CIS 513 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

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Chapters 5 Through 8

Chapter 5 - Wireless Personal Area Networks

TRUE/FALSE

1. WPAN technologies are designed to connect devices that are typically up to 10 meters apart.

2. One of the advantages of WPAN technologies is their conservative use of battery power.

3. The first step in the Bluetooth pairing process is the paging procedure.

4. A reduced-function device can only connect to one full-function device on the network.

5. Bluetooth uses a challenge-response strategy for device authentication.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is NOT a likely application for WPAN technologies?

a. home control systems

c. industrial control systems

b. video streaming d. security systems

2. Which of the following is true about WPAN standards?

a. IEEE developed standards for protocols above layer 2

c. IEEE 802.15.1 is the Bluetooth standard

b. industry alliances developed specifications for layers 1 and 2

d. 802.16n is the ZigBee standard

3. Which of the following is true about the OSI model and IEEE 802?

a. the PMD is part of the Data Link layer

c. the LLC is part of the Physical layer

b. the PLCP formats data received from the MAC

d. the MAC layer is responsible for establishing connectivity to the local network

4. Which radio frequency band does Bluetooth use?

a. 2.4 GHz ISM c. 2.0 GHz ISM

b. 5.0 GHz ISM d. 4.2 GHz ISM

5. Which of the following is true about the Bluetooth protocol stack?

a. the L2CAP sits between Baseband and RF

c. Link Manager communicates directly with the Physical Radio

b. the Baseband layer sits atop the RF layer

d. The RF layer communicates between the Link Manager and L2CAP

6. What feature available in some Bluetooth devices increases data rates to 2.1 or 3 Mbps?

a. Link Manager c. L2CAP

b. radio module d. EDR

7. Which Bluetooth power class allows transmission ranges up to 330 feet?

a. Power Class 1 c. Power Class 3

b. Power Class 2 d. Power Class 4

8. Bluetooth 1.x uses a variation of which modulation technique?

a. PSK c. FSK

b. ASK d. GSK

9. What feature of Bluetooth version 3.0 uses a separate radio module that transmits using the same methods as IEEE 802.11?

a. BLE c. AMP

b. ULP d. NFC

10. Which transmission technique is used by Bluetooth devices?

a. Narrowband c. DHSS

b. FHSS d. UWB

11. Which feature of Bluetooth version 1.2 allows Bluetooth networks to coexist with 802.11 networks with a minimum of interference?

a. adaptive frequency hopping

c. alternate MAC/PHY

b. frequency hopping spread spectrum

d. Bluetooth low energy

12. What is created when a Bluetooth network has one master and at least one slave using the same channel?

a. scatternet c. piconet

b. wi-fi net d. bluenet

13. How is the master device determined in a Bluetooth network?

a. the device with the lowest address number

c. the first device to send out an inquiry message to discover other devices

b. the device with the highest priority hop sequence on the

d. the device that carries out a paging procedure and

piconet establishes a connection

14. Which of the following is NOT a field in a Bluetooth frame?

a. Access code c. Header

b. Frame check sequence

d. Payload

15. Which of the following is NOT a Bluetooth error correction scheme?

a. 1/3 rate FEC c. ARQ

b. 2/3 rate FEC d. CRC

16. In which Bluetooth power mode is only the slave device’s internal timer running?

a. active mode c. hold mode

b. sniff mode d. park mode

17. Which of the following is true about the ZigBee standard?

a. designed to support mesh networking

c. used for larger data transfers than Bluetooth

b. replaced an existing global, open standard

d. operates in the 5.0 and 6.5 GHz ISM bands

18. Which layer in a ZigBee device is responsible for detecting the presence of an RF signal in the currently selected channel?

a. LLC c. MAC

b. PHY d. Upper

19. Which task is the MAC layer responsible for in an 802.15.4 device?

a. turning the radio transceiver on and

c. association and disassociation

off

b. analyzing link quality

d. selecting a frequency channel for operation

20. Which type of ZigBee device controls the network in a star topology?

a. all end-node devices

c. full-function device

b. reduced function device

d. PAN coordinator

COMPLETION

1. In a ZigBee tree topology, if a child loses it connection with its FFD, it becomes a(n) _____________.

2. ________________ is an 802.15.4-based technology that implements IPv6 on WPANs and supports mesh networking.

