DO NOT OPEN THE EXAMINATION PAPER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD BY THE SUPERVISOR TO BEGIN

EXAMINATION NUMBER:

DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION

BIOLOGY 3201PUBLIC EXAMINATION

JUNE 2001

Value: 100 marks Time: 3 hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. Candidates are required to do all items.

2. This examination consists of the following parts:

Part I - 75 multiple choice - 75%Part II - constructed response - 25%

3. Answers to multiple choice items are to be shaded on the computer scorable answer sheet. All other items are to be answered in this booklet.

4. Be sure to write your Examination Number in the space provided above.

5. Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank spaces throughoutPart II.

REGULATIONS FOR CANDIDATES

Candidates are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to theirconduct during the examinations. These were explained by the chief supervisor prior to the firstsession, and have been posted for further reference near the entrance to the examination room.Candidates should ensure that they understand and comply with all requirements governing thefollowing matters:

) Materials required ) Use of unauthorized means, and penalties) Punctuality ) Completion of required information) Leaving the room ) Materials not permitted) Use of handheld calculator ) Communication and movement during the

) Use of pen or pencil examination

PART ISECTION A

Total Value: 75%

Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the computer scorable answer sheet.

1. Which biome receives the most rain?

(A) grassland(B) temperate deciduous forest(C) tropical rain forest(D) tundra

2. In which biome would you find vertical stratification?

(A) desert(B) forest(C) grassland(D) tundra

3. Which zone is transitional between land and sea?

(A) abyssal(B) littoral(C) neritic(D) profundal

4. Which level of a food chain refers to a wolf when it eats a deer?

(A) 1st order consumer(B) 2nd order consumer(C) 3rd order consumer(D) decomposer

5. Which relationship is illustrated by the interaction between a shark and the remora fish, inwhich the remora is benefitted while the shark is not affected?

(A) commensalism(B) competition(C) mutualism(D) parasitism

6. Which is a probable pioneer organism?

(A) fern(B) lichen(C) maple(D) pine

7. Which process is responsible for the majority of energy entering the biosphere?

(A) decomposition(B) photosynthesis(C) protein synthesis(D) respiration

8. Which has the greatest biomass?

(A) beetles(B) grass(C) lions(D) vulture

29. Which is the most important role of bacteria and fungi in a community of living organisms?

(A) causing diseases(B) decomposition of organic matter(C) fixation of nitrogen(D) synthesis of antibiotics

10. Which statement about forests is INCORRECT?

(A) They are a renewable natural resource.(B) They are shrinking all over Earth.(C) They only produce lumber and paper.(D) They prevent soil erosion.

11. In which biome is plant life population density the lowest?

(A) desert(B) grassland(C) temperate deciduous forest(D) tropical rain forest

12. If carbon dioxide were withdrawn from the biosphere, which organisms would be the first toexperience negative biological effects?

(A) decomposers(B) primary consumers(C) producers(D) secondary consumers

13. What is the primary outcome of the “greenhouse effect”?

(A) greater plant growth(B) higher air temperatures(C) less rainfall(D) stronger wind currents

14. Which statement about biomes is INCORRECT?

(A) Biomes are major terrestrial communities.(B) Biomes are separate entities because they have sharp, well-defined boundaries. (C) Temperature and precipitation account for most of the variation between biomes.(D) There are climatic differences between biomes.

15. A meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reducedsunlight reaching the Earth’s surface by seventy percent for one year. Which marinecommunity would be LEAST affected?

(A) benthic(B) coral reef(C) deep-sea(D) estuary

16. Which is an important biotic factor in ecosystems?

(A) competition(B) temperature(C) water(D) wind

17. Which causes the Earth’s seasons?

(A) changes in the Earth’s distance from the sun(B) global air circulation(C) ocean currents(D) the tilt of the Earth’s axis

18. Which is NOT a desert animal adaptation to low amounts of water and high temperatures?

(A) being active only during the night(B) dark-colored fur(C) living in burrows(D) long ears

19. Which term is the most specific in today’s system of classification?

(A) class(B) family

(C) genus(D) species

20. Which structure helps transport food in Tracheophytes?

(A) cuticle(B) phloem(C) rhizoids(D) xylem

21. Based on developmental trends, which represents the simplest phylum?

(A) arthropods(B) mollusks(C) roundworms(D) sponges

22. Which is a characteristic of reptiles?

(A) Always undergo metamorphosis.(B) Breathe through their skin.(C) Generally reproduce on land by laying shelled eggs.(D) Usually excrete their wastes as urine.

23. Which term is illustrated by an organism that produces more offspring than the environmentcan support?

(A) biotic potential(B) carrying capacity(C) environmental resistance(D) limiting factor

24. Which factor has the LEAST effect on human population doubling time?

(A) age of first reproduction(B) death rate(C) environmental conditions(D) number of offspring

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25. In which organ are sperm cells stored?

(A) epididymis(B) prostate(C) seminal vesicles(D) urethra

26. What do all protists have in common?

(A) eukaryotic(B) marine(C) multicellular(D) photosynthetic

27. Which evolutionary trend is associated with higher order plants?

(A) Fertilization requires water.(B) Spores are more common than seeds.(C) Seeds are produced in cones.(D) Stems are nonvascular.

28. Which has two pairs of antennae?

(A) crustaceans(B) insects(C) millipedes(D) spiders

29. The reduction of which hormones causes menstruation?

(A) estrogen and progesterone(B) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and estrogen(C) luteinizing hormone (LH) and estrogen(D) luteinizing hormone (LH) and progesterone

30. Assume that rabbits feed entirely on small shrubs and that foxes feed on the rabbits. Whatmight be the major short term effect if ALL foxes were eliminated?

(A) Rabbits would decrease.(B) Rabbits would decrease and shrubs increase.(C) Rabbits would not be affected.(D) Shrubs would decrease.

31. What factor is causing the changes in the graph from point C onward?

(A) The population birth rate is less than the population death rate.(B) The population is being heavily preyed upon.(C) The population has reached its carrying capacity.(D) The population has run out of food.

532. Malthus predicted that disease, starvation, and war would constantly reduce the human

population and keep it in check. The world population today is 4 to 5 times as large as it wasin his day and still climbing. Which statement best explains this situation?

(A) Agriculture has become far more efficient than Malthus could have envisioned. (B) Birth rates and death rates have increased greatly to keep population in check.(C) Malthus realized the potential of modern warfare.(D) Malthus underestimated the effect of disease.

33. Why is the term cold-blooded NOT very appropriate for reptiles?

(A) Reptiles regulate body temperature by using various mechanisms such as behavioraladaptations.

(B) Reptiles swallow large prey whole to provide enough food to generate body heat. (C) The metabolism of reptiles can generate internal heat for temperature control.(D) The scales of reptiles rid excess body heat by radiation to the environment.

34. Which population graph best represents the growth of the human population?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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35. Which structure produces eggs?

(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 4

36. What is the main reason sponges are limited to feeding on small food particles?

(A) Their digestion is entirely intracellular.(B) Their cell membranes are highly selective.(C) They have an incomplete digestive tract.(D) They lack a mechanism for bringing food into their bodies.

37. In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes first become visible?

(A) anaphase(B) metaphase(C) prophase(D) telophase

38. What process results in double-stranded chromosomes?

(A) formation of cell plates(B) formation of spindle fibers(C) replication of chromosomes(D) synapsis of homologous chromosomes

39. What type of chromosome mutation occurs when a part of one chromosome breaks off andis transferred to a non-homologous chromosome?

(A) addition(B) deletion(C) inversion(D) translocation

40. What type of organism is mated with an unknown organism in a test cross?

(A) heterozygous for the trait(B) homozygous dominant for the trait(C) homozygous recessive for the trait(D) same genotype as the organism being tested

41. What is the process of mRNA production from DNA called?

(A) transcription(B) transduction(C) transformation(D) translation

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42. What does RNA contain?

(A) deoxyribose sugar(B) double helix(C) thymine(D) uracil

43. Which term describes the allele which is not expressed in the phenotype of an individual whohas a heterozygous genotype?

(A) codominant(B) dominant(C) incomplete dominance(D) recessive

44. What is the basic unit of heredity?

(A) chromosome(B) gene(C) nucleotide(D) nucleus

45. Which cross BEST illustrates the Law of Dominance?

(A) heterozygous tall x heterozygous tall(B) homozygous tall x heterozygous tall(C) homozygous tall x homozygous tall(D) homozygous tall x homozygous short

46. Which cross could yield some organisms homozygous recessive for both genes?

(A) Ttrr x Ttrr(B) TtRr x ttRR(C) ttRR x Ttrr(D) TTRr x ttRr

47. In certain species of plants, when red-flowers are crossed with white-flowers the offspring allhave pink-flowers. What is the probability of two pink-flowered parents producing a white-flowered offspring?

(A) 0(B) 1 4

(C) 1 2

(D) 3 4

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48. What is the major role of vitamin A in regeneration?

(A) decreases the amount of meiosis(B) decreases the amount of mitosis(C) increases the amount of meiosis(D) increases the amount of mitosis

49. Which of these genetic conditions would NOT be grouped with the others?

(A) baldness(B) colour blindness(C) duchenne muscular dystrophy(D) hemophilia

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Use the following table to answer question 50

Amino Acids coded by RNA CondonsF

irst

Let

ter

Second LetterU C A G

U

UUU Phenyl-alanine

UCU

Serine

UAUTyrosine

UGUCysteine

UUUC UCC UAC UGC CUUA

LeucineUCA UAA Stop Codon UGA Stop Codon A

UUG UCG UAG Stop Codon UGG Tryptophan G

C

CUU

Leucine

CCU

Proline

CAUHistidine

CGU

Arginine

UCUC CCC CAC CGC CCUA CCA CAA

GlutamineCGA A

CUG CCG CAG CGG G

A

AUU

Isoleucine

ACU

Threonine

AAUAsparagine

AGUSerine

UAUC ACC AAC AGC CAUA ACA AAA

LysineAGA

ArginineA

AUG InitiationCodon ACG AAG AGG G

G

GUU

Valine

GCU

Alanine

GAU AsparticAcid

GGU

Glycine

UGUC GCC GAC GGC CGUA GCA GAA Glutamic

AcidGGA A

GUG GCG GAG GGG G

50. A central portion of a gene has the sequence CAA GCG AUA CUG. What would be thesequence of amino acids coded by this gene?

(A) argenine - glutamic acid - alanine - proline(B) glutamine - alanine - isoleucine - leucine(C) lysine - asparagine - phenylalanine - threonine(D) serine - glycine - valine - cysteine

51. The initial sequence of DNA is TCC GGC. A point mutation occurred, resulting in the

sequence TAC GGC. Which of these situations would result?

(A) The encoding would start again where the new A nucleotide was inserted.(B) The nucleotide sequence arginine-proline would be produced.(C) The nucleotide sequence methionine proline would be produced.(D) Protein synthesis would stop.

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52. Why does the genetic code have to be at least a triplet code?

(A) An anticodon is always composed of two nitrogen bases.(B) It takes four nitrogen bases to code for one amino acid.(C) There had to be enough different combinations for twenty amino acids.(D) There is only one code for each amino acid.

53. At which stage will the chromosomes have the least amount of DNA in a nucleus?

(A) interphase(B) metaphase(C) prophase(D) telophase

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54. Which gene produced mRNA with the sequence AUACG?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

55. Which statement best describes the pedigree below?

(A) autosomal dominant(B) autosomal recessive(C) sex-linked dominant(D) sex-linked recessive

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56. There was a mix-up in a hospital nursery. The doctor wanted to determine which one oftwo babies belonged to the Lindsey’s. The chart below gives the blood types of theLindsey’s and the two babies.

Mrs. Lindsey - Type ABMr. Lindsey - Type OBaby Jane - Type ABaby Mike - Type O

Based on the information above, which baby belongs to the Lindsey’s?

(A) Baby Jane(B) Baby Mike(C) Either Baby Jane or Baby Mike(D) Neither Baby Jane or Baby Mike

57. Which term describes the flipper of a sel and the wing of a bird?

(A) acquired characteristics(B) analogous structures(C) homologous structures(D) isolating mechanisms

58. The diagram below represents a cross-section of undisturbed rock layers.

layer A

layer B

layer C

layer D

A scientist discovers bones of a complex vertebrate species in layers B and C. In whichlayer would an earlier, less complex form of this vertebrate most likely first appear?

(A) A(B) B(C) C(D) D

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59. Which method can NOT determine the period of time in the earth’s geologic history whena certain animal fossil shell was fossilized?

(A) carbon dating the shell(B) comparing the relative position of the rock layer to other rock layers(C) conducting chemical analysis of the shell(D) finding index fossils in the same rock layer as the fossil

60. What does the presence of certain, apparently useless structures in the human body, suchas the appendix and the muscles in the outer ear indicate?

(A) Humans can regenerate organs at will.(B) Humans had remote ancestors who used these structures.(C) Humans have always been as they are today.(D) These structures have helped humans to survive.

61. Which statement is part of the modern evolutionary theory, but NOT Darwin’s originaltheory?

(A) Better adapted individuals survive to produce offspring.(C) Species tend to produce more offspring than can survive.(D) The environment is responsible for eliminating less fit individuals.(B) Variations in traits are caused by mutation and recombination.

62. Which sequence of evolutionary relationship is consistent with the fossil record?

(A) fishes-amphibians-reptiles-birds(B) fishes-birds-reptiles-amphibians(C) reptiles-amphibians-birds-fishes(D) reptiles-birds-fishes-amphibians

63. Which step is necessary for the formation of two or more species from an ancestral parentpopulation?

(A) adaptation(B) isolation(C) selection(D) variation

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64. Who is generally given credit for the original hypothesis that life originated spontaneouslyfrom energy passing through the primitive atmosphere of the earth?

(A) Darwin(B) Miller(C) Oparin(D) Urey

65. What are the two most important groups of molecules associated with the modern originof life theory?

(A) amino acids and fats(B) carbohydrates and lipids(C) carbohydrates and nitrates(D) nucleotides and proteins

66. It is thought that all citrus fruit trees evolved from a common ancestor because of theircommon ability to synthesize citric acid. What type of evidence of evolution is this?

(A) anatomical similarity(B) comparative biochemistry(C) comparative embryology(D) geographical distribution

67. What characteristic of a population enables natural selection?

(A) adaptation(B) competition(C) reproduction(D) variability

68. Which animal probably appeared on earth first?

(A) dinosaur(B) fish(C) horse(D) man

69. What is the primary directing force in evolution?

(A) competition between members of a species(B) efficiency of homeostasis(C) the environment(D) the movement of plants and animals

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70. The allele for dark fur colour is dominant to the allele for light fur colour. If there are only16% of the members of a population that have light fur colour, what percentage of thepopulation should be heterozygous for dark fur colour?

(A) 24%(B) 36%(C) 48%(D) 84%

PART ISECTION B

FisheryTotal Value: 5%

Do EITHER Section B or Section C

71. What is the enlarged oil filled front skull of a whale called?

(A) baleen(B) blow hole(C) hump(D) melon

72. Why are aquatic biomes more stable than terrestrial biomes?

(A) Oxygen is not present.(B) Photosynthesis does not occur.(C) Temperatures do not fluctuate widely.(D) Water is always present.

73. Which is NOT demersal?

(A) cod(B) flounder(C) sculpin(D) tuna

74. What is a salt water animal that breaths air with lungs and bears live young?

(A) cod(B) lobster(C) shark(D) whale

75. Which is a benthic organism?17

(A) capelin(B) lobster(C) seal(D) whale

PART ISECTION C

ForestryTotal Value: 5%

76. Which organism is an indicator species of the taiga biome?

(A) conifer(B) epiphyte(C) liana(D) lichen

77. Which statement BEST describes the formation of annual rings in wood?

(A) Spring and summer xylem are of equal diameter.(B) Spring xylem consists of large cells compared to the summer xylem.(C) Spring xylem consists of small cells compared to the summer xylem.(D) Summer xylem is produced before the spring xylem and is pushed outward by the

vascular cambium.

78. Which term BEST describes a forest capable of producing more than 35 m3 ofmerchantable timber per hectare?

(A) climax forest(B) productive(C) stable forest(D) thicket

79. What is the purpose of the xylem and phloem?

(A) photosynthesis(B) protection(C) reproduction(D) transport

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80. Which is the only conifer tree to shed its needles?

(A) balsom fir(B) black spruce(C) larch(D) yellow birch

PART IITotal Value: 25%

Do ALL questions in this part.

Value

2 81a. Explain the chromosome theory of inheritance.

Value

1 b. What are TWO environmental causes of genetic mutations?

Value

2 82. In a certain type of wasp, yellow wings (Y) are dominant to blue wings (Y), and longantennae (L) are dominant to short (I). What are the expected genotypic andphenotypic ratios of a cross between a homozygous yellow, heterozygous long maleand a blue-winged female heterozygous long antennae? Show all work.

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The genotypic ratio is:

The phenotypic ratio is:

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Value

1 83a. Describe ONE method which may be used to detect the genetic disorder Down’sSyndrome in a fetus.

Value

1 b. As a genetic counsellor, what TWO pieces of advice might you give to a couple whohave discovered they are carrying a child with a genetic disorder?

Value

3 84. Describe the make up of the earth’s atmosphere and show an understanding of theearth’s atmosphere connection to life including:

(i) composition of gases vital to life

(ii) role in protection against radiation

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(iii) role in climate control

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Value

1 85a. What is the relationship between the relative age of sediments (rock) and the relativeage of fossils contained within the rock layers?

Value

2 b. Explain how the colour change in the peppered moth (industrial melanism) supportsDarwin’s explanation of evolution.

Value

1 c. Explain why the woodpecker finch was able to evolve on the Galapogas Island, but wasnot able to evolve on the South American mainland.

Value

2 86a. Explain why the mosses (Bryophytes) are generally small in size, and live only in wethabitats.

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Value

3 b. Compare the differences in heart structure among the fish, amphibians and mammals.

Value

1 c. Describe ONE recent development that relates to surrogate motherhood.

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Do EITHER 87 OR 88 .

FISHERY

Value

87. The level of salinity and how often it changes is an important factor that affects thedensity and variety of organisms that live near the ocean.

3 a. Name and briefly describe THREE main zones of a rocky seashore.

Value2 b. Explain how salinity levels affect the species which live in each.

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FORESTRYValue

3 88a. The spruce budworm, hemlock looper and balsam woolly aphid are three insect pestscommon to Newfoundland forest. If you were a Newfoundland forester give onemethod of control for each of the above pests.

Value

2 b. You have just been given a ten hectare plot of forest land that you will use as a sourceof fuel. What forest management techniques would you use to ensure stability in thefuture?

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