DMRC JE Mechanical 2014 Question Paper

8/10/2019 DMRC JE Mechanical 2014 Question Paper

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APTITUDE

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 1 to 3) From among the five

doctors 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, four engineers G, H, K, L and six

teachers M, N, O, P, Q and R, some teams are to be

selected. Of these 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Q are females and the

rest are males. The formation of teams is subject to the

following conditions:

Wherever there is a male doctor, there will not be a female

teacher. Wherever there is a male engineer, there will not be

a female doctor. There shall not be more than two male

teachers in any team.

1. If the team consi sts of two doctors, two female

teachers and two engineers, then all the follow ing

teams are possible except:

(1) 1, 2, K, L, P, Q (2) 1, 2, G, H, P, Q

(3) 1, 2, G, H, O, Q (4) O, P, G, H, 1, 2

funsZ'k% 'u la[;k1ls 3 fuEufyf[kr ikp MkWDVj 1, 2, 3, 4,,oa5,pkj bathfu;j G, H, K, L,oa N% f'k{kd M, N, O, P,Q,oa R

esa lsVhe dk p;u fd;k tkuk gSA buesals 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Qefgyk,agSa,oa ckdh iq:"kA Vhe dk fuekZ.k fuEufyf[kr 'krks ds v/khugksuk gSA

tc Hkh dksbZ iq:"k MkWDVj gksrksefgyk f'k{kd ughagksxhA tc Hkh dksbZiq:"k bathfu;j gks rksdksbZefgyk MkWDVj ughagksxhA fdlh Hkh Vhe esanksls T;knk iq:"k f'k{kd ugha gksaxsA

1. ;fn Vhe es nks MkWDVj] nks efgyk f'k{kd ,oa nks bathfu;j gS] rks

fuEufyf[kr lHkh Vhe laHko gS flok;%

(1) 1, 2, K, L, P, Q

(2) 1, 2, G, H, P, Q

(3) 1, 2, G, H, O, Q

(4) O, P, G, H, 1, 2

2. If the team consists of two doctors, three female

teachers and two engineers, then the members of

the team are:(1) 3, 4, O, P, Q, G, H (2) 1, 2, O, P, Q, G, H

(3) 3, 4, K, L, O, P, Q (4) 4, 5, G, H, O, P, Q

2. ;fn Vhe es nks MkWDVj] rhu efgyk f'k{kd ,oa nks bathfu;j gS]

rks Vhe ds lnL; gksxs%

(1) 3, 4, O, P, Q, G, H (2) 1, 2, O, P, Q, G, H(3) 3, 4, K, L, O, P, Q (4) 4, 5, G, H, O, P, Q

3. If the team consi sts of three docto rs, two male

engineers and two teachers, then the members of

the team could be:

(1) 3, 4, 5, K, L, M, N (2) 1, 2, 3, K, L, M, R

(3) 3, 4, 5, K, L, P, R (4) 1, 2, H, M, R, P, Q

3. ;fn Vhe es rhu MkWDVj] nksiq: k bathfu;j ,oa nks f'k{kd gS]

rks Vhe ds lnL; gksxs%

(1) 3, 4, 5, K, L, M, N (2) 1, 2, 3, K, L, M, R

(3) 3, 4, 5, K, L, P, R (4) 1, 2, H, M, R, P, Q

4. Oxygen was discovered by:

(1) Priestly (2) Boyle

(3) Scheele (4) Cavendish

4. vkWDlhtu dh [kkst fdlus dh%

(1) hLVys (2) ck;y(3) lhys (4) dkfoUMl

5. Which Article of the constitution of India restricts

courts not to inquire into proceedings of

Parliament:

(1) Article 122 (2) Article 120

(3) Article 123 (4) Article 119

5.Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dk dkSu&lk vuqPNsn laln dh dk;Zokfg;ks es

iwNrkN djus ds fy, frcaf/kr djrk gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 122 (2) vuqPNsn 120(3) vuqPNsn 123 (4) vuqPNsn 119

6. A person shall be disqualif ied for being a member of

either house of parliament if he is so disqualified

under Tenth schedule. Under Tenth schedule the

person shall be disqualified for following reason:

(1) If he holds any office for profit

(2) If is an un-discharged insolvent

(3) If he is of unsound mind

(4) On the Grounds of defection

6. ,slk O;f laln ds fdlh Hkh lnu dk lnL; cus jgus ds

v;ksX; gksxk ;fn mls nloha vuqlwph dsv/khu v;ksX; djkj

fn;k x;k gSA nloha vuqlwph dsv/khu O;f dks fuEu dkj.k ls

v;ksX; djkj fn;k tk,xk%

(1) ;fn og fdlh ykHkdkjh in dk /kkjd gS(2) ;fn og veq fnokfy;k gS

(3) ;fn og fof{kIr gS(4)ny&cny dsvk/kkj ij

7. Which of the following is a clay mineral?

(1) Garnet (2) Olivine

(3) Kaolinite (4) Hornblende

7. fuEu ea lsdkSu e`fRrdk [kfut gS\

(1) xkjusV (2) vksyhokbu(3) dsvksyhukbV (4) gkuZCysUM

8. Who was given golden boot award at the

conclusion of FIFA World Cup 2014?

