kcal mol–1. The energy

of the P – P bond is (in kcal) :-

(1) 102 (2) 51 (3) 26 (4) 204

58. Which is not isoelectronic :-

(1) C6H6, inorganic benzene

(2) N2, CO

(3) NO, F2

(4) SO2, S2

59. Which can react with NH3 :-

(1) HCl (2) BF3

(3) B2H

6(4) All

60. But-1-yne and But-2-yne can be distinguished

by :-

(1) 1% cold dil. 4KMnO / O HΘ

(2) Br2/CCl4

(3) (AgNO3 + NH

4OH)

(4) Cu2Cl

2 + NH

4Cl

61. In which case, a spontaneous reaction is possible

at any temperature :-

(1) H –ve, S + ve (2) H – ve, S – ve

(3) H + ve, S + ve (4) none of these

53. :-(1) HOCl > HClO2 ()

(2) HClO4 > HOCl ()

(3) H3PO

2 > H

3PO

3()

(4) H3PO

4 > H

2SO

4()

54. :-(1) B2

H6

(2) Al2Cl

6

(3) SF6 (4) Same in all

55. :-

(1)

O

CH2

(2) CH2

(3) HC C (4) CH2

56. R

n :-

(1) R (2) R 1

(3) R

R 1

(4) R( R 1)

57. PH3(g) P

2H

4(g)

228 kcal mol–1 355 kcal mol–1 P – P (kcal ) :-(1) 102 (2) 51 (3) 26 (4) 204

58. :-(1) C

6H

6, inorganic benzene

(2) N2, CO

(3) NO, F2

(4) SO2, S2

59. Which can react with NH3 :-

(1) HCl (2) BF3(3) B

2H

6(4) All

60. -1--2- :-

(1) 1% cold dil. 4KMnO / O HΘ

(2) Br2/CCl4

(3) (AgNO3 + NH

4OH)

(4) Cu2Cl

2 + NH

4Cl

61. :-(1) H –ve, S + ve (2) H – ve, S – ve

(3) H + ve, S + ve (4)

Kota/00CM214004H-12/39


62. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers

is correct for an electron in 4f-orbital :-

(1) n= 3, = 2, m = –2,s = + 1

2

(2) n= 4, = 4, m = –4,s = – 1

2

(3) n= 4, = 3, m = +1,s = + 1

2

(4) n= 4, = 3, m = +4,s = + 1

263. Which has only one type of bond length?

(1) B2H6 (2) –3NO (3) Al2Cl6 (4) ClF3

64. Which order is correct :-

(1) AlCl3 > AlF3 (Solubility in benzene)

(2) PH3 > PF

3 (Bond angle)

(3) CHF3 > CHCl3 (Acidic character)

(4) R3N O < R3P O (Dipole momant)

65. CH3–CH=CH–CH3

HBr X 3 3(CH ) C OK

Alcoholic

Y

(Major); Y is :-

(1) CH3–CH

2–CH

2–CH

2–OC(CH

3)

3

(2) CH O C(CH ) – – 3 3

H C3

CH CH3 2–

(3) CH3–CH

2–CH=CH

2

(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

66. The number of moles of sodium sulphite

(Na2SO

3) needed to react with one mole of

KMnO4 in acidic solution :-

(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2 (3) 1 (4) 3/5

67. The enthalpies of formation of N2O and NO are 28

and 90 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of the

reaction, 2N2O(g) + O2(g) 4NO(g) is equal to:

(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ (3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ

68. Identify the incorrect statement

(1) Beryl silicate contain 6 shared and 12 unshared

oxygen

(2) Silicate contains almost 50% ionic and 50%

covalent character which defined high bond

strength and insoluble nature of silicate

minerals.

(3) Ag10Si4O13 is an example of ring silicate

(4) In sheet silicate each silicon is linked with

4 oxygen atom and adjacent tetrahedral units

share a corner

62. 4f- :-

(1) n= 3, = 2, m = –2,s = + 1

2

(2) n= 4, = 4, m = –4,s = – 1

2

(3) n= 4, = 3, m = +1,s = + 1

2

(4) n= 4, = 3, m = +4,s = + 1

263.

(1) B2H6 (2) –3NO (3) Al2Cl6 (4) ClF3

64. :-(1) AlCl3 > AlF3 (Benzene )(2) PH3

> PF3 (Bond angle)

(3) CHF3 > CHCl3 (Acidic character)

(4) R3N O < R3P O (Dipole momant)

65. CH3–CH=CH–CH3 HBr X 3 3(CH ) C OK

Alcoholic

Y

(Major); Y :-(1) CH3

–CH2–CH

2–CH

2–OC(CH

3)

3

(2) CH O C(CH ) – – 3 3

H C3

CH CH3 2–

(3) CH3–CH

2–CH=CH

2

(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

66. 1 KMnO4 Na2SO3

:-(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2

(3) 1 (4) 3/5

67. N2O NO 28 90 kJ mol–12N2O(g) + O2(g) 4NO(g) :-(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ (3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ

68. (1) Beryl silicate 6 O 12

oxygen (2) Silicate SiO 50% ionic 50% covalent

(3) Ag10Si4O13 Ring silicate (4) silicate Si 4 O

Take it Easy and Make it Easy


H-13/39Kota/00CM214004

69. Correct IUPAC name of given compound is :-

O Ac–

COOH

(1) o-Acetoxybenzoic acid

(2) Acetyl salicylic acid

(3) 2-Ethanoyloxybenzoic acid

(4) All

70. Which is correct :-

(1)

OH

NO2

>

OH

>

OH

CH3

(Acidic strength)

(2)

NH2

CH3

>

NH2

CH3

>

NH2

CH3

(Base strength)

(3) C CH= 2

H C3

H C3 > C C=

H

CH3H

CH3

> C C=H

H3C CH3

H (Stability)

(4) All

71. From the following reaction sequences, calculate

the moles of Cl2 needed to produce 100 moles of

KClO4 :-

Cl2 + 2KOH KC + KCO + H

2O ...(i)

3KCO 2KC + KCO3 ...(ii)

4KCO3 3KCO4 + KC ...(iii)

