OPENDEN (II) Entrance Test forDental Programmes 2010 01882

PG Certificate in Endodontics

PG Certificate in Oral Implantology

Total No. of Questions : 90 Time : 120 Minutes

All questions are Compulsory.

Use of calculator is not allowed. Rough work may be done in the space provided at theback of the Test Booklet.

Read the instructions given on the OMR Response Sheet carefully before you start.

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How to fill up the information on the OMR Response Sheet

(Examination Answer Sheet)

Write your complete enrolment no. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolmentnumber indicated by you on the OMR Response Sheet . Also write your correct name, addresswith pin code in the space provided. Put your signatures on the OMR Response Sheet withdate. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with dateon the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided.

On the OMR Response Sheet student's particulars are to be filled in by pen. However use HBpencil for writing the Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code as well as for blackeningthe circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question.

Do not make any stray remarks on this sheet.

Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Examination Centre CodeColumns. The corresponding circle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.

Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. Youshould select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the mostappropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HBpencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of thequestion. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given underthe question, you should darken the circle with '0'.

If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened circle by usinga good quality eraser and then blacken the circle bearing your revised answer number. Ifincorrect answer is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased circle and thequestion will be read as having two answers and will be ignored for giving any credit.

No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, youshould select the most appropriate answer.

You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular questiondifficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions,you may go back to the unanswered ones. Thre is no negative marking for wrong answers.

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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

No cell Phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, note-books or written notes, etc. will be allowedinside the examination hall.

You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilatorat the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be disqualified.

Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will bedisqualified.

The Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you bythe Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR ResponseSheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does notreturn the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take furtheraction against him/her.

All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper. Scrappaper is not permitted. For arriving at an answer you may work in the margins, make somemarkings or underline in the test booklet itself.

The University reserves the right to cancel scores of any candidate who impersonates oruses/ adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The examination is conductedunder uniform conditions. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validityof scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performanceis not genuine, the University may cancel your score.

7. In the event of your qualifying the Entrance Test, the hail ticket should be enclosed with youradmission form while submitting it to the University for seeking admission in Dentalprogrammes along with your testimonials and programme fee. Admission forms receivedwithout hall ticket in original will be summarily rejected.

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Patient gives history of brittle bones and you notice blue sclera. What is likely to be thecondition ?

(1) Paget's Disease (2) Osteoporosis

(3) Osteopetrosis (4) Fibrous Dysplasia

Which type of epithelia is the normal lining of the Maxillary Antrum ?

(1) Ciliated columnar (2) Columnar

(3) Transitional stratified (4) Keratinised stratified squamous

Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ?

(1) Herpes Simplex

(2) Mumps

(3) Rubella

(4) Papilloma

Dosage of I.V Diazepam in a Dental Chair is influenced by :

(1) Tinel's sign (2) Verril's sign

(3) Battle's sign (4) Bell's sign

Which of the following drugs is used in the management of Haemophilia ?

(1) Tranexamic Acid

(2) Heparin

(3) Calcium gluconate

(4) Thrombin

Antibiotic cover is mandatory before extraction in the following condition of the heart :

(1) Ischemic heart (2) Hypertension

(3) Congestive cardiac failure (4) Congenital heart disease

7. Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of :

(1) Symphysis (2) Bilateral angles

(3) Bilateral condyles (4) Unilateral condyle

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In a patient suffering from liver disease, the main complication encountered duringextraction :

(1) Syncope (2) Post - operative infection

(3) Prolonged bleeding (4) Convulsions

For Reimplantation of avulsed tooth :

Curettage of socket is done

Curettage of root surface is done

Mild debridement of socket with saline

Root surface is treated with antibiotics

Advantage of NiTi over stainless steel file is :

(1) Resistance to fracture

(2) Flexible

(3) Cutting efficiency

(4) All

Black's classification of class II caries is :

Single proximal surface on posteriors

Mod cavity

Single proximal surface of anteriors

Both (1) and (2)

Pain in cracked tooth syndrome is :

(1) Continuous in nature (2) Variable as name indicates

(3) Elicited on pressure application (4) Elicited on relieving pressure

All of them are for infection control except :