(1) Paul Pogba (2) Manuel Neuer

(3) James Rodriguez (4) Lionel Messi

8. FIFAfoo di 2014ds lekiu ds volj ij fdls xksYMu

cwV vokMZ fn;k x;k

(1) iksy iksXck (2) eSuqvy U;wvj(3) tsEl jkWMjhxst+ (4)fy;ksusy esLlh

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9. Which figure represents the relationsh ip between

polygons, quadrilaterals and triangles?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

9. fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSu&lk fp= cgqHkqt] prqHkqt vkSj f=Hkqt ds

lEcU/k dks n'kkZrk gS%

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

10. To which ocean the Panama Canal joins theAtlant ic Ocean?

(1) Pacific Ocean (2) Indian Ocean

(3) Arctic Ocean (4) Caspian Sea

10.fdl egklkxj es iukek ugj vVykfUVd egklkxj ls feyrh

gS\

(1)kkUr egklkxj (2)fgUn egklkxj(3) vkdZfVd egklkxj (4) dslfi;u egklkxj

11. A candidate gets 72% votes out of total votes and

he wins by a margin of 264 votes. Total vote and

vote polled for elected candidate are respectively:

(1) 800, 432 (2) 600,168

(3) 600, 432 (4) 830, 576

11. ,d R;kkh dks dqy erks dk 72%er feyrk gS vkSj og 264

erks ds vUrj ls thrrk gSA dqy er rFkk p;fur R;kkh ds

fy, iM+ erks dh la[;k ek% gS%

(1) 800, 432 (2) 600,168

(3) 600, 432 (4) 830, 576

12. A lawn is in the form of a rectangle having its

sides in the ratio 2:3. The area of the lawn is 600

sq. metres. Find the length of the lawn?

(1) 20 m (2) 30 m

(3) 25 m (4) None of these

12. vk;r ds vkdkj dk ,d ykWu ftldh Hkqtk,a 2:3es gSA ykWu

dk {ks=Qy 600oxZehVj gSA ykWu dh yEckbZ Kkr dhft;s\

(1) 20ehVj (2) 30ehVj(3) 25ehVj (4) buesa ls dksbZugha

13. Char Baans Chobis Guz, aangal asht pravan, taa upar

sultan hai, mat chooko Chauhan. Who said this?

(1) Prithvi Raj Chauhan (2) Chandbardai

(3) Birbal (4) Tansen

13. ^pkj ckal pkschl xt] vaxy vV o.k] rk ij lqYrku gS]

er pwdkspkS gku*& ;g dFku fdldk gS\

(1) i`Foh jkt pkSgku (2) pUncjnkbZ(3) chjcy (4) rkulsu

14. Rossetta became the first ever spacecraft to

reach a comet named 67P/Churyumov-

Gerasimenko. This is a mission by:

(1) ISRO (2) ESA

(3) NASA (4) FKA & RKA

14. jkslsVk 67P/Churyumov-Gerasimenko uked dkesV

iqPNy rkjk rd igqpus okyk igyk varfj{k ;ku cukA ;g

feku fdldk gS%

(1) ISRO (2) ESA

(3) NASA (4) FKA,oa RKA

15. IBSA is a ____ and 7th

IBSA summit w ill be held in

____ :

(1) Unilateral initiative, Brasillia

(2) Bilateral initiative, Tshwane

(3) Trilateral initiative, New Delhi

(4) Joint initiative of 4 nations, Kabul

15. IBSA ,d ------ gS ,oa 7oha IBSA fk[kjokrkZ ----- es

vk;ksftr gksxh%

(1) ,d&i{kh; igy] czkflfYy;k(2) f}&i{kh; igy] kkus(3) f=&i{kh; igy] ubZ fnYyh(4) pkj jkVks dk la;q igy] dkcqy

16. A rectangular field is surrounded by four semi

circular flower beds. If the length and breadth of

the field are 6 m and 4 m respectively, find the

cost of raising the flower beds at the rate of Rs.

8/- per M2. (

=3.14):

(1) Rs. 623.56 (2) Rs. 326.56

(3) Rs. 1306.24 (4) None of these

16. ,d vk;rkdkj eSnku pkj v/kZo`rh; Qwy dh D;kfj;ks ls f?kjk

gqvk gSA ;fn eSnku dh yEckbZ ,o pkSM+kbZ ek% 6eh- ,o 4

eh- gks rks :- 8/-fr oxZ ehVj ls Qwy dh D;kfj;ks ds mxkus

dh dher D;k gksxhA =3.14%

(1) :-623.56 (2) :-326.56(3) :-1306.24 (4) buesa ls dksbZugha

17. When three coins are tossed together, the

probability that all coins have the same face is:

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/6

(3) 1/3 (4) None of these

17. tc rhu fls ,d lkFk mNkys tkrsgS] rks lHkh flks ds ogh

eq[k vkus dh lEHkkfork D;k gksxh%

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/6

(3) 1/3 (4) buesa ls dksbZugha

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18. Accord ing to the world investment report 2014,

released by UNCTAD in June, 2014, India latest

ranking of most favoured destination for

investment by transnational corpo ration is:

(1) Fourth (2) Third

(3) Second (4) First

18. twu] 2014 es UNCTAD }kjk tkjh dh xbZ foo fuos k

frosnu ds vuqlkj] leq ikj jkVks ds fuxeks }kjk fuosk ds

fy;s lokZf/kd yksdf; LFky dh jSfdax es Hkkjr dk lokZf/kd

u;k jSd gS%

(1) pkSFkk (2) rhljk(3) nwljk (4) igyk

19. Dr. Sanjay Rajaram to be honoured with World

Food Prize, 2014 for his outstanding work in

improvement of:

(1) Paddy crop (2) Wheat crop

(3) Vegetable varieties (4) Soyabean crop

19.MkW- lat; jktkjke dks foo&[kk| iqjLdkj

2014ls lEekfur

mudsfuEu ds lq/kkj es mRV dk;ks ds fy;s fn;k tkuk gS%

(1) /kku dh Qly (2) xsgwdh Qly(3) lfCt;ksadh fdLesa (4) lks;kchu dh Qly

20. A sum of Rs. 8000 generates Rs. 1261 as compoundinterest in 3 years, interest being compoundedannually. The rate of compound interest is:

(1) 20% (2) 2.5%

(3) 10% (4) 5%

20. :- 8000/- 3o kZ es fefJr C;kt :- 1261/-vftZr djrk

gS C;kt fro kZ pc`f) nj lsyxk;k tk jgk gS rks fefJr

C;kt dh nj gS%

(1) 20% (2) 2.5%(3) 10% (4) 5%

21. Total weight of 3 boxes is 60Kg. 2ndbox weighs

3Kg more than 1st

box. The 3

rd

box weighs 2Kg more than 2ndbox. The weight of 1st box is:

(1) 36 kg (2) 17 kg

(3) 18 kg (4) None of these

21. 3 cDlks dk dqy Hkkj 60 fdyks gSA nwljk cDlk igys ls

60fdyks vf/kd Hkkjh gS A rhljk cDlk nwljs cDls ls

2

fdyks vf/kd Hkkjh gSA igys cDls dk Hkkj gS%

(1) 36fdyks (2) 17fdyks(3) 18fdyks (4) buesa ls dksbZugha

22. 12 men and 18 boys working2

17 hours a day can

do a work in 60 days. If one man works equal to 2

boys, then the number of boys required to help 21

men to do twice the work in 50 days working 9

hours a day will be:

(1) 42 (2) 44

(3) 46 (4) None of these

22. 12iq :k ,oa 18yM+ds frfnu2

17 ?kaVs dk;Z djds fdlh dk;Z

dks 60 fnu es iwjk djrs gSA ;fn ,d O;f nks yM+dks ds

cjkcj dk;Z djrk gS] rks nqxqus dk;Z dks 9 ?kaVs frfnu dk;Z

djds 50 fnu es iwjk djus ds fy, 21 O;f;ks dks fdrus

yM+dks dh vko;drk iM+xh\

(1) 42 (2) 44

(3) 46 (4) buesa ls dksbZugha

23. The diameter of the wheel of a car is 77 cm. How

many revolutions will it make to travel 121 km?

(1) 24200 (2) 30000

(3) 50000 (4) 42500

23.,d dkj dsifg;s dk O;kl

77lseh- gSA

121fdeh- dh ;k=k

r; djus es og fdruspDdj yxk,xk\

(1) 24200 (2) 30000

(3) 50000 (4) 42500

24. 562575+x=96. Find x.

(1) 361 (2) 400

(3) 441 (4) 484

24. 562575+x=96. xdk eku Kkr djs%

(1) 361 (2) 400

(3) 441 (4) 484

25. A is shorter than B but much taller than E. C is the tallest

and D is little shorter than A. Who is the shortest?

(1) A (2) E

(3) C (4) D

25. A Bls NksVk ysfdu Els T;knk yEck gS Clcls yEck vkSj

'D' 'A' ls Fkks M+k NksVk gSA dkSu lclsNks Vk gS%

(1) A (2) E

(3) C (4) D

26. Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) is a severe human disease

and has been declared as Global Health Emergency

by WHO. Ebola virus takes its name from a:

(1) Fruit of a democratic republic of congo

(2) Catholic nun in congo

(3) River in democratic republic in congo

(4) Animal in democratic republic of congo

26. bcksyk ok;jl jksx ,d Hka;dj ekuo jksx gS ,oa foo LokLF;

laxBu }kjk bls oSfod LokLF; vkikrdkyhu fLFkfr ?kksfkr

fd;k x;kA bcksyk ok;jl dk uke fdlls fy;k x;k%

(1) tkrkaf=d x.kra= dkxksdk ,d Qy(2)dkxks esa,d dSFkksfyd eBokfluh(3) tkrkaf=d x.kra= dkxksdh ,d unh(4) tkrkaf=d x.kra= dkxksdk ,d tkuoj

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27. If Southeast becomes North . Northeast becomes

West, then what w ill west become?

(1) South east (2) North west

(3) North east (4) South west

27. ;fn nf{k.kiwoZ] ^mkj* gksrk gSA mkjiwoZ] ^ifpe* gksrk gS rks

ifpe D;k gksxk\

(1) nf{k.k&iwoZ (2) mkj&ifpe(3) mkj&iwoZ (4) nf{k.k&ifpe

28. In how many different ways the letters of the word'DIGITAL' can be arranged so that the vowels

always come together?(1) 720 (2) 480

(3) 144 (4) 360

28. fdrus fofHk rjhdks ls 'kCn ^DIGITAL* ds v{kjks dks

O;ofLFkr fd;k tk ldrk gS rkfd Loj lnSo ,d lkFk vk,\

(1) 720 (2) 480

(3) 144 (4) 360

29. 25 men can reap a field in 20 days. When should

15 men leave the work, if the whole field is to be

reaped in 37.5 days after they leave the work?