(1) 300 mol (2) 33mol

(3) 400 mol (4) 4 mol

72. 0.1 mole of CH3NH

2 (K

b = 5 × 10–4) is mixed with

0.08 mole of HCl and diluted to one litre. The [H+]

in solution is :-

(1) 8 × 10–2 M (2) 1.3 × 10–10 M

(3) 1.6 × 10–11M (4) 8 × 10–5 M

73. Compound Properties

(A) B2H6, 3H 3C 2e bond

(B) HNO3, H

2SO

4pp bond

(C) AlF3, AlCl

3Hypovalent

(D) NCl3, SbCl

3Equal bond angles

Correct code is :-

(1) A (2) A, C (3) A, D (4) All

69. IUPAC :-

O Ac–

COOH

(1) o-Acetoxybenzoic acid

(2) Acetyl salicylic acid

(3) 2-Ethanoyloxybenzoic acid

(4) All

70. :-

(1)

OH

NO2

>

OH

>

OH

CH3

()

(2)

NH2

CH3

>

NH2

CH3

>

NH2

CH3

()

(3) C CH= 2

H C3

H C3 > C C=

H

CH3H

CH3

> C C=H

H3C CH3

H

()

(4) All

71. 100 KClO4

Cl2 :-

Cl2 + 2KOH KC + KCO + H2O ...(i)

3KCIO 2KC + KCO3 ...(ii)

4KCO3 3KCO4 + KC ...(iii)

(1) 300 mol (2) 33mol

(3) 400 mol (4) 4 mol

72. 0.1 CH3NH

2 (K

b = 5 × 10–4) 0.08 HCl

1 [H+] :-(1) 8 × 10–2 M (2) 1.3 × 10–10 M

(3) 1.6 × 10–11M (4) 8 × 10–5 M

73. Compound Properties

(A) B2H

6,

3H 3C 2e bond

(B) HNO3, H

2SO

4pp bond

(C) AlF3, AlCl3 (D) NCl3, SbCl3 :-(1) A (2) A, C (3) A, D (4) All

Kota/00CM214004H-14/39


74. Ethylbenzene can be best prepared by :-

(1) + CH3–CH2–Cl 3AlCl

(2) CH3

O

Zn Hg

HCl

(3) COOH

(NaOH CaO)

(4)

C CH

2

3

H Pd

CaCO

75. C CH CH CH= – –2 3

H C3

H3C 3

2

(1) O

(2) H O / Zn (X + Y), X

and Y are :-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional group isomers

(3) Chain isomers

(4) Metamers

76. 40% of a mixture of 0.2 mole of N2 and 0.6 mole

of H2 react to give NH3 according to the equation,

N2(g) + 3H

2(g) 2NH

3(g) at constant

temperature and pressure. Then ratio of the final

volume to the initial volume of gases are :-

(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 7 : 10 (4) 8 : 5

77. Which is correct order :-

(1) F– > F (IP) (2) IP(F) > EA(F)

(3) EA(Cl) > IP(Cl) (4) EA(Cl) > IP (F)

78. How many of the following compounds contain

all atoms in same plane :-

(1) NO2 (2) BF3 (3) NH3 (4) 4NH

(5) SiO2 (6) NH2 – NH2 (7) H2O

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Two (4) One

79. Which can show chain, position and functional

group isomerism :-

(1) CH3–CH

2–CH

2–NH–CH

3

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(3) CH3–CH

2–CH

2–CH

2–Cl

(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH

3

74. :-

(1) + CH3–CH2–Cl 3AlCl

(2) CH3

O

Zn Hg

HCl

(3) COOH

(NaOH CaO)

(4)

C CH

2

3

H Pd

CaCO

75. C CH CH CH= – –2 3

H C3

H3C 3

2

(1) O

(2) H O / Zn (X + Y) X

Y :-(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional group isomers

(3) Chain isomers

(4) Metamers

76. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

0.2 N2 0.6 H2 40%

NH3

:-(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 4

(3) 7 : 10 (4) 8 : 5

77. :-(1) F– > F (IP) (2) IP(F) > EA(F)

(3) EA(Cl) > IP(Cl) (4) EA(Cl) > IP (F)

78. :-

(1) NO2 (2) BF3 (3) NH3 (4) 4NH

(5) SiO2 (6) NH2 – NH2 (7) H2O

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Two (4) One

79. :-(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Cl

(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH

3


H-15/39Kota/00CM214004

80. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate

(2) Photochemical smog is reducing smog

(3) Mixture of smoke, fog and SO2 form classical

smog

(4) Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and

sunny climate

81. Which have the same number of s-electrons as

the d-electrons in Fe2+ :-

(1) Li (2) Na

(3) N (4) P

82. 2–3

HCO gas(x)

...(1)

3F–

BF ion(y) ...(2)

3HNH ion(z)

...(3)

Change in bond angle in reaction (1), (2) and (3)

(neglecting sign) will be :-

(1) 1 > 3 > 2

(2) 1 > 2 > 3

(3) 2 > 1 > 3

(4) 3 > 2 > 1

83. Which is most reactive with NH3

(1) BCl3

(2) AlCl3

(3) GaCl3

(4) All are equal

84. CH3–CH

2–CH

3 2Cl ,h

Mono Chlorination

(X + Y)

Na

dry ether Product

Which is formed as product :-

(1) CH3–(CH2)4–CH3

(2) (CH3)2CH–CH(CH

3)

2

(3) (CH3)2CH–CH2–CH2–CH3

(4) All

85. True statement is

(1) pH of normal rain water is 5.6

(2) BOD of clean water is 17 ppm

(3) Excessive nitrate (>500 ppm) has laxative

effect

(4) All of these

86. Calculate the maximum work done in expanding

16 g of oxygen at 300 K and occupying a volume

of 5dm3 isothermally until the volume becomes

25dm3 :-

(1) 2010 J (2) –2010J

(3) 20.10J (4) –20.10J

80. ?(1) (2) (3) SO

2

(4)

81. Fe2+ d-s- :-(1) Li (2) Na

(3) N (4) P

82. 2–3

HCO gas(x)

...(1)

3F–

BF ion(y) ...(2)

3HNH ion(z)

...(3)

:-(1) 1 > 3 > 2

(2) 1 > 2 > 3

(3) 2 > 1 > 3

(4) 3 > 2 > 1

83. NH3

(1) BCl3

(2) AlCl3

(3) GaCl3

(4) All are equal

84. CH3–CH

2–CH

3 2Cl ,h

Mono Chlorination

(X + Y)