3. A ______________ authority is a private company that verifies the authenticity of each user in order to discourage fraud.

4. In Bluetooth Encryption Mode ______, all traffic is encrypted.

5. 802.15.4 provides for _______________ integrity, a technique that uses a message integrity code.

MATCHING

a. 8-DPSK f. inquiry procedure

b. ACL link g. MIC

c. ARQ h. modulation index

d. binding i. sequential freshness

e. guaranteed time slots

j. superframe

1. a reserved period for critical devices to transmit priority data

2. a simple method of phase shift keying that uses eight degrees of phase to encode tribits

3. the process of establishing a relationship between endpoints in a ZigBee network

4. a security service available in 802.15.4 and used by the receiving device

5. a process that enables a device to discover which devices are in range

6. a packet-switched link that is used for data transmissions

7. the amount that the frequency varies

8. an error-correction scheme that continuously retransmits until an acknowledgment is received or a timeout value is exceeded

9. a mechanism for managing transmissions in a piconet

10. a code composed of a subset of the data, the length of the data, and the symmetric key

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are the three types of addresses used in a Bluetooth piconet? Describe each.

2. Describe the two types of physical links between Bluetooth devices.

3. What are the two types of network access used in IEEE 802.15.3 networks? Describe them.

4. List three of the seven tasks the 802.15.4 MAC layer is responsible for.

5. What are the four levels of addresses for identifying devices within a ZigBee PAN?

6. What is a cluster tree topology and how do they compare to mesh networks?

7. How is power management implemented in a ZigBee network?

8. Describe the WirelessHART technology.

9. List and describe the three levels of Bluetooth security.

10. What is the process that ZigBee WPANs use for authentication and encryption? Describe how it works.

Chapter 6 - High-Rate Wireless Personal Area Networks

TRUE/FALSE

1. IEEE 802.15 covers all the WPAN working groups.

2. The WHDI consortium developed the WHDI specification primarily for the delivery of data produced from online database queries.

3. The piconet coordinator in a WirelessHD network should be a battery operated device for mobility.

4. The DSPS power saving mode allows devices to sleep for long periods of time until they choose to wake up and listen to a beacon.

5. UWB is capable of handling multiple data streams, including HD television.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which IEEE standard enables multimedia connectivity between mobile and fixed consumer devices within the home?

a. 802.15.3c c. 802.15.1

b. 802.15.5 d. 802.15.4

2. In which frequency range does WHDI operate?

a. 2.4 GHz c. 5 GHz

b. 800 MHz d. 400 KHz

3. Which of the following is true about WiGig?

a. it is compatible with 802.11ac

c. makes use of technology designed by AMIMON

b. it requires layer 3 and 4 protocols for audiovisual support

d. it has adopted the 802.15.3c standard for multimedia distribution

4. What does WiGig use to maintain reliable connections at very high frequencies?

a. single-carrier modulation

c. OFDM

b. beamforming d. protocol adaptation layers

5. What technique does WirelessHD employ to support data rates over 25 Gbps?

a. LRP c. HDMI

b. spatial multiplexing d. beamforming

6. Which of the following is true about a WVAN piconet?

a. the piconet relies on an access point

c. large non-mobile devices like TVs are not part of a piconet

b. the PNC is typically a mobile device such as a tablet computer

d. the PNC is the first sink device in the area

7. Which of the following is described as a piconet that has its own PNC but depends on the original piconet’s PNC to allocate a private block of time when its devices are allowed to transmit?