(1) Surface disinfection

(2) Patient screening

(3) Septic technique

(4) Personal protection

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The chelating action of EDTA lasts for :

(1) 15 Min

(2) 1 Hour (3) 1 Week (4) 1 Day

Recommended splint period for avulsed tooth is :

(1) 2 - 8 wks

(2) 8 - 12 wks (3) 1 wk (4) 3 - 4 wks

Broach is used in :

(1) Pecking motion (2) Watch winding motion

3 th

(3) 360° Rotation (4) 4 Turn

In an endodontically treated tooth, the resorption rate is :

(1) More than normal tooth (2) Less than normal tooth

(3) More after 2 years (4) Same

Frozen slab technique of mixing zinc phosphate is used for :

(1) cementing crowns

(2) temporary dressing

(3) base

(4) cementing orthodontic bands

When white opacities are more extensive but do not involve more than 50% of the surfacedean's fluorosis index and grade is :

(1) 0.5 - Questionable (2) 1.0 - Very mild

(3) 2.0 - Mild (4) 3.0 Moderate

20. Anterior cross bite occurs due to all of the following except :

Labially Positioned Supernumerary

Trauma to primary anterior tooth

Arch length deficiency

Low tongue position

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21. Paraplegia is characterised by involvement of :

Both legs only

One half of the body

All 4 limbs

One limb

22. Acyanotic congenital heart disease includes

Patients with left to right shunt

Patients with right to left shunt

Tricuspid valve atresia

Tetralogy of fallot

23. Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended during following dental procedures except :

Dental extractions

Initial placement of orthodontic bands but not brackets

Intracanal endodontic treatment

Periodontal procedures

24. One of the following conditions causes speculated new bone formation at right angles to theouter cortical plate in the jaws.

Inflammatory lesions

Primary Intra - osseous carcinoma

Langerhan's cell histiocytosis

Metastatic lesions of prostate malignancy

Characteristic 'Tram - Line' calcifications in skill radiographs is observed in :

(1) Cleidocranial dysostoses (2) Struge - weber syndrome

(3) Paget's Disease (4) Mc Cline - Albright syndrome

Uremic stomatis in a patient with chronic renal failure usually manifest when :

Bun levels are higher than 150mg/dL

Bun levels are lower than 150mg/dL

Normal Bun levels

Not related to bun levels

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27. The head TILT procedure while dealing with an unconsious patient in dental chair is done toensure :

Patent airway

Blood circulation to the brain

To clear the foreign body obstacle

To relieve spasm of respiratory muscles

28. One of the following is drug of choice for acute allergic reaction (Anaphylaxis).

(1) Chloram Pheniramine (2) Diphen Hydramine

(3) Epinephrine (4) Nitroglycerin

Following gland is removed in surgery for a ranula.

(1) Submandibular gland

(2) Sublingual gland

(3) Parotid gland

(4) Lacrimal gland

Commonest site for a tuberculous sinus :

(1) Axilla (2) Neck

(3) Inguinal region (4) Foot

Causative organism for gas gangrene is :

(1) Streptococcus (2) Staphylococcus

(3) Fusiform (4) Clostridia

Golden period for treating wounds is upto :

(1) 2 hrs (2) 4 hrs (3) 6 hrs (4) 8 hrs

33. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid is treated by :

(1) Surgery (2) Radiotherapy

(3) Chemotherapy (4) None of the above

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Calcified masses present in periodontal ligaments is known as :

(1) Denticles (2) Cementum

(3) Cementicles (4) Laminin

Predominant inorganic component of supragingival calculus is :

(1) Magnesium phosphate (2) Calcium carbonate

(3) Calcium phosphate (4) Carbon dioxide

36. High prevalence and increased severity of periodontal destruction associated with DownSyndrome is due to :

Poor PMN chemotaxis and phagocytosis

Mental retardation

Malocclusion

Poor oral hygiene

37. Glycosylated hemoglobin assay (HbAic) level of 4% — 6% indicates

(1) Normal value (2) Good diabetes control

(3) Moderate diabetes control

(4) Poor diabetes control

Which scaling instrument makes two point contact on tooth surface :

