Final Semester 3

8/9/2019 Final Semester 3

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CCNA Discovery 3 - FINAL Exam Answers Version 4.0

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Filed : CCNA Discovery 3 Version 4.0, Introducing Routing,Switching in the Enterprise

1. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass

local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?

client server

pruning

transparent

2. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)

IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.

IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only. IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing

protocols.

Traffic can be filtered on source address only. Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.

Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port

number.

3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers?

(Choose two.)

LCP tests the quality of the link.

LCP manages compression on the link Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.

NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete. With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a

network?

All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be

forwarded out serial0/0. All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be

forwarded out serial0/0. All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will beforwarded out serial0/0.

All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be

forwarded out serial0/0.

5.
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Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network

administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation.

Which statement is true? RB has the lowest priority value.

RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.

RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers. RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporateheadquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the

necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for

the sales representative?

VPN

Frame Relay PPP with CHAP authentication

PPP with PAP authentication

7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration

changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show
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vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?

VTP V2 mode is disabled.

SW3 is configured as transparent mode. The number of existing VLANs does not match.

The configuration revision number does not match.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in theOSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two

statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)

Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBReven when the links are down

A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.

Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state. Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.

Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.) memory size

bridge priority

number of ports

switch location switching speed

base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as

150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration? 255.255.0.0

255.255.240.0
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255.255.254.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128 255.255.255.192

11.

What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip

eigrp topology command? feasible distance of the successor reported distance of the successor

feasible distance of the feasible successor

reported distance of the feasible successor

12.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network

have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which routershould the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for allhosts in the network?

R1

R2

R3 ISP
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13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?

faster communication with server farms

stronger security against malicious attacks faster communication with Internet destinations

enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company

networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these

requirements?

R2: Fa0/0 inbound R1: S0/1/0 outbound

R1: S0/0/1 inbound

R2: S0/0/1 outbound R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.

Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check theparameters listed when selecting the DR?

C, B, A, D
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D, C, B, A

A, B, C, D

A, C, B, D B, C, A, D

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.) A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.

A successor route can only be found in the routing table.

The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state. The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was

formed.

The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.

Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP

routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the

show command output? Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.

Router B has a fully converged topology table.

Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.

Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.) RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment. RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.

Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.

RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge. RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.

RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.
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19.

Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address onone of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to rejectthe address?

The IP address is already in use.

The technician is using a network address. The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26

The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?

A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table. A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interfaceFastEthernet0/1 goes down.

A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route

to 10.10.4.0 is removed.

A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes thedestination network already exists.

21.
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Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface.

Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the

Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.) The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.

The inside interface has not been defined on R1.

The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by theinside network.

The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect

The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces showthat there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP isoperational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the

cause of this connectivity problem?

no set loopback incorrect subnet mask on R2

incompatible bandwidth

incorrect IP address on R1 incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by

a switch? (Choose two.) to set the duplex mode of a redundant link

to activate looped paths throughout the network

to determine the root bridge to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches

to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what
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two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)

The key passes between routers in plain text.

The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication. The key passes between routers in encrypted form.

The key is never transmitted.

The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true? Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.

No host can reach any other host.

Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.

All hosts can reach each other.

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default

summarization in an EIGRP network? Router(config-router)# null 0 route

Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address

Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address Router(config-if)# no auto-summary

Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

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Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of theservers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF

configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.) There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.

There is a network statement missing. Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.

/23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.18.0.11/16

H3-172.18.0.12/16

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.19.0.10/16

H3-172.18.0.11/16

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.18.0.11/16

H3-172.19.0.11/16

H1-172.18.0.10/16H2-172.19.0.11/16H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IPaddress 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What

IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
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192.168.13.4/30

192.168.13.5/30

192.168.13.7/30 192.168.13.58/30

192.168.13.61/27

192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network

engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet.Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)

define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets

add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic

deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts connect remote locations directly to the intranet

configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts

deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

31. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?

It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements ofthe enterprise.

The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.

The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider onthe Frame Relay circuit

It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.

32. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Whichprotocol will be used to transport the voice packets?

TCP

UDP PPP

HDLC

33. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL

statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?

access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80

access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20 access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21

access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply

access-list 101 deny tcp any any established

34. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when

designing a network? to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions

to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure

to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic

to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network


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35. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose

two.) eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device

provides segmentation of broadcast domains

allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location

prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

36. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network?

(Choose three.)