a. child piconet c. neighbor piconet

b. parent piconet d. subordinate piconet

8. Which of the following is NOT an HR WPAN feature provided by the 802.15.3 MAC layer?

a. uses a one-octet device ID

c. data transport includes QoS

b. PNC can be queried about other devices

d. infrastructure mode networking is supported

9. Which part of an 802.15.3 superframe is used for association and command communication?

a. contention access period

c. channel time allocation period

b. beacon d. management channel time allocation

10. What type of transmission method does an 802.15.3 piconet use during the CTAP?

a. SDMA c. FDMA

b. TDMA d. CDMA

11. Which field of the 802.15.3 MAC frame format is used to reassemble a file in the correct sequence?

a. Frame control c. Fragmentation control

b. Piconet ID d. Stream index

12. Which 802.15.3 power-saving methods allows devices to sleep for the duration of several superframes and allows them to wake up in the middle of a superframe to transmit or receive data?

a. PSPS c. PSPS

b. APS d. APCI

13. Which radio band does the 802.15.3c standard use?

a. 5.0 GHz c. 2.4 GHz

b. 60 GHz d. p00 MHz

14. How many channels and what is the width of each 802.15.3c channel?

a. 4, 2 GHz c. 11, 25 MHz

b. 6, 200 MHz d. 14, 50 MHz

15. Which of the following is NOT a 802.15.3c PHY layer enhancement?

a. passive scanning c. channel energy detection

b. parity bit error detection

d. transmit power control

16. The RF modulation techniques used for 802.15.3c are variations of which of the following?

a. QAM and PSK c. NRZ-L and NRZ-I

b. FSK and ASK d. BPSK and QPSK

17. In the WirelessHD specification 1.1, Which of the following is NOT a function of the higher protocol layers?

a. video format selection

c. device discovery

b. clock synchronization

d. video and audio encoding and decoding

18. What application has UWB been used for since the 1960’s?

a. video streaming c. cellular phone towers

b. ground-penetrating radar

d. automobile speed detectors

19. What term is used for the technique in which the amplitude, polarity, or position of an analog pulse represents either a 1 or a 0?

a. biphase modulation c. direct-sequence UWB

b. mesh networking d. impulse modulation

20. What type of attack on a Bluetooth device can access contact lists without the user’s knowledge?

a. bluejacking c. bluesnarfing

b. bluespoofing d. blueDoS

COMPLETION

1. The IEEE 802.15.3c standard enables ________________ connectivity between mobile and fixed consumer devices within the home.

2. The WHDI specification is designed to mirror the screens of multiple devices to the TV screen with the use of ____________.

3. _____________________ uses multiple radios and antennas to steer a signal in the direction of the receiver.

4. ZigBee uses a(n) _______________ encryption key for network-wide communications.

5. Security for IEEE 802.15.3 HR WPANs is based on ________________, a symmetric key encryption mechanism.

MATCHING

a. biphase modulation f. isochronous

b. channel time allocations

g. MCTA

c. contention access period

h. PNC

d. D-WVAN i. spatial multiplexing

e. H-WVAN j. superframe

1. periods of time allocated by the PNC to a specific device for prioritizing communications

2. the home or parent WVAN

3. time periods used for communication between the devices and the PNC

4. a mechanism used to communicate commands or any asynchronous data that may be present in a superframe

5. a technique that uses multiple radios and multiple antennas to transmit and receive different parts of the same PHY frame

6. a time-dependent transmission that must occur every frame or every so manyframes to maintain the quality of the connection

7. a mechanism for managing transmissions in a piconet

8. a device that provides all the basic communications timing in an 802.15.3 piconet

9. uses a half-cycle positive analog pulse to represent a 1 and a half-cycle negative analog pulse to represent a 0

10. a secondary wireless video area network that operates in a different frequency channel

SHORT ANSWER

1. Provide a summary of the purpose and application for IEEE 802.15.3c.

2. List four potential HR WPAN applications.

3. What was the primary purpose the WHDI consortium developed the WHDI specification?

4. What do the PALs do for WiGig?

5. What are the three sections the WirelessHD specification divides the PHY layer into?

6. Describe child and neighbor piconets.

7. Describe the three parts of an 802.15.3 superframe.

8. What information is contained in the Frame control field of an 802.15.3 frame?

9. List and describe the two modes of security for IEEE 802.15.3 HR WPANs.

10. Briefly discuss the potential of spectrum conflict with WPANs.

Chapter 7 - Low-Speed Wireless Local Area Networks

TRUE/FALSE

1. A wireless residential gateway provide better security than connecting a computer directly to the Internet.

2. The range of an AP base station is approximately 375 feet in an environment with no obstructions and little interference.