Na

dry ether Product

:-(1) CH3–(CH2)4–CH3

(2) (CH3)2CH–CH(CH

3)

2

(3) (CH3)2CH–CH2–CH2–CH3

(4) All

85. :-(1) pH 5.6 (2) BOD 17 ppm (3) (>500 ppm)

(4) 86. 300 K 16 g O

2 5dm3 25 dm3

:-(1) 2010 J

(2) –2010J

(3) 20.10J

(4) –20.10J

Kota/00CM214004H-16/39


87. Which relation is correct?

P = O,

HO

HO

H

P – OH

HO

HO(a) (b)

(CH ) N = O, (CH ) N – O3 3 3 3

+ –

(a) (b)

H – Cl = O

O

O(a)

H – O – Cl = O

O(b)

Compound Relation

(1) Resonatingstructures

Isomericstructures

Conjugatesacid basepair

(2)

(3)

(4) None of above is correct

88. e– deficient hydride is :-

(1) B2H6 (2) CH4

(3) NH3

(4) All

89. Correct statement for Kalbe's electrolysis of

aqueous solution of sodium acetate is :-

(1) pH of solution increases

(2) Methyl acetate is formed as side product

(3) Ethane is formed at anode

(4) All

90. Indentify the incorrect statement :-

(1) Pyrus and Vitis can metalbolise NO2 therefore

can control photo chemical smog

(2) Peroxyacetyl nitrate is a component of

photochemical smog

(3) UV radiation ( = 255 nm) can cause

melanoma

(4) None of these

87.

P = O,

HO

HO P – OH

HO

HO(a) (b)

(CH ) N = O, (CH ) N – O3 3 3 3

+ –

(a) (b)

H – Cl = O

O

O(a)

H – O – Cl = O

O(b)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of above is correct

H

88. e– hydride :-

(1) B2H6 (2) CH4

(3) NH3

(4)

89. :-

(1) pH

(2)

(3)

(4)

90. :-

(1) NO2

(2)

(3) ( = 255 nm)

(4)


H-17/39Kota/00CM214004

91. Given below is the diagram of organism identify

the parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the

right option about them :-

A

D

C

B

Part (A) Part (B) Part (C) Part (D)

1 Sporophyte Stalk Leaves Foot

2 Capsule Foot Leaves Gametophyte

3 Sporophyte Stalk Foot Gametophyte

4 Capsule Seta Leaves Gametophyte

92. Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Gametophyte of Gymnosperm are always

Dioecious.

(2) Sporophyte of Gymnosperm are always

heterosporous.

(3) Sporophyte of pteridophytes may be

monoecious or dioecious

(4) Gametophyte of pteridophytes may be

monoecious or dioecious.

93. Hemichordata was earlier considered as a sub

phylum under phylum chordata but now it is

placed as a seperate phylum under non-chordata

due to

(1) Absence of notochord

(2) Absence of heart

(3) Absence of dorsal nerve cord

(4) Absence of gillslits

94. In dicotyledonous stem cortical layers below

hypodermis consist of rounded thin walled cells

with conspicuous intercellular spaces.

These cells are

(1) Parenchymatous

(2) Collenchymatous

(3) Sclerenchymatous

(4) Parenchymatous and sclerenchymatous

91. A, B, C D, :-

A

D

C

B

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1

2

3

4

92. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

93.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

94. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/00CM214004H-18/39


95. Which of the following options gives the correct

categorisation of six organs according to the

presence of plasma membrane modification :-

AMicrovilli

BCilia

CSteriocilia

(1) PCT, Gallbladder,Intestine

Trachea, Uterus Epididymis

(2) PCT, Gallbladder

Intestine,Trachea, Uterus

Epididymis

(3) Epididymis,Trachea

PCT, Gallbladder

Intestine,Uterus

(4) PCT, Intestine Gall bladder,Trachea, Uterus

Epididymis

96. Identify the correct and incorrect match about the

respiratory volume and capacities and mark the

correct answer

(A) Expiratory capacity = Tidal volume + Residual volume

(B) Vital capacity = Total lung capacity – Residual volume

(C) Inspiratory capacity = Total lung capacity – Functional residual capacity

(D) Total lung capacity = Vital capacity + functional residual capacity

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect

(2) Correct Correct Incorrect Correct

(3) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect

(4) Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct

97. Which cellular structure is commenly present in

prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

(1) Structure, which is responsible for

arrangement of spindle fibre.

(2) Structure, which was first observed by Camillo

Golgi

(3) Structure, there improved model was proposed

by Singer and Nicolson

(4) Structure, which produce cellular energy in the

form of ATP, hence this are called power

house of the cell

95. :-

A

B

C

(1) PCT, Gallbladder,

(2) PCT, Gallbladder

(3)

PCT, Gallbladder

(4) PCT, Gall bladder,

96. (A) = +

(B) = –

(C) = –

(D) = +

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

97. (1)

(2) (3)

(4) ATP


H-19/39Kota/00CM214004

98. Given below are the structure of two different

amino acids.

COOH

C

CH3

NH2H and

COOH

C

CH OH2

NH2H

These amino acids show which type of nature

respectively :-

(1) Acidic, Alkaline (2) Alkaline, Neutral

(3) Neutral, Neutral (4) Alkaline, Alkaline

99. Vitamin B1 is the part of cofactor of which of the

following ?

(1) Phosphofructokinase

(2) Pyruvic acid kinase

(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase

100. Match the column I, II and III to select the correct

answer :-

Column -I Column- II Column-III

A Glucose (a) Na+ (i) Facilitated diffusion

B Amino acids (b) Fats (ii) Mainly Activetransport

C Chylomicrons (c) Levulose (iii) Diffusion

D Fructose (d) Starch (iv) Active transport orfacilitated diffusion

(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-i

(2) A–a-iv, B-d-ii, C-b-iii, D-c-i

(3) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-c-i, D-b-iii

(4) A–a-i, B-d-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-ii

101. How many terms are related with kingdom protista:

Zygote, Embryo, Cilia, Pili, Pellicle, Water bloom,

Nitrogen fixation, Photosynthesis, Pseudopodia,

Tissue, Heterocyst

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 7

102. Choose the incorrect statement of following :-

(1) Chlorella and Spirullina are protein rich

unicellular algae.