10.200.11.69

10.200.16.1 10.200.0.255

10.201.0.55

10.200.15.240

10.200.30.29

37.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all

networks are being advertised, which statement is true?

All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.

None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2. Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.

Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is

connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?

R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1 R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0 R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0

39.

Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can

ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot pingthe other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?

The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.

The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.

The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.

The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to supportinter-VLAN routing.

40. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement

that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)

0.0.0.0 5

255.255.240.0
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255.255.255.255

0.0.31.255

255.255.255.240 0.0.0.31

41. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is beingused?

leased line

cell switched circuit switched

packet switched

42.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses

on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address? 192.168.0.0/22

192.168.0.0/23

192.168.0.0/24 192.168.0.0/25

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Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which

two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)

R1

R2 R3

R4

44.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output?(Choose two.)

A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial

0/1/0n interface.

The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed. Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.

The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.

The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP
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to this router.

45.

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output ofthis command? (Choose two.)

172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.

All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled. The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.

The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.

The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for

advertising purposes.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this

OSPF network? (Choose three.) RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30

RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
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RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.

RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.

RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28. RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

47.

Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet

access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup

provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that innormal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1

fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator

configures two default routes:

BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1

However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the

configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first defaultroute not showing?

The first configuration command overwrites the second command.

The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IPaddress that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.

This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then

the first default route will be installed into the routing table.

The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administratormanually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1

command.

48.
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Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary

address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific? 192.168.1.0/22

192.168.4.0/21

192.168.6.0/23 192.168.8.0/21

192.168.4.0/22

49. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

It requires a special VLAN ID tag.

It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.

Untagged traffic slows the switching process down The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.

Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN

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Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their

network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLANinformation is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status

command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being

received by the new switch? VTP version mismatch

VTP domain name mismatch VTP revision number mismatch

Time synchronization problems

51.

Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routeswill be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)

A

B
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C

D

E F

52.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?

It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP

router.

It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISProuter.

It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.

It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISProuter

It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

53. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices.

What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)

Static routes are more secure.

Static routes converge faster. Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.

The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN

connection changes. They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway

protocol.

54. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network?

(Choose two.)

manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
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allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu

configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association

implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specificVLANs.

associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server

database manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

55. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.) Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.

Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.

By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.

Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.

RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.

56. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocatingunused time slices to communicating users?

VPN NCP

TDM

STP STDM

57.

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?

a child route that is defined

a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path

the result of the no auto-summary command on a router

58. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client oruser workstation authenticated?

prior to link establishment during the link establishment phase

before the network layer protocol configuration begins

after the network layer protocol configuration has ended

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0
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By CuEi on 9:19 PM

Comments (0)


1.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, to which IP network should theworkstations in the Support department belong?

192.168.1.0

172.16.1.0 172.16.3.0

172.16.5.0

2.
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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is doing proactive network maintenance.The administrator pings 192.168.1.100 and compares the results to the baseline data.

Based on the comparison of the two pings, what is one possibility?

There is an ACL applied, making the destination host unreachable. There is a malfunctioning NIC on the destination host.

The sending host is unable to access the network.

There are congestion problems on the network.

3.
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Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug ppp negotiation command,

which statement is true?

The line protocol of the local router is now up. The username Goleta is configured locally.

The command ppp authentication pap is configured on both routers.

The local router requested to terminate the session.

4. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when

implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number. The physical interface must have an IP address configured.

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each

VLAN subnet. The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. A lab technician connects two routers together via a serial cable

using the default interface configuration values. The interfaces are up; however, the

technician is unable to ping between the two devices. What is the most likely problem? The lab technician used the wrong cable to connect the serial ports.
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There is an IP mismatch between the serial ports.

There is an encapsulation mismatch between the serial ports.

No clock rate has been set on the DCE interface.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, why is VTP information unable topropagate the network?

One of the two client mode switches must be reconfigured to Transparent mode.

Each switch must be synchronized to the network time server.

The VTP domain names are different.

VTP passwords must be set. The configuration revision numbers are all the same.

7. The enterprise mail server software recently went through a minor update. A network

administrator notices an excessive amount of traffic between a database server and the

newly updated mail server, compared to the baseline data. What is the first action theadministrator should do to investigate the problem?

Wait to see if the recent update will stabilize after a while.

Redo the baseline data to include the minor upgrade.