(1) 6 days (2) 3 days

(3) 5 days (4) 4 days

29. 25vkneh ,d [kr dh dVkb 20fnu e dj yr gA 15vkneh

dk; NkMdj py tkr g] ;fn ij [kr dh dVkb 37.5fnu e dh

tkuh g rk fdru fnu ckn o 15vkneh dk; NkMdj x; Fk%

(1) 6fnu (2) 3fnu(3) 5fnu (4) 4fnu

30. Twelve solid spheres of the same size are madeby melting a solid metallic cylinder of basediameter 2 cm and height 16 cm. The diameter ofeach sphere is:

(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm

(3) 4 cm (4) 6 cm

30. ,d Bksl /kkfRod flys.Mj] ftldk vk/kkj O;kl 2lseh- ,oa

pkbZ 16 lseh- gS ] dks xykdj ,d gh vkdkj ds 12 Bksl

xksys cuk, tkrs gSA R;sd xksys dk O;kl gksxk%

(1) 2lseh- (2) 3lseh-(3) 4lseh- (4) 6lseh-

31. There are seven colours in a rainbow in a particularsequence. Besides the known sequence in howmany other possible ways can rainbows be formedby re-sequencing the colours:

(1) 5040 (2) 5041

(3) 5039 (4) 5049

31. ,d bU/kuqk es fdlh foksk vuqe es lkr jax gSA Kkr

vuqe ds vfrfj jaxks ds iqu% vuqe djds fdrus laHkkfor

rjhdksls bU/kuq k dk fuekZ.k gks ldrk gS%

(1) 5040 (2) 5041

(3) 5039 (4) 5049

32. The difference between the length and breadth of a

rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m, then its

area is:

(1) 2520 m2

(2) 2480 m2

(3) 2420 m2

(4) None of these

32. ,d vk;r dh yEckbZ vkSj pkSM+kbZ ds e/; vUrj 23ehVj gSA

;fn bldh ifj/kh 206ehVj gS] rks bldk {ks=Qy gS %

(1) 2520 m2

(2) 2480 m2

(3) 2420 m2

(4) buesa ls dksbZugha

33. The average of 8 numbers is 14. The average of 6of these numbers is 16. What is the average of theremaining 2 numbers?

(1) 12 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 10

33. 8la [;kvks dk vkSlr 14gSA bu la[;kvks es 6la[;kvks dk

vkSlr 16gS A ksk nks la[;kvks dk vkSlr D;k gS\

(1) 12 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 10

34. Six families A, B, C, D, E, and F are living i nhouses in a row. B has F and D as neighbours, Ehas A and C as neighbours. A does not live nextto either F or D, C does not l ive next to D. Who areF's next door neighbours?

(1) B and E (2) B and D(3) B and C (4) Only B

34. N% ifjokj A, B, C, D, E,,oa F,d drkj ls ?kj es jg jgs

gSA Bdk iM+kslh D,oa FgSA Edk iM+kslh A,oa CgSA A

u rks FvkS j u gh Dds cxy es jgrk gSA 'C' 'D' ds cxy

es ughajgrk gSA Fds Bhd cxy okys iM+ks lh gS%

(1) B,oa E (2) B,oaD(3) B,oa C (4) dsoy B

35. If Ranchi is called Delhi, Delhi is called Mumbai,

Mumbai is called Dehradun, Dehradun is called

Nagpur and Nagpur is called Meerut then where is

the Gate way of India?

(1) Meerut (2) Dehradun

(3) Nagpur (4) Mumbai

35. ;fn jkph dks fnYyh dgk tkrk gS] fnYyh dks eqEcbZ dgk tkrk

gS] eqEcbZ dks nsgjknwu dgk tkrk gS] nsgjknwu dks ukxiqj dgk

tkrk gS ,oa ukxiqj dks esjB dgk tkrk gS rks xsV os vkWQ

bafM;k dgk gS\

(1) esjB (2) nsgjknwu(3) ukxiqj (4) eqEcbZ

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36. If MEDICAL is written as DEMILAC how is

SUBJECT written is that code?

(1) BUSJETC (2) BUSTCTE

(3) BUSJTCE (4) BUJSCTE

36. ;fn ^MEDICAL* dks ^DEMILAC* fy[kk tkrk gS rks mlh

dksM es ^SUBJECT* dks D;k fy[kk tk;sxk\

(1) BUSJETC (2) BUSTCTE

(3) BUSJTCE (4) BUJSCTE

37. Union finance minister announced to set up an

expenditure Management Commission in the

union budget 201415. Union Govt. recentlydecided to appoint .......... head of the expenditure

Management Commission:

(1) Vimal Jalan (2) Vijay Kelkar

(3) K.P. Geethakrishnan (4) Parthsarathi Shome

37. la?k ds ctV 201415es la?k ds fok&ea=h us O;; cU/ku

vk;ksx ds LFkkiuk dh ?kksk.kk dh gSA la?k ljdkj us vHkh gky

gh es O;; cU/ku vk;ksx dk eqf[k;k ------- dks fu;q djus

dk fu.kZ; fy;k%

(1) foey tkyku (2)fot; dsydj(3) ds-ih- xhFkk.ku (4) ikFkZlkjFkh kkse

38. Arjun is Arvinds brother. Swati is Arvinds

mother. Prakash is Swatis father. Malti is

Prakashs mother. How Arjun is related to Malti?