(2) Mosses reduce the impact of falling rain and

prevent soil erosion.

(3) In pteridophytes, gametophytic generation is

highly reduced and is confined to only a

limited number of cells.

(4) In gymnosperm, the nucellus is protected by

envelopes and the composite structure is

called an ovule.

98.

COOH

C

CH3

NH2H

COOH

C

CH OH2

NH2H

:-(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) ,

99. B1

?(1) Phosphofructokinase

(2) Pyruvic acid kinase

(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase

100. I, II III :-

-I - II -III

A (a) Na+ (i)

B (b) (ii)

C (c) (iii) D (d) (iv)

(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-i

(2) A–a-iv, B-d-ii, C-b-iii, D-c-i

(3) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-c-i, D-b-iii

(4) A–a-i, B-d-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-ii

101. :-, , , , , , , , , ,

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 7

102. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Kota/00CM214004H-20/39


103. In which class, animals have a elongated body

bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration

(1) Cyclostomata (2) Chondrichthyes

(3) Osteichthyes (4) Amphibia

104. Pepo fruit is found in :-

(1) Cruciferae (2) Cucurbitaceae

(3) Liliaceae (4) Solanaceae

105. Identify the correct match from the column I, II

and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1 Simplesquamousepithelium

a Secretion i Trachea

2 Simplecuboidalepithelium

b Filtration ii Acini ofpancreas

3 Simplecolumnarepithelium

c Nucleus atbase

iii Alveoli oflungs

4 PSCGE d Mucussecretion

iv Liver

(1) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–iv, 4–d–i

(2) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–i, 4–d–iv

(3) 1–b–iii, 2–a–i, 3–c–ii, 4–d–iv

(4) 1–d–iii, 2–b–i, 3–c–iv, 4–a–ii

106. A drop of each of the following is placed

separately on four slides. Which of them will not

cougulate ?

(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein

(2) Blood plasma

(3) Blood serum

(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic

system.

107. Which one of the following stage is correctly

described with their event.

(1) Telophase I = The bivalent chromosomes

align on the equatorial plate

(2) Diakinesis = Beginning of dissolution of

synaptonemal complex.

(3) Metaphase = Spindle fibres attach to

kinetochores of chromosomes

(4) Zygotene = Apperance of recombination

nodule

103. (Class) 6-15 (1) (2) (3) (4)

104. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

105. I, II III

-I -II -III

1

a i

2

b ii

3

c

iii

4 PSCGE d

iv

(1) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–iv, 4–d–i

(2) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–i, 4–d–iv

(3) 1–b–iii, 2–a–i, 3–c–ii, 4–d–iv

(4) 1–d–iii, 2–b–i, 3–c–iv, 4–a–ii

106. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

107.

(1) I =

(2) =

(3) =

(4) =


H-21/39Kota/00CM214004

108. Which of the following biomolecule does not give

iodine test ?

(1) Cellulose (2) Starch

(3) Glycogen (4) Animal starch

109. How many of the essential elements are correctly

matched with their roles ?

(a) PhosphorusConstituent of certainproteins

(b) SulphurConstituent of severalcoenzymes like CoA

(c) Zinc Pollen germination

(d) MolybdenumComponent ofcytochromes

(e) Potassium Anion-cation balance

(1) Three (2) Four (3) One (4) Two

110. Match the columns I, II and III to choose a correct

answer.

Column -I Column- II Column-III

A Peritoneum (a) Thickestlayer

(i) Brunner's gland

B Submucosa (b) Circular andlongitudnalmuscle

(ii) Outer covering

C Muscularis (c) Looseconnectivetissue

(iii) Villi andmicrovilli

D Mucosa (d) Mesothelium (iv) Peristalsis

(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iii, C-b-iv, D-c-i

(2) A–d-ii, B-c-i, C-b-iv, D-a-iii

(3) A–c-i, B-d-ii, C-b-iv, D-a-iii

(4) A–d-i, B-c-ii, C-a-iii, D-b-iv

111. Which one of the following structure is found in

prokaryotes but lack in eukaryotes :-

(1) Cell wall (2) Ribosome

(3) Cilia (4) Pili

112. Read the following term carefully

Pyrenoids, Algin, Carrageen, Mannitol, Starch,

Polysiphonia, Dictyota, Fucus, Pear shaped-

Zoospore, Oogamous, Volvox, Chloropohyll 'd',

Fucoxanthin, Ribbon- shaped chloroplast, holdfast

How many terms are related with brown alage. :-

(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 8

108. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

109. ?

(a)

(b) CoA

(c)

(d)

(e) -

(1) (2) (3) (4) 110. I, II III

-I - II -III

A (a) (i)

B (b)

(ii)

C (c)

(iii)

D (d) (iv)

(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iii, C-b-iv, D-c-i

(2) A–d-ii, B-c-i, C-b-iv, D-a-iii

(3) A–c-i, B-d-ii, C-b-iv, D-a-iii

(4) A–d-i, B-c-ii, C-a-iii, D-b-iv

111. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

112. ,, , , , , , 'd',

, , :-(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 8

Kota/00CM214004H-22/39


113. In Which of the following option all fishes are

bony

(1) Betta, Pterophyllum, Labeo

(2) Labeo, Catla, Trygon

(3) Pristic, Clarias, Trygon

(4) Catla, Labeo, Pristis

114. The hardest part of drupe fruit is :-

(1) Mesocarp

(2) Endocarp

(3) Pericarp

(4) Epicarp

115. Which of the following pairs of structures is

correctly matched with their correct description?

Structure Description

(1) Shoulder jointand elbow joint

Hinge joint

(2) Tibia and fibula Forms parts ofknee joint

(3) 11th and 12th

pairs of ribsFalse ribs andarticulateindirectly withsterunm

(4) Frontal andparietal

Bonus ofcranium

116. Consider the following four statements (i-iv) and

select the option which includes all the correct

ones only ?

(i) Forewings of cockroach are known as

tegmina or elytra.

(ii) Hindwings of cockroach are transperent and

membranous which are helpful in flight.

(iii) Forewings are transperent and light coloured

and used in the body covering during resting

stage.

(iv) Hindwings are long, lethary and narrow

which are helpful in covering of body.

Option :-

(1) Statements (i), (ii) & (iii)

(2) Statements (i) & (ii)

(3) Statements (iii) & (iv)

(4) Statements (ii), (iii) & (iv)

113. (1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , ,

114. () :-(1) (2) (3) ()(4)

115.