Check the log to see what software components are producing the excess traffic. Check for viruses and spyware on the database server.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Users are reporting that they cannot access the Internet. Routers R1

and R2 are configured with RIP version 2 as shown. If R2 receives a packet with adestination address on the Internet, how is the packet routed?

The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to network 10.1.1.0/24.

The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to the Internet.

The packet is routed to R1 and then forwarded out Fa0/0 on R1.
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The packet will not be routed because R2 does not have a valid default route.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending

updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface

of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2,

and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is theproblem?

Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.

One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface. The serial link between the two routers is unstable.

VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

10.
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Refer to the exhibit. Host 192.168.1.14 is unable to download email from 192.168.2.200.After reviewing the output of the show running-config command, what problem is

discovered?

Access to the SMTP server is denied. The destination host address in an ACL statement is incorrect.

The ACL is applied to the interface in the wrong direction.

The implicit deny any any is blocking all access to email.

11. An employee called the help desk to report a laptop that could not access a web-basedapplication on the Internet. The help desk technician asked the employee to open a

Windows command prompt and type the ipconfig /all command. Which problem-solvingtechnique did the technician choose?

top-down

bottom-up substitution

divide-and-conquer

12.
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Refer to the exhibit. Based on the network diagram and the output shown, whichstatement is true?

The command was entered on router R1. The command was entered on router R2. The command was entered on router R3.

The command could have been entered on either R1 or R2.

13.
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Refer to the exhibit. An ACL is configured to prevent access by network 192.168.1.0 tonetwork 192.168.2.0, but it is not working properly. What problem is discovered after

observing the output of the show running-config command?

The protocol type specified in the ACL should be TCP, not IP.

The source and destination addresses are reversed in the statement. The ACL is applied to the wrong interface, but the right direction.

The ACL is applied to the wrong interface and the wrong direction.

The permit ip any any statement allows network 192.168.1.0 access.

14.

Although all networks are reachable, the network administrator notices abnormal routing

behavior after configuring OSPF on each router. According to the partial output from the
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debug ip ospf events command, which statement is true about the contents of the routing

table in RA?

It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RB. It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RC.

It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.4/30.

It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.8/30.

15. A network at a large building failed, causing a severe disruption in business activities.

The problem was eventually detected and resolved by replacing a piece of failed networkequipment. Investigation led to the conclusion that a network design problem was the

main cause of the disruption. Loss of a single piece of equipment should not have been

able to cause such a large problem. What two terms best describe this type of design

weakness? (Choose two.) bottleneck

limited availability

limited scalability

large failure domain single point of failure

limited staff capabilities

16.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is troubleshooting the connectivity issuebetween RA and RB. According to the partial configuration, what is the cause of the

problem?

password mismatch for PPP authentication

username mismatch for PPP authentication encapsulation method mismatch for PPP authentication

authentication method mismatch for PPP authentication

17.
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Refer to the exhibit. ABC Company is using the 172.16.0.0/18 network. It is standardcompany practice to use the first 50 addresses for switches and servers and assign the last

usable address to the router. The remaining addresses are assigned to the hosts. After

assigning the addresses, the network technician tests connectivity from the host aboveand is not able to ping the router. What could be the problem?

The router was assigned the broadcast address.

The host is not in the same subnet as the switch and router.

The router interface is in the wrong subnet. The host was assigned a network address.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a problem. No users are

able to access the 10.10.2.0/24 network, but are able to access all other networks.Assuming R3 is configured correctly and based on the output shown, what is most likely

the problem?

There is congestion on the 10.10.2.0 network.

The EIGRP process number on R2 is incorrect. The Fa0/0 interface on R2 is shut down.

The Fa0/0 interface on R2 has an incorrect IP address or subnet mask.
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19.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform

inter-VLAN routing. Using the show vlan command, the administrator verifies that port

Fast Ethernet 0/4 is the first available port in the default VLAN on SW2. Theadministrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work.

What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

Port 0/4 is not active. Port 0/4 must be a member of VLAN1.

Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.

Port 0/4 is configured as a trunk port.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to ping from the console of

router R3 to host 10.10.4.63. What is the problem?

RIPv1 does not support VLSM.
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1.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add the command deny ip 10.0.0.00.255.255.255 any log to R3. After adding the command, the administrator verifies the

change using the show access-list command. What sequence number does the new entry

have? 0

10, and all other items are shifted down to the next sequence number

50

60

2.

Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commandsshown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The new commands overwrite the current Managers ACL.

