Designer Genes 2005 National

Science Olympiad

You will have 5 minutes at each of 11 stations, including one rest stop. There are

119 questions for a total of 119 points. All questions are worth one point each..

You may not return to any station. Provide only the information requested; in most

cases this will be either a number, a letter or at most three words. Use the attached

answer sheet for all answers. The attached blank sheets of paper are for

calculations. DO NOT WRITE ON THE QUESTIONS OR MOVE THEM.

For questions asking for a probability, PROVIDE THE ANSWER AS FRACTION

THAT HAS BEEN REDUCED TO LOWEST TERMS. NO CREDIT FOR

DECIMALS OR UNREDUCED FRACTIONS, EXCEPT WHERE ANSWERS

SPECIFIES A DECIMAL.

No reference materials may be used. You may use A NON-PROGRAMMABLE

CALCULATOR. These will be checked before the start of the competition to

make certain they are the proper calculators. Programmable calculators will be

held until the end of the competition.

All cell phones and walkie talkies must be checked with the supervisor before

beginning. They may be picked up when you are finished with the event. A team

with a cell phone that goes off during the event will lose 15 points. A team using

either a cell phone or walkie talkie during the event will be disqualified.

Good luck and happy Mendeling!

What did the boy say to his sister when she stepped on his toes?

“Ow. That is my toe sis.”

Station Gregor Mendel questions 1-14

1. A true-breeding plant with red flowers is crossed to a true-breeding

plant with white flowers. All of the F1s are white. F1s are allowed

to self-pollinate. What fraction of the F2s will be true breeding for red?

2. Which of the following is true of a recessive trait?

A. It requires two identical alleles for expression.

B. It requires either 1 or 2 alleles for expression C. It is usually present in every generation

D. It can only occur if both parents also show the trait.

3. Two brown cows, who each had a white parent, are mated, and the

calf is brown. Which of the following statements best describes this

situation?

A. Brown is dominant, and the next calf has a 3/4 chance of being

brown. B. Brown is dominant and the next calf has a 1/2 chance of being white.

C. White is dominant, and the next calf has a 3/4 of being white.

D. White is dominant and the next calf has a 3/4 chance of being brown.

4. A dog with black hair mates with a dog with tan hair. The pups are 3

black and 2 tan. What can be concluded from this cross?

A. black is dominant and tan is recessive B. tan is dominant and black is recessive

C. both parents are heterozygous

D. One parent is heterozygous and one is homozygous.

5 . The dominance-recessive relationships of alleles is usually

determined by

A. biochemical interactions

B. advantage to the organism C. chromosomal location

D. size of the gene

6. In some plants. White flowers is caused by a single gene. A cross

produced 1830 normally pigmented individuals and 625 whites. What

conclusion can be made?

A. One parent is homozygous for white.

B. Both parents are heterozygous. C. White is a dominant trait.

D. Both parents were homozygous

E. 1205 white zygotes failed to develop.

7. White eyes is X-linked recessive and red is X-linked dominant. A true breeding white eyed female is mated to a red eyed male. Which of the

following correctly lists the expected F1 progeny?

A. All red eyes of both sexes

B. All white eyes of both sexes

C. All red females and all white males D. All white female and all red males

8. A cross between two tall, red plants yields the following progeny:

45 tall red

14 tall white

Which of the following statements is the best conclusion that can be

drawn from this cross?

A. Both parents are heterozygous for both genes.

B. The parents are heterozygous for red and homozygous for tall. C. One of the tall parents is homozygous.

D. The parents are heterozygous for tall and homozygous for either

red or white.

9-12. Hemophilia is an X-Linked recessive disorder. A boy has

hemophilia. For each of the following questions answer yes or no.

9. Could he have inherited the disease from his mother?

10. Could he have inherited the disease from his father?

11.Could he have inherited the disease from his father’s mother?

12.Could he have inherited the disease from his father’s father?

13-14. Consider the following map distances between genes

a-b 10 units

a-d 14 units

b-d 4 units a-c 19 units

b-c 9 units

13. What is gene order?

14. How many units separate genes d and c?

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---- “My name is Bond, Ionic Bond. I like my electrons taken, not shared.”

Station Hermann Mueller questions 15-26

15. White eyes is X-linked recessive and short bristles is autosomal

recessive. A true breeding red, long female is crossed with a true

breeding white, short male. If the F1s are allowed to interbreed, what fraction of the F2 females will be red and long?