(1)

(2)

(3) 11 12

(4)

116. (i-iv) (i) "" ""

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

:-(1) (i), (ii) (iii)(2) (i) (ii)(3) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii), (iii) (iv)


H-23/39Kota/00CM214004

117. Mark the mismatched pair :

(1) Plastids Found in plantcells and ineuglenoids

(2) Golgi apparatus Site offormation ofglycoproteinsand glycolipids

(3) Nucleus Duringinterphase ithas highlyextended andelaboratenucleoproteinfibers

(4) Centriole Microtubularorganisation isreferred to asthe 9 + 2 andit forms basalbody of ciliaand flagella

118. How many statements are correct about the given

figure ?

Solute molecule

Water

Semipermeablemembrane

A B

(a) Water potential of chamber B is more negative

(b) Diffusion of solute will take place from

chamber B to chamber A.

(c) Diffusion solvent will take place from

chamber A to chamber B.

(d) Osmotic pressure of chamber A is higher than

chamber B

(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three

119. In presence of which enzyme first six carbon sugar

is formed in Calvin cycle.

(1) Transketolase (2) RuBisCO

(3) PEPCase (4) Aldolase

117. :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 9+ 2

118.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 119.

(1) Transketolase (2) RuBisCO

(3) PEPCase (4) Aldolase

Kota/00CM214004H-24/39


120. Choose the incorrect match regarding the

secretion, their site of secretion and function.

Secretion site of secretion Function

(1) Salivaryamylase

Buccal cavity Hydrolysis ofstarch

(2) Trypsin Jejunum Hydrolysis ofprotein andactivatetrypsinogen

(3) HCl Stomach Formation ofchyme

(4) Lipase Stomach andsmall intestine

Hydrolysis offats

121. Which of the following is true for alternation of

generation?

(1) The sporophyte, undergoes syngamy to

produce spores.

(2) The gametophyte, undergoes syngamy to

produce spores.

(3) The sporophyte, undergoes meiosis to produce

spores.

(4) The gametophyte, undergoes meiosis to

produce gametes.

122. Choose the incorrect match from following :-

(1) Cycas - branched stem

(2) Salvinia - heterosporous sporophyte

(3) Marchantia - Gemmae (Asexual reproductive

structure)

(4) Chlorella - used by space travellers

123. In which of the following reptile, heart is three

chambered :

(1) Frog (2) Salamender

(3) Chelone (4) Crocodile

124. Leguminous plants possess :-

(1) Napiform roots (2) Nodulated roots

(3) Tuberous roots (4) Fusiform roots

125. The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve willshow a right shift in case of :-(1) High pCO

2

(2) High pO2

(3) Low temperature(4) Low H+ concentration

126. In cockroach, how many fertilized eggs containin each ootheca ?(1) 8-10 eggs (2) 9-10 eggs(3) 14-16 eggs (4) 28-30 eggs

120. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) HCl

(4)

121. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

122. :-(1) - (2) - (3) - ()(4) -

123. :(1) (2) (3) (4)

124. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

125. :-(1) pCO

2

(2) pO2

(3) (4) H+

126. (1) 8-10 (2) 9-10 (3) 14-16 (4) 28-30


H-25/39Kota/00CM214004

127. Read the following statements (A-D):-

(A) DNA is a acidic substance.

(B) The two chains of DNA have anti parallel

polarity

(C) 5-methyl uracil is another chemical name of

thymine.

(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right

handed fashion.

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

128. How many of the following functions/effects are

related the cytokinins ?

Bolting, lateral shoot growth, nutrient

mobilisation, apical dominance, internode

elongation, delay of leaf senscence, breaking seed

dormancy.

(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

129.

a b c

Pea seedlingsgrowth

The above figure shows certain features in pea

seedlings growth representing decrease in vertical

growth, increase in horizontal growth and increase

in girth. The factor responsible for such effect

must be :-

(1) Light (2) CO2

(3) Auxin (4) Ethylene

130. Which of the following is incorrect match

regarding site of digestion along with it's site and

pH ?

Proteins Pepsin

Dipeptides

Site of digestion

Buccal cavity

Starch maltose

Digestion pH during the digestion

Stomach

Small intestine

Pancreas

pH = 1.8

pH = 6.8

pH = 7.4

pH = 8.0

Dipeptides

Maltose

Lactose

Sucrose

Trypsinogen

Dipeptidase

Salivary

amylase

Maltase

Lactase

Sucrase

entrokinase

Amino acid

Glucose + Glucose

Glucose + Galactose

Glucose + Fructose

Trypsin

(1)

(3)

(4)

(2)

127. (A-D):-

(A) DNA (B) DNA (C) 5-

(D) B-DNA

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

128. ?, , , , , ,(1) (2) (3) (4)

129.

a b c

Pea seedlingsgrowth

:-

(1) (2) CO2

(3) (4) 130.

pH ?

pH

pH = 1.8

pH = 6.8

pH = 7.4

pH = 8.0

+

+

+

(1)

(3)

(4)

(2)

Kota/00CM214004H-26/39


Time Management is Life Management

131. Mad cow disease (Bovine spongiform

encephalopathy), potato spindle tuber disease,

Aster yellow disease of sun flower and tungro

disease of rice are respectively, caused by :-

(1) Prions, Virus, Mycoplasma, Viroids

(2) Viroids, Prions, Mycoplasma, Virus

(3) Virus, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Prions

(4) Prions, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Virus

132. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select

the option which include all the correct ones only :-

(a) In radial symmetry, the body of an animal can

be divided into identical left and right halves

in only one plane.

(b) In platyhelminthes, an undifferentiated layer

mesoglea, is present in between the ectoderm

and the endoderm.

(c) Organ level is exhibited by members of

platyhelminthes.

(d) Coellentrates, Ctenophores and echinoderms

have radial symmetry.