The new commands are added to the end of the current Managers ACL. The new commands are added to the beginning of the current Managers ACL.

An error appears stating that the ACL already exists.

3. Why are inbound ACLs more efficient for the router than outbound ACLs? Inbound ACLs deny packets before routing lookups are required.

Inbound ACL operation requires less network bandwidth than outbound.

Inbound ACLs permit or deny packets to LANs, which are typically more efficient thanWANs.

Inbound ACLs are applied to Ethernet interfaces, while outbound ACLs are applied to

slower serial interfaces.

4.
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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of a company needs to configure therouter RTA to allow its business partner (Partner A) to access the web server located in

the internal network. The web server is assigned a private IP address, and a static NAT is

configured on the router for its public IP address. Finally, the administrator adds theACL. However, Partner A is denied access to the web server. What is the cause of the

problem?

Port 80 should be specified in the ACL. The public IP address of the server, 209.165.201.5, should be specified as the

destination.

The ACL should be applied on the s0/0 outbound interface.

The source address should be specified as 198.133.219.0 255.255.255.0 in the ACL.

5. ACL logging generates what type of syslog message?

unstable network warning

informational

critical situation

6. Which two host addresses are included in the range specified by 172.16.31.64

0.0.0.31? (Choose two.) 172.16.31.64

172.16.31.77

172.16.31.78

172.16.31.95 172.16.31.96

7. Traffic from the 64.104.48.0 to 64.104.63.255 range must be denied access to thenetwork. What wildcard mask would the network administrator configure in the access

list to cover this range?

0.0.15.255 0.0.47.255

0.0.63.255

255.255.240.0
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8. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs?

(Choose two.)

specifying source addresses for authentication specifying internal hosts for NAT

identifying traffic for QoS

reorganizing traffic into VLANs filtering VTP packets

9. What can an administrator do to ensure that ICMP DoS attacks from the outside aremitigated as much as possible, without hampering connectivity tests initiated from the

inside out?

Create an access list permitting only echo reply and destination unreachable packets

from the outside. Create an access list denying all ICMP traffic coming from the outside.

Permit ICMP traffic from only known external sources.

Create an access list with the established keyword at the end of the line.

10. What effect does the command reload in 30 have when entered into a router?

If a router process freezes, the router reloads automatically. If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where an ACL is applied,

the router reloads in 30 minutes.

If a remote connection lasts for longer than 30 minutes, the router forces the remote useroff.

A router automatically reloads in 30 minutes.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands were entered on RTB.

RTB(config)# access-list 4 deny 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.15RTB(config)# access-list 4 permit anyRTB(config)# interface serial 0/0/0

RTB(config-if)# ip access-group 4 in

Which addresses do these commands block access to RTB? 192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.31

192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.31*

192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.32
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192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.33

12.

Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from

the Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is

allowed to the Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1on the Marketing router to implement the new security policy?

access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 anyaccess-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any

access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

access-list 165 permit ip any any access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any

access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 anyaccess-list 89 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

13. Which three statements are true concerning standard and extended ACLs? (Choosethree.)

Extended ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are

filtered at the destination. Standard ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are

filtered at the destination.

Extended ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the

destination if other traffic is to flow. Standard ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the

destination if other traffic is to flow.

Extended ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packetsto pass through the network if placed near the source.

Standard ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to

pass through the network if placed near the source.

14.
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Refer to the exhibit. Company policy for the network that is shown indicates the

following guidelines:

1) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network, except host 192.168.3.77, should be able toreach the 192.168.2.0/24 network.

2) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network should be able to reach the 192.168.1.0/24network.3) All other traffic originating from the 192.168.3.0 network should be denied.

Which set of ACL statements meets the stated requirements when they are applied to the

Fa0/0 interface of router R2 in the inbound direction? access-list 101 deny ip any any

access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255


access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255


access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255


access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255access-list 101 permit ip any any



15.
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Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should beable to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will

apply to traffic on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?

access-list 42 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255access-list 42 permit any

access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 56 permit any

access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0access-list 61 permit any

access-list 87 deny ip any 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 87 permit ip any

16.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure an access list that will

allow the management host with an IP address of 192.168.10.25/24 to be the only host toremotely access and configure router RTA. All vty and enable passwords are configured

on the router. Which group of commands will accomplish this task?
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Router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet

Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip any any

Router(config)# int s0/0Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in

Router(config-if)# int fa0/0

Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in Router(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.25 eq telnet

