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GMIT MOCK CET 2 – PHYSICS QUESTION PAPER
1. If L is the inductance, C is the capacitance and R is the resistance, then L
CR has the dimension
(1) 22 ATLM (2) ATLM 22 (3) 121 ATLM (4) 0000 ATLM
2. A man is 45 m behind the bus when the bus start accelerating from rest with acceleration 2.5 m/s2.
With what minimum velocity should the man start running to catch the bus?
(1) 12 m/s (2) 14 m/s (3) 15 m/s (4) 16 m/s
3. The height y and the distance x along the horizontal plane of a projectile on a certain planet (with no
surrounding atmosphere) are given by )58( 2tty meter and tx 6 meter, where t is in second. The
velocity with which the projectile is projected is
(1) 10 m/sec (2) 6 m/sec (3) 8 m/sec (4) None of these
4. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is
suspended from it but will break if the mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration with
which the monkey can climb up along the rope )/10( 2smg
(1) 2/10 sm (2) 2/5.2 sm (3) 2/5 sm (4) 2/5 sm
5. If the K.E. of a body is increased by 300%, its momentum will increase by
(1) 100% (2) 150% (3) %310 (4) 175%
6. A space craft of mass M is moving with velocity V and suddenly explodes into two pieces. A part of it
of mass m becomes at rest, then the velocity of other part will be
(1) mM
MV
(2)
mM
MV
(3)
mM
mV
(4)
m
VmM )(
7. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth's surface is v. For a
satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the earth's radius, the orbital velocity is
(1) v2
3 (2) v
2
3 (3) v
3
2 (4) v
3
2
8. Particles of masses m, 2m, 3m, ……nm grams are placed on the same line at distances l. 2l, 3l,……nl
from a fixed point. The distance of center of mass of the particles from the fixed point in centimeter is
(1) 3
)12( ln (2)
2
)1( 2 lnn (3)
)1(
22 nn
l* (4)
1n
l
9. A solid sphere of mass 1.5kg rolls on a frictionless horizontal surface, its center of mass moving at a
speed of 5ms-1
. Then it rolls up an inclined at 300 to the horizontal. The height attained by the sphere
before it stops is (g = 10 ms-2
)S
(1) 1.75 m (2) 1.5 m (3) 5 m (4) 3.65 m
10. A fractional change in volume of oil is 1% when a pressure of 2 x 107 Nm
-2 is applied, then the bulk
modulus and compressibility are
(1) 3 x 108 Nm
-2 , 0.33 x 10
-9 m
2N
-1 (2) 5x 10
9 Nm
-2 , 2 x 10
-10 m
2N
-1
(3) 2 x 109 Nm
-2 , 5 x 10
-10 m
2N
-1 (4) 2 x 10
9 Nm
-2 , 5 x 10
-9 m
2N
-1
11. The apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when heated in a copper vessel is C and when heated
in a silver vessel is S. If A is the linear coefficient of expansion of copper, then the linear coefficient
of expansion of silver is
(1) 3
3 ASC (2)
3
3 SAC (3)
3
3 CAS (4)
3
3 ASC
12. The amount of work done in an adiabatic expansion from temperature T to 1T is
(1) )( 1TTR (2) RT (3) )(1
1TTR
(4) )1)(( 1 TTR
13. The rectangular surface of area 8 cm 4cm of a black body at a temperature of Co127 emits energy at
the rate of E per second. If the length and breadth of the surface are each reduced to half of the initial
value and the temperature is raised to Co327 , the rate of emission of energy will become
(1) E8
3 (2) E
16
81 (3) E
16
9 (4) E
64
81
14. A man measures the period of a simple pendulum inside a stationary lift and finds it to be T sec. If the
lift accelerates upwards with an acceleration 4/g , then the period of the pendulum will be
(1) T
(2) 4
T
(3) 5
2T
(4) 52T
15. Two passenger trains moving with a speed of 108 km/hour cross each other. One of them blows a
whistle whose frequency is 750 Hz. If sound speed is 330 m/s, then passengers sitting in the other
train, after trains cross each other will hear sound whose frequency will be
(1) 900 Hz (2) 625 Hz (3) 750 Hz (4) 800 Hz
Lift
Pendulum
16. A total charge Q is broken in two parts 1Q and 2Q and they are placed at a distance R from each
other. The maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, when
(1) R
QQQ
R
QQ 12 , (2)
3
2,
412
QQQ
(3) 4
3,
412
QQ (4)
2,
221
17. Point charge Cq 21 and Cq 12 are kept at points 0x and 6x respectively. Electrical potential
will be zero at points
(1) 2x and 9x (2) 1x and 5x (3) 4x and 12x (4) 2x and 2x
18. To charges 1q and 2q are placed cm30 apart, shown in the figure. A third charge 3q is moved along
the arc of a circle of radius cm40 from C to D. The change in the potential energy of the system is
kq
0
3
4, where k is
(1) 28 q
(2) 18 q
(3) 26q
(4) 16q
19. The equivalent capacitance between A and B is
(1) 4
C
(2)
4
3C
(3) 3
C
(4)
3
4C
20. Between the plates of a parallel plate condenser, a plate of thickness 1t and dielectric constant 1k is
placed. In the rest of the space, there is another plate of thickness 2t and dielectric constant 2k . The
potential difference across the condenser will be
(1)
2
2
1
1
0 k
t
k
t
A
Q
(2)
2
2
1
10
k
t
k
t
A
Q (3)
2
2
1
1
0 t
k
t
k
A
Q
(4) )( 2211
0 tktkA
Q
21. A capacitor when filled with a dielectric 3K has charge 0Q , voltage 0V and field 0E . If the dielectric
is replaced with another one having 9K the new values of charge, voltage and field will be
respectively
(1) 000 3,3,3 EVQ (2) 000 3,3, EVQ (3) 00
0 3,3
, EV
Q (4) 3
,3
, 000
EVQ
A
B
C C C C
q3
40 cm
q1 q2
D 30 cm
C
B A
22. If the voltage across a bulb rated 220V and 100W drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of
the rated value by which the power would decrease is
(1) 20% (2) 2.5% (3) 5% (4) 10 %
23. A wire connected in the left gap of a meter bridge balance a 10 resistance in the right gap to a point,
which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the wire is 1 M. The length of one ohm
wire is
(1) 0.057 m 2) 0.067 m 3) 0.37 m 4) 0.134 m
24. A galvanometer of resistance 10 gives full-scale deflection when 1 mA current passes through it.
The resistance required to convert it into a voltmeter reading upto 2.5V is
(1) 24.9 2) 249 3) 2490 4) 24900
25. Mark the correct set of ferromagnetic substances
(1) Iron, cobalt and Nickel (2) Iron, copper and lead
(3) silicon, bismuth and nickel (4) Aluminium, sodium and copper
26. Two coils A and B are separated by a certain distance. If a current of 4 A flows through A, a magnetic
flux of 310Wb passes through B (no current through B). If no current passes through A and a current
of 2 A passes through B, then the flux through A is
(1) 35 10 Wb (2)
44 10 Wb (3) 45 10 Wb (4)
32 10 Wb
27. A long solenoid with 10 turns per cm has a small loop of area 23cm placed inside, normal to the axis of
the solenoid. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2A to 4A in 0.2 s, what is the
induced voltage in the loop, while the current is changing?
(1) 84.2 10 V (2)
82.8 10 V (3) 67.3 10 V (4)
63.8 10 V
28. A series LCR circuit with 22 , 1.5 40R L H and C F is connected to a variable frequency 220
V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural frequency of the circuit, what is the
average power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle?
(1) 2000W (2) 2200W (3) 2400W (4) 2500W
29. In a concave mirror experiment, an object is placed at a distance 1x from the focus and the image is
formed at a distance 2x from the focus. The focal length of the mirror would be
(1) 21 xx (2) 21 xx (3) 2
21 xx (4)
2
1
x
x
30. The apparent depth of a needle lying at the bottom of the tank, which is filled with water of refractive
index 1.33 to a height of 12.5 cm is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. if water is replaced by a
liquid of refractive index 1.63 upto the same height. What distance would the microscope have to be
moved to focus on the needle again?
(1) 1.73 cm (2) 2.13 cm (3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.9 cm
31. Two coherent sources of intensities, I1 and I2 produce an interference pattern. The maximum intensity in
the interference pattern will be
(1) I1 + I2 (2) 22
21 II (3) (I1 + I2)
2 (4) 2
21 )( II
32. In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between two sources is 0.1mm.The distance of the
screen from the source is 20cm.Wavelength of light used is 54600A.The angular position of the first
dark fringe is
(1) 00.08 (2)
00.16 (3) 00.20 (4)
00.31
33. The figure shows a double slit experiment P and Q are the slits. The path lengths PX and QX are n
and )2( n respectively, where n is a whole number and is the wavelength. Taking the central fringe
as zero, what is formed at X
(1) First bright
(2) First dark
(3) Second bright
(4) Second dark
34. Direction of the first secondary maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern at a single slit is given
by (a is the width of the slit)
(1) 2
sin
a (2) 2
3cos
a (3) sina (4)
2
3sin
a
35. A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency 1 and stopping potential is
found to be 1.V If the light of frequency 2 irradiates the surface, the stopping potential will be
(1) 1 1 2
hV
e
(2) 1 2 1
hV
e
(3) 1 2 1
eV
h
(4) 1 1 2
hV
e
n
(n+2) P
Q
X
36. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 3 21.388 10 .Wm The photons in the
sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm. How many photons per square metre are incident on
the earth per second?
(1) 214 10 (2)
344 10 (3) 314 10 (4)
284 10
37. If 1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series, 2 is the frequency of the first line of Lyman
series and 3 is the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series, then
(1) 1 2 3 (2) 1 2 3
(3) 2 1 3
1 1 1
(4)
1 2 3
1 1 1
38. A convex lens of focal length 0.15 m is made of a material of refractive index 3/2. When it is placed in
a liquid, its focal length is increased by 0.225 m. The refractive index of the liquid is
(1) 7
4 (2)
5
4 (3)
9
4 (4)
3
2
39. An object is placed at cm20 from a convex mirror of focal length .10 cm The image formed by the
mirror is
(1) Real and at cm20 from the mirror (2) Virtual and at cm20 from the mirror
(3) Virtual and at cm3/20 from the mirror (4) Real and at cm3/20 from the mirror
40. The focal lengths of the objective and the eye-piece of a compound microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm
respectively. An object is placed at a distance of 1.1 cm from the objective. If the final image is
formed at the least distance of distinct vision, the magnifying power is
(1) 60 (2) 50 (3) 40 (4) none of these
41. In young’s experiment when sodium light of wavelength 5893 A is used, then 62 fringes are seen in
the field of vew. Instead, if violet light of wavelength 4358 a is used then the number of fringes that
will be seen in the field of view will be
(1) 54 (2) 64 (3) 74 (4) 84
42. A solenoid of 1.5 meter length and 4.0 cm diameter possesses 10 turns per cm. A current of 5 ampere
is flowing through it. The magnetic induction at axis inside the solenoid is
(1) 32 10 T (2)
52 10 T (3) 22 10 gauss (4)
52 10 gauss
43. The electric current in a circular coil of two turns produced a magnetic induction of 0.2T at its centre.
The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of four turns. The magnetic induction at the
centre of the coil now is, in tesla (if same current flows in the coil)
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.8
44. The hysteresis cycle for the material of a permanent magnet is
(1) short and wide (2) tall and marrow
(3) tall and wide (4) short and narrow
45. The Curi-Wesis law is obeyed by iron
(1) at all temperatures (2) above the Curie temperature
(3) below the Curie temperature (4) at the temperature only
46. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25cm2 has a resistance of 10 .If a magnetic
field3 which is perpendicular to the plane of the coil changes at a rate of 1000 tesla per sec, the
current in the coil is
(1) 1 ampere (2) 50 ampere (3) 0.5 ampere (4) 5.0 ampere
47. A coil having an area 0A is placed in a magnetic field which changes from 0B to 04B in a time interval
t. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be
(1) t
BA 003 (2)
t
BA 004 (3)
tA
B
0
03 (4)
tA
B
0
04
48. In the diagram shown if a bar magnet is moved along the common axis of two single turn coils A and
B in the direction of arrow
(1) Current is induced only in A & not in B
(2) Induced currents in A & B are in the same direction
(3) Current is induced only in B and not in A
(4) Induced currents in A & B are in opposite directions
49. A circuit has a self-inductance of 1 henry and carries a current of 2A. To prevent sparking when the
circuit is switched off, a capacitor which can withstand 400 V is used. The least capacitance of the
capacitor connected across the switch must be equal to
(1) 50 F (2) 25 F (3) 100 F (4) 12.5 F
50. A group of electric lamps having a total power ratting of 1000 watt is supplied by an AC voltage
0200sin 310 60E t Then the rms value of the electric current is
(1) 10 amp (2) 10 2 amp (3) 20 amp (4) 20 2 amp
B A
N S
51. A proton and an particle are accelerated through the same potential differences. The ratio of their
de Brogile wavelengths /p is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 1/ 8
52. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm (3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm
53. Excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion, in its first excitation state, is 40.8 eV. The energy needed to
remove the electron from the ion in ground state is
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 27.2 eV (3) 40.8 eV (4) 54.4 eV
54. If a hydrogen atom in its ground state is excited by means of monochromatic radiation of wavelength
975 A, the number of different lines possible in the resulting spectrum and the longest wavelength
among them are
(1) 6,18720 A0 (2) 4,18720 A
0 (3) 4,304 A
0 (4) 6,8208 A
0
55. The wavelength of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 0 A. The wavelength of this
line of a double ionized lithium atom 3Z is
(1) / 3 (2) / 9 (3) / 8 (4) / 27
56. The half-life of radium is 1620 years and its atomic weight is 226 kg per kilomol. The number of
atoms that will decay from its 1 gm sample per second will be (Avagadro number 236.02 10N
atom/g-mol)
(1) 103.6 10 (2)
123.6 10 (3) 153.1 10 (4)
1531.1 10
57. The binding energy per nucleon for 12C is 7.68 MeV and that for
13C is 7.47 MeV. What is the energy
required to remove a neutron from 13C ?
(1) 0.21 MeV (2) 2.52 MeV (3) 4.95 MeV (4) 2.75 MeV
58. Which is the correct relation for forbidden energy gap in conductor, semi conductor and insulator
(1) insulatorscc EgEgEg (2) conductorscinsulator EgEgEg
(3) scinsulatorconductor EgEgEg (4) insulatorconductorsc EgEgEg
59. What is the current in the circuit shown below
(1) 0 amp (2) 210 amp
(3) 1 amp (4) 0.10 amp
60. For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of inputs A, B, C are as follows A=B=C=0 and
A=B=1, C=0 then the logic states of output D are
(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 1 (3) 1, 0 (4) 1, 1
KEY ANSWER:
Q.no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 1
Q.no 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key 4 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 4 1 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 1
Q.no 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key 4 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 4
– 4V PN 300 – 1V
1
1. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of benzene because
a) Borazole is a non-polar compound b) Borazole is a polar compound
c) Borazole is an electron deficient compound d) of localized electrons in it
2. The common pain killer which causes minute ulcers or bleeding in stomach, and
should not be taken empty stomach is
a)aspirin b) ibuprofen c) naproxen d) diclophenac
3. The time taken for 90% of a first order reaction to complete is approximately
a) 1.1 times that of half-life b) 2.2 times that of half-life
c) 3.3 times that of half-life d) 4.4 times that of half-life
4. The EAN of nickel in Ni(CO)4 is
a) 36 b) 28 c) 38 d) 54
5. 0 .20 g of a hydrocarbon on combustion gave 0.66 g CO2. The percentage of hydrogen
in the hydrocarbon is about
a) 33 b) 45 c) 10 d) 90
6. Which of the following exhibits the weakest intermolecular forces?
a) He b) NH3 c) HCl d) H2O
7. Oxidation of butan-2-one to propanoic acid can be achieved by
a) Tollen’s reagent b) NaOH + I2 + dil.HCl c) Br2 water d) atmospheric oxidation
8. The number of geometrical isomers in case of compound CH3CH=CHCH = CHC2H5
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5
9. The compounds of alkaline earth metals have the following magnetic nature
a) Diamagnetic b) paramagnetic c) ferromagnetic d) ant ferromagnetic
10. The oxidation states of sulphur in Caro’s acid and Marshall’s acid are
a) +6, +6 b) +4, +6 c) +6, -6 d) +6, +4
11. CCl4 is used as a fire extinguisher, because
a) Its boiling point is low b) its melting point is high
c) It gives incombustible vapors d) it forms covalent bond
12. In which of the following reaction, Kp > Kc ?
a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) b) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
c) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) d) 2SO3(g) ⇌ 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
13. Nitrogen forms N2 but phosphorous is converted into P4 from P2. The reason for
this is
GMIT MOCK CET 2 – PHYSICS QUESTION PAPER
GMIT MOCK CET 2 – CHEMISTRY QUESTION PAPER
2
a) triple bond is present between phosphorous atoms b)pπ-pπ bonding is weak
c) pπ-pπ bonding is strong d) multiple bonds are formed easily
14. The composition of an acidic buffer mixture made up of HA and NaA of total molarity
0.29 having pH = 4.4 and Ka = 1.8×10-5
in terms of concentration of salt and acid
respectively is
a) 0.09 M and 0.20 M b) 0.20 M and 0.09 M
c) 0.1 M and 0.19 M d) 0.19 M and 0.10 M
15. Consider the following reaction,
a) C6H5CHO b) C6H5OH c) C6H5COCH3 d) C6H5Cl
16. The free energy change is related to equilibrium constant as
a) ∆G = RTln K b) -∆G = RTlog K
c) -∆G = 2.303RTlog K d) -∆G = (RTlog K)/2.303
17. Ethyl alcohol gives ethyl chloride with the help of
a) SOCl2 b) NaCl c) Cl2 d) KCl
18. Which of the following pairs will form the most stable ionic bond?
a) Na and F b) Mg and F c) Li and F d) Na and Cl
19. In the Hofmann’s method for separation of 1°, 2° and 3° amines, the reagent used is
a) Acetyl chloride b) benzene sulphonyl chloride
c) Diethyl oxalate d) nitrous acid.
20. Which one of the following reactions is not associated with the Solvay process of
manufacture of sodium carbonate?
a) CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 b) NH3 + H2CO3→ NH4HCO3
c) NaCl + NH4HCO3 → NaHCO3 + NH4Cl d) 2NaOH + CO2 → Na2CO3 + H2O
21. Which of the following will not undergo Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction?
a)CH3COOH b) CH3CH2COOH c) 2, 2-Dimethylpropanoic acid d) 2-Methylpropanoic
22. Which of the following will not give CHI3 on treatment with I2 and NaOH?
a) CH3 – OH b)CH3 – CH2 – OH
c) d)
23. The number of atoms present in unit cell of a mono atomic substance of simple
3
cubic lattice is
a) 6 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
24. Ellingham diagrams can be drawn for the
a) Sulphides b) oxides c) halides d) all of these
25. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by
a) Fitting’ reaction b) Clementon’s reaction
c) Kolbe’s reaction d) Reduction with LiAlH4
26. A solid element (symbol Y) conducts electricity and forms two chlorides YCln(a
colorless volatile liquid) and YCln-2 (a colorless solid). To which one of the following
groups of the periodic table does Y belong?
a) 13 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16
27. One of the most widely used drug in medicine, iodex is
a)methyl salicylate b) ethyl salicylate
c) acetylsalicylic acid d) o-hydroxybenzoic acid
28. Use the bond energy data and calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction:
a) -1465 kJ/mol b) 1465 kJ/mol c) -1482 kJ/mol d) 1482 kJ/mol
29. The chemical formula for iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II) is
a) Fe[Fe(CN)6] b) Fe3[Fe(CN)6] c) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4 d) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
30. The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because
a) there is covalent bond between H and O b) water molecule is linear
c) Water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding d) water molecule is not linear.
31. A reagent used for identifying nickel ion is
a) Potassium feerrocyanide b) phenolphthalein c) dim ethyl glyoxime d) EDTA
32. The weight of one molecule of a compound C60H122 is
a) 1.2×10-20
g b) 5.025×1023
g c) 1.4×10-21
g d) 6.023×1023
g
33. What is the order of stability for
I. 1-butene; II. cis-2-butene; III. trans-2-butene?
a) I < II < III b) I > II > III c) III > I > II d) I > II < III
34. Which one of the following properties of alkali metals increases in magnitude as
the atomic number rises?
4
a) ionic radius b) melting point c) electro negativity d) first ionization energy
35. In the replacement reaction
The reaction will be most favorable if M happens to be
a) Na b) K c) Rb d) Li
36. Human blood has an osmotic pressure of 7.65 atm a body temperature (37°C). Hence,
molaritie of an intravenous glucose solution, to have same osmotic pressure will be
a) 0.30 M b) 0.10 M c) 0.50 M d) 0.20 M
37. What are the products formed in the reaction of xenon hexafluoride with silicon
dioxide?
a) XeSiO4 + HF b) XeF2 + SiF4 c) XeOF4 + SiF4 d) XeO3 + SiF2
38. The half-life of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled. The order of reaction is
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 0
39. To calculate the amount of work done in joules during reversible isothermal
expansion of an ideal gas, the volume must be expressed in
a) m3 only b) dm3 only c) cm3 only d) any of these
40. Which of the following oxides of manganese is acidic in nature?
a) MnO2 b) Mn2O3 c) Mn2O7 d) MnO
41. Which substance is not present in nucleic acids?
a) Cytosine b) Adenine c) Thymine d) Guanidine
42. The pH value of the solution in which a particular amino acid does not migrate under
the influence of an electric field is called
a) Eutectic point b) yielding point c) neutralization point d) isoelectric point
43. A semiconductor of Ge can be made p-type by adding
a) Trivalent impurity b) tetravalent impurity c) pentavalent impurity d) divalent impurity
44. Four different set of quantum numbers for 4 electrons are given below:
e1= 4,0,0, - 1
2 e2 = 3,1,1, -
1
2 e3 = 3,2,2, +
1
2 e4 = 3,0,0, +
1
2
The order of energy of e1 , e2 , e3 ,e4 ,
a) e1 >e2 >e3 >e4 b) e4 >e3 >e2 >e1 c) e3 >e1 >e2 >e4 d) e2> e3 >e4 >e1
5
x
45. Which of the following statements about electrolytic refining of silver is not true?
a) Anode consists of impure silver b) Cathode consists of pure silver
c) Electrolytic solution consists of AgNO3 and nitric acid
d) Electrolytic solution consists of AgNO3 and hydrochloric acid
46. The ground state electronic configuration of N2 molecule is written as KK[σ2s2 σ*2s
2 π2p
2π2p
2
σsp2] , the bond order is
z
a) 3 b) 2 c) 0 d) 1
47. The relationship between Pc , Vc and Tc is
a) PcVc= RTc b) PcVc= 3RTc c) PcVc =3/2 RTc d) PcVc =3/8 RTc
48. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
a) Aspartame → food preservative b) BHT → antioxidant
c) Saccharin → artificial sweetener d) Sodium benzoate → preservative
49. Micelles may be formed by aggregates of soap anions in water as the anions are
a) hydrophilic b) hydrophobic c) diphilic d) carriers of electricity
50. Which of the following represents the expression for 3/4th life
a) K
2.303 log4/3 b)
2.303
K log3/4 c)
2.303
K log4 d)
2.303
K log3
51. Natural rubber is a polymer of
a) Trans-isoprene b) Cis-isoprene c) Co-cis and trans-isoprene d) None of these
52. Interparticle forces present in Nylon-6,6 are
a) van der Waals b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Dipole-dipole interactions d) None of these
53. Molisch test is answered by
a) All carbohydrates b) Sucrose c) Fructose d) Glucose
54. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 0.850 bar. A non-volatile, non-
electrolyte solid weighing 0.5 g when added to 39.0 g of benzene (molar mass 78 g mol-1).
Vapour pressure of the solution, then, is 0.845 bar. What is the molar mass of the solid
substance?
a)150 g mol-1 b) 200 g mol-1 c)100 g mol-1 d)170 g mol-1
55. If the solubility product of CuS is 6 10-16, the maximum molarity of CuS in aqueous solution
will be
a)3.45 x 10-5 mol-1 b) 2.45 x 10-8 mol-1 c)2.45 x 108 mol-1 d) 3.45 x 105 mol-1
56. The amount of current in faraday is required for the reduction of 1 mol of 2
2 7Cr O − ions to
3Cr +
is
a)4F b)6F c)2F d) 1F
57. A depolarizer used in dry cell is
a) Ammonium chloride b) Sodium carbonate c) Lead sulphate d) Manganese dioxide
58. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide by the reaction
( ) ( ) ( )2 5 2 4g g g
H I C H HIC → +
At 600 K is 1.60 10-5 s-1. Its energy of activation is 209 k J/mol. The rate constant of the
reaction at 700 K is
a)5 x 10-3 s-1 b) 7.36 x 10-2s-1 c)3.5 x 10-2s-1 d) 6.36 x 10-3 s-1
6
59. Colloidal particles exhibit Tyndall effect due to
a) reflection of light b) refraction of light
c) scattering of light d) polarisation of light
60. On the basis of data given below, predict which of the following gases shows least adsorption on
a definite amount of charcoal?
Gas CO2 SO2 CH4 H2
Critical temp./K 304 630 190 33
a) CO2 b) SO2 c) CH4 d) H2
7
KEY ANSWERS
Q.N. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Key b b c a c a b a a a c d b a a c a b c d
Q.N. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Key c a d d d b a c d c c c c a c a c c d c
Q.N. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Key b d b c d a d a c c b b a d b b d d c d
1. If , is a root of the equation , where , the find the values of
and .
1) 2, 2 2) 3) 4) 1, 2
2. The number of 4 digit numbers without repetitions that can be formed using digits 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 in which each number has two odd digits and two even digits is
1) 432 2) 436 3) 450 4) 454 3. The number of terms in the expansion of (x2 + y2)25 – (x2 – y2)25 after simplification is
1)0 2)13 3) 26 4)50 4. The third term of G.P is 9. The product of its first five terms is
1) 35 2) 39 3)310 4) 312
5. A line cuts off equal intercepts on the co-ordinate axes. The angle made by this line with positive direction of X-axis is
1)450 2) 900 3)1200 4)1350
6. The order of the differential equations 2 4
1 3
C x C xy C e C e is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
7. If ( ) ( )
and | | , then | | is equal to
1) 2) 3) 4) none of these
8. If the angle between a and b is 2
3
and the projection of a in the direction of b is -2 then a
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 9. If | | and , then the range of | | is
1) [ ] 2) [ ] 3) [ ] 4) [ ]
10. 2 , ,a b c a b a b c
=
1)0 2) , ,a b c
3)2 , ,a b c
4)3 , ,a b c
11. If ( ( )
( )) (
), then
1) 2 2) 1 3) 0 4)
12. Rolle’s theorem is not applicable in which one of the following cases?
1) 2 4 5f x x x in [1, 3] 2) 2f x x x in [ 0, 1]
3) f x x in [ -2, 2] 4) f x x in [2.5 , 2.7]
13. The interval in which the function 3 26 9 10f x x x x is increasing in
1) ,1 3, 2) ,1 3,
3) 1,3 4) , 1 3,
14. The sides of an equilateral triangle are increasing at the rate of 4 cm/sec. The rate at which its area is increasing. When the side is 14 cm
1) 10 3 cm2 / sec 2) 28 3 cm2 / sec
3) 42 cm2 / sec 4) 14 cm2 / sec
15. The value of 24.99 is
1) 4.999 2) 4.899 3) 5.001 4) 4.897 16. If | | , then
1) [ ] 2) [ ] [ ] 3) ( ) ( ) 4) ( )
17. A random variable has the following probability distribution:
GMIT MOCK CET 2 – Mathematics QUESTION PAPER
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
( ) Then ( ) is
1)
2) N T 3)
4)
18. If A and B are two events of a sample space S such that P(A) = 0.2, P(B) = 0.6 and P(A|B)= 0.5 then P (A’|B) =
1) 1
5 2)
3
10 3)
1
2 4)
1
3
19. If ‘X’ has a binomial distribution with parameters n = 6, P(X-2) = 12, P (X- 3) = 5 then P =
1) 5
21 2)
16
21 3)
1
2 4)
5
16
20. A man speaks truth 2 out of 3 times. He picks one of the natural numbers in the set S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} And reports that it is even,. The probability that it is actually even is
1) 2
5 2)
1
5 3)
1
10 4)
3
5
21. 3
1
3
cot xdx
1) 3 2) 0 3) 6 4) 3
22. Evaluate: ∫
1)
2)
3)
4)
23. ∫
1) | | 2) | |
3)
4)
24. ∫ √
1) √ 2) (√ ) 3) 2 4) (√ )
25.
1
0
1
1
xdx
x
1) 12
2) 1
2
3)
2
4)
1
2 26. If and defined by ( ) and ( ) , then the value of for
which ( ( )) is
1) 2) 3) 4)
27. If 2| , 5 , | , 5 6 0 ,A x x x B x x x x then the number of onto functions from A to B
is 1) 2 2) 23 3) 30 4) 32
28. On the set of positive rationals, a binary operation * is defined by a * b = 2
5
ab, If 2 * x = 3-1 then x =
1) 1
6 2)
5
12 3)
2
5 4)
125
48
29. (
) (
) is equal to (where )
1)
2)
3)
4) none of these
30. If 1 12 tan 3cot2
a x x b then ‘a’ and ‘b’ are respectively
1) 0 and 2) 2
and 2 3) 0 and 2 4)
2
and
2
31. If U is the universal set with 100 elements; A and B are sets such that n(a) = 50, n(b) = 60, n(A B) = 20 then n(A’B’) =
1) 40 2) 20 3) 90 4) 10
32. The domain of the function defined by ( ) √
√ is equal to
1) ( ) ( ] 2) ( ) ( )
3) ( ) [ ] 4) ( ) [ )
33. Find the general solution for the equation
1)
2) 3)
4) both (2) and (3)
34. The value of (
) (
) is
1) 2) 0 3) 1 4) not defined
35. By principle of mathematical induction
( )( ) is equal to
1) ( )
( )( ) 2)
( )
( )( ) 3)
( )
( )( ) 4) none of these
36. The length of perpendicular from origin to the plane ( )
1) 1 2) 3 3)
4) none of these
37. Acute angle between the line 5 1 4
2 1 1
x y z
and the plane 3 4 5 0x y z
1) 1 9cos
364
2) 1 9sin
364
3) 1 5cos
2 13
4) 1 5sin
2 13
38. Vector equation of the line is
1) ( ) 2) ( )
3)
(
) 4) none of these
39. XY-plane divides the line joining the points A(2,3,-5) and B (-1, -2, -3) in the ratio 1) 2:1 internally 2) 3 : 2 externally 3) 5 : 3 internally 4) 5 :3 externally
40. Maximize , subject to .
1) 44 at (4, 2) 2) 60 at (4, 2) 3) 62 at (4, 0) 4) 48 at (4, 2)
41. The inverse of the matrix
2 5 0
0 1 1
1 0 3
is
1)
3 1 1
15 6 5
5 2 2
2)
3 5 5
1 6 2
1 5 2
3)
3 15 5
1 6 2
1 5 2
4)
3 15 5
1 6 2
1 5 2
42. If [
] and , then
1) 5 2) 3 3) 7 4) none of these
43. If 3 4 'A B [
]and 2 3 'B A [
]then B =
1) [
] 2) [
] 3) [
] 4) [
]
44. If and |
| , then
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4)
45. If the value of a third order determinant is 16, then the value of the determinant formed by
replacing each of its elements by its cofactor is 1) 96 2) 48 3) 256 4) 16
46. The eccentricity of the ellipse 2 29 25 225x y is
1) 4
5 2)
3
5 3)
3
4 4)
9
16
47. 1
2 1n
r
r
= x then 3 3 3 3
2 3 2 2
1 2 3lim ......n
n
x x x x
1) 1
2 2)
1
4 3) 1 4) 4
48. The negation of the statement “All continuous functions are differentiable” 1) All continuous functions are not differentiable 2) Some continuous functions are differentiable 3) Some continuous functions are not differentiable 4) All differentiable functions are continuous
49. Mean and standard deviation of 100 items are 50 and 4 respectively. The sum of all squares of the items is
1) 251600 2) 256100 3) 266000 4) 261600 50. Two letters are chosen from the letters of the word ‘EQUATIONS’ . The probability that one is vowel
and the other is consonant is
1) 8
9 2)
4
9 3)
3
9 4)
5
9
51. 3 sin3x xdx
1) 3 3cos3 sin3 2 cos3 2 sin3
3 3 9 27
x x x x x x x xC
2) 3 2 2cos3 sin3 2 cos3 sin3
3 3 9 27
x x x x x x x xC
3) 3 2cos3 sin3 2 cos3 2sin3
3 3 9 27
x x x x x x xC
4) 3 2cos3 sin3 2 cos3 2sin3
3 3 9 27
x x x x x x xC
52. Area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the x-axis, the line and the circle
is
1) sq. units 2) sq. units 3) sq. units 4) sq. units
53. The area of the region bounded by the curve between and is
1) 2 sq. units 2) 0 sq. units 3) 3 sq. units 4) 1 sq. units
54. The Integrating factor of the differential equation
is
1)
2)
3) 4)
55. The equation of the curve passing through the point (1, 1 ) such that the slope of the tangent at any point (x, y) is equal to the product of its co-ordinates is
1) 2 log x = y2 – 1 2) 2 log y = x2 + 1 3) 2 log y = x2 – 1 4) 2 log x =y2 + 1
56. The constant term in the expansion of
3 1 2 1 2
5 1 3 2 1
7 2 3 1 4 1
x x x
x x x
x x x
is
1) 0 2) 2 3) -10 4) 6
57. If [ (
)
] , then
1) 7 2)
3)
4) none of these
58. Let ( )
(
). If ( ) is continuous in (
), then (
)
1) 1 2)
3)
4)
59. If 1
1 2sin ,
1 4
x
xf x
f’(0) =
1) 2log2 2) log 2 3) 2log 2
5 4)
4log 2
5 60. The derivative of ( ) w.r.t. is
1) 2 2)
√ 3)
4)
Key Answer
Q No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 2 3 4 Q No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 2 2 1 2 1 3 1 4 Q No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 4 4 2 2 3 4 2 2
Q No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Ans. 4 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 2
Q No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 Ans. 3 1 1 3 3 1 2 3 1 4
Q No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 2 1 2 3 4 4 3 2 1