Options :

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a) and (b)

(3) Statements (c) and (d)

(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

133. What is common in Macropus, Corvus and Calotes

(1) Pinna

(2) Oviparous

(3) Homoiothermous

(4) Internal fertilisation

134. Large green or coloured bract in spadix is known

as:-

(1) Epicalyx (2) Spathe

(3) Involucre (4) Involucel

135. Which of the following options is incorrect?

(1) Hinge joint Between humerus andpectorol girdle

(2) Pivot joint Between atlas and axis

(3) Gliding joint Between the carpals

(4) Saddle joint Between carpal andmetacarpals of thumb

131. (), ,

:-

(1) , , ,

(2) , ,

(3) , , ,

(4) , , , 132. (a-d)

:-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

:(1) (b), (c) (d)

(2) (a) (b)

(3) (c) (d)

(4) (a), (c) (d)

133. (1) (2) (3) (4)

134. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

135.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-27/39Kota/00CM214004

136. The three events (A,B,C) of cell divisions are

given below in systematic way. Select the correct

option which is suit for step B.

(A) Breakdown of nuclear envelope

(C) Chromatids move to opposite poles

(B)

Option :-

(1) Condensation of chromation start

(2) Nucleolus reform

(3) Arrargement of chromosomes at equator

(4) DNA replication

137. Among the following, how many compound are

nitrogenous base ?

Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil, Melanine,

Glycine, Adenosine, Thymidine

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3

138. Identify the correct labeling.

C

Soil 'N' Pool

Biological N fixation2

B

A NO2

– NO3

–

(Uptake)

Atmospheric N2

A B C

(1) N2

Nitrification Ammonification

(2) NH3

Electrical N2

fixationAmmonification

(3) NO3– Denitrification

Electrical N2

fixation

(4) NH3

DenitrificationElectrical N

2

fixation

136. (A,B,C) B

(A)

(C)

(B)

:-(1) (2) (3) (4) DNA

137. ?

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 1 (4) 3

138.

C

'N'

N2B

A NO2

– NO3

–

( )

N2

A B C

(1) N2

(2) NH3

N2

(3) NO3–

N2

(4) NH3

N2

Kota/00CM214004H-28/39


139. Take a small soft-stemmed plant and on a day

when there is plenty of atmospheric moisture, cut

the stem horizontally near the base with a sharp

blade, early in the morning. You will soon see

drops of solution ooze out of the cut stem; this

comes out due to the :-

(1) Transpiration pull

(2) Capillary action

(3) Root pressure

(4) Cohesive and adhesive forces

140. Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) Transmission of an impulse across electrical

synapses is very similar to impulse conduction

along a single axon.

(B) Action potential is infact termed as nerve

impulse.

(C) Electrical current can flow directly from one

neuron to another neuron across chemical

synapse.

(D) At electrical synapses the membranes of pre

and post synaptic neurons are in very close

proximity.

How many of the above statements are true :-

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

141. Which one of the following is not a ecological

importance of moss plants :-

(1) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous

mammals, birds and other animals

(2) Very high water holding capacity of mosses

is useful for trans-shipment of living materials

(3) Mosses along with lichens are the pioneering

organism to colonise rocks

(4) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and reduce

the impact of falling rain

142. Find out the correct match from the following table


(i) Petromyzon Hag fish Cyclostomata

(ii) Trygon Sting ray Osteichthyes

(iii) Pterophyllum Angel fish Osteichthyes

(1) i only (2) i and ii

(3) iii only (4) ii and iii

139.

:-

(1)

(2) (3) (4) -

140. (A-D)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

:-

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

141. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

142.


(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1) i (2) i ii(3) iii (4) ii iii


H-29/39Kota/00CM214004

143. The digestive tract of which vertebrate has

additional chambers, the crop and gizzard.

(1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach

(3) Frog (4) Pigeon

144. Inflorescence in Musa paradisiaca (banana) is

a :-

(1) Raceme (2) Catkin

(3) Mixed Spadix (4) Verticillaster

145. Find the correct match

b d

ac

(1) a Pulmonaryartery

(i) Carry oxygenatedblood to lungs

(2) b Pulmonaryvein

(ii) Carry deoxygenatedblood to heart

(3) c Systemicveins

(iii) Carry deoxygenatedblood

(4) d Systemicarteries

(iv) Carry oxygenatedblood to heart

146. A few statements are made about the

characteristics of cells. How many statements are

correct.

(A) The prokaryotic bacteria possess flagella but

these are structurally different from that of the

eukaryotic flagella.

(B) Central part of the centriole is proteineceous

called the hub.

(C) A single human cell has approximately two

metre long thread of DNA distributed in one

chromosomes.

(D) RER is extensive and continuous with the

outer membrane of the nucleus.

(1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Four

143. (1) (2) (3) (4)

144. () :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

145.

b d

ac

(1) a

(i)

(2) b

(ii)

(3) c

(iii)

(4) d

(iv)

146.

(A)

(B)

(C) DNA

(D) RER

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/00CM214004H-30/39


147. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and

select the option which include all the correct ones

only.

(a) Transcription and translation can be coupled

in bacteria.

(b) The split gene arrangements represents the

advanced feature of the genome.

(c) The process of splicing represents dominance

of RNA-world.

(d) The presence of introns in split gene is

reminiscent of antiquity.

(1) a, b and d

(2) a, b and c

(3) a, c and d

(4) b, c and d

148. Calvin cycle occurs in which types of cells in C4

and CAM plants respectively ?

(1) Mesophyll cells, bundle sheath cells

(2) Mesophyll cells only

(3) Bundle sheath cells only

(4) Bundle sheath cells, mesophyll cells

149. The appearance of brown spots surrounded by

chlorotic veins is the prominent symptom of :-

(1) Copper deficiency

(2) Molybdenum deficiency

(3) Magnesium toxicity

(4) Manganese toxicity

150. In the given list how many hormones are included

in steroid hormones.

Insulin, Cortisol, Estradiol, Glucagon, Progesterone

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 3

151. The predominant stage of the life cycle of Moss

is gametophyte, which consists of two stages they

are respectively :-

(1) Protonema, Prothallus

(2) Spore mother cell, protonema

(3) Protonema, leafy stage

(4) Protonema, zygote

147. (a-d)

:-

(a)

(b)

(c) 'RNA-'

(d)

(1) a, b d

(2) a, b c

(3) a, c d

(4) b, c d

148. C4 CAM

?

(1) ,

(2)

(3)

(4) ,

149. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

150.

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 3

151.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-31/39Kota/00CM214004

152. Identify the given animal below as well as the

related character and select the right option for the

two together

Animal Character

(1) Chameleon External Fertilisation

(2) Chameleon Internal fertilisation

(3) Salamandra Skin is without scales

(4) Crocodilus Sheds their scales asskin cast

153. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly

matched ?