16. White eyes is X-linked recessive and short bristles is autosomal recessive. A true breeding white, long female is crossed with a true

breeding red, short male. If the F1s are allowed to interbreed, what

fraction of the F2 males will be white and short?

17. In humans, colorblindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A color

blind woman and a color blind man have a normal vision son. What is the best explanation for this observation?

A. The woman had an affair and the child is not the father’s. B. The child can be their biological child.

C. The child is either adopted or was switched at the hospital

18-22. Matching. Answers may be used more than once or not at all.

Each term will have only one answer, Use only capital letters. ____ 18.Passed only from fathers to sons A. X-linked dominant

B. X-linked recessive

____19. An affected female will have all affected sons C. Y- linked

D. Autosomal dominant

____20. An affected male will have all affected E. Autosomal recessive

daughters F. None of these

____21. An affected woman may have all affected children

____22. Two normal parents will have an affected child

23. Color-blindness is an X-linked recessive trait in humans. A normal visioned

woman whose father was color blind and a color blind man have a son who is color

blind. The son actually has two X chromosomes and a Y. In which parent did the sex

chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis?

A. the mother

B. the father

C. either parent

D. neither parent

24-26.Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait and polydactyly (extra digits) is an

autosomal dominant. A woman who is heterozygous for both traits marries a color

blind man with normal fingers.

24. What is phenotype of the woman?

A. color blind with extra fingers

B. color blind with normal number of fingers

C. normal vision with extra fingers

D. normal vision with normal number of fingers.

25. What fraction of their sons will have normal vision and extra digits?

26. What fraction of their daughters will be color blind but with normal fingers?

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Mushroom talking to a girl who did not want to go out with him: “Why not? I am a fun

guy.”

A biologist had monozygotic twins. She named one and kept the other as a control.

No humans were around during the ice age since it was the pre-stork era.

Station Paul Berg questions 27-37

27. Which of the following examples would be considered recombinant DNA?

A. Two different viruses infect animal cells at the same time.

B. The DNA from the egg and sperm unite to form one nucleus.

C. The DNA from two different organisms are joined in a test tube.

D. DNA from human cells is cut into many different pieces.

28. What enzyme is used to covalently link two or more pieces of DNA together?

29-31 The map below shows the sites for restriction enzymes and the size of fragments

produced. (kb =kilo base)

2kb 5kb 3kb 3.5kb 4kb 6kb

_____E_____H_____P________E_____H______

E= EcoRI

H= HindIII

P=PstI

In answering the following questions, 29-31, list the fragment size in order from

smallest to largest. Any other order will be counted wrong.

29. What size fragments would be produced when the DNA is cut with EcoRI?

30. What size fragments would be produced when the DNA is digested with PstI ?

31. What size fragments would be produced when the DNA is cut with both HindIII

and PstI.?

32. A DNA sequence of about how many bases can be routinely synthesized by

automated machines?

A. 10 C. 10,000

B. 100 D. 1,000,000

33. When a DNA molecule is digested with either enzyme A or enzyme B, two

fragments are produced, but the fragments are different for each enzyme. If the

molecule is digested with both enzymes, four fragments are produced. Is the DNA

molecule circular or linear?

Questions 34-37 Match the following techniques with its use. Some answers may be

used more than once; others not at all. Each use will have only one answer.

A. Southern Blotting C. Western Blotting E. none of these

B. Northern Blotting D. Eastern Blotting

34. Transferring electrophoresed RNA to filters

35. Determining if particular binding protein was inserted into the membrane

36. Transferring electrophoresed DNA to filters

37. Transferring hybrid DNA to an enucleated egg.

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The human genome was just sequenced. Imagine the dismay of the scientists when

they found that part of the codons read: “THIS SPACE IS INTENTIONALLY LEFT

BLANK”

Station Cary Mullis questions 38-45

38. What is the correct order for performing the following procedures that are all

required for DNA fingerprinting?

A. Electrophoresis, then staining for different bands, then cutting DNA into pieces.

B. Cutting DNA into pieces, then staining for different bands, then electrophoresis.

C. Cutting DNA into pieces, then electrophoresis, then staining for different bands.

D. Electrophoresis, then cutting DNA into pieces, then staining for different bands.

39. A DNA molecule is 32% thymine. What per cent of the bases is cytosine?

40. A portion of a protein molecule has 210 amino acids. What is the minimum

number of bases that are needed to encode this portion of the protein?

A. 210

B. 420

C. 630

D. 840

41. The gene for thinkase is isolated and found to be 6.3 kb long. Digestion of this

DNA with Eco R1 yields fragments of 4.1 and 2.2 kb; digestion with BamH1 yields

3.0, 2.5, and 0.8 kb; the double digestion yields 0.8, 1.1, 1.4, and 3.0 kb.

A mutant of the gene is isolated and then digested with BamH1 to yield fragments of

5.5 and 0.8 kb. What did the mutation do and where is the mutation located?

A. Added restriction site at 3.0/2.5 junction

B. Added restriction site at 2.5/0.8 junction

C. Eliminated restriction site at 3.0/2.5 junction

D. Eliminated restriction site at 2.5/0.8 junction

42. The normal gene for hemoglobin, when digested with a particular restriction

enzyme, yields fragments of 2.3, 3.1 and 3.6 kb. When the DNA from people with

sickle cell anemia is digested., only fragments of 2.3 and 6.7 kb are seen. Which

fragment, 2.3, 3.1, or 3.6 kb can NOT be in the middle of the normal gene.

43. The following strand is used as the template strand for the dideoxy DNA

sequencing procedure.

5' C A T C C A T C A G C A A G C A C A T T 3'

If the reaction tube contains all four radioactive nucleotides plus di-deoxy T, how

many fragments will be produced?

44-45 Use the figure below.

44. DNA samples were recovered from a crime scene, and DNA fingerprints were

made. The gel of these samples appears below. Which suspect is probably guilty of the

crime? Use as your answer, the number for the suspect (1-7)

45. Which individual had the largest size fragment produced?

Station Homer Simpson questions 46-56

46. How many chromosomes are there in metaphase II of meiosis in humans?

47. Humans have 23 different chromosomes. In terms of maternal and paternal

chromosomes, how many different combinations can be produced by one individual?

Express answer in this form: 2n.

48-49. Achondroplasia is a type of dwarfism. Two dwarfs marry and have two normal

children.

48. Is dwarfism dominant or recessive?

49. What is the chance that their next two children will be dwarf?

50. You cross a plant that is AABB with one that is aabb. The F1s are selfed to

produce the F2s. What is the probability that an F2 plant will contain one half of its

alleles from each grandparent?

51-53. In the following cross:

Aa Bb Cc Dd Ee X aa Bb cc Dd Ee

what fraction of the progeny will

51. be phenotypically like the first parent?

52. be genotypically like the second parent?

53. be of the genotype Aa Bb CC dd Ee?

54. Two individuals, each heterozygous for four different genes, A, B, C, and D, are

mated. How many different phenotypes do you expect in the progeny if strict

dominance is involved for each gene?

55. A plant heterozygous for four different genes is self-fertilized. What fraction of the

progeny is expected to show all recessive traits?

56. Homer and Esmerelda are each normal, but each had a sibling who died of Tay-

Sachs, an autosomal recessive disorder. The parents of both of them were normal.

What is the probability that their first child will have Tay-Sachs?

What do you call a red blood cell that goes trick or treating?

Hemogoblin

What biochemical washes up on the beaches?

Nucleotides

How do you eat DNA spaghetti?

With a replication fork

Station Thomas Morgan questions 57-65

57-59 . In squash, green (G) is dominant over yellow (g) and disk shaped (D) is

dominant over sphere shaped (d). Based on the following information, determine the

genotypes of indicated individuals.

Cross Parents Progeny

1 green, disk X yellow sphere 1/4 green, disk; 1/4

green sphere; 1/4

yellow disk; 1/4 yellow,

sphere

2 green, disk X green, sphere 3/8 green, disk; 3/8

green, sphere; 1/8

yellow, disk; 1/8

yellow, sphere

57. What is the genotype of the green disk parent in cross 1?

58. What is the genotype of the green, sphere parent in cross 2?

59. What is the genotype of the green, disk parent in cross 2?

60-63. In mice, hair color requires the dominant allele C. Individuals with both

recessive c alleles are white, regardless of other alleles at other genes. The Aguoti

allele A,(grey) is dominant to black .

60. Which of the following genotypes would be black?

A. cc aa

B. Cc aa

C. cc AA

D. CC AA

E. none of the above is black

61. Two black mice are crossed and a white progeny appears. What must be the

genotype of the parents?

A. aaCC

B. aaCc

C. Aa Cc

D. Aa cc

62 . If two heterozygous Agouti mate, what fraction of progeny will be black?

63. A true breeding black mouse is crossed with a true breeding white mouse. All the

progeny are grey. If the grey mice are allowed to interbreed, what fraction of their

progeny is expected to be black?

64. In Drosophila, the dominant allele H causes the hairless phenotype. HH is lethal.

An independent dominant allele S has no effect of phenotype except when H is present.

In this case, the phenotype is hairy. SS is also lethal. If two hairy flies, each carrying H

in a suppressed condition, are mated, what phenotypic ratio among the LIVING

progeny do you expect. You must provide both ratio and phenotypes associated with

ratio. Thus your answer should be of this form: ¾ hairy:1/4 hairless

65. Repeated breedings of plum eyed flies yields the following progeny:

362 plum

179 red

Which of the following statements best describes what can be deduced from these

crosses?

A. Plum is dominant and red is recessive

B. Plum is recessive and red is dominant

C. Plum is dominant and lethal when homozygous

D. Some of the plum flies are homozygous and some are heterozygous.

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What did the stamen say to the pistil?

I like your style.

Station Charles Darwin questions 66-79

66-70 When constructing a pedigree, males are indicated by squares and females by

circles. Individuals with a particular disorder are shaded black. Lines between two

members of the opposite sex indicate a conjugal union to produce offspring.

Individuals may not necessarily be homozygous. For each of the following pedigrees,

66-70, indicate the most likely mode of inheritance, using the key below.

Some choices may be used more than once, other choices not at all. Each question

will have only one answer. Use capital letters.

A. Autosomal dominant

B. Autosomal recessive

C. X-linked dominant

D. X-linked recessive

E. Answer not given

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71-75. How many Barr bodies can be observed in individuals with the following

chromosome composition?

71. XYY

72. XXY

73. XXX

74. female with Down’s syndrome

75. male with Down’s syndrome

76-79. The cystic fibrosis gene in humans encodes for a chloride channel protein. If at

least 10% of the normal channel amount is present, a person has mild cystic fibrosis

(CF); if less than 10% of normal channels is present, the symptoms are severe. At least

50% of the channels must be present for the person to appear normal. The following

alleles have been identified.

Allele % of normal

channels

CF100 O%

CF1 25%

CF2 0%

CF3 5%

Predict the percent of functional channels for a person who has each of the following

genotypes based on allele combinations.

76. CF100/normal

77. CF100/CF100

78. CF100/CF1

79. If it were possible for a mating between individuals each homozygous for CF1 or

CF3 to occur, would the progeny be normal, mild CF, or severe?

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Atoms are not only sure, but they are positive when they have lost an electron.

Station Jerome LeJeune and John Down questions 80-88

Questions 80-85 refer to the following karyotypes of individuals 1-9:

If asked to identify a particular syndrome, use the following letters for the syndrome:

A. Down’s B. Turner’s C. Klinefleter’s

80. The karyotype of which individual represents a normal male?

81. The karyotype of which individual represents a woman with Down’s syndrome and

also with Turner’s syndrome?

82. What is the sex of individual 3?

83. Provide the names of the syndromes indicated by individual 1 ?

84. How many chromosomes does individual 6 have?

85. List numbers of all individuals that will reveal Barr bodies. You must have all

correct choices, and no incorrect choices to receive credit.

Questions 86-88 refer to the following graphs.

86. A 39 year old woman has a child. What is the probability of her having a child with

three copies of a chromosome?

87. How many of the 4088 spontaneous abortions had 3 copies of chromosome 16?

88. The birth of children with Down’s syndrome was studied in women of different

ages. If 0.7% of the births were children with Down’s, how old were the women in this

group?

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How do you tell the sex of chromosomes?

Pull down their genes.

Station Victor McCusick questions 89-100

89-94. Write the letter, A, B, C, D, or E, of the word or phrase that matches or is

associated with the numbered descriptions, 89-94. Some letters may be used more

than once, other letters not at all. Each question will have only one answer. Write

capital letters on answer sheet.

A. translocation

B. monosomy

C. trisomy

D. deletion

E. tri- nucleotide repeat

F. answer not given

89. Removal of part of one chromosome.

90. Part of one chromosome is moved to another chromosome.

91. One missing chromosome.

92. A codon is repeated many times more than normal.

93. Formerly called Down’s syndrome.

94. A person who is XY is female.

95-96. In the ABO blood system in humans, the genotypes AA and AO have type A

blood; the genotypes BB and BO have type B blood; the genotype OO has type O

blood ; and the genotype AB has type AB blood. For the MN system, the blood type is

a reflection of the genotype. For example, someone with type M blood is MM.

95. Mary has type A blood and her husband has type B blood. Her husband’s parents

both had type AB They have three children, one with type A, one with type AB, and

one with type B. Relatives suspect that one of the children was adopted. What is the

blood type of the child that was adopted?

96. A woman has type A and is also MM. She has a child whose blood type is AB MN

Which two of the following men could not be the father of the child? Provide the

numbers of the men who could be the father of the child. You must provide both

numbers to receive credit.

1. George: O, NN 4. Henry: AB, NN

2. Tom: AB, MN 5. Claude: A, NN

3. Bill: B, MN

The following information is to be used in the following questions/ (97-100)

Color blindness and hemophilia are X-linked recessive traits

Tay-Sachs is an autosomal recessive disorder and Marfan syndrome is autosomal

dominant

For the following situations (97-100), choose THE BEST EXPLANTION from the

following letters as your answer. Write the capital letter on the answer sheet.

Choices:

A: the child in question could be the child of the individuals listed.

B. the man in question is not the father of the child.

C . the woman in question is not the mother of the child.

Only phenotypes of parents are indicated; do not invoke mutations in your thinking.

97. A normal man and a normal woman have a hemophiliac son with Tay-Sachs.

98. A normal woman and a normal man have a daughter with Marfan’s

99. A color blind woman and a normal vision man have a normal vision son.

100. A normal visioned man and normal visioned woman, each with Marfan’s, have a

normal, color blind son.

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Eat your yogurt and get cultured.

What rock band is famous for changing its music? Mutagenesis

Station Richard Lewontin questions 101-106

101. For there to be no evolution within a population, all of the following must occur

EXCEPT

A. no mutation

B. large population

C. migration

D. random mating

102. A population has 81 AA individuals, 18 Aa individuals, and 1 aa individual.

What are the allele frequencies?

A. p = 0.81 and q =0.19

B. p = 0.75 and q = 0.25

C. p =0.9 and q = 0.1

D. p = 0.5 and q = 0.5

103. In a population thought to be at equilibrium 1 in 1,000,000 individuals shows the

recessive trait.. What is the frequency of the recessive allele? EXPRESS ANSWER

AS A 3-DIGIT DECIMAL.

104. If the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals in an equilibrium

population is 1/100, what is the expected frequency of heterozygous individuals in this

population? EXPRESS ANSWER AS A 3-DIGIT DECIMAL.

105. Approximately 1 in 12 Afro-Americans are carriers for the sickle cell trait. What

is the chance of two Afro-Americans having a child with sickle cell anemia?

EXPRESS ANSWER AS A FRACTION, reduced to lowest terms.

106. The frequency of a recessive allele after n generations of complete selection is

qn= 1/(1+ nq)

If the frequency was initially 0.4, how many generations did it take for the frequency

to become 0.1?

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Define the following terms: dilate, terminal illness

1. to live longer 2. getting sick at the airport

Station Barbara McClintock questions 107-119

107-119. For each of the following questions, answer T or F. Use capital letters

107. A disorder such as sickle cell anemia can be detected from a karyotype.

108. A person with Turner’s syndrome can be detected from a karyotype.

109. A carrier for a genetic disorder has the same DNA fingerprint as a person with the

disorder.

110. If a trait is incompletely penetrant, all individuals with the associated genotype

will express the trait.

111. A trait that is caused by a mitochondrial gene can be inherited from the father.

112. A gene can have many different alleles, but an individual can only have two of

these alleles.

113. Organisms that are triploid are usually sterile.

114. If an allele is dominant, it will be have an allele frequency greater than the

recessive allele.

115. When the DNA of a disorder that is caused by a trinucleotide repeat is sequenced,

there will be three nucleotides rather than one present.

116. One of the important consequences of meiosis is the genetic variation of the

gametes.

117. The polymerase chain reaction is used to produce a copy of all the genes of an

individual.

118. If the DNA fingerprint obtained from evidence found on a victim is identical to

that of the suspect, the suspect must be guilty of the crime.

119. If a recessive trait appears in 16% of the population, then 84% of the population

must be homozygous for the dominant allele.

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Who is the leader of the biology gang? Nucleus

DESIGNER GENES 2005

Complete School Name______________________ Team Members__________________________________

__________________________________

Team number______ Total Score________ Place_______ Total Points____________

Station Gregor

Mendel

Questions 1-14

1._________

2._________

3._________

4._________

5._________

6._________

7._________

8._________

9._________

10.________

11.________

12.________

13.________

14.________

Station H.

Mueller

Questions 15-26

15.________

16.________

17.________

18.________

19.________

20.________

21.________

22.________

23.________

24.________

25.________

26.________

Station Paul Berg

Questions 27-37

27.________

28.________

29.________

30.________

31.________

32.________

33.________

34.________

35.________

36.________

37.________

Station Mullis

Questions 38-45

38.________

39.________

40.________

41.________

42.________

43.________

44.________

45.________

Station Simpson

questions 46-56

46.________

47.________

48.________

50.________

51.________

52.________

53.________

54.________

55.________

56.________

Station Morgan

questions 57-65

57.________

58.________

59.________

60.________

61.________

62.________

63.________

64.________

65.________

Station Darwin

questions 66-79

66.________

67.________

68.________

69.________

70.________

71.________

72.________

73.________

74.________

75.________

76.________

77.________

78.________

79.________

Station Down

Questions 80-88

80.________

81.________

82.________

83.________

84.________

85.________

86.________

87.________

88.________

Station McCusick

Questions 89-100

89.________

90.________

91.________

92.________

93.________

94.________

95.________

96.________

98.________

99.________

100._______

Station Lewontin

Questions 101-106

101._______

102._______

103._______

104._______

105._______

106._______

Station

McClintock

Questions 107-119

107._______

108._______

109._______

110._______

111._______

112._______

113._______

114._______

115._______

116._______

117._______

118._______

119._______

DESIGNE

R GENES Team number Total Score Place Total Points

Station Gregor

Mendel

Questions 1-14

1. 1/4

2. A j.___A_

4.___D

5. A" 6.

7."

B

"c"

8._B__

9.___yes_

10.___no

11.

12.___ _

13.___abdc

14. 5

no

/es

Station H.

Mueller

Questions 15-26

15.____3/4____

16.____1/8____

17.___C_____

18. C

19.___B_____

20. A

21.___D_____

22.____E____

23.____B____

24.____C____

25.____!/4;___

26.___0____

Station Paul Berg

Questions 27-37

27.____C____

28. ligase

29._2,10, 11.5

30._10, 13.5_

31._3, 6,7, 7.5

32._B_____

33. circular 34._ B______

35.___C_____

36. A

37. E

Station Mullis

Questions 38-45

38. C

39.___18_____

40. C

41.____C____

42._2.3_____

43._7(OR8)_

44._3_____

45.___2____

Station Simpson

questions 46-56

46.___23

47.___223

48. DOMINANT

49_3/8_______

50._9/16______

51._27/256____

52._l/32______

53.___0_____

54.____16____

55.___1/256___

56.____1/9____

Station Morgan questions 57-65

57._GgDd______

58._Ggdd_____

59._GgDd_

60._B____

61._B____

62.___3/16_

63.___AaCc_

64.__l/6___

65. C

Station Darwin

questions 66-79

66. A

67. A(ORC)

68._E_______

69._B (OR_D)

70.___B_____

71. 0

72.___1_____

73.___2____

74.___1___

75.___0_

76.___50%___

77.____0____

78._12.5%____

Station Down

Questions 80-88

80._2______

81._8______

82._MALE_

83._AANDC_

84._46______

85_1,3,5,7,9_ 86.

15%

87. 306 (303-308)

88. 37-39

Station

McCusick

Questions 89-100

89. D

90. A

91. B

92. E

93. C

94. D

95. A

96. 1 AND5

97. A

98. BORC

99. C

100. A

Station Lewontin

Questions 101-

106

101. C

102.___C____

103.___0.001___

104.___0.180___

105._l/576____

106._8_____

Station

McClintock

Questions 107-

119 107. F

108. T

109. F

110. F

111. F

112. T

113. T

114. F

115. F

116. T

117. F

118. F

119. F