3. When transmitting above 2 Mbps using DSSS in an 802.11b network, a Barker code is used.

4. The PHY layer of the 802.11b standard provides functionality for a client to join a WLAN and stay connected.

5. A SIFS occurs immediately after the transmission of frames and no device is allowed to transmit during the SIFS.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is NOT true about wireless NICs?

a. they change the computer’s internal data from serial to parallel before transmitting

c. they have an antenna instead of a cable port

b. you can connect an external wireless NIC to a USB port

d. notebook computers often use Mini PCI cards for wireless NICs

2. Which component found in an access point is NOT found in a wireless NIC?

a. radio transmitter c. radio receiver

b. RJ-45 interface d. antenna

3. Aside from acting as the base station for the wireless network, what other function does an AP perform?

a. it routes packets c. proxy server

b. acts as a bridge d. it performs as a firewall

4. Where does an AP that it using PoE get its DC power from?

a. an AC outlet c. UTP cables

b. a built-in AC/DC converter

d. high-frequency radio waves

5. If three friends each have a laptop computer and they want to exchange files wirelessly but nobody has an AP, what should they do?

a. use Ad hoc mode c. use the Basic Service Set

b. use infrastructure mode

d. use the Extended Service Set

6. What is the term used for when a client finds a different AP that can provide a better-quality signal and then associates with the new AP?

a. reassociation c. transfer

b. reconnect d. handoff

7. Which of the following is NOT a field in the 802.11b PLCP frame?

a. Start frame delimiter

c. Signal data rate

b. Source address d. Length

8. Which field of the PLCP frame indicates how long in microseconds the data portion of the frame is?

a. Start frame delimiter

c. Service

b. Signal data rate d. Length

9. What is the primary job of the PMD sublayer?

a. translate binary 1s and 0s into radio signals

c. reformat the data received from the MAC layer

b. evaluate the Header error check field

d. implement a channel access method

10. What is the maximum throughput a device can achieve operating on an 802.11b network?

a. about 11 Mbps c. about 54 Mbps

b. about 5.5 Mbps d. about 27 Mbps

11. What is the period of time devices must wait after the medium is clear before attempting to transmit?

a. collision timeframe c. backoff interval

b. signal data rate d. synchronization period

12. What is the RTS/CTS protocol designed to reduce or prevent?

a. negative acknowledgements

c. collisions

b. CRC errors d. handshakes

13. With which channel access method does the AP ask each computer if it wants to transmit?

a. point coordinated function

c. CSMA/CD

b. CSMA/CA d. virtual carrier sensing

14. In active scanning, what does the client do initially to start the association process?

a. poll the access point

c. send a beacon with the requested SSID

b. send a probe frame d. transmit an associate request frame

15. What is the last frame sent to successfully conclude a client’s attempt to associate using active scanning?

a. scan reply c. probe response

b. synchronize acknowledgement

d. associate response

16. Which of the following is true about client’s associating with an AP?

a. an AP can reject the request based on the client MAC address

c. a client can reassociate with another AP in a BSS

b. a client can be associated to multiple APs simultaneously for fault tolerance

d. if a client is not preconfigured for a specific AP, it will not attempt to associate

17. Which of the following is NOT true about WLAN power management?

a. power management is transparent to applications

c. the AP uses timestamps to maintain synchronization

b. 802.11b devices use power management in ad hoc mode

d. the AP keeps a record of which client’s are sleeping

18. What is the list of devices called that an AP sends in a beacon that indicates which clients have buffered frames waiting?

a. sleep mode identifier

c. traffic indication map

b. buffered frames allocation

d. packet delivery list

19. Which of the following is a function performed by MAC management frames?

a. request-to-send c. reassociation request

b. transmit data to the client

d. acknowledgement

20. What is the time period during which all devices must wait between transmissions of data frames?

a. Short Interframe Space

c. Idle Requirement Period

b. DCF Interframe Space

d. Transmission Control Period

COMPLETION

1. In the place of a port for a cable connection, a wireless NIC has a(n) ______________.

2. An AP acts as a(n) ____________ between the wired and wireless networks.

3. ____________________ mode consists of at least one wireless client connected to a single AP.