(1) Gymnosperms–Albuminous cells and sieve

cells.

(2) Flowering plants–Tracheids and vessels

(3) Angiosperms–Sieve tube elements and

companion cells

(4) Gymnosperms – Tracheids and vessels

154. Which one of the following options gives the

correct categorisation of six plants according to

the type of vascular bundles (A,B,C), they

possess:-

A

CONJOINTCOLLATERAL

BRADIAL

CCONJOINT

BICOLLATERAL

(1) Sunflower stem,maize stem

Cucurbitastem,Cucumberstem

Fern root, maize root

(2) Sunflower stem,maize stem

Fern root,maize root

Cucurbita stem,Cucumber stem

(3) Fern root, maizeroot

Sunflowerstem, maizestem

Cucurbita stem,Cucumber stem

(4) Cucurbita stem,Cucumber stem

Fern root,maize root

Sunflower stem,maize stem

152.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

153.

?

(1)

(2)

(3) –

(4) – 154.

(A,B,C) :-

A

B

C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Kota/00CM214004H-32/39


155. The course of blood from heart to the lungs and

back to the heart is called :-

(1) Systemic circulation

(2) Pulmonary circulation

(3) Blood circulation

(4) Single circuit circulation

156. Three of the following statements are correct

while one is incorrect. Which one is incorrect:-

(1) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular

activity.

(2) Stroma of the chloroplast contain enzymes

required for the synthesis of protein.

(3) During prophase chromosomes lose their

identity as discrete elements

(4) In human beings the membrane of erythrocytes

has approximately 52 percent protein

157. During DNA replication the average rate of

polymerisation in E.coli is :-

(1) 4000 bp/second (2) 20000 bp/second


158. While the membrane or lamellae of the grana have

__A__ the stroma lamellae membrane lacks

__B__.

A B

(1) PS-II PS-II and PS-I

(2)Both PS-I andPS-II

PS-I

(3)Both PS-I andPS-II

PS-II andNADP reductase

(4)PS-II andNADP reductase

PS-I and NADPreductase

159. Consider the following statements and select the

option which includes all correct statements.

(a) In alcoholic fermentation triose-P is the donor

of hydrogen and pyruvic acid is the acceptor.

(b) In aerobic respiration O2 is not directly used

in Krebs cycle but it is regarded as aerobic

pathway.

(c) Krebs cycle is the common oxidation pathway

for complete breakdown of fats, carbohydrates

and amino acids.

(d) Hexokinase is allosterically inhibited by high

conc. of ATP.

(1) a, b & c (2) b & c

(3) b, c & d (4) c & d

155. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

156. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 52

157. DNA E.coli :-(1) 4000 bp/second (2) 20000 bp/second


158. __A__ __B__

A B

(1) PS-II PS-II and PS-I

(2)PS-I PS-II

PS-I

(3)PS-I PS-II

PS-II NADPreductase

(4)PS-II NADP reductase

PS-I NADPreductase

159. (a) -

(b) O2

(c)

(d) ATP

(1) a, b & c

(2) b & c

(3) b, c & d

(4) c & d


H-33/39Kota/00CM214004

160.

A

B

C

D

Indentify A, B, C, D in the given figure.

A B C D

(1) Scalavestibuli

Scalatympani

Reissner'smembrane

Basilarmembrane

(2) Scalatympani

Scalavectibuli

Basilarmembrane

Reissner'smembrane

(3) Scalatympani

Scalavestibuli

Reissner'smembrane

Basilarmembrane

(4) Scalavestibuli

Scalatympani

Basilarmembrane

Reissner'smembrane

161. Euglena, Nostoc, Chlorella, Sphagnum, Cycasselect the correct statement with respect to aboveorganisms :-(1) All are unicellular(2) All belong to kingdom plantae according to

five kingdom(3) All are photosynthetic and act as producer in

nature.(4) All have cell wall

162. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given representfour different animals which one of these iscorrectly identified in the option given along withits habitat and phylum :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Animal Habitat Phylum

(1) D Obelia Marine Coelentrata

(2) A Spongilla Marine Porifera

(3) B Euspongia Marine Porifera

(4) C Sycon Fresh water Porifera

160.

A

B

C

D

A, B, C, D

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

161. :-(1) (2) (3)

(4) 162. (A, B, C D)

:-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) D

(2) A

(3) B

(4) C

Kota/00CM214004H-34/39


163. How many meristems in the list given below are

responsible for producing the secondary tissues?

Apical meristem, Fascicular vascular cambium,

Interfascicular cambium, Intercalary meristem,

Marginal meristem, cork cambium.

(1) Five (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

164. Identify the correct match from the columns I,II,

III :-Column I Column II Column III

1. Sunflower stem

a. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis

i. Dictyostele

2. Maize stem

b. Hypodermis absent ii. Mechanical tissuesabsent

3. Sunflower root

c. Collenchymatous hypodermis

iii. Lignin deposition

4. Fern rhizome

d. Mesarch xylem iv. Pectin deposition

Options :

(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii

(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii(4) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i

165. The main difference in the structure of arteriesand vein is :-

(1) Tunica interna made up of simple squamousepithelium

(2) Tunica media less developed in veins(3) Tunica externa is less developed in veins

(4) Tunica externa is well developed in arteries166. Given below are four statements (A–D) each with

one blanks. Select the option which correctly fillup the blank in two statements.

(A) Materials to be packaged in the form ofvesicles from the ER fuse with the........Face

of the golgi appratus.(B) Majority of the chloroplasts of the green

plants are found in the.........cells of leaves.(C) Nucleolus is a site for active.......synthesis

(D) During zygotene chromosomes start pairingtogether and this process of association is

called........(1) (A) Maturing

(B) Mesophyll(2) (B) Mesophyll

(C) Ribosomal protein(3) (C) Transfer RNA

(D) Chiasmata(4) (D) Synapsis

(A) Forming

163.

?

(1) (2) (3) (4) 164. I,II III :-

I II III

1.

a.

i.

2. b.

ii.

3. c.

iii.

4.

d.

iv.

:(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii

(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii(4) 2-a-iii, i-c-iv, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i

165. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

166. (A–D) (A)

(B)

(C) (D)

(1) (A) (B)

(2) (B) (C)

(3) (C) RNA(D)

(4) (D) (A)


H-35/39Kota/00CM214004

167. In the ring structure of glucose how many chirale

carbon are present ?

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

168. The reaction given below is related to which

process ?

R –C–COO + R –C OO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2

– – – ––C

H

NH3

+ O

H

O NH3

+

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) Amino acid synthesis by reductive amination

(3) Nitrification

(4) Amino acid synthesis by transamination

169. Find out the correct match from the following

table with respect to photosynthetic pathways.


(i) Maize PEPCase OAA

(ii) Wheat RuBisCO OAA

(iii) C4 cycle

Kranzanatomy

Photorespirationabsent

(iv)CAMpathway

Kranzanatomy

Malate storage

(1) i, iii & iv (2) ii & iii

(3) ii, iii & iv (4) i & iii

170. Which of the following statement is false :-

(1) Above the rows of the hair cells is a thin elastic

membrane called tectorial membrane.

(2) The fovea is a thinned out portion of the retina

where only the cones are densely packed.

(3) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in

order to provide the additional space for many

more neurons.

(4) At the base of the cochlea, the scala tympani

ends at the oval window.

171. Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) Capsule of moss and roots of club moss are

diploid.

(2) Rhizoids of moss and roots of horse tails are

diploid.

(3) Fronds of fern and protonema of moss are

haploid.

(4) Leaves and endosperm of gymnosperm are

diploid.

167. ?

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

168. ?

R –C–COO + R –C OO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2

– – – ––C

H

NH3

+O

H

O NH3

+

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 169.


(i) Maize PEPCase OAA

(ii) Wheat RuBisCO OAA

(iii) C4 cycle

Kranzanatomy

Photorespirationabsent

(iv)CAMpathway

Kranzanatomy

Malate storage

(1) i, iii & iv (2) ii & iii

(3) ii, iii & iv (4) i & iii

170. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

171. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Kota/00CM214004H-36/39


172. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and

select the option which includes all the correct

ones only

(a) Round worms have organ system level of

body organisation.

(b) Plannaria Possess high regeneration capacitiy.

(c) In ctenophores, sexes are seperate.

(d) Flat worms psuedocoelomate animal.

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statement (a), (b)

(3) Statement (c), (d)

(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

173. Which one of the following characters in not found

in the monocotyledonous stem ?

(1) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath around

vascular bundles.

(2) Absence of phloem parenchyma

(3) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis

(4) Presence of starch sheath

174. The figure below (A,B,C,D) types of placentation.

Select the option giving correct identification

together with what it represents ?

(A) (B)

(C)

(D)

Options :-

(1) C – Represents free central placentation

(2) A – Represents parietal placentation

(3) B – Represents axile plancentation

(4) D – Represents basal placentation

172. (a-d) (a)

(b)

(c) (d) (1) (b), (c) (d)

(2) (a), (b)

(3) (c), (d)

(4) (a), (c) (d)

173. ?(1)

(2) (3) (4)

174. (A,B,C,D) ?

(A) (B)

(C)

(D)

:-(1) C –

(2) A – (3) B – (4) D –


H-37/39Kota/00CM214004

175. Which among the following is correct during each

cardiac cycle?

(1) The volume of blood pumped out by the right

and left ventricle is different.

(2) The volume of blood pumped out by the right

and left ventricle is same.

(3) The volume of blood received by each atrium

is different.

(4) The volume of blood received by the aorta and

pulmonary artery is different.

176. In the given below structure of mitochondria how

many labelling are mismatched ?Outermembrane

Innermembrane

Matrix Grana

Thylakoidal space

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One

177. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) During DNA-replication, deoxyribonucleotide

triphophate serve dual purposes.

(2) DNA depended-DNA polymerase catalyse the

Polymerisation only in one direction i.e., 5'-3'.

(3) A failure, in cell division after DNA

replication results into polyploidy.

(4) In DNA of E.coli only 4.6 × 106 bp are present.

178. For aerobic respiration to take place within themitochondria, the final product of glycolysis,pyruvate is transported from the cytoplasm intothe mitochondria. The crucial events in aerobicrespiration are :-• The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the

stepwise removal of all the __A__ leavingthree molecules of __B__.

• The passing on of the electrons removed asthe part of the __C__ to __D__ with

simultaneous synthesis of ATP.

A B C D

(1)Oxygenatoms

CO2

Hydrogenatoms

MolecularO

2

(2)Hydrogenatoms

CO2

Hydrogenatoms

MolecularO

2

(3) CO2

H2O O

2

Hydrogenatoms

(4) CO2

O2

Hydrogenatoms

H2O

175. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

176.

(1) (2) (3) (4) 177. ?

(1) DNA-

(2) DNA--DNA 5'-3'

(3) DNA-

(4) E.coli DNA 4.6 × 106 bp

178. :-• __A__ 3 __B__

• __C__ __D__ ATP

A B C D

(1) CO

2

(2) CO

2

(3) CO2

H2O O

2

(4) CO2

O2

H

2O

Kota/00CM214004H-38/39


179. Match the following to select the correct match:-

Organ Coverings Anatomicaldescription

A Oesophagus (a) Capsule andfascia

(i) J-shaped organ

B Stomach (b) Glisson'scapsule

(ii) Cortex andmedulla

C Kidney (c) Nomesothelium

(iii) Bilobed organ

D Liver (d) Peritoneumand adiposetissue

(iv) Cervical,thoracicand abdominalparts

(1) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iii

(2) A–d-i, B-c-iv, C-b-iii, D-a-ii

(3) A–c-i, B-d-iv, C-a-ii, D-b-iii

(4) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-iii, D-b-ii

180. Which of the following disease occurs due to

hyposecretion of dopamine causing rigidity in

muscles :-

(1) Huntington's chorea

(2) Alzheimer's disease

(3) Parkinson's disease

(4) Stroke

179. Match the following to select the correct match:-

A (a)

(i) J-

B (b) (ii)

C (c)

(iii)

D (d)

(iv)

(1) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iii

(2) A–d-i, B-c-iv, C-b-iii, D-a-ii

(3) A–c-i, B-d-iv, C-a-ii, D-b-iii

(4) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-iii, D-b-ii

180. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Your moral duty

is to prove that is


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