Router(config)# access-list 10 deny any

Router(config)# line vty 0 4Router(config-line)#access-group 10 in

Router(config)# access-list 86 permit host 192.168.10.25

Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# access-class 86 in Router(config)# access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.10.25 any eq telnet

Router(config)# access-list 125 deny ip any any

Router(config)# int s0/0

Router(config-if)# ip access-group 125 in

17. Which ACL permits host 10.220.158.10 access to the web server 192.168.3.244? access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.220.158.10 eq 80 host 192.168.3.224

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80

access-list 101 permit host 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80 access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 eq 80

18. Which wildcard mask would match the host range for the subnet 192.16.5.32 /27?

0.0.0.32 0.0.0.63

0.0.63.255

0.0.0.31

19. A security administrator wants to secure password exchanges on the vty lines on all

routers in the enterprise. What option should be implemented to ensure that passwordsare not sent in clear text across the public network?

Use Telnet with an authentication server to ensure effective authentication.

Apply an access list on the router interfaces to allow only authorized computers.

Apply an access list on the vty line to allow only authorized computers. Use only Secure Shell (SSH) on the vty lines.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notes a significant increase in the amount of trafficentering the network from the ISP. The administrator clears the access-list counters. After

a few minutes, the administrator again checks the access-list table. What can be
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concluded from the most recent output shown?

A small amount of HTTP trafic is an indication that the web server was not configured

correctly. A larger amount of POP3 traffic (compared with SMTP traffic) indicates that there are

more POP3 email clients than SMTP clients in the enterprise.

A large amount of ICMP traffic is being denied at the interface, which can be anindication of a DoS attack.

A larger amount of email traffic (compared with web traffic) is an indication that

attackers mainly targeted the email server.


By CuEi on 9:19 PM

Comments (0)


1. Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP? to establish and terminate data links

to provide authentication capabilities to PPP

to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link

to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

2. What is the data transmission rate for the DS0 standard?

44 kb/s 64 kb/s

1.544 Mb/s

44.736 Mb/s

3. In which two layers of the OSI model are key differences found between a LAN and a

WAN. (Choose two.)

Layer 1 Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4 Layer 6

Layer 7

4. Which statement is true about the Cisco implementation of the HDLC protocol? It supports authentication.

It has a universally compatible frame format. It is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.

It does not support multiple protocols across a single link.

5.
http://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/2008/12/ccna-discovery-3-module-7-exam-answers.htmlhttps://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8913233598675975725&postID=1803746599939114721http://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%20Discovery%203%20Version%204.0http://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/Introducing%20Routinghttp://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/Introducing%20Routinghttp://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/Switching%20in%20the%20Enterprisehttp://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/Switching%20in%20the%20Enterprisehttp://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/2008/12/ccna-discovery-3-module-7-exam-answers.htmlhttps://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8913233598675975725&postID=1803746599939114721http://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/CCNA%20Discovery%203%20Version%204.0http://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/Introducing%20Routinghttp://cisco-academy-programs.blogspot.com/search/label/Switching%20in%20the%20Enterprise


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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has a connectivity problem between the

serial interfaces of Merida and Vargas. What is the cause of the problem? Authentication is required on the serial link.

The encapsulation is misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets. The serial interface on Vargas is shutdown.

The loopback interfaces on both routers are not configured.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the exhibited output? LCP is in the process of negotiating a link. LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete.

LCP negotiation has completed successfully, but NCP negotiation is in progress.

LCP and NCP negotiation is complete, and the data link service is available to carrypackets.

7. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)
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It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.

It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP.

It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link-establishment parameters. It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.

It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.

It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.

8. Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?

Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand. The connections between PVC endpoints act like dialup circuits.

There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier.

The physical circuits inside the Frame Relay cloud do not contain exclusive links for a

specific Frame Relay connection.

9. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

an address identifying a virtual circuit

a logical address identifying the DCE device an address identifying a Layer 3 service across a Frame Relay network

a logical address identifying the physical interface between a router and a Frame Relayswitch

10. What two services allow the router to dynamically map data link layer addresses tonetwork layer addresses Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

ARP

ICMP

Proxy ARP Inverse ARP

LMI status messages

11. Which three statements describe functions of the Point-to-Point Protocol with regards

to the OSI model?(Choose three.)

operates at all layers of the OSI model provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols

can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces

uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices

uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression uses network control protocols to test and maintain connectivity between devices

12. At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change fromthe user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

demarcation point local loop

cloud

13. What does a Frame Relay switch use to inform the sender that there is congestion?


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FECN

BECN

DE FCS

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the debug output?