(1) Grand Son (2) Great Grand Son

(3) Son (4) Cannot be determined

38. vtqu vjfoUn dk HkkbZ gSA vjfoUn dh ek Lokrh gSA dkk

Lokrh dk firk gSA dkk dh ek ekyrh gSA ekyrh dk vtqu ls

D;k laca/k gS\

(1) ikS= (2) iM+ikS=(3) iq= (4) fu/kkZfjr ughafd;k tk ldrk

39. In a certain code bad and good is written as

325, two and none is written as 462 and that isbad is written as 159. How would good be

written in that code?

(1) 9 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 2 or 3

39. ,d fufpr dksM es ^bad and good* dks^ 325* fy[kk tkrk

gS] ^

two and none* dks ^

462* fy[kk tkrk gS vkSj ^

that isbad * dks ^159* fy[kk tkrk gSA rks ^good* dksmlh dksM es

dSls fy[ksxs\

(1) 9 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 2;k3

40. Pick the odd one out.

(1) E (2) I

(3) A (4) H

40. fuEufyf[kr es ls vlaxr dks pqfu,A

(1) E (2) I

(3) A (4) H

41. Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship.

Arc tic : Antarctic : : Cancer:

(1) Disease (2) Capricorn

(3) Population (4) Equator

41. lEcU/kks dks lUrqV djusokys lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A

mkj /kzoh; % nf{k.k ?kzoh; % % ddZ&jkfk%

(1) jksx (2) edj(3) tula[;k (4) Hkwe/; js[kk

42. Find the wrong number in the series.

12, 237, 406, 527, 604, 657

(1) 406 (2) 604


42. J`a[kyk es xyr la[;k igpkusA

12, 237, 406, 527, 604, 657

(1) 406 (2) 604


43. Select the choice that represents the given

number the best.

1 7 2 5 5 5 2:

(1) N P N R R R S (2) A B C D E F F

(3) N N P Q Q R S (4) A B C D D D C

43. ml fodYi dks pqus tks nh gqbZ la[;k dk loZJsB izfrfuf/kRo

djrk gks%

1 7 2 5 5 5 2:

(1) N P N R R R S (2) A B C D E F F

(3) N N P Q Q R S (4) A B C D D D C

44. The equator does not pass through which of thefollowing countries:

(1) Kenya (2) Mexico

(3) Indonesia (4) Brazil

44.fuEufyf[kr fdl nsk ls Hkwe/; js[kk ugha xqtjrh gS%

(1) dsU;k (2) eSfDldks(3) bUMksusfk;k (4) czkt+hy

45. How many countries are members of the SAARC

organization?

(1) 10 (2) 9


45. fdrus ns'k lkdZ laxBu ds lnL; gS\

(1) 10 (2) 9


[ A P T 1 ][A5]


7/15

TECHNICAL APTITUDE

46. Joule cycle is used in:

(1) Gas turbine (2) Steam turbine

(3) Petrol engine (4) Diesel engine

46. twy p ;q gksrk gS%

(1) xSl VckZbu esa (2)LVhe VckZbu esa(3) isVksy btu esa (4) Mht+y btu esa

47. Which one of the following is a boiler mounting?

(1) Fusible plug (2) Super heater

(3) Economiser (4) Chimney

47. fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSu&lk ,d ckW;yj ekmfUVax gS\

(1)

;wthcy Iyx(2)

lqij ghVj(3) bdksuksekbZtj (4) fpeuh

48. Mixing of fuel and air in case of diesel engine

occurs in:

(1) Fuel pump (2) Engine cylinder

(3) Injector (4) None of these

48. Mht+y btu es b/ku ,oa ok;q dk feJ.k ?kfVr gksrk gS%

(1) ;wy iEi esa (2) btu flys.Mj esa(3)butsDVj esa (4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

49. Rotary compressor is used in those cases where:

(1) High discharge rate at low pressure is required

(2) Low discharge rate at high pressure is required

(3) Low discharge rate at low pressure is required

(4) None of these

49. ?kw.k; lEihfM+= mu nkkvks es ;q gksrk gS tgk%

(1) fuEu nkc ij mPp fuLlj.k nj dh vko;drk gksrh gS(2) mPp nkc ij fuEu fuLlj.k nj dh vko;drk gksrh gS(3) fuEu nkc ij fuEu fuLlj.k nj dh vko;drk gksrh gS(4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

50. When shear force at a poin t is zero, then bending

moment at that point is:

(1) Zero (2) Minimum

(3) Maximum (4) Infinity

50.tc ,d fcUnq ij vi:i.k cy kwU; gksrk gS] rks ml fcUnq ij

cadu vk?kw.kZ gksrk gS%

(1) kwU; (2) U;wure(3) vf/kdre (4) vuUr

51. Transverse fillet welds are designed for:

(1) Tensile strength

(2) Compressive strength

(3) Shear strength

(4) Bending strength

51. vuqLFk fQysV osYM vfHkdfYir fd;s tkrs gS%

(1)ruu lkeF;Zds fy;s(2) lEihfM+r lkeF;Zds fy;s(3) vi:i.k lkeF;Z dsfy;s(4) cadu lkeF;Z dsfy;s

52. A kinamatic chain having n number of links will

have:

(1) n inversions (2) (n-1) inversions

(3) (n-2) inversions (4) (n-3) inversions

52. ^n* la[;kvks okyh dfM+;ks ;q ,d dkbZukesfVd psu es gksxk%

(1)

n

O;qRe(2)

(n-1)

O;qRe(3) (n-2)O;qRe (4) (n-3)O;qRe

53. A belt can transmit maximum power when the

total tension is:

(1) Equal to the centrifugal tension

(2) Twice the centrifugal tension

(3) Three times the centrifugal tension

(4) Four times the centrifugal tension

53. ,d csYV vf/kdre kf lapj.k dj ldrk gStc dqy ruu

gS%

(1) vidsUh ruu dscjkcj(2) vidsUh ruu dk nqxquk(3) vidsUh ruu dk frxquk(4) vidsUh ruu dk pkjxquk

54. The included angle of V- belt varies from:

(1) 10 to 20 (2) 20 to 30

(3) 30

to 40

(4) 50

to 60

54. V&csYV dk lfEefyr dks.k ifjofrZr gksrk gS%

(1) 10ls20 (2) 20ls30

(3) 30ls40 (4) 50ls60

55. Manganese in steel increases its:

(1) Tensile strength (2) Hardness

(3) Ductility (4) Fluidity

55. LVhy es eSXuht c


8/15

57. A key that has curved bottom to match the shaft.

This key is know n as ________:

(1) Sunk key (2) Feather key

(3) Flat saddle key (4) Hollow saddle key

57. ,d dqth ftles kkV dks esy djus ds fy;s oh; ry gSA bl

dqth dks tkuk tkrk gS%

(1)lad dqath (2)Qhnj dqath(3) ySV lSMy dqath (4) gkWyks lSMy dqath

58. Which of the following can be used to scribe lines

parallel to the edges of a part?

(1) Vernier calipers

(2) Divider

(3) Hermaphrodite calipers

(4) Screw gauge

58. iqts ds fdukjks ds lekukUrj js[kkvks dks [khapus ds fy;s

fuEufyf[kr es ls fdldk ;ksx gksrk gS%

(1) ofuZ;j dSfyij(2) fMokbZMj(3) gekZksMkbZV dSfyij(4)L;w xst

59. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by

the refrigerant in a:

(1) Compressor (2) Condenser

(3) Evaporator (4) Expansion valve

59. khru p ds nkSjku khrd }kjk ek vLohr dh tkrh gS%

(1) lEihfM+= esa (2)dUMslj esa(3)okfi= esa (4) lj.k okYo esa

60. The metacentric height is the distance between the:

(1) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the

centre of buoyancy

(2) Metacentre and the centre of buoyancy

(3) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the

metacentre

(4) None of these

60. esVklsfUVd pkbZ fdlds e/; dh nwjh gksrh gS%

(1) rSjrsfi.M dsxq:Ro dk dsU vkSj mRIykodrk dk dsU(2)

esVklsUVj ,oamRIykodrk dk dsU(3) rSjrsfi.M dsxq:Ro dk dsU vkSj esVklsUVj(4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

61. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a

water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler

has:

(1) More heating surface

(2) Less heating surface

(3) Equal heating surface

(4) Heating surface depends on other parameters

61. ufydkvks ds,d gh O;kl ,oa eks VkbZ gsrq] ,d tyh; ufydk

ckW;yj dh rqyuk es vfXu ufydk ckW;yj es gksrk gS%

(1) vf/kd mfer i`B(2) de mfer i`B(3) cjkcj mfer i`B(4) mfer i`B nwljskpyksaij fuHkZj djrk gS

62. A ball of mass 1kg moving with the velocity of

2m/s collide directly with another stationary ball

of mass 2kg and comes to rest after impact. The

velocity of second ball after impact is:

(1) Zero (2) 0.5 m/s

(3) 1.0 m/s (4) 2.0 m/s

62. 2m/sds osx ls pyrk gqvk

1fdxz k- O;eku okyh ,d xsn

2

fdxzk- O;eku okyh ,d fLFkj xsn ls R;{kr% Vdjkrh gS ,oa

vk?kkr ds ipkr~ foJke voLFkk es vk tkrh gSA vk?kkr ds

ipkr~ nwljh xsn dk osx gS%

(1) kwU; (2) 0.5 m/s(3) 1.0 m/s (4) 2.0 m/s

63. Section modulus Z is expressed as:

(1) I/y (2) E/I

(3) M/I (4) EI

63. [k.M ekikad ZnfkZr fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) I/y (2) E/I

(3) M/I (4) EI

64. Maximum shear stress in a Mohrs circle is:

(1) Equal to radius of Mohrs circle(2) Greater than radius of Mohrs circle

(3) Less than radius of Mohrs circle

(4) None of these

64. eksgj o`k es vf/kdre vi:i.k frcy gksrk gS

(1)

eksgj o`k dsf=T;k dscjkcj(2) eksgj o`k dsf=T;k lsvf/kd(3) eksgj o`k dsf=T;k lsde(4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

65. Which of the following pattern allowances is

known as negative allowance:

(1) Shrinkage allowance (2) Draft allowance

(3) Rapping allowance (4) Machine allowance

65. fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSu&lk iSVuZ ,ykoS Ul _.kkRed ,ykoSUl

tkuk tkrk gS%

(1) ladqpu ,ykoSUl (2)MkV ,ykoSUl(3) jSfiax ,ykoSUl (4)ekhu ,ykoSUl

[4 9 8 ][A7]


9/15

66. Internal or external tapers on a turret lathe can be

turned by:

(1) Face turning attachment

(2) Taper turning attachment

(3) Sliding attachment

(4) Morse Taper attachment

66. V~;wjsV ysFk ij vkUrfjd ;k ck; Vsij VuZ fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) Qsl Vfux vVspesUV }kjk(2) Vsij Vfux vVspesUV }kjk(3) LykbfMax vVspesUV }kjk(4) ekslZ Vsij vVspesUV }kjk

67. In uniform channel flow, if the hydraulic radius beincreased from 8m to 27 m, the flow will change by:

(1) 27/8 times (2) (27/8)1/2

times

(3) 1.5 times (4) None of these

67.leku pSuy okg es ;fn o pkfyr dh f=T;k

8eh- ls

27

eh- c


10/15

75. The least count of a metric vernier calliper having

25 divisions on the vernier scale, matching with

24 divisions o f main scale (1 main scale division =

0.5 mm) is:

(1) 0.05 mm (2) 0.01 mm

(3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.001 mm

75. eq[; iSekus 1 eq[; iSekuk [kaM = 0.5fe0 eh ds 24Hkkxks

ls feyku djus okys ofuZ;j iSekus ij 25 Hkkxks okys ehfVd

ofuZ;j dSfyij dh vYirekad gS%

(1) 0.05 mm (2) 0.01 mm(3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.001 mm

76. The included angle in Acme threads is:

(1) 60 (2) 55


76.,deh pwfM+;ks dk lfEefyr dks.k gksrk gS%

(1) 60 (2) 55

(3) 29 (4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

77. The impact strength of a material is an index of

its:

(1) Toughness

(2) Tensile strength

(3) Hardness

(4) Fatigue strength

77. /kkrq dh la?kkr lkeF;Z mlds fuEufyf[kr es ls fdl xq.k dk

lwpd gS%

(1) pheM+iu(2)ruu lkeF;Z(3) dBksiu(4)JkfUr lkeF;Z

78. For a given compression ratio, to reduce the

tendency to knock in an S I engine:

(1) Spark timing may be retarded

(2) The spark plug may be located farthest from the

exhaust valve

(3) A quiescent combustion chamber with slower

flame propagation rate may be used

(4) Organic nitrites may be used in the fuel

78. ,d fn, x, lEihMu vuqikr ds fy, ,l- vkbZ- batu es ?kkr

dh o`fk de djus dsfy,%

(1) LQqfyax le; dkseafnr fd;k tk ldrk gS(2) LQqfyax Iyx dks fu"dkl okYo ls vf/kdre nwjh ij

LFkkfir fd;k tk ldrk gS(3) fuEurj Tokyk lapj.k nj lfgr ,d 'kkar ngu psEcj dk

;ksx fd;k tkrk gS(4) b/ku esadkcZfud ukbVkbV dk ;ksx fd;k tkrk gS

79. Exhaust gas recycling in the SI engine is used to

reduce:

(1) The unburned hydrocarbons in the exhaust

(2) The CO in the exhaust

(3) The formation of NOx

(4) The soot emission from the engine

79. ,l- vkbZ- batu es iqu%pfr fu dkl xSl dk ;ksx bues ls

fdlsde djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) fu"dkl esa fcuk tysgkbMksdkcZu(2) fu"dkl esa C.O.(3) NOxdk fuekZ.k

(4) batu ls dkfy[k mRltZu80. Stream lines, path lines and streak lines are

identical for:

(1) Steady flow (2) Uniform flow

(3) Unsteady flow (4) Non-uniform flow

80. /kkjk js[kk,a] iFk js[kk,a vkSj fud k js[kk,abues ls fdlds fy,

le:i gS%

(1)vifjor okg (2),d leku okg(3)ifjor okg (4)vleku okg

81. The boundary layer is formed as the flowing fluid

comes in contact with the solid surface, because

of the action of:

(1) Surface tension

(2) Forces of adhesion

(3) Force of gravity acting on the fluid

(4) Viscosity of the fluid

81. fuEukafdr es ls fdl f;k ds dkj.k ifjlhek Lrj curk gStSls

gh okfgr rjy Bksl i` B ds lEidZ es vkrk gS%

(1)i`"B ruko(2)vklatu cy(3) rjy ij dk;Z dj jgk xq:Ro cy(4) rjy dh ';kurk

82. An impulse hydraulic turbine:

(1) Always operates while submerged completely in

water

(2) Makes use of a draft tube

(3) Converts pressure head into velocity head

throughout the vane

(4) Operates by initial complete conversion of

potential energy to kinetic energy

82. ,d vkosxh o pkfyr VckZbu%

(1) lnk gh pkfyr gksrh gStc iwjh rjg ikuh esafueXu dhtkrh gS

(2) ,d MkV V;wc dk ;ksx djrh gS(3) iwjsia[k esa nkc 'kh"kZdks osx 'kh"kZesa :ikUrfjr djrh gS(4) foHko tkZds xfrd tkZ esakjfEHkd iw.kZ:ikUrj.k }kjk

pkfyr gksrh gS

[4 9 8 ][A9]


11/15

83. The mass flow through a convergent divergent

nozzle is maximum when the pressure at:

(1) Exit is equal to the critical pressure

(2) Exit is less than atmospheric pressure

(3) Throat is equal to the exit pressure

(4) Throat is equal to the critical pressure

83. vfHklkjh&vilkjh ukst+y ds ek/;e ls O;eku okg vf/kdre

gksrk gS tc%

(1) fuxZe ij nkc kfUrd nkc dscjkcj gksrk gS(2) fuxZe ij nkc ok;qeaMyh; nkc ls de gksrk gS(3) daB ij nkc fuxZe rki ds cjkcj gksrk gS(4) daB ij nkc kfUrd nkc dscjkcj gksrk gS

84. Casting defect developing due to inadequate

venting is:

(1) Inclusions (2) Blow holes

(3) Cold shuts (4) Hot cracks

84.vi;kZIr fudklu ds dkj.k fodflr


12/15

91. In centreless grinding, the work piece centre will be:

(1) Above the line joining the two wheel centres

(2) Below the line joining the two wheel centres

(3) On the line joining the two wheel centres

(4) At the intersection of the line joining the wheel

centres with the work plate plane

91. vdsU vki?k kZ.k es dk;Z [k.M dsU dgk ij gksxk\

(1)nks ifg;ksads dsUksa dksfeykus okyh js[kk ds ij(2)nks ifg;ksads dsUksa dksfeykus okyh js[kk ds uhps(3)nks ifg;ksads dsUksa dksfeykusokyh js[kk ij(4) dk;Z IysV Iysu ds lkFk ifg;k dsU feykus okyh js[kk ds

frPNsnu ij

92. Which one of the following operations is carried

out at the minimum cutting velocity if the

machines are equally rigid and the tool work

materials are the same?

(1) Turning (2) Grinding

(3) Boring (4) Milling

92.;fn e'khus leku :i ls n`


13/15

99. The cupola is used to make:

(1) Pig iron (2) Cast iron

(3) Wrought iron (4) Steel

99. D;qiksyk dk ;ksx bues ls fdls cukus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%

(1)dPpk yksgk (2)


14/15

110. Lathe centres are provided with standard taper

known as:

(1) Chapman taper (2) Seller's taper

(3) Morse taper (4) Jarno taper

110. ekud Vsij ds lkFk ysFk dsU nku fd;s tkrs gS] mls tkuk

tkrk gS%

(1) psieSu Vsij (2) lsylZVsij(3)ekslZ Vsij (4) tuksZVsij

111. Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by:

(1) Sine bar (2) Optical pyrometer

(3) Optical projector (4) Slip gauges

111. fx;j nUr dk ksQkbZy fdlds }kjk ijh{k.k fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) lkbZu ckj (2) vkWIVhdy ikbZjksehVj(3) vkWIVhdy kstsDVj (4)fLyi xstst

112. In a micrometer if o (zero) graduation of the

thimble is above the datum line, when the faces

are in contact, the error is

(1) Zero (2) Negative

(3) Positive (4) Not defined

112. ekbksehVj es ;fn fFkEcy dk vakkadu ^o* kwU; funsk js[kk

ls ij gS tcfd vxzHkkx laidZ es gS rks =qfV gS%

(1) kwU; (2) _.kkRed(3) /kukRed (4)ifjHkkfkr ughadh tk ldrh

113. Two forces of 30 N and 40 N are acting at 90o

to

each other, the resultant force is

(1) 70 N (2) 35N

(3) 20 N (4) None of these

113. 30 NrFkk 40 Nds nks cy 90 ds dks.k ij f;koku gS]

ifj.kkeh cy gS%

(1) 70 N (2) 35N(3) 20 N (4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

114. A double start thread has a pitch of 4 mm. The

lead of the thread is

(1) 8 mm (2) 2 mm

(3) 4 mm (4) None of these

114.,d f}d pwM+h dk varjky

4 mmgSA pw M+h dh vxzrk gS%

(1) 8 mm (2) 2 mm(3) 4 mm (4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

115. The lead screw of a lathe has __________ threads.

(1) Single start (2) Double start

(3) Multi-start (4) Any one of these

115. [kjkn ds vxz.k isp es ---------- pwfM+;kagksrh gS%

(1),dgjh pwM+h (2) f}d~pwM+h(3) cgqy pwM+h (4) buesalsdksbZ ,d

116. 100C is equivalent to

(1) 100F (2) 212F

(3) 180F (4) None of these

116. 100CfuEu ds cjkcj gS%

(1) 100F (2) 212F(3) 180F (4) buesalsdksbZ ugha

117. The limits of size of a shaft are 290.03 mm. The

size of go gauge is

(1) 29.03 mm (2) 29.00 mm

(3) 28.97 mm (4) All of these

117.kSV ds vkeki dh lhek,a gS

290.03mm.xks xst dk vkeki

gS%

(1) 29.03 mm (2) 29.00 mm(3) 28.97 mm (4) ;slHkh

118. Thread angle of BSW thread in degree is

(1) 55 (2) 60

(3) 47.5 (4) 29

118. BSWpwM+h dk fMxzh es pw M+h dks.k gS%

(1) 55 (2) 60(3) 47.5 (4) 29

119. The rivet is made of

(1) Brittle material

(2) Ductile material

(3) Hard material(4) Magnetic material

119. fjosV fuEu dh cuh gksrh gS%

(1) HkqjHkqjh lkexzh(2)rU; lkexzh

(3) dBksj lkexzh(4) pqacdh; lkexzh

120. The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb

temperature increases as air:

(1) Becomes wetter

(2) Becomes drier

(3) Atmospheric temperature rises

(4) Atmospheric temperature decreases

120. kqd cYc rFkk vkZ cYc ds rkieku es vUrj c


15/15

egRoiw.kZ%

uEufyf[kr fun'k /;kuiod i

Documents

DMRC JE Mechanical 2014 Question Paper