4. Once the _____________ has formatted the frame, it passes the frame to the PMD sublayer.

5. When a client is finishing transmitting, it begins listening for a(n) ________________

from the receiving device.

MATCHING

a. ACK f. control frames

b. active scanning g. DCF

c. associate request frame

h. fragmentation

d. BSS i. management frames

e. channel access methods

j. passive scanning

1. a WLAN mode that consists of at least one wireless client and one AP

2. a frame sent by a client to an AP that contains the client’s capabilities and supported rates

3. MAC frames that assist in delivering the frames that contain data

4. the process of listening to each available channel for a set period of time

5. the division of data to be transmitted from one large frame into several smaller frames

6. a procedure used to reduce collisions by requiring the receiving station to send an explicit packet back to the sending station

7. the default channel access method in IEEE 802.11 WLANs

8. MAC frames that are used, for example, to set up the initial communications between a client and the AP

9. the process of sending frames to gather information

10. the different ways of sharing resources in a network environment

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are the four steps involved in wireless NIC transmission?

2. Describe the two basic functions of an AP.

3. What is infrastructure mode? Include a discussion of BSS and ESS in your answer.

4. What is a drawback of an ESS WLAN with respect to roaming users? What is a remedy to this drawback?

5. Describe the Physical layer of the 802.11b standard.

6. List the three parts of the PLCP frame.

7. How does CSMA/CA in DCF handle media contention?

8. How does RTS/CTS work?

9. Describe the six basic rules of communication in an 802.11 network.

10. Describe the six steps that occur if two devices have frames to transmit.

Chapter 8 - High-Speed WLANs and WLAN Security

TRUE/FALSE

1. The 802.11a standard maintains the same MAC layer functions as 802.11b WLANs.

2. Increasing data transmission speed through more complex modulation schemes makes multipath distortion worse.

3. The 4-bit Rate field in an 802.11a PLCP frame specifies the speed at which the Data field will be transmitted.

4. Wireless controllers incorporate most AP functions including the radio.

5. VPNs encrypt a connection for security and use very few processing resources.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following 802.11 standards uses U-NII bands and does not use ISM bands?

a. 802.11b c. 802.11g

b. 802.11a d. 802.11n

2. Which of the U-NII bands is approved for outdoor use?

a. U-NII-1 c. U-NII-2 Extended

b. U-NII-2 d. U-NII-3

3. What is the multiplexing technique used by 802.11a to help solve the multipath distortion problem?

a. QPSK c. FEC

b. OFDM d. PBCC

4. How many bits per symbol can be transmitted using 16-QAM?

a. 16 c. 4

b. 2 d. 8

5. Which wireless data rate uses 64-level quadrature amplitude modulation, transmitting over 48 subcarriers?

a. 11 Mbps c. 24 Mbps

b. 2 Mbps d. 54 Mbps

6. Which layer defines the characteristics of the wireless medium?

a. PLCP c. LLC

b. PMD d. MAC

7. Which field in an 802.11a PLCP frame are used to initialize part of the transmitter and receiver circuits?

a. Tail c. Service

b. Pad d. Parity

8. What is the disadvantage of an 802.11a WLAN compared to an 802.11b WLAN?

a. shorter range c. more interference sources

b. higher error rate d. lower bandwidth

9. How many non-overlapping channels are available in an 802.11g WLAN?

a. 23 c. 3

b. 11 d. 8

10. Why is the SIFS time in the 802.11g standard effectively extended to 16 microseconds?

a. for compatibility with 802.11a

c. to allow 802.11n devices on the network

b. to account for quiet time

d. to achieve data rates higher than 11 Mbps

11. Which of the following is correct about antenna diversity?

a. it is the cornerstone of the 802.11n technology

c. it increases bandwidth while decreasing range

b. it is two radios and one antenna

d. it is two antennas with one radio

12. What do 802.11n devices employ to direct a transmission back to the device from which a frame was received?

a. spatial multiplexing c. MIMO

b. beamforming d. antenna diversity

13. What is the maximum radio configuration for 802.11n devices?

a. 3 transmitters, 3 receivers

c. 4 transmitters, 4 receivers

b. 6 transmitters, 4 receivers

d. 4 transmitters, 3 receivers

14. How much bandwidth do 802.11n devices utilize when running at speeds up to 300 Mbps?

a. 20 MHz c. 40 MHz

b. 22 MHz d. 44 MHz

15. What is the purpose of a guard band?

a. help prevent adjacent channel interference

c. helps prevent outside EM interference

b. help prevent co-channel interference

d. helps prevent intersymbol interference

16. What 802.11n mode of operation is referred to as greenfield?

a. transmitting in non-HT mode with 802.11a/g devices

c. transmitting with only HT devices

b. transmitting in mixed HT/non-HT devices

d. transmitting at a faster speed than receiving

17. Which HT operation mode is used when one or more non-HT devices are associated with an HT AP and supports devices at 20 or 40 MHz?

a. Mode 0 c. Mode 2

b. Mode 1 d. Mode 3

18. Which IEEE standard supports QoS and enables prioritization of frames in DCF?

a. 802.11f c. 802.11d

b. 802.11e d. 802.11c

19. What 802.11 standard under development uses up to 160 MHz bandwidth and can achieve data rates up to 7 Gbps?

a. 802.11bg c. 802.11cd

b. 802.11ac d. 802.11ga

20. What type of device can you deploy to allow client WLAN connectivity when the main AP is out of range?

a. bridge c. monitor

b. controller d. router

COMPLETION

1. __________________ distortion occurs when the receiving device gets the same signal from several different directions at different times.

2. The _______________ interval prevents a new symbol from arriving at the receiver before the last multipath signal reaches the receiver’s antenna.

3. AP _____________________ is a security problem that takes advantage of the fact that clients authenticate with the AP but not vice versa.

4. The strength of encryption relies on keeping the __________ secret as well as its length.

5. 802.1X uses the Extensible ________________ Protocol for relaying access requests between a wireless device, the AP, and the RADIUS server.

MATCHING

a. co-channel interference

f. reduced interframe space

b. CTS-to-self g. spatial multiplexing

c. guard band h. symbol

d. intersymbol interference

i. TKIP

e. pre-shared key j. wireless controller

1. a 128-bit key used by WPA

2. interference between two devices configured to use the same frequency channel

3. a change in the signal, also known as a baud

4. a 2-microsecond interframe space that can be used in 802.11n networks

5. the unused frequency space between two adjacent channels

6. a security protocol used in WPA that provides per packet key-mixing

7. a coordination method used by 802.11g devices that prevents 802.11 and 802.11b devices that do not “understand” OFDM from attempting to initiate a transmission

8. a transmission technique that uses multiple radios and multiple antennas to send different parts of the same message simultaneously

9. devices that make it much easier to manage large WLANs by implementing most of the functions of an AP

10. caused when the beginning of a symbol arrives at the receiver antenna while multipath reflections from the previous symbol are still reaching the antenna

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the U-NII frequency band and WLAN standard uses it?

2. Describe how 802.11a uses the U-NII-1, U-NII-2, and U-NII-2 extended bands.

3. What are the two mandatory and two optional transmission modes defined in the 802.11g PHY layer?

4. What are the three parts of an 802.11a PLCP frame? Describe them briefly.

5. Describe the approach that 802.11n (HT) takes to the implementation of the PHY layer.

6. What is MIMO technology? Include beamforming and spatial multiplexing in your answer.

7. What is the channel configuration of 802.11n and how does it help achieve higher data rates?

8. What is the guard interval and what does it help prevent?

9. What are wireless controllers and why are they important in WLANs?

10. What is 802.11i and what aspect of WLANs does it deal with?