R2 is using PAP instead of CHAP.

The routers have different CHAP passwords configured. The administrator performed a shutdown on the R2 PPP interface during negotiation.

The Layer 3 protocol negotiation caused the connection failure.

15. Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose

two.)

Multiple data streams share one common channel.

Conversations that require extra bandwidth receive any unused time slices. Time slots are utilized on a first-come, first-served basis.

Time slots go unused if a sender has nothing to transmit.

Priority can be dedicated to one data source.

16. When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is

heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office.What type of WAN serial connection is in use?

leased line

point-to-point

circuit switched packet switched

17. Which best describes data communications equipment (DCE)? serves as data source and/or destination

responsible for negotiating windowing and acknowledgements physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers equipment that forwards data and is responsible for the clocking signal

18. Permanent virtual circuits and switched virtual circuits are both part of which optionfor WAN connectivity?

leased line

cell switching
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packet switching

circuit switching

19. Which field of a frame uses error detection mechanisms to verify that the frame is not

damaged intransit?

FCS MTU

flag

control protocol

20. What occurs in the encapsulation process as a data packet moves from a LAN across

a WAN? The Layer 2 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN

technology.

The Layer 3 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN

technology. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation change to a technology that is appropriate for

the WAN. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation remain constant as the data packet travels

throughout the network.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring R1 to connect to R2, which

is a non-Cisco router. Which encapsulation method will need to be configured forcommunication to occur?

HDLC

HSSI

ISDN IPCP
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PPP

22. A company is implementing dialup services for remote workers to connect to thelocal network. The company uses multiple Layer 3 protocols and requires authentication

for security. Which protocol should be used for this remote access?

LMI PPP

HDLC

Frame Relay

23. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

compression

authentication dynamic flow control

network layer address for IP

connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods

24. What statement best describes cell switching?

It uses a dedicated path between endpoints. It creates a permanent physical link between two points.

It uses DLCIs to identify virtual circuits.

It creates fixed-length packets that traverse virtual circuits.


By CuEi on 9:19 PM

Comments (0)


1.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement describes the DR/BDR relationship of the HQrouter?

HQ is the DR.

HQ is the BDR. HQ is a DROTHER.

HQ is a member of an NBMA network.

2. Which two features are associated with Frame Relay OSPF point-to-multipoint
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environments? (Choose two.)

A DR is not elected.

The OSPF priority value determines the active DR on the Frame Relay link. OSPF neighbor routers are statically defined.

The link types are identified as broadcast multiaccess.

The BDR will have a router ID whose value is greater than the DR router ID.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. How was the OSPF default gateway entry for R2 determined? Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements.

A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2.

The default-information originate command is applied on R1. The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1 and R2. The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2.

4. What is always required for OSPF routers to share routing information? designated routers

a backup designated router

neighbor adjacencies an NBMA network topology

links that are configured on the 224.0.0.0 network

5.
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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented OSPF and the network

has converged. If all router interfaces are enabled and functional, what route will OSPF

view as lowest cost when moving frames from Host3 to Host1? R3 to R4 to R1

R3 to R1

R3 to R2 to R1 R3 to R5 to R2 to R1

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Which commands configure router A for OSPF?

router ospf 1network 192.168.10.0

router ospf 1
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network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

router ospf 1network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

router ospf 1network 192.168.10.0 area 0

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement configures the home router to allow all the

interfaces to participate in OSPF?

network 10.0.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0

network 10.8.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 10.8.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0

network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 10.12.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0

8. Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections? A new DR/BDR election occurs each time a new OSPF neighbor is added.

The router with the highest OSPF priority setting wins the election for DR.

The default priority value for a router connected to a multi-access network is 0.

The router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DR when the default priorityvalues are used.

9.
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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator would like only the 172.16.32.0 networkadvertised to Router1. Which OSPF network command accomplishes this?

Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.15 area 0

Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 0

Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

10. Which two statements describe the operation of link-state routing protocols? (Choosetwo.)

All routers in the same area have identical link-state databases when converged.

Routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL). Link-state routers send frequent periodic updates of the entire routing table.

Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver and receive LSAs.