(1) Hoe scalers (2) Sickle scalers

(3) Chisel scalers (4) Curette

Following statement is true regarding apically displaced flap

It eliminates the pocket

Widens the zone of attached gingiva

It can be full thickness/split-thickness flap

All of the above

40. Bioactive glass (Perio glass) bone graft material is a type of :

(1) Autograft material (2) Allograft material

(3) Xenograft material (4) Non bone graft material

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The most common odontogenic cyst is :

(1) Keratocyst

(2) Dentigerous cyst

(3) Radicular cyst

(4) Lateral periodontal cyst

Oral mucosa is lined by :

Stratified squamous epithelium

Transitional epithelium

Simple columnar epithelium

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium

The cells that secrete dentinal matrix :

(1) Ameloblast (2) Odontoblast (3) Chondroblast (4) Osteoblast

The periodontium does not include :

(1) Cementum

(2) Dentin

(3) Periodontal ligament

(4) Bone lining the socket

Actinomycosis is an infection caused by

(1) Virus (2) Fungus

(3) Bacteria (4) Parasite

The "Starry sky" appearance is seen in :

(1) Burkitt's lymphoma

(2) Ewing's sarcoma

(3) Eosinophilic granuloma

(4) Rhabdomyosarcoma

Cusp of carabelli is seen in :

(1) Permanent maxillary first molar (2) Permanent mandibular first molar

(3) Deciduous maxillary first molar (4) Deciduous mandibular first molar

Tongue deviates to right side on protrusion because of paralysis of :

(1) Right hypoglossal nerve (2) Left hypoglossal nerve

(3) Lingual nerve (4) Right facial

49. Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is :

(1) Carbamazepine (2) Phenobarbitone

(3) Chlorpromazine (4) Indomethacin

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50. Most important triad of symptoms in portal hypertension :

Splenomegaly, Hepato Megaly, Ascites

Splenomegaly, Esophageal varices and ascites

Piles, splenomegaly and generalised anasarla

Esophageal varices, piles and generalised anasarla

51. Anemia, splenomegaly and structural defects are seen in :

(1) Thalassemia major (2) Thalassemia minor

(3) Mediterranean anemia (4) Polycythemia

All are true about angina except :

(1) Pain commonly retrosternally (2) Pain reduces by rest

(3) Pain mainly stabbing in nature (4) Pain radiates

Tanaka-Johnston analysis, predicts the width of un-erupted canines and premolars based onsum of :

(1) The width of upper incisors (2) The width of lower incisors

(3) The width of molars (4) None of the above

Development of palate begins at the age of :

(1) 4 weeks (2) 6 weeks

(3) 13 weeks (4) 18 weeks

Growth of child in height and eruption of teeth is more in :

(1) Early morning hours (2) Afternoon hours

(3) Evening hours (4) Night hours

56. The term Hollywood smile refers to :

Generalised. spacing in permanent dentition

Generalised spacing in deciduous dentition

Lack of spacing in deciduous dentition

Prosthesis to close anterior spacing

57. Which is type II hypersensitivity ?

(1) Anaphylaxis

(2) Delayed hypersensitivity

(3) Immune complex mediated

(4) Cytotoxic / cytolytic type

58. Rheumatic fever is associated with :

(1) Heart (2) Liver

(3) Bone (4) Kidney

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Bacterial cell does not possess :

(1) DNA (2) Ribosome (3) Mitochondria (4)

Which organism causes dental caries ?

Cell wall

(1) Candida tropicalis (2) Staphylococcus pyogenes

(3) Streptococcus mutans (4) Bacillus anthracis

Rubber Gloves and glove powder are sterilised by :

(1) Auto clave (2) Hot-air

(3) Uv rays (4) Formaldehyde

Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin by :

(1) Thrombin (2) Prothrombin activator

(3) Prothrombin (4) Calcium

Normal Tidal volume is :

(1) 500 ml (2) 700 ml (3) 300 ml (4) 1000 ml

Structural and functional unit of nervous system :

(1) Neuron (2) Nephron (3) Neuroglia (4) Giant cell

Hormone responsible for milk ejection :

(1) Oxytocin (2) Estrogen (3) Progesterone (4) Prolactin

The hormone that lowers blood Glucose level :

(1) Cortisol (2) Growth hormone (3) Glucagon (4) Insulin

Number of ATP produced by complete aerobic oxidation of glucose is :

(1) 8 ATP (2) 12 ATP (3) 32 ATP (4) 38 ATP

Lingual plating should be supported :

By the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors

With Bracing Arms

With the rests

With minor connector

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The optimum degree of taper for a maxillary molar as an abutment for fixed partial dentureis :

(1) 10° (2) 14°

(3) 17° (4) 19°

Electrolyte used for plating copper dies is :

(1)

Ionic copper

(2) Copper cyanide

(3)

Silver cyanide

(4) Acidic copper sulphate

Denture acrylics contain cross-linking agents, mainly to improve their :

(1)

Internal color

(2) Tissue compatibility

(3)

Surface hardness

(4) Craze resistance

Separating the roots of a maxillary molar without removing a root is known as :

(1) Skyfurcation (2) Trifurcation (3) Bifurcation (4) Bicuspidation

In mandibular guide flange prosthesis, flange extension should be preferably in the region of :

(1) Maxillary IInd molar (2) Maxillary IInd premolar

(3) Anterior to maxillary premolar (4) On any tooth

RPI stands for :

Occlusal rest, proximal guide planes, I BAR

Occlusal rest, proximal plate, I BAR

Occlusal rest, proximal plate, Indirect Retainer

Cingulum rest, proximal guide plane, I BAR

In gothic arch tracing, the apex indicates :

(1) Centric relation

(2) Centric occlusion

(3) Protrusive relation

(4) Physiologic rest position

Tripoding is done :

To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor

To get the desired path of insertion

To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.

To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator.

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77. Beyron point is located at :

11 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line parallel to and 7 mm belowFrankfurt horizontal plane

13 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outercanthus.

13 mm anterior to tragus on a line from base of tragus to outer canthus

(4) 10 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outercanthus.

78. The following statements about verpamil are true except :

It does not produce reflex tachycardia

It is less potent as a coronary vasodilator

It is contraindicated in patients with supraventricular tachycardia

It can cause constipation

79. Use of morphine is contraindicated in the following conditions except :

Head injury

Acute myocardial infardation

Acute abdominal pain before diagnosis

Bronchial asthama

80. Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except :

(1) Tannic acid (2) Gelatin foam (3) Adrenaline (4) Vitamin-K

Therapeutic uses of calcium salts include the following except :

(1) Osteoporosis (2) Disorders of coagulation

(3) Laryngospasm (4) Extreme hyper-kalemia

Mode of action of sulphonyl ureas include all the following except :

Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin

Inhibiting Gluconeogenesis in liver

Enhancing insulin mediated post receptor enzyme reaction

Decreasing Glucose absorption from the gut.

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Facial palsy involves :

(1) 5th nerve (2) 6th nerve

(3) 7th nerve (4) 9th nerve

Parotid duct opens :

(1) Lower 2nd molar (2) Upper 2nd molar

(3) Lower anteriors (4) Lower premolars

Ist arch artery is :

(1) Maxillary artery

(2) Mandibular artery

(3) Carotid artery

(4) Stapeded artery

As transverse venous sinus continues as :

(1) Straight sinus

(2) Cavernous sinus

(3) Sigmoid sinus

(4) Ethmoidal sinus

Ascending palatine is branch of artery :

(1) Maxillary (2) Facial

(3) Lingual (4) Pharyngeal

A most unsanitary method that creates public health hazards, nuisance and severe pollutionof the environment is :

(1) Incineration (2) Controlled tipping

(3) Dumping (4) Composting

89. The global monitoring age for caries for international comparison and monitoring diseasetrends.

(1) 7 years (2) 11 years (3) 12 years (4) 14 years

90. The following term is used to describe the impact of school based health education programmeson parents :

(1) Side effect (2) Secondary effect

(3) Ripple effect (4) String effect

- o 0 o -

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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