Calculating the shortest path for each destination is accomplished with the SPFalgorithm.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, and C are part of the existing OSPF network. Router D

has been added to the network. All routers are running OSPF and have the indicatedpriorities applied to the interface. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after router D
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is added to the existing network?

An election is forced and router D wins the DR election.

The DR and BDR do not change until the next election. An election is forced and the existing BDR becomes the DR.

The router with the highest router ID becomes the new BDR.

12. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are always optional.

Elections are required in all WAN networks. Elections are required in point-to-point networks.

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.

Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. As part of an OSPF network, R1 and R2 are trying to become

adjacent neighbors. Although it appears that the two systems are communicating, neither

of the routing tables include OSPF routes received from its neighbor. What could beresponsible for this situation?

R1 and R2 are not on the same subnet.

The Process IDs on each router do not match. The timer intervals on the routers do not match.

The value set for the Transmit Delay time on both routers is too low.

14.
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Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the value 128 shown in bold?

It is the OSPF cost metric.

It is the OSPF administrative distance.

It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the distance in hops tothe network.

It is the value assigned to an interface that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine

the metric.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands added on router

B?

allows router A to form an adjacency with router B

provides a stable OSPF router ID on router B provides a method of testing router traffic

creates the OSPF adjacency table on router B

16.
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Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is entered

into the router. Why does network 10.16.1.64/30 appear in the routing table in addition to

network 10.16.1.64/27? The router views 10.16.1.64/30 and 10.16.1.64/27 as two different networks.

The static route is used as a backup route for packets destined for 10.16.1.64/27.

The AD for static routes is lower than the AD for OSPF routes.

The static route metric is lower than the OSPF metric for the 10.16.1.64/27 network.

17. What is the primary difference between link-state protocols and distance vectorprotocols with regard to route calculation? Distance vector protocols take existing routes from their neighbors and add to them.

Link-state protocols independently calculate full routes.

Link-state protocols calculate and pass full routing tables to all routers in theirassociated areas, and distance vector protocols do not.

When determining invalid routes, link-state protocols use split horizon for all route

computations. Distance vector protocols use reverse poisoning. Distance vector protocols require more CPU and RAM for route calculations than link-

state protocols require.

18. What range of networks are advertised in the OSPF updates by the commandRouter1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24

192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

19.
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Refer to the exhibit. When establishing adjacency relationships, which IP address would

router A use to send hello packets to router B? 10.11.0.1

10.11.0.2

10.11.0.255

224.0.0.5 255.255.255.255

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which router will be elected the DR and which will become the
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BDR?

R1 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.

R1 will be DR and R3 will be BDR. R2 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.

R2 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.

R3 will be DR and R2 will be BDR. R3 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.

21. When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of thehierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks?

simpler configuration

reduction of router processing requirements

isolation of network instability less complex network planning

22. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance

vector routing protocol? (Choose two.) The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.

Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in thetopological database.

Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.

After the initial LSA flooding, routers generally require less bandwidth to communicatechanges in a topology.

A link-state routing protocol requires less router processor power.

23. If a network has converged, what is true about the link-state database held by eachrouter in the same OSPF area?

Each router has a link-state database containing the same status information.

Each router has a different link-state database depending on its position within thenetwork.

The link-state database is stored in a designated router and is accessed by each router in

the area as needed. The link-state database in each router only contains information about adjacent routers

and the status of their links.

24.


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Refer to the exhibit. RTRC was recently configured and is not sending the proper OSPF

routes to RTRB, as shown in the RTRB routing table. Based on the RTRC configuration,

what is most likely the problem? RTRC interfaces are administratively shut down.

The OSPF process ID for RTRC does not match the process ID used on RTRB.

The interface addresses on RTRC overlap with other addresses in the network. The OSPF routing configuration on RTRC has a missing or incorrect network

statement.


By CuEi on 9:19 PM

Comments (0)


1. What three statements are true about routers that are configured for EIGRP? (Choose

three.)

They can support multiple routed protocols They can support only link-state protocols.

They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.

They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes. They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

2. Given the following commands:

Router(config)# router rip

Router(config-router)# network 192.31.7.0What three conclusions can be determined based on the commands used on the router?

(Choose three.)

A link-state routing protocol is used.

A distance vector routing protocol is used.
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Routing updates broadcast every 30 seconds.

Routing updates broadcast every 90 seconds.

Hop count is the only metric used for route selection. Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are metrics used for route selection.

3. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state? The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.

The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.

The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails. There is no activity on the route to that network.

The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

4. What two problems may occur if the EIGRP default bandwidth for a serial link ishigher than the actual bandwidth? (Choose two.)

Routing updates will arrive too quickly for receiving routers to process.

The port IP address will be rejected by the routing protocol.

Suboptimal paths will be selected. The port protocol will return to the HDLC default.

VLSM support will be disabled. Network convergence may be affected.

5. What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes? 70

90

100

110 120

255

6. A network administrator issues the command show ip route and sees this line of

output:

192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:05, Serial0/0What two pieces of information can be obtained from the output? (Choose two.)

RIP is the routing protocol configured.

This is a static route to network 192.168.3.0.

The metric for this route is 2. The next periodic update is in 5 seconds.

The autonomous system number is 120.

7.


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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the EIGRP authenticationconfiguration?

RTA and RTB will accept updates from each other.

RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because key 1 on RTB does notmatch RTA. RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because the key chain names do

not match.

The ip authentication mode AS does not match the locally configured AS.

8. Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of

routing information? DUAL

IP

PDM

RTP TCP

UDP

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTR-1 and RTR-3 are completely configured. Theadministrator needs to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that

communication occurs throughout the network. Which group of commands will

successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2? RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0

RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
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RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 area 0RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.192 0.0.0.192 area 0

RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192

10. What prevents RIPv1 updates from being correctly advertised? an increase in network load

the use of variable length subnet masks

the use of multiple Layer 3 networks on the same router

a variation in connection speeds on the links to a destination a mismatch between the configured bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of a link

11. What does a router that is running RIP use to determine the best path to take when

forwarding data?

the host portion of the network address the speed of network convergence

the calculated metric for the destination network

the number of broadcasts occurring on an interface

the number of errors occurring on an interface

12. What is the purpose of the network command when RIP is being configured as the

routing protocol? It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router.

It restricts networks from being used for static routes.

It identifies all of the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in itsrouting table.

It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing

updates.

13. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers

by comparing known routes to information received in updates by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers

by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

14.


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Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic

summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command will summarize

the attached routes? ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224

ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

ip summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31

ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.224

15. How often does RIPv2 send routing table updates, by default? every 30 seconds

every 45 seconds

every 60 seconds every 90 seconds

16.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing problem. When

the show ip route command is entered on RTR-1, only the serial link between RTR-2 andRTR-3 has been learned from the RIP routing protocol. What are two issues? (Choose

two.) RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol. RIPv1 does not support subnetting.

The Ethernet networks on RTR-2 and RTR-3 were not entered correctly in the network

statements on these routers.

RIPv1 does not support VLSM. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol.
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17. What two statements are correct regarding EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)

EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm.

EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key. EIGRP authentication requires that both routers have the same key chain name.

EIGRP authentication uses varying levels of WEP to encrypt data exchanged between

routers. EIGRP authentication can be configured on one router and updates from this router are

protected; whereas a neighbor router can be without the authentication configuration and

its updates are unprotected.

18. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces when a network contains discontiguous network addresses

when a router has less than five active interfaces

when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

19. What is the maximum number of hops that RIP will attempt before it considers the

destination unreachable? 14 hops

15 hops

16 hops 17 hops

20. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)

A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table. A successor route can only be found in the routing table.

The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.

The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency wasformed.

The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.

Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

21.
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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output from the show ip protocols

command?

RIPv2 is configured on this router. Auto summarization has been disabled.

The next routing update is due in 17 seconds.

192.168.16.1 is the address configured on the local router


By CuEi on 9:19 PM

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1. A network engineer is implementing a network design using VLSM for network192.168.1.0/24. After subnetting the network, the engineer has decided to take one of the

subnets, 192.168.1.16/28 and subnet it further to provide for point-to-point serial linkaddresses. What is the maximum number of subnets that can be created from the192.168.1.16/28 subnet for serial connections?

1

2

4 6

8

16

2. When running NAT, what is the purpose of address overloading?

limit the number of hosts that can connect to the WAN allow multiple inside addresses to share a single global address

force hosts to wait for an available address

allow an outside host to share inside global addresses

3. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)

reduced routing table size

dynamic address assignment automatic route redistribution

reduced routing update traffic

automatic summarization at classful boundaries

4. How does a router keep track of which inside local address is used when NAT

overload is configured? The router adds an additional bit to the source IP address and maintains a separate table.

The router modifies the QoS fiel

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Final